Maternity Nursing

REVIEW
Name:____________________________________________

SCORE:_______________

Write the letter of the correct answer beside each number. GOD BLESS!

1. The nursing intervention to relieve pain in breast engorgement while the mother continues to breastfeed
is :
A. Apply cold compress on the engorged breast
B. Apply warm compress on the engorged breast
C. Massage the breast
D. Apply analgesic ointment

2. An infant who weighs 8 lbs. at birth would be expected to weigh how many pounds at one year?
A. 14 lbs.
B. 16 lbs.
C. 18 lbs.
D. 24 lbs.

3. During the Postpartum Period, the fundus of the uterus is expected to go down normally about __ cm per
day.

A.1.0 cm
B.2.0 cm
C.2.5 cm
D.3.0 cm
4. A primigravida, age 42, is 6 weeks pregnant. Based on the clients age, her infant is at risk for:

A. Down syndrome
B. Respiratory Distress Syndrome
C. Turners syndrome
D. Pathologic Jaundice
5. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at 12 weeks gestation, the nurse would use which of the
following?
A. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
B. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region

C. Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus and the xiphoid process
D. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the umbilicus
6. When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant client who states, I had a son born at 38 weeks gestation,
a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks,the nurse should record her
obstetrical history as which of the following?
A. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
B. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
C. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
D. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
7. A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, Im constipated all the time! Which of the following should
the nurse recommend?
A. Daily enemas
B. Laxatives
C. Increased fiber intake
D. Decreased fluid intake
8. The hormone responsible for a positive pregnancy test is:
A.Estrogen
B.Progesterone
C.Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D.Follicle Stimulating hormone
9. The nursing intervention to relieve morning sickness in a pregnant woman is by giving
A.Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
B.Low sodium diet
C.Intravenous infusion
D.Antacid
10. The following are skin changes in pregnancy EXCEPT:
A.Chloasma
B.Striae gravidarum
C.Linea negra
D.Chadwick's sign
11. Nurse Najib is monitoring the progress of a client in labor. Which finding should nurse Najib immediately
report to the physician?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Presence of Scant bloody discharge

Frequent urination
Presence of green-tinged amniotic fluid
Moderate uterine contractions

12. Nurse Kevz is reviewing the record of a pregnant client for her first prenatal visit. Which of the following
data, if noted on the clients record, would alert the nurse that the client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion?
a. Age 36 years

b. History of syphilis
c. History of genital herpes
d. History of diabetes mellitus
13. Nurse Jeff is teaching a diabetic pregnant client about nutrition and insulin needs during pregnancy. The
nurse determines that the client understands dietary and insulin needs if the client states that the second half
of pregnancy require:
a. Decreased caloric intake
b. Increased caloric intake
c. Decreased Insulin
d. Increase Insulin
14. During vaginal examination of Janah who is in labor, the presenting part is at station plus two. Nurse,
correctly interprets it as:
a. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the ischial spines.
b. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the ischial spines.
c. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial spines.
d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial spines.
15. Dana had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. She is aware that her baby will have protection
against tetanus for
a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. Lifetime
16. The nurse explains to a breastfeeding mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of the babys nutrient
needs only up to:
a. 5 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
17. After reviewing the Kims maternal history of magnesium sulfate during labor, which condition would
nurse Nica anticipate as a potential problem in the neonate?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Jitteriness
c. Respiratory depression
d. Tachycardia
18. The nursing measure to relieve fetal distress due to maternal supine hypotension is:
A.Place the mother on semi-fowlers position
B.Put the mother on left side lying position
C.Place mother on a knee chest position
D.Any of the above

19. To prevent preterm labor from progressing, drugs are usually prescribed to halt the labor. The drugs
commonly given are:
A.Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B.Prostaglandin and oxytocin
C.Progesterone and estrogen
D.Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
20. Before giving a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate to a pre-eclamptic patient, the nurse should assess the
patients condition. Which of the following conditions will require the nurse to temporarily suspend a repeat
dose of magnesium sulfate?
A.100 cc. urine output in 4 hours
B.Knee jerk reflex is (+)2
C.Serum magnesium level is 10mEg/L.
D.Respiratory rate of 16/min
21. Which of the following is TRUE in Rh incompatibility?
A.The condition can occur if the mother is Rh(+) and the fetus is Rh(-)
B.Every pregnancy of an Rh(-) mother will result to erythroblastosis fetalis
C.On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother, the fetus will not be affected
D.RhoGam is given only during the first pregnancy to prevent incompatibility
22. The ideal site for vitamin K injection in the newborn is:
A.Right upper arm
B.Left upper arm
C.Either right or left buttocks
D.Middle third of the thigh
23. At what APGAR score at 5 minutes after birth should resuscitation be initiated?
A.1-3
B.7-8
C.9-10
D.6-7
24. After how many weeks after delivery should a woman have her postpartal check-up based on the protocol
followed by the DOH?
A.2 weeks
B.3 weeks
C.6 weeks
D.12 weeks
25. The following are nursing interventions to relieve episiotomy wound pain EXCEPT
A.Giving analgesic as ordered
B.Sitz bath
C.Perineal heat
D.Perineal care

26. The client with Hyperemesis gravidarum is at risk for developing_______

A.
B.
C.
D.

Respiratory Alkalosis with dehydration

Metabolic Acidosis with dehydration
Respiratory Acidosis without dehydration
Metabolic Alkalosis with dehydration

27. To promote comfort during labor, the nurse John advises a client to assume certain positions and avoid
others. Which position may cause maternal hypotension and fetal hypoxia?
a. Lateral position
b. Squatting position
c. Supine position
d. Standing position
28. Riz, a primigravida client, age 20, has just completed a difficult, forceps-assisted delivery of twins. Her
labor was unusually long and required oxytocin (Pitocin) augmentation. The nurse who's caring for her should
stay alert for:
a. Uterine inversion
b. Uterine atony
c. Uterine involution
d. Uterine discomfort
29. The neonatal circulation differs from the fetal circulation because
A.The fetal lungs are non-functioning as an organ and most of the blood in the fetal circulation is mixed blood.
B.The blood at the left atrium of the fetal heart is shunted to the right atrium to facilitate its passage to the
lungs
C.The blood in left side of the fetal heart contains oxygenated blood while the blood in the right side contains
unoxygenated blood.
D.None of the above
30. The normal umbilical cord is composed of:
A.2 arteries and 1 vein
B.2 veins and 1 artery
C.2 arteries and 2 veins
D.none of the above
31. When doing perineal care in preparation for delivery, the nurse should observe the following EXCEPT
A.Use up-down technique with one stroke
B.Clean from the mons veneris to the anus
C.Use mild soap and warm water
D.Paint the inner thighs going towards the perineal area
32. The peak point of a uterine contraction is called the
A.Acceleration
B.Acme
C.Deceleration
D.Axiom

33. Upon assessment, nurse Eloisa got the following findings: 2 perineal pads highly saturated with blood
within 2 hours post partum, PR= 80 bpm, fundus soft and boundaries not well defined. The appropriate
nursing diagnosis is:
A.Normal blood loss
B.Blood volume deficiency
C.Inadequate tissue perfusion related to hemorrhage
D.Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony
34. The mechanisms involved in fetal delivery is
A.Descent, extension, flexion, external rotation
B.Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation
C.Flexion, internal rotation, external rotation, extension
D.Internal rotation, extension, external rotation, flexion
35. A client tells the doctor that she is about 20 weeks pregnant. The most definitive sign of her pregnancy is:
A.
B.
C.
D.

Elevated HCG
Presence of fetal heart tone
Uterine enlargement
Breast enlargement and tenderness

36. The doctor suspects that the client has an ectopic pregnancy. Which symptom is consistent with a
diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Painless vaginal bleeding

Abdominal cramping
Throbbing pain in the upper quadrant
Sudden, stabbing pain in the lower quadrant

37. For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need to take the pill
at the same time each day to accomplish which of the following?
A. Decrease the incidence of nausea
B. Maintain hormonal levels
C. Reduce side effects
D. Prevent drug interactions
38. When teaching a client about contraception. Which of the following would the nurse include as the most
effective method for preventing sexually transmitted infections?
A. Spermicides
B. Diaphragm
C. Condoms
D. Vasectomy
39. Which of the following would be the nurses most appropriate response to a client who asks why she must
have a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta previa?
A. You will have to ask your physician when he returns.
B. You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.

C. The placenta is covering most of your cervix.

D. The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and blocking your baby.

40. The nurse understands that the fetal head is in which of the following positions with a face presentation?
A. Completely flexed
B. Completely extended
C. Partially extended
D. Partially flexed
41. A patient is in labor and has just been told she has a breech presentation. The nurse should be particularly
alert for which of the following?
A. Quickening
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Pica
D. Prolapsed umbilical cord

42. When describing dizygotic twins to a couple, on which of the following would the nurse base the
explanation?
A. Two ova fertilized by separate sperm
B. Sharing of a common placenta
C. Each ova with the same genotype
D. Sharing of a common chorion

43. Which of the following refers to the single cell that reproduces itself after conception?
A. Chromosome
B. Blastocyst
C. Zygote
D. Trophoblast
44. The nurse measures the circumference of the neonates heads and chest, and then explains to the mother
that when the two measurements are compared, the head is normally about
a) The same size as the chest.
b) 2 centimeter larger than the chest.
c) 2 centimeter smaller than the chest.
d) 4 centimeter larger than chest.
45. The lochia on the first few days after delivery is characterized as
A.Pinkish with some blood clots
B.Whitish with some mucus
C.Reddish with some mucus
D.Serous with some brown tinged mucus

46. Lochia normally disappears after how many days postpartum?

A.5 days
B.7-10 days
C.18-21 days
D.28-30 days
47. Vasectomy is a procedure done on a male for sterilization. The organ involved in this procedure is
A.Prostate gland
B.Seminal vesicle
C.Testes
D.Vas deferens

48. Breast self examination is best done by the woman on herself every month during
A.The middle of her cycle to ensure that she is ovulating
B.During the menstrual period
C.Right after the menstrual period so that the breast is not being affected by the increase in hormones
particularly estrogen
D.Just before the menstrual period to determine if ovulation has occurred
49. Postpartum blues is said to be normal provided that the following characteristics are present. These are
1. Within 3-10 days only;
2. Woman exhibits the following symptoms- episodic tearfulness, fatigue, oversensitivity, poor appetite;
3. Maybe more severe symptoms in primpara
A.All of the above
B.1 and 2
C.2 only
D.2 and 3
50. The anterior fontanelle is characterized as:
A.3-4 cm antero-posterior diameter and 2-3 cm transverse diameter, diamond shape
B.2-3 cm antero-posterior diameter and 3-4 cm transverse diameter and diamond shape
C.2-3 cm in both antero-posterior and transverse diameter and diamond shape
D.none of the above