COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013

Dr. Fortuno
1. Antigen that define immunity to influenza:
a. N antigen
b. H antigen
c. M1
d. M2
2. Requires large inoculums to produce diarrhea: vibrio cholera
3. Coartem is a cobination of arthemeter and lumefantrine. It requires fat, why?
a. Arthemeter metabolized by liver
b. Fat increases viability and absorption of artemeter
c. Fat increases absorption of lumefantrine
d. Coartem develops nausea and vomiting after taking.
4. This antibiotic given for malaria can cause Clostridium deficile associated diarrhea esp. in
hospitalized individuals
a. Mefloquine
b. Doxycycline
c. Quinine
d. Primaquine

Dr. Yapendon B1
1. WHO HIV Stage 2 except:
a. Herpes Zoster
b. Weight loss >10%
c. Recurrent oral ulcer
d. Seborrhic Dermatitis
2. WHO HIV Stage 1:
a. oral leukoplakia
b. extrapulmonary TB
c. lymphadenopathy
d. OC
3. Conjunctival suffusion, calf tenderness
a. MAT (+)
b. Leptospirosis unlikely
c. Increase crea, increase albumin
d. Influenza
4. Management of case above
a. OPD mgt
b. AA
c. IV Penicillin
d. limit water intake
5. Related to HIV except:
a. Kaposi sarcoma

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013

b. NHL (EBV)
c. Cervical CA
d. oropharyngeal CA
6. Favors early or rapid initiation of ART except:
a. Acute recent infection
b. Pregnancy
c. Coinfection of HCV or HBV
d. Anemia
7. Treatment for nave HIV patient:
a. 2 NRTI + 1 NNRTI
b. 3 NRTI
c. 1 NRTI + 2 NNRTI
d. 2NRTI + 1pi
8. True of pathogenesis of tetanospasmin
a. promotes release of excitatory NT
b. responsible for inhibition of release of ACH
c. promotes release of inhibitory NT
d. promotes release of GABA & glycine
9. True of clinical course of tetanus:
a. longer onset, poorer prognosis
b. shorter IP poorer prognosis
c. Shorter IP better prognosis
d. longer onset, better prognosis
10. True of spatula test:
a. highly sensitive and specific
b. (+) if ____ relaxed
c. ?
d. severe tetanus
11. True of cephalic tetanus:
CN VII, ears involved
12. 40, female with DM underwent cholecystectomy with complete regimen of immunization and
last booster was >12 years ago. What will you give?
a. TAT + TIg
b. TAT alone
c. TIg alone
d. ?
13. Prodrome phase of rabies:
a. paresthesia
b. hydrophobia
c. aerophobia
d. priapism
14. best diagnostic tool for tetanus:

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013

a. ??
b. PCR
c. culture
d. clinical manifestation
15. best diagnostic tool for rabies:
a. diagnostic imaging
b. CSF culture
c. PCR
d. clinical manifestation
16. Pathophysiology of tetanus:
a. The release of inhibitory NT like glycine and GABA is regulated by tetanospasmin
b. Preventing the release of inihibitory NT in the synapse of neuron
c. Paradoxical weakness of muscles innervated by CN due to tetanospasmin
d. Transported solely by the axon
17. Complications of leptospirosis except:
a. Choriouvenitis
b. Pancreatitis
c. Cholecystitis
d. Otitis media
18. Drug with favorable effect for autonomic dysfunction in tetanus
a. Lorazepam
b. Diazepam
c. Magnesium sulfate
d. Chlorpromazine
19. Dog suddenly became aggressive, with drooling of saliva and biting of cage. Upon feeding
the dog, the saliva was splashed into the right eye. Which is correct?
a. Vaccination + Ig
b. wash thoroughly for 15 minutes
c. vaccine alone
d. ??
20. Case about rabies: if the patient completed pre and post exposure vaccines 3 years ago
what will you recommend?
a. give the standard post exposure vaccine or IG
b. Give the standard pre exposure vaccine (0-7-21- 28)
c. Give 2 dose of vaccine (0-3)
d. Give 1 dose of vaccine
21. True of Rabies:
a. prognosis is good
b. antiviral drugs is therapeutic
c. imaging studies differentiates it with other viral encephalitis
d. diagnosis is clinical
22. Correct statement on PEP of rabies:
a. C/I in pregnancy and immunocompromised

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013

b. does not confer lifelong immunity
c. stop progression of encephalitis
d. Antibody titre is present WITHIN 1 week
23. Hepatitis that is sexually, feco-orally but not parenterally transmitted:
a. Hepa A
b. Hepa B
c. Hepa C
d. Hepa E

24. Not related with HCC

a. HBV
b. HCV
c. HDV
d. HEV
25. Management of chronic hepa B
a. ALT is 1x upper limit of ______ tx is deferred
b. ALT is 2x lesser limit of HbeAg (-) tx is considered
c. ALT is 2x upper limit of ______, HBV DNA 300,000 units tx is recommended
d. ALT is 1x upper limit of HbE, HbDNA 900 units tx is considered
26. Management of leprosy:
a. Rifampicin
b. Azithromycin
c. Thalidomide
d. A&B e. A&C
27. true about diagnosis of tetanus:
a. C. tetani growth from tissue
b. tetanospasmin
c. CSF is part of the diagnosis
d. Diagnosis is based on signs and symptoms
28. Chronic hepatitis:
a. interferon
b. PEG A + ribavirin
c. interferon + NRTI
------------------------Dr. Yapendon B2
1. Fever and jaundice for 1 week. History of percutaneous injection. Ate oyster 1 month ago.
a. Hepatitis A unlikely
b. Cholecystitis
c. Hepatitis E
d. Either B or C
2. Drugs used to control autonomic dysfunction and muscle spasms in tetanus

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013

a. Diazepam
b. Lorazepam
c. MgSO4
d. Phenobarbital
3. Best antibacterial for tetanus
a. Metronidazole
b. Clindamycin
c. Tetracycline
d. Macrolides
4. While preparing an intravenous medication, the nurse accidentally needleprick herself.
Tetanus vaccine is uncertain, born in mountainous place in Mindanao, health service is poor.
a. No need for post exposure vaccine
b. Initiate tetanus vaccine plus tetanus IG
c. Give tetanus vaccine
d. Administer AST or TIG
5. Following signs are seen in severe tetanus, except:
a. Opisthotonus
b. Trismus
c. Arrhythmia
d. Excessive sweating

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013

Dr. Matti
1. Antimicrobial in vitro susceptibility example:
a. Oxacillin-MRSA
b. Ceftriaxone
c. Azythromycin-chlamydia
2. (Modified true or false) Agents of asplenic
a. Streph pneumonia
b. Staph aureus
c. N. Meningitidis
d. H. Influenza
e. Pseudomonas
3. Which does not require treatment of sexual partners? Bacterial vaginalis
4. STI not transmitted following HIV
a.GU
b.Chancroid
c.Syphilitic ulcers
d.HPV
5. True of catheter-associated UTI Biofilm formation is central to its pathogenesis
6. Acute infection followed by quiescent phase in which the cells survive, no infectious virus is
detectable, and then followed by recurrent episodes of virus reactivation occurs is:
a.Lytic infection
b.Abortive infection
c.Chronic infection
d.Latent infection
7. Multinucleated giant cell seen in Tzanck smear
8. Case: Pharyngitis, lymphadenopathy, rashes EBV
9. In this patient, what is the higher risk in developing this type of cancer Hodgkins
lymphoma
10. Not sexually transmitted Bacterial vaginosis
11. Tuberculosis
a. Airborne precaution
b. Contact prec
c. Droplet prec
d. Airborne and contact prec
e. Droplet and contact prec
12. Varicella
a. Airborne precaution
b. Contact prec
c. Droplet prec
d. airborne and contact prec

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013

e. droplet and contact prec
13. True about Herpes virus
a. sleeping
b. HSV1 and 2 and VZV more cytopathic than CMV & EBV
c. more humoral than cytotoxic
d. _________
14. H. influenza--what protects the virus?
A. N antigen
B. H antigen
C. M1
D. M2
15. Correct on Post exposure prophylaxis of rabies?
a. contraindicated in pregnancy and immunocompromised
b. does not
c. stop progression of encephalitis
d.????
16. EBV risk Hodgkins
17. CMV pneumonitis is common in organ transplant patients
18. HIV pc developed brown-black noduleat the back of right leg HHV 8
19. Tzanck smear shows multinucleated giant cells cause: VSZ
20. Female with 2 weeks history of yellow discharge which is fishy odor, wet prep revealed
ovoid shaped protozoa, what is your treatment of choice Metronidazole
21. STI that does not transmit HIV HPV
22. Female with vesicular lesions on erythematous base on the vulva, and with dysuria
cause: HSV 2
23. Female with sore throat, red irritated eyes and non-productive cough, went swimming in a
community pool cause: adenovirus
24. MC route/mode of transmission of adenovirus fecal-oral
25. Does not cause lower respiratory tract infection Rhinovirus
26. Infective stage of avian flu(H5N1) prodromal stage
27. Inflammation response of sepsis endothelial cellular injury occurs at the infection site
28. Mediator of septic shock nitric oxide
29. Decrease circulating blood volume in sepsis is due to 3rd spacing of fluids

COMMUNICABLE DISEASES 2013

30. Risk of nosocomial infection central line associated-infection at the femoral vein
31. MC health-associated infection catheter associated UTI
32. MC cause of croup parainfluenza virus
33. Organ system involved in adenovirus upper respiratory tract and conjunctiva
34. Best to prevent occurrence of influenza influenza/flu vaccine
35. Endotoxin induced vasodilation Klebsiella pneumonia
36. Female with watery discharge and flagellated organism Trichomoniasis c.
37. Painless ulcer on shaft of penis syphilis
38. Female with dyspareunia, white discharge and itchiness of the vulva candidiasis
39. Female with sq. intraepithelial neoplasia on pap smear HPV
40. Male with urethritis and negative growth on culture: urethral swab (+) numerous pus cells
clamydia