SAMPLE GOM QUESTIONS (20 Feb 2007)

(FOR REFERENCE ONLY-WILL NOT BE UPDATED)

1. (01.01.09). What is Virgin Americas Philosophy?

A. Safety-To meet and exceed every safety standard. Safety is the most
important aspect of Virgin Americas operation.
B. Guest Care-to provide a guest experience beyond expectation.
C. Efficiency- to provide our Guests with the greatest value available in the
industry.
2. (01.01.14). After starting a trip, where would you find Flight Operation Bulletins
(FOBs)?
FOBs issued in the Remarks Section of the dispatch release.
3. (02.02.09). What are the restrictions on the use of intoxicants?

While on duty
Within 12 hours prior to reporting for duty
While in company uniform regardless of whether or not the individual is
on duty or off duty.

4. (02.03.02). What are the crewmember required certificates and equipment?

Airman Certificate
Current medical certificate
Virgin American company identification
Flashlight-minimum 2D cell batteries or equivalent (if not in Aircraft).
Passport

5. (02.03.02.04). What are the requirements to land at a special airport?

One crewmember has made an entry into that airport within the preceding
12 months.
Read, study, and have in their possession Jeppesen Airport Qualification
Charts for that airport.
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(These restrictions are not applicable if the ceiling is 1,000 feet above the
lowest MEA or MOCA or initial approach altitude and visibility is at least
three miles).
6. (02.03.02.05). After declaring an emergency, what form must you submit to the
Senior Vice President of Flight Operations?
ASR Form
7. (02.06.02). Where would you find procedures if it is verified that a life vest is
missing or damaged?
Minimum Equipment List Procedures
8. (02.07.01). What messages can you send via ACARS?
Only operational messages pertinent to the current trip
9. (02.09.02.01). Can you leave the aircraft unattended at the gate?
NO (unless aircraft is secured)
10. (02.15.01). What is the minimum number of ITMs for an intermediate stop with
guests on board?
One
11. (02.16.01). Can a captain occupy the right seat during line operations?
Captain must be trained and qualified in the right seat.
12. (02.18.01.08). When must you use headsets and boon microphones?
Below 18,000 feet
13. (02.18.01.21). Above what altitude must you don the O2 mask if one pilot leaves
their station?
FL 250

14. (02.19.01.06). When must the captain make all takeoffs and landings with a Low
Time First Officer?

Runway: Contaminated with water, snow, slush, or similar conditions

which may adversely affect aircraft performance.
RVR is reported 4000 or less (3/4 mile).
Braking action is less than Good.
Crosswind is greater than 15 knots.
Special Qualification Airport.
Windshear reported.
Other circumstances as determined by the Captain.

15. (05.02.01). When must crew members be on the aircraft?

45 minutes prior to departure
16. (05.02.02.02). How many emergency medical kits does Virgin America carry?
2 (only one required)
17. (05.08.01). What forms are required to be on board?

Airworthiness release
Aircraft Flight Log
Aircraft Maintenance Log
Deferred Maintenance Log
Flight Release
Weight and Balance Form
Passenger Manifest
Aircraft Registration
Certificate of Insurance
Radio Operators License (or Fleet License)
Accident/Incident/Occurrence Forms

18. (05.08.02.02). What manuals are required to be on board?

GOM*
GMM*
Federal Aviation Regulations*
QRH (hard copy/printed format)
MEL*
FCOM*
FM A-319*
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FM A-320*
Jeppesen Approach Plates*
Performance Pro User Guide*
GM*
De-Ice Manual*
IFM (*flight crew/Printed copy for ITMs)
Operations Specifications*
(*electronic format in the EFB)

19. (05.09.02). When is the Captain (PIC) of a flight responsible for verifying that he
has received an Amended Flight Release?
A change is made to:
T.O. Min fuel quantity
Gate Release fuel quantity (decrease only). (A variance is allowed. See
fuel variance for a detailed description).
Destination
Alternate(s)
Aircraft tail number
MEL/CDL items
Remarks or content that could affect the scheduled flight
20. (05.11.02). What is the fuel requirement for domestic operations?

To fly to the airport to which dispatched;

Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where
required) for the airport to which dispatched; and
Thereafter to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.

21. (05.11.05). What is the gate release fuel variance?

500 pounds or 1% of the Gate Release fuel load (whichever is greater).
22. (05.11.06). Are Guests allowed onboard during fueling? (YES):

Jet bridge or air stairs must be connected to aircraft.

Main cabin door must remain open.
Minimum of 3 ITMs/1 ITM during intermediate stop.
No smoking regulations must be enforced.
If fuel vapors are detected, Pilots or ITMs must notify fueling crew.
ITMs may conduct food and/or beverage services provided exit(s) remain
unobstructed.
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23. (05.11.07). Who is responsible for entering the actual fuel on board into ACARS?
The Captain (PIC):
After fueling is complete.
Fuel load is verified to be within allowable variance.
Each flight deck crewmember has confirmed correct fuel load.
24. (05.11.08). Is a completed fuel slip required to be on board?
YES (except when an unscheduled landing at other than the originally scheduled
airport).
25. (05.11.11). When verifying the fuel vendors fuel load, what are the tolerances?

150 gallons, or
600 liters

26. (05.15.04). Does the Guest Service count have to match the final weight and
balance form?
May vary by +/- 2
27. (05.15.07.01). How often should the Captain (PIC) advise the guest as to the
current status of delays?
Every 15 minutes
28. (05.15.07.02). When must the Captain (PIC) advise the Controlling Dispatcher of
any delay?
Any delay of 15 minutes or more.
29. (05.17.02). If in doubt of safe passage while on the ground, what should the flight
crew do?
Stop the Aircraft
30. (05.18.04.01). How should the Captain stop the pushback?
a. State Stop Pushback.
b. Hand signal.
c. Momentarily flashing the nose taxi light.
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31. (05.18.07). Can the engines be started during pushback when using hand signals?
No. Do not start an engine until the tug is disconnected and the Flight Crew is
notified.
32. (05.19.02. Does Virgin America operate into or out of an airport if the Airport
Traffic Control Tower is not operational?
No
33. (05.19.04.02). When is Surface Movement Guidance and Control Systems
(SMGCS) procedures activated?
RVR is less than 1200
34. (05.19.04.04). What marks the boundary between a movement and non-movement
taxi area?
A set of double yellow lines, dashed on the movement side and solid on the nonmovement side.
35. (05.21.01.01). When must the Captain (PIC) conduct the takeoff (ground roll
through clean-up)?

1600 ft RVR (for any RVR on that runway).

statute mile (if no RVR is reported for that runway).

36. (05.21.03). Are intersection takeoffs allowed?

When airport analysis takeoff data is available.
37. (05.21.04). Are operations allowed on runways less than 6,000 feet in length?
(YES):
a. The runway is not contaminated by ice, standing water, slush, wet or dry snow.
b. There is no tailwind.
c. Wind conditions make it a more desirable operation.
38. (05.21.06). What is the minimum altitude for turns?
400 feet unless:
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Air traffic Control purposes.

Specific Engine Failure procedures during Takeoff.
Missed Approach procedures.
Either a specific point or the term turn as soon as practical or feasible is
used when a turn below 400 feet AGL is operationally required.

39. (05.22.02.03). When must the Fasten Seatbelt sign be on?

During pushback, taxi, takeoff/landing operations, and when moderate or greater
turbulence is anticipated.
40. (05.22.06). During holding and when time permits what should the Captain (PIC)
do?

Advise the Dispatcher of holding fix, EFC time, and fuel on board via
ACARS.
Advise the ITMs of anticipate hold time, reason for the hold, updated
ETA, and other pertinent information.
Advise the guest of anticipated hold time, reason for the hold, updated
ETA, and any other pertinent information.

41. (05.22.07.01). The pilot will receive an ECAM message if the internal altimetry
system indicates a difference of 250 between systems. When are you required to
make a logbook entry?

The associated ECAM message is received or if notified by ATC of an

altitude error of over 300 feet.
An error greater than 245 is found between primary altimeters.
Any altimeter cross check exceeds the FCOM 03.04.34 values.

42. (05.22.07.02). What is the required equipment to operate in RSVM airspace?

Two (2) primary altimeters

One (1) autopilot altitude hold
One (1) altitude-alert system
One (1) transponder

43. (05.22.07.04). In RVSM airspace, limit climb and descent rates to _________ feet
per minute (fpm) when operating within__________NM and___________feet of
other aircraft to minimize the generation of TAs and RAs.
1000fpm/5NM/2000feet
44. (05.23.02). Approximately _________minutes prior to landing the flight deck will
make a guest communication informing guest that the aircraft has started its initial
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descent and that the fasten seat belt sign will be turned on shortly, if not already
turned on.
20 minutes
45. (05.24.01.01). What approach category are Virgin America A319 and A320
aircraft?
Category C
46. (05.24.04). Virgin America must use dual flight directors or a single flight director
and a coupled autopilot for CAT I ILS approaches when visibility is less than
_______ mile or__________ RVR.
mile or 4000 RVR
47. (05.24.07.01). When performing a circling maneuver, the reported ceiling must be
____________ feet or higher; and the reported visibility_____ miles or greater; or
the published visibility, whichever is higher.
1,000/3
48. (05.24.09.05). What are the stabilized approach parameters?
Below 1,000 feet AFE, the aircraft is:
On proper flight path (visual or electronic) with only small changes in
pitch and heading required to maintain that path.
At a speed no less than Vref and not greater than Vref + 20 (except when
complying with Airbus FMGC-generated speed) allowing for transitory
conditions, with engines spooled up.
In trim
In an approved landing configuration.
49. (05.24.11). When do you execute a missed approach?

Arrival at the MAP or DH and visual reference to the runway environment

is insufficient to complete the landing.
A safe landing is not possible.
Instructed by ATC.
Any required airborne or ground equipment becomes inoperative during a
Category II/III approach. (Note: A manual landing may be executed on the
approach providing CAT I conditions or better exist and the required CAT
I equipment is operational).
Course deviation becomes excessive
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50. (05.24.11.02). What is excessive course deviation on an approach?

VOR - deviation of the CDI of + 5o (excluding station passage).

CAT I ILS - scale deflection of the CDI and/or glide slope indicator
between final approach fix and the appropriate minimums.
RNAV - Lateral + .1 NM, Vertical + 1 dot.

51. (05.24.11.06). When reaching the MDA or DA (H) what visual references for the
intended runway must be distinctly visible and identifiable?
At least one of the following:
Approach light system, (Exception: a pilot may not descend below 100 ft.
above touchdown zone elevation unless the red terminating bars, or the red
side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable).
Threshold or threshold markings or threshold lights,
Touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings or touchdown zone lights,
or Runway end identifier lights,
Visual approach slope indicator, or
Runway or runway markings or runway lights.
52. (05.24.12.01). During a visual approach, should you remain at or above any
existing electronic glideslope (ILS, PAPI, VASI, etc) that is available?
YES
53. (05.24.14.05). Before accepting LAHSO clearance the Captain (PIC) must ensure
what?

The Operations Specifications authorize Land and Hold Short Operations

by reviewing the Authorizations contained in the GM Operations
Specifications.
The Pilots are trained and qualified to conduct Land and Hold Short
Operations.
There is no INOP equipment adversely affecting stopping capability.
The aircraft is below maximum landing weight.

54. (05.25.07.02). Can the Captain (PIC) taxi into the gate area if any ground
equipment is over the clearance line or intruding into the vacant gate area?
NO. (Exception: Ground power and stationary hydrant fuel units are allowed
when confined to the designated boxed area.)
55. (05.25.10.02). When must the Captain (PIC) ensure that the parking brakes
remain on by physically checking and verifying that the switch is ON?
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Parked on a slope
Parked on icy or snow-covered ramp
High or gusty winds are expected
When requested to do so by ramp personnel

56. (06.07.01.01). What procedures should you follow if there is communication

failure while operating in IFR conditions?
The flight will continue by the route and at the altitude or flight lever specified in
the ATC clearance to the destination airport. At the expected approach clearance
time, the Captain (PIC) should descend from the assigned altitude and execute the
instrument approach.
57. (06.08.02.01). When do you declare an emergency?

When in a distress condition

A flight cannot definitely establish its position
Aircraft component failure jeopardizes flight safety
Aircraft is endangered by fire, in-flight medical emergency requiring a
diversion.
Any contingency jeopardizing flight safety

58. (06.09.01.02). During an emergency what do the letters NTSB refer to?
NNATURE OF THE EMERGENCY
TTIME TO PREPARE
SSPECIAL INSTRUCTIONS
BBRACE SIGNAL
59. (06.09.02.01). What term is used to indicate the pilot of an aircraft wishes to give
notice of difficulties which compel it to land without requiring immediate
assistance?
PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN
60. (06.09.02.02). What term is used to indicate grave and imminent danger threatens
and immediate assistance is requested?
MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
61. (06.10.01.03). What is the order for choosing diversion airports?

Virgin America on-line

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Commercial
Military
Private

62. (06.10.01.06). What is the minimum diversion fuel?

Fuel should not be less than the fuel burn to the diversion airport plus reserve.
63. (06.10.02.01). Prior to any medical diversions, the Captain (PIC) will contact
MedLink and the controlling dispatcher. True/False
True
64. (06.11.01.01). If actual fuel consumption is greater than planned, the Captain
(PIC) may do what?

Change speed, route and/or altitude to reduce consumption.

Amend the release by eliminating the alternate if conditions permit.
Amend the release by revising the alternate to a nearer airport.
Divert to an airport within fuel range.

65. (06.11.01.03). If projected fuel consumption will result in landing with less than
30 minutes of fuel remaining, declare an emergency. True/false
True
66. (06.13.03.04). Only in an emergency may a flight land at an airport not authorized
for use in normal operations. True/False
True
67. (06.14.02.03). When might an In-Flight Team member initiate an evacuation?

Severe structural damage

Threatening fire or smoke
No response from the flight deck

68. (06.15.01.04). Is a log book entry required if the aircraft is subjected to unusual
stress or strain which may result in structural damage? Yes/No
Yes

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69. (06.18.01.02). Can a tripped circuit breaker be reset in flight?

No, unless consistent with explicit procedures outlined in the FCOM or QRH, or
unless the Captain (PIC) deems the reset necessary to safely complete the flight.
70. (07.02.03.01). At the Captains discretion, the use of approved portable electronic
devices (including cellular phones) until the aircraft is at the departure runway is
authorized. True/False
TRUE
71. (07.03.02). What is a CRO?
COMPLAINTS RESOLUTION OFFICIAL (Refer questions/conflicts regarding
transportation of guests with disability or service animals to the CRO.)
72. (07.03.04.04) Can an abusive or disorderly guests who appear to be intoxicated,
denied transportation?
YES
73. (GOM Chapter 7). What chapter would you find guidance and examples of Guest
Care/Guest services/Guest communications?
74. (08.01.06.02). You may not operate an aircraft after maintenance, preventive
maintenance or alterations are performed on the aircraft unless?

An airworthiness release; or
An appropriate entry in the aircraft log

75. (08.04.01). The Captain (PIC) is responsible for determining that the aircraft is in
an airworthy condition prior to each flight. True/False
TRUE
76. (08.08.01). The Captain (PIC) is the final authority for the safe operation of the
flight. If the Captain (PIC) determines that the flight may not be operated safely,
the flight may not depart. True/False
TRUE
77. (08.11.01.01). What does an O in the remarks section of the MEL indicate?
Indicates an operational procedure

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78. (09.08.02.07). Precipitation Accumulation: Operations will cease when

accumulations on operating runway surfaces exceed what?

Dry snowup to 2 inches

Wet snow/slush/standing water (up to inch)

79. (09.08.02.10). What is the minimum width a runway must be plowed for takeoff
and landing?
100 feet (taxiways 75 feet minimum)
80. (09.09.01.01). Radar is required anytime a flight will be conducted under IFR or
night VFR conditions and there is forecasted or reported convective activity along
the intended route of flight. True/False
TRUE
81. (09.09.05.06). What are the alternate weather minimum requirements?
FACILITY
1 navigational aid
2 or more navigational aids

CEILING
CAT I HAT + 400 ft
CAY I HAT to the higher of the
two approaches at + 200 ft

VISIBILITY
CAT I visibility minimum + 1 sm
CAT I visibility minimum to the
higher CAT I landing minimum of
the two approaches used +
1/2 sm

82. (09.09.05.08). What are the distance and altitude planning factors used for a
takeoff alternate?
A319373 NM/ 11,000 feet
A320368 NM/ 10,000 feet
83. (09.09.05.10). A destination alternate must be declared for all domestic IFR
flights when the forecasted or reported ceiling and visibility at ETA +/- 1 hr is less
than?

Ceiling: 2,000 ft above airport elevation and

Visibility: 3 sm

84. (09.09.05.11). Do not start an instrument approach when visibility is reported to

be less than mile (RVR 4000), unless?

Wet runway required landing distance is available (whether runway is wet

or dry) (Add 15% to day landing requirements),

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Precision instrument (all weather) runway marking or runway centerline

lights are available,

All required airborne and ground equipment are operational, and

Winds are within limits.

85. ( 09.11.02.04). Condensation frost, up to 1/8 inch, caused by cold fuel in the
tanks is permitted on the lower wing surface between the front and rear spars
(bottom of fuel tank). True/False
TRUE
86. (09.11.02.04). Do not takeoff or land in?

Freezing rain
Heavy freezing rain
Heavy freezing drizzle

87. (GOM Chapter 9, Section 13). Where would you find information on ground
de/anti-icing program?
GOM, Chapter 9, Section 13
88. (10.01.03). What is a GSC?
Ground Security Coordinator--(A GSC must be present at the airport while
security measures for departing flights are being carried out).
89. (10.01.13.04). A minimum of ________ law enforcement officer must control a
low risk prisoner on flights scheduled for 4 hours or less.
One (2 for flights scheduled for 4 hours or more)

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