CMS 2008

PAPER-I: GENERAL ABILITY, GENERAL MEDICINE, AND PAEDIATRICS

(1) Which of the following statement is true about Tuberculosis in an HIV-infected patient?
(A) Upper lobe pulmonary cavity disease is an unusual manifestation of tuberculosis
(B) Extra pulmonary tuberculosis is an unusual manifestation of tuberculosis
(C) HIV infected patients with pulmonary tuberculosis are usually diagnosed with positive
sputum smears
(D) Tuberculosis is most common cause for meningitis
(2) Epstein-Barr virus has been associated with the following disorders, except:
(A) Burkitts lymphoma
(B) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
(C) Hairy cell leukaemia
(D) Oral hairy leukoplakia
(3) A 40 year old man presents with loss of libido, lethargy, headache & galactorrhoea. He is
most likely suffering from:
(A) Testicular atrophy
(B) Hyperprolactinaemia
(C) Addisons disease
(D) Adult hypopituitarism
(4) Which one of the following statement is correct :
(A) Most of the individuals with chronic hyperurcaemia develop gout
(B) 90% of patients with gout have under-secretion of uric acid
(C) Gout mostly affects premenopausal females
(D) Drug of choice for acute gout is Allopurinol
(5) Which one of the following features is not true about Wilsons disease?
(A) There is Hepatolenticular degeneration
(B) Autosomal recessive transmission
(C) Serum ceruloplasmin is increased
(D) urinary copper is increased
(6) Which one of the following is associated with shift of potassium into cells?
(A) calcium gluconate administration
(B) IV furosemide
(C) Dialysis
(D) Salbutamol inhalation
(7) Which of the following is not true about bulimia nervosa?
(A) Invariable weight loss with endocrine disorders
(B) Occurrence of both binge eating & inappropriate compensatory behaviour at least twice
weekly, on an average, for 3 months
(C) Recurrent episodes of binge eating
(D) Recurrent self- induced vomiting
(8) Which one of the following is not likely to be a feature in a patient with secondary
hypothyroidism?
(A) Low free T4

(B) Low TSH

(C) Low ACTH
(D) Low prolactin
(9) Hyperkalaemia may be observed in following conditions except:
(A) Renal failure
(B) Primary hypoaldosteronism
(C) Cushings syndrome
(D) Cyclosporine therapy
(10) The following are features of primary adrenal insufficiency except:
(A) Low serum ACTH
(B) Hyponatremia
(C) Hyperkalaemia
(D) Hypotension
(11) The following are complications of cocaine poisoning except:
(A) Angina & myocardial infarction
(B) Epileptic seizures
(C) Hypothermia
(D) Hypertension
(12) Which one of the following disorder is autosomal recessive?
(A) Homocystinuria
(B) G6PD deficiency
(C) Myotonic dystrophy
(D) Otospongiosis
(13) Alports syndrome is characterized by the following except:
(A) Autosomal dominant
(B) Collagen type IV defect
(C) Lenticonus
(D) Sensorineural deafness
(14) Which one of the following is not an alkylating agent?
(A) Melphalan
(B) Methotrexate
(C) Cyclophosphamide
(D) Ifosfamide
(15) The following factors shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the right, except:
(A) Hypoxia
(B) Fever
(C) Increase in 2,3 DPG
(D) Alkalosis
(16) Which one of the following does not cause small vessel vasculitis?
(A) Churg-strauss syndrome
(B) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
(C) Kawasaki disease
(D) Microscopic polyangitis
(17)The following types of cancer commonly metastasize to the central nervous system (CNS)
except:

(A) Ovarian
(B) Breast
(C) Melanoma
(D) Acute lymphoblastic lymphoma
(18) High anion gap metabolic acidosis is seen in :
(A) Uretero-sigmoidostomy
(B) Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism
(C) Proximal(type 2) renal tubular acidosis
(D) Chronic renal failure
(19)The following biochemical markers are a measure of bone resorption except:
(A) Serum alkaline phosphatase
(B) Serum cross-linked N-telopeptide
(C) Serum cross-linked C-telopeptide
(D) Urine deoxy-pyridinoline
(20)Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
(A) Sacroiliitis
(B) Metacarpophalangeal joint involvement
(C) Symmetrical arthritis
(D) Positive rheumatoid factor
(21) Read the following description of a cardiovascular examination :
Cardiac apex is displaced downward & outward with forcible apex & hyperkinetic
precordium. There is no systolic thrill. First sound is masked by systolic murmur. Second
sound is wide split, that becomes wider with inspiration. A third sound is heard at apex.
There is pan systolic murmur heard at apex & also left sternal border. Chest X-ray reveals
elevation of the left bronchus.
Which of the following disorder best suits the description given above?
(A) Ventricular septal defect
(B) Mitral regurgitation
(C) Patent ductus arteriosus
(D) Tricuspid regurgitation
(22)Which of the following is the usual causative organism of bronchiolitis in children?
(A) Hemophilus influenza type B
(B) Respiratory syncytial virus
(C) Para influenza virus type II
(D) Rhinovirus
(23)Consider the following :
1. Bread
2. Noodles
3. Dosa
Which of the above food item should not be given to a child with celiac disease?
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 & 2 only
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 3 only
(24) Which of the following is associated with anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody?

(A) IgA nephropathy

(B) Membranous glomerulonephritis
(C) Goodpasture syndrome
(D) Membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis
(25)Match list I with list II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I
List II
(Haemolytic anaemia)
(Peripheral smear finding)
A. ABO haemolytic disease
1. Microspherocytes
B. G6PD deficiency
2. Heinz bodies
C. Thalassemia
3. Basophilic stippling
D. Rh haemolytic disease
4. Nucleated red cells
CODES:
A B C D
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
(26)Pseudo hypoparathyroidism is characterised by the following except:
(A) Cataract
(B) Index finger longer than middle
(C) Increase in space between fingers
(D) Normal serum calcium level
(27)Massive aminoaciduria without a corresponding increase in plasma amino acid level is
characteristic of which one of the following diseases?
(A) Homocystinuria
(B) Hartnup disease
(C) Tyrosinemia
(D) Maple syrup urine disease
(28)Which of the following antiepileptic drug can be used as mood stabilising drug?
(A) Phenobarbitone
(B) Phenytoin
(C) Sodium valproate
(D) Lamotrigine
(29)Electroconvulsive therapy is currently advocated as line of treatment in the following
conditions except:
(A) Catatonic schizophrenia
(B) Severe depression with psychosis
(C) Maniac depressive psychosis
(D) Obsessive compulsive disorder
(30)Which one of the following is not considered as first rank symptom of schizophrenia?
(A) Auditory hallucination
(B) Insertion of thoughts
(C) Delusional perception
(D) Compulsive acts that relieves the tension
(31)The following are features of MARFANS syndrome except:

(A) Arachnodactaly
(B) Reduced joint mobility
(C) Dislocation of lens
(D) Mitral regurgitation
(32) A 60 year old man with diabetes mellitus presents with painless, swollen right ankle joint.
Radiograph of the ankle shows bony distortion with joint disorganisation & a number of
loose bodies. What is the most probable diagnosis?
(A) Osteoarthritis
(B) Rheumatoid arthritis
(C) Charcots joint
(D) Cluttons joint
(33)Nikolskys sign is characteristic of which one of the following?
(A) Steven-johnson syndrome
(B) Psoriasis
(C) Dariers disease
(D) Pemphigus
(34) The following disease can cause bullous lesions in skin except:
(A) Pemphigus
(B) Impetigo
(C) Toxic epidermal necrolysis
(D) Pityriasis rosea
(35)Causes of pruritus in 3rd trimester of pregnancy include the following except:
(A) Prurigo gestationis
(B) Obstetric cholestasis
(C) Pemphigoid gestationis
(D) Pruritic folliculitis
(36)Which of the following is not consistent with pellagra?
(A) Pellagra can occur in carcinoid syndrome
(B) Diarrhoea & dementia are usual features
(C) Casals necklace may be seen around the neck & upper chest
(D) Response to niacin can be very low in early stages
(37)Praziquantel is an effective drug to treat the following conditions except:
(A) Schistosomiasis
(B) Cysticercosis
(C) Hydatid disease
(D) Trichinosis
(38)INH toxicity may cause the following except:
(A) Psychosis
(B) Nephropathy
(C) Hepatitis
(D) Peripheral neuropathy
(39)Which one of the following is an anticonvulsant of choice for alcohol withdrawal seizures?
(A) Phenytoin
(B) Sodium valproate
(C) Carbamazepine

(D) Benzodiazepine
(40)Which of the following is the preferred drug for treatment of hypertension during
pregnancy:
(A) Enalapril
(B) Prazocin
(C) Indapamide
(D) Alpha methyl dopa
(41)The following drugs have been found to be useful in primary pulmonary hypertension
except:
(A) Calcium channel blocker
(B) Prostacyclins
(C) Beta blockers
(D) Phosphodiesterase V inhibitors (Sildenafil)
(42) The following are considered as stigmata of congenital syphilis except:
(A) Hutchinsons incisors
(B) Saddle nose
(C) Aortic regurgitation
(D) Sabre tibia
(43) Lepromatous leprosy is consistent with the following except:
(A) Type II lepra reaction can occur
(B) Inflammatory reaction is sparse
(C) Loss of sensation occurs late
(D) Surface of the skin lesion is smooth & shiny
(44) Human is the reservoir for which one of the following Rickettsial disease?
(A) Epidemic typhus
(B) Rocky mountain spotted fever
(C) Endemic typhus
(D) Scrub typhus
(45)What is the period of infectivity in measles?
(A) From 7 days before to 7 days after rash
(B) From 3 days before to 5 days after rash
(C) From 9 days before to 12 days after rash
(D) From 5 days before to 9 days after rash
(46)Primary dentition is complete by what age?
(A) 1.5 years
(B) 2.5 years
(C) 3.5 years
(D) 4.5 years
(47) All of the following statement about prenatal steroids are true except:
(A) They cause 50% reduction in respiratory distress syndrome & intra-ventricular
haemorrhage
(B) These are advocated to mothers at risk of preterm delivery at 24-34 weeks of gestation
(C) These can be safely administered to mothers with hypertension & DM
(D) These can be given even in presence of chorioamnionitis clinically
(48)The following factors contribute to hypothermia in preterm babies except:

(A) Decreased subcutaneous fat & brown fat

(B) Large surface area in relation to body weight
(C) Less oxygen consumption
(D) Increased muscular activity
(49) What is the defect in vitamin-D dependent type II rickets?
(A) End-organ resistance to 1,25(OH)2 D
(B) Defective 25 hydroxylation in liver
(C) Defective 1 hydroxylation in kidney
(D) Defective absorption of calcium
(50) You were posted at PHC catering to a population of 1,20,000. In the year 2006, a total
number of 2500 live born babies were delivered. Number of children dying under one year
of age during 2006 was 150. What is the infant mortality rate of this population?
(A) 60
(B) 70
(C) 80
(D) 90
(51) When can a severely malnourished child be safely discharged from the hospital?
(A) The child attains his height for age
(B) The child reaches his ideal weight for height
(C) The child loses edema & starts gaining weight
(D) The child attains weight for his age
(52)

Examine the above pedigree chart. Which one of the following disease is the most likely for
this situation?
(A) Neurofibromatosis
(B) Beta-thalassemia
(C) Colour blindness
(D) Vitamin-D resistant rickets
(53)Consider the following first-aid measures with reference to a child with burns:

(A) Extinguish flames by rolling the pt. On ground

(B) Apply cold water or ice to burn area
(C) Apply a topical medication
(D) Open up the blisters
(54) Hair on end appearance on skull radiograph classically seen in which one of the following
conditions?
(A) Hydrocephalus
(B) Thalassemia
(C) Rickets
(D) Chronic malaria
(55)Match list I & list II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I
List-II
(Tumour)
(Histopathology characteristic)
A. Rhabdomyosarcoma
1. Nodular sclerosing
B. Hodgkins disease
2. Birbecks granules
C. Langerhans cell
3. Small round cells
Histiocytosis
Codes:
A
B
C
(A) 3
1
2
(B) 1
3
2
(C) 3
2
1
(D) 2
1
3
(56)In a child with organo-phosphorous poisoning which one of the following is correct order of
priority in management?
(A) Pralidoxime, diazepam, atropine, clear airway
(B) Clear airway, atropine, diazepam, Pralidoxime
(C) Diazepam, atropine, clear airway, Pralidoxime
(D) Atropine, Pralidoxime, diazepam, clear airway
(57) Measles vaccine at a primary health centre should be stored at which temperature?
(A) 200 C
(B) 00 C
(C) 20 C to +80 C
(D) Any temperature not exceeding room temp.

Directions: the following four items consists of two statements, one labelled as the Assertion (A) &
the other as Reason(R). You are to examine these two statements carefully & select the answers to
these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both A & R are individually true & R is correct explanation of A
(B) Both A & R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false bur R is true

(58) Assertion ( A) :mortality rate is high for pneumonia due to MRSA
Reason (R): MRSA mainly affects individuals of extremes of ages
(59) Assertion (A): For treatment of an episode of severe asthma, inhalation is the preferred
route for inducing bronchodilatation.
Reason (R): Intravenous administration of bronchodilator offers no advantage over inhaled
route.
(60) Assertion (A): Proximal renal tubular acidosis is characterised by hyperkalaemia.
Reason (R): Metabolic acidosis leads to hyperkalaemia by shifting potassium from
intracellular to extracellular space.
(61)Assertion (A): Preferred thrombolytic regimen for treatment of pulmonary
thromboembolism is 100 mg of tPA administered as continuous peripheral intravenous
infusion over 2 hours.
Reasons (R): Patients appear to respond to thrombolysis for up to 7 days after the
pulmonary thromboembolism has occurred.
(62)Which among the following was first an acting president of India & later the president of
India?
(A) B.D. Jatti
(B) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(C) V.V. Giri
(D) Zakir Hussain
(63)As per census 2001, which one among the following states has shown the highest growth
rate of population during 1991-2001?
(A) Tripura
(B) Nagaland
(C) Orissa
(D) Rajasthan
(64)Which one of the following is in the area of tropical rain forests?
(A) Dudhwa National park
(B) Satpura National park
(C) Silent valley National park
(D) Valley of flowers National park
(65) Among the following, which of the following is/are the greatest contributor/ contributors to
global warming as a consequence of human activities & life style?
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons
(C) Methane
(D) Ozone
(66) Under the national maternal benefit scheme, what is the financial assistance given per birth
for the first two births to all pregnant women who attain 19 years of age & belong to BPL
households?
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs. 1000
(C) Rs. 1500
(D) Rs. 2000

(67) As per the national population policy 2000, the medium-term objective is to bring the Total
fertility rate to replacement level by which year?
(A) 2008
(B) 2010
(C) 2012
(D) 2014
(68) For inventing which one of the following is Marc Koska best known?
(A) Artificial blood
(B) Disposable K1-syringe
(C) Vaccine against polio
(D) ELISA test
(69) Which one of the following describes the flouring substance asafoetida (Hing)?
(A) Dried leaf extract
(B) Exudate from chopped roots
(C) Pith of stem boiled & dried
(D) Dried & hardened paste of fruit
(70) What is the main constituent gas in CNG?
(A) Acetylene
(B) Butane
(C) Ethane
(D) Methane
(71)In which year did the Kyoto protocol came into force?
(A) 2001
(B) 2003
(C) 2005
(D) 2007
(72) Consider the following statements :
1. Globally, diarrhoea kills more people than tuberculosis or malaria
2. Globally, diarrhoea is the second biggest killer of children.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 1 & 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(73) Which one of the following was the major outcome of the famous Earth summit in Rio de
Janeiro in 1992?
(A) Setting up of bio-safety standards
(B) Global strategy for control of pandemics
(C) Framework convention on climate change
(D) Framework on strategies for sustainable development
(74) Consider the following statements:
1. EI Nino is a weather phenomenon observed in Indian ocean
2. EI Nino is linked to droughts in northern India
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(75) In India, what is the approximate percentage of total land area which is categorised as
nationally protected?
(A) 3%
(B) 5%
(C) 7%
(D) 9%
(76) In which of the following country is life expectancy at birth is highest?
(A) China
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Nepal
(77) A patient with acute chest pain, 12 lead ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III & aVF
develops hypotension (BP-80/60 mmHg). Examination reveals elevated JVP, Kussmauls sign
& hepatomegaly with clear lung fields. What is treatment modality of choice to correct
hypotension?
(A) Volume expansion with saline
(B) Dopamine infusion
(C) Dobutamine infusion
(D) Adrenaline infusion
(78) A 45 year old man presents with sudden onset of breathlessness & chest pain. Examination
revealed tachypnoea, cyanosis, hypotension, raised JVP, widely split second heart sound
with right ventricular gallop. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Acute MI with cardiogenic shock
(B) Acute pericarditis
(C) Massive pulmonary embolism
(D) Pneumothorax
(79)In which of the following differential cyanosis found?
(A) VSD with reversal of shunt
(B) PDA with reversal of shunt
(C) ASD with reversal of shunt
(D) Tetralogy of Fallot
(80) A patient complains of intermittent claudication, dizziness & headache. Which one the
following is the likely diagnosis?
(A) Coarctation of aorta
(B) Patent ductus arteriosus
(C) Tetralogy of Fallot
(D) Atrial septal defect
(81) What are the exacerbations of bronchial asthma that occur with little or no warning, called?
(A) Brittle asthma
(B) Acute severe asthma
(C) Poorly controlled asthma
(D) Nocturnal asthma

(82)Which of the following is the drug of choice for control of exercise induced bronchial
asthma?
(A) Theophylline
(B) Ipratropium
(C) Cromolyn sodium
(D) Prednisolone
(83)Which of the following features is not true about hypersensitive pneumonitis (extrinsic
allergic alveolitis)?
(A) Eosinophilia is a consistent feature
(B) Elevated ESR,C-reactive protein & RA factor are usually found
(C) Examination of serum precipitins against suspected antigens is an important diagnostic
workup
(D) Apical sparing is common
(84) A 60 year old chronic smoker presents with retrosternal chest pain with diaphoresis. The
ECG shows ST elevation in V2-V4 leads for which primary PTCA & stent placement have been
done. Which of the following drugs is not to be advised in the first 48 hours of intervention?
(A) Abciximab
(B) Aspirin
(C) Enalapril
(D) Dexamethasone
(85) Microvesicular type of fatty liver is seen in all except:
(A) Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
(B) Alcoholic liver disease
(C) Reyes syndrome
(D) Phosphorus intoxication
(86) The following drugs for the treatment of peptic ulcer disease alter gastric acid pH except:
(A) Ranitidine
(B) Sucralfate
(C) Rabeprazole
(D) Pirenzepine
(87) In a patient of nephrotic syndrome with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, which one of the
following micro-organism in most commonly involved?
(A) Proteus
(B) Escherichia
(C) Pneumococcus
(D) Staphylococcus
(88) Which of the following renal injuries is characteristic of lithium toxicity?
(A) Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis
(B) Acute tubular necrosis
(C) Nephrogenic diabetes mellitus
(D) Proliferative glomerulonephritis
(89) Nephrotic syndrome is characterised by all except:
(A) Hypoalbuminemia
(B) Hypolipidemia
(C) Lipiduria

(D) Proteinuria >3.5 gm per 1.73 m2 per 24 hours

(90) A 45 year old female having headache of one week duration was found to have tender
thickened cordlike structure on the scalp & high ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Tension headache
(B) Migraine
(C) Temporal arteritis
(D) TB meningitis
(91) The genetically engineered golden rice is rich in
(A) -carotene & magnesium
(B) Folic acid & iron
(C) -carotene & iron
(D) Folic acid & magnesium
(92) Which one the following plants is a source of a medical substance called Theophylline?
(A) Cocoa
(B) Tea
(C) Turmeric
(D) Vanilla
(93) Which one of the following is generally used as a fungicide, while others are generally used
as insecticides?
(A) Aldrin
(B) Dieldrin
(C) Heptachlor
(D) Hexachlorobenzene
(94) Which of the following kinds of radiations is/are emitted by Uranium-238?
(A) Alpha rays only
(B) Alpha & Beta rays only
(C) Gamma rays only
(D) Alpha, Beta & Gamma rays
(95) Other than nitrogen & oxygen, which one of the following is the next most abundant gas in
the dry air of lower atmosphere?
(A) Argon
(B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Helium
(D) Hydrogen
(96) At which one of following cities do National highways No. 8, 11 & 12 meet?
(A) Delhi
(B) Jaipur
(C) Ajmer
(D) Udaipur
(97) Which one of the following places does not have an oil refinery?
(A) Guwahati
(B) Mangalore
(C) Varanasi
(D) Visakhapatnam
(98) A mixture of rain and snow is called :

(A) Glaze
(B) Frost
(C) Shower
(D) Sleet
(99) One-third of the Rajya Sabha members retire every :
(A) Three years
(B) Four years
(C) Two years
(D) One year
(100)
Which of the following allocates business to different Ministries/Departments in the
Government of India?
(A) Prime ministers office
(B) Cabinet Secretariat
(C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(D) Lok Sabha Secretariat
(101)
Which one of the following has the primary function of distributing the revenue
between the Centre & States?
(A) Department of expenditure in the Union Government
(B) Finance commission
(C) Inter-state council
(D) Planning commission
(102)
If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 month
(C) 6 month
(D) 1 year
(103)
With reference to the parliament of India, the question as to whether a bill is a
money bill or not is decided by who among the following?
(A) President of India
(B) Prime minister
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Union Finance Minister
(104)
How many articles of the constitution of India have provisions for the Right to
freedom of Religion?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
(105)
Consider the following statements:
1. The vice president of India is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament
2. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
(106)
Which one of the following tumours commonly spreads to meninges?
(A) Astrocytoma
(B) Medulloblastoma
(C) Meningioma
(D) Glioblastoma
(107)
The following are components of polysomnograpgy except:
(A) Electrocardiography
(B) Electrooculography
(C) Arterial carbon dioxide monitoring
(D) Pulse oximetry
(108)
In Wallenberg syndrome, the site of lesion is in which of the following?
(A) Lateral medulla
(B) Medial medulla
(C) Ponto medullary junction
(D) Dorsal midbrain
(109)
Drugs that can induce parkinsonism include the following except:
(A) Reserpine
(B) Metoclopramide
(C) Trihexyphenidyl
(D) Haloperidol
(110)
Which of the following conditions is the most common cause of seizure in late
infancy and early adulthood?
(A) Febrile seizure
(B) Seizures due to CNS tuberculosis
(C) Hypoglycaemic seizures
(D) Hypocalcemic seizures
(111)
Which one of the following is a subcortical dementia :
(A) Alzheimers disease
(B) Huntingtons chorea
(C) Normal pressure hydrocephalus
(D) Vit B12 deficiency
(112)
A middle aged male presents with sudden onset ipsilateral 6th nerve palsy, ipsilateral
infra-nuclear facial palsy & contralateral hemiplegia. Which one of the following syndromes
is most likely?
(A) Wallenberg syndrome
(B) Claudes syndrome
(C) Webers syndrome
(D) Millard-Gubler syndrome

(113)
Which one of the following is the most common immunologic type of multiple
myeloma?
(A) IgG, Kappa light chain
(B) IgA, Kappa light chain
(C) IgD, Lambda light chain
(D) IgM type
(114)
Which one of the following is not a feature of polycythaemia Vera?
(A) Elevated red cell mass
(B) Normal arterial oxygen saturation
(C) Splenomegaly
(D) Elevated plasma erythropoietin levels
(115)
Translocation of bcr-abl gene is characteristically seen in
(A) Chronic myeloid leukaemia
(B) Acute myeloid leukaemia
(C) Chronic lymphatic leukaemia
(D) Acute lymphatic leukaemia
(116)
Which one of the following is a known stimulus to production of erythropoietin?
(A) Hypoxia
(B) Hypercarbia
(C) Decompensated kidney disease
(D) Interleukin-3
(117)
An adult who develops pure red cell aplasia should be explicitly evaluated for which
of the following?
(A) Carcinoid syndrome
(B) Lymphoma
(C) Thymoma
(D) Seminoma
(118)
Which one the following is not true of Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
(a) Polyarthralgia
(b) Cure of disease by steroids
(c) Haematuria
(d) Acute abdominal pain
(119)
Which one the following drug has a structure that is analogous to thyroxin &
contains huge amount of iodine?
(A) Clofibrate
(B) Colistipol
(C) Acetazolamide
(D) Amiodarone
(120)
Conditions associated with hypercalcemia and low PTH (Parathyroid hormone) levels
include the following except:
(A) Sarcoidosis
(B) Bronchial carcinoma
(C) Plasmacytoma
(D) Multiple endocrine neoplasia

PAPER-II: SURGERY, GYNAECOLOGY AND OBSTETRICS, PREVENTIVE AND

SOCIAL MEDICINE

1.A pt. Aged 35 yrs has cystosarcoma phylloides.What is the treatment of choice?
a.lumpectomy
b.simple mastectomy alone
c.simple mastectomy+axillary clearance
d.simple mastectomy+loco regional radiation

2.Common bile duct injuries are most commonly seen in :

a.radical gastrectomy
b.penetrating injuries of abdomen
c.ERCP & sphincterotomy
d.laproscopic cholecystectomy operation

3.Fibroblast in healing wound is derived from:

a.local mesenchyme
b.epithelium
c.endothelium
d.vascular fibrosis

4.Match list I & list II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
list-I list-II

(agent type) (product name)

A. debriding agent 1.opsite,tegaderm
B. polymeric film 2.porcine skin,amnion
C. hydrocolloids 3.Benoxyl benzoic acid
D. biological membranes 4.comfeel granuflex

CODES:
ABCD
a. 2 1 4 3
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 2 4 1 3

5.Which one of the following factors is labelled as cytokines in the pathogenesis of SIRS(systemic
inflammatory response syndrome)?
a.nitric oxide
b.complements
c.leukotriens
d.tumor necrosis factor

6.Radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for which one of the following tumors?
a.verrucous carcinoma
b.malignant melanoma
c.marjolins ulcer
d.rodent ulcer

7.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
list-I list-II
(pathogenesis) (cyst type)
A.persistent normal vestigial remnants 1.dermoid
B. hamartomas 2.meckels diverticulum
C.remnant of vitellointestinal tract 3.cystic hygroma
D.ectopia of various tissues 4.thyroglossal,branchial cyst

CODE:
ABCD
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 2 3 1
d. 4 3 2 1

8.Which one of the following is the most common tumor to produce metastasis to cervical lymh
nodes?
a.glottic carcinoma
b.nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c.carcinoma base of tounge
d.carcinoma lip

9.In primry hyperparathyroidism which one of the following is the most common finding?
a.solitary adenoma
b.double adenoma
c.hyperplasia of two or more glands
d.carcinoma

10.Crush syndrome is managed by which one of the following?

a.20% dextrose
b.hydrocortisone
c.maintaining high urine output
d.acidification of urine

11.Which one of the following is not a symptom of atherosclerosis occlusive disease at the
bifurcation of aorta(Leriche syndrome)?
a.claudication of the buttock & thigh
b.claudication of the calf
c.sexual impotence
d.acidification localised to the feet

12.Cocket & Dodds operation is performed for which one of the following?
a.saphenofemoral flush ligation
b.subfascial ligation
c.deep vein thrombosis
d.diabetic foot

13.Which vital structures is preserved during radical neck dissection?

a.vagus nerve
b.submandibular gland
c.sternocleidomastoid

d.internal jugular vein

14.Which of the following receptors are missing from the surface of the intestines?
a.temprature
b.pressure
c.distension
d.touch

15.Mallory-Weiss tear occurs at :

a.gastro-esophageal junction
b.duodenal-jejunal flexure
c.ileo-caecal junction
d.colo-rectal junction

16.Consider the following statements regarding pagets disease of the breast:

1.It is a malignant disease
b.diagnosis can be established by scrape cytology.
c.lymph nodes involvement is an associated clinical features
d.treatment of choice is simple mastectomy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a.1,2 & 4 only
b.1,2 & 3 only
c.3 & 4only
d.1,2,3 & 4

17.Which breast carcinoma is multi-centric & bilateral?

a.ductal
b.lobular
c.mucoid
d.colloid

18.What is the most common malignancy affecting spleen ?

a.angiosarcoma
b.hamartoma
c.secondaries
d.lymphoma

19.Which one of the following is the treatment of gall stone ileus?

a.cholecystectomy alone
b.removal of obstruction
c.cholesystectomy,closure of fistula & removal of stone by enterostomy
d.cholecystectomy with closure of fistula

20.Consider the following conditions:

1.choledochal cyst
2.choledocholithiasis
3.sclerosing cholangitis
d.mirizzis syndrome

Pain,fever & jaundice are associated with which one of the above conditions?
a.1,2& 3 only
b.1,2,3 & 4
c.1,3&4 only
d.2& 4 only

21.Which one of the following is management of pancreatic abscess?

a.needle aspiration
b.gastrocystostomy
c.external drainage
d.jejunocystostomy

22.Treatment of choice for desmoid tumor?

a.irradiation
b.wide excision
c.local excision
d.local excision following radiation

23.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
list-I list-II
(disease) (sign)
A. acute cholecystitis 1.kehrs sign
B.acute pancreatitis 2.courvaisies sign
C. splenic rupture 3.cullens sign
d.pancreatic cancer 4.murphys sign

codes:
ABCD
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 3 1 4
d. 4 1 3 2

24.When a spontaneous perforation of esophagus occurs as a result of severe barotrauma while a

person vomits aginst a closed glottis,what is the condition known as ?
a.Mallory-weiss syndrome
b.plummer vinson syndrome
c.kartergener syndrome
d.Boerhaave syndrome

25.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(radiological finding regarding esophagus) (disease)
A. smooth pencil shaped narrowing of 1.Diffuse spasm
lower segment
B.esophageal web 2.esophageal carcinoma

C.rat tail appear. 3.achalasia of esophagus

D.corkscrew esophagus 4.plummer-vinson syndrome

CODES:

ABCD
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 1 4 2 3

26.Which one of the following stomach cancers carries the best prognosis?
a.superficial spreading type
b.ulcerative type
c.liniticus plastica type
d.polypoidal type

27.Most common type of carcinoma of the rt colon?

a.stenosing
b.ulcerative
c.tubular
d.fyngating

28.High or low fistula in ano is termed according to its internal opening present with reference to :
a.anal canal
b.dentate line
c.anorectal ring
d.sacral promontary

29.The following are indications for perfoming thoracotomy after blunt injury of the chest except:
a.1000 ml drainage after placing an intercostal tube
b.continuous bleeding thr intercostal tube of more than 200 ml/hr for 3 or more hrs
c.cardiac tamponade
d.rib #

30.What is the first step taken in case of multiple injuries to face & neck?
a.blood transfusion
b.IV fluids
c.reconstruction
d.mainatainanace of airway

31.Which one of the following is not a wound closure technique?

a.partal thickness graft
b.complete graft
c.vascular graft
d.musculocutaneous graft

32.Ductous arteriosus closes in response to :

a.decrease in peripheral oxygen saturation
b.indomethacin therapy
c.PGE1
d.increase in pulmonary vascular resistance

33.Clinical features a/w coarctation of aortain older children are the following except:
a.upper body hypertension
b.prominent pulsation in the neck
c.fatiguaableness,tiredness in leg
d.absence of flow murmur over scapular region

34.What is the treatment of choice in severe flail chest?

a.IPPV
b.strapping
c.wiring
d.nasal oxygen

35.With reference to ESWL, consider the following statements:

a.It is the treatment of choice for stones larger than 2 cm
b.it is c/I in pregnancy
c.it is TOC for lower pole stones
d.it is a/w stein stress phenomenon
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a.1,2& 3 only
b.2 & 4only
c.3 & 4 only
d.1,2,3 & 4

36.Typical appearance of spider leg on excreatory urography is seen in :

a.hydronephrosis
b.polycystic kidney
c.medullary sponge kidney
d.renal cell carcinoma

37.What is the most common presentation of intracranial aneurysm?

a.coarctation of aorta
b.systemic hypertension
c.hypotension
d.intracranial haemorrhage

38.Pneumatosis intestinalis on a plain abdominal radiograph is seen in which of the following?

a.congenital atresia of bowel
b.meconium ileus
c.volvulus neonatorum
d.necrotising enterocolitis

39.With reference to fresh frozen plasma,which one the following statements is not correct?
a.it is used as volume expander
b.it is stored at 40 to 50 degree
c.it is a source of coagulation factors
d.it is given in a dose of 12-15 ml/kg body wt.

40.Vocal cord palsy in thyroid surgery is due to injury to:

a.superficial laryngeal nerve
b.recurrent laryngeal nerve
c.ansa cervacalis
d.vagus nerve

41.Cholestasis may lead to the following complications except:

a.intrauterine fetal death
b.meconium stained liquor
c.preterm labour
d.neonatal jaundice

42.In modern obstetrics,the internal podalic version is indicated in the presence of:
a.transverse lie with obstructed labour
b.2nd transverse twin
c.cord prolapse with live baby
d.extended breech presentation

43.Which one of the following statements regarding breast feeding is not correct?
a.breast feeding shud start within 1 hr after a normal delivery
b.colostrum shud be given to the baby
c.time schedule breast feeding is preferable to demand breast feeding

d.breast feeding alone shud be given for the first 6 months

44.Medical management of ectopic pregnancy can be done in the following except:

a.period of gestation 5 wks
b.beta-HCG level 6000 IU
c.absent fetal cardiac activity
d.gestational sac diameter 3 cm

45.Consider the following in a new born:

1.heart rate of 110
2.slow & irregular respiratory effort
3.flaccid muscle tone
4.no reflex irritability
5.blue colour
What is the apgar score in this case?
a.1
b.3
c.5
d.7

46.Non-immune hydrops fetalis is due to the following except:

a.alpha thalassemia major
b.functional abnormalities of heart
c.ABO incompatibility
d.toxoplasmosis

47.Consider the following statements regarding a cephal-haematoma:

1.present at birth
2.it can occur after a normal delivery
3.Commonest site is over the parietal bone
4.the bleeding is sub-periosteal
Which of the statements given above are correct in the context of cephal-haematoma?
a.1 & 4
b.1 & 2 only
c.1,2, & 3
d.2,3 & 4

48.In a newborn,what is the normal respiratory rate?

a.10-20 breath/min
b.30-40 breath/min
c.40-60 breath/min
d.60-80 breath/min

49.The following changes occur in idiopathic respiratory distess syndrome of the newborn except?
a.alveolar collpase
b.left to rt vascular shunting through the alveolar capillaries
c.increased pulmonary vascular resistance
d.dilatation of the ductus arteriosus

50.Which of the following is the earliest changes in the endometrium after ovulation?
a.secretion in the lumina of the endometrial glands
b.subnuclear vacuolation
c.corckscrew shaped glands
d.stromal cells become oedematous,enlarged & polyhedral in shape

51.Consider the following four events of development of fetus:

1.development of external genitalia
2.appearance of scalp hair
3.centres of ossification in bones
4.formation of eyelashes & eye-brows
What is the order in which they appear from lower to higher gestation?
a.1,3,2,4
b.1,3,4,2
c.3,1,4,2
d.3,1,2,4

52.In which of the following,chorionic villous sampling procedure can be adopted for diagnosis?
a.achondroplasia
b.neural tube defects
c.marfans syndrome
d.trisomy 18

53.From which of the following does clitoris develop:

a.congenital ridge
b.urogenital folds
c.genital tubercle
d.labioscrotal swelling

54.Which of the following physiological changes first to appear at the onset of puberty?
a.growth of breast & increase in ht
b.appearance of pubic & axillary hair
c.onset of menstruation
d.acne on the face

55.Which of the following is the definative treatment of adenomyosis?

a.LN 6-intrauterine device
b.GnRH analogues
c.danazol
d.hysterectomy

56.Which one of the following conditions of the endometrium is a/w a significantly increased risk of
cancer?
a.adenomatous hyperplasia
b.hyperplasia with atypia
c.cystic glandular hyperplasia
d.proliferative phase

57.In an adult phenotypic female,absence of uterus suggest diagnosis of which one of the following?
a.Mayer rokitansky kuster hauser syndrome
b.congenital adrenal hyperplasia
c.true hermaphrodite
d.5-alpha-reductase deficiency

58.Which one of the following drugs are effective in DUB when the endometrial biopsy shows
secretary pattern?
1.Medroxyprogesterone acetate
2.combined preparation of progesterone & estrogens
3.PG synthetase inhibitors
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a.1,2,3
b.1,2 only
c.2,3 only
d.1,3 only

59.Which one of the following genital infections is a/w preterm labour?

a.HPV
b.tricmonas vaginitis
c.monilial vaginitis
d.bacterial vaginosis

60.The following are long term complications of PCOS(polycystic ovarian syndrome) except:

a.type II DM
b.cardiovascular disease
c.endometrial cancer
d.ovarian cancer

61.Among the four steps in the Manchester operation done for prolapse,which one of the following
is the correct order in which they are done?
a.amputation of cervix,D&C,Futhergill suture,haemostasis
b.D&C,amputation of cervix,Futhergill suture,haemostasis
c.D&C,Futhergill suture,Amputation of cervix,haemostasis
d.D&C, Amputation of cervix,haemostasis,Futhergill suture

62.HAIR-AN syndrome is found in :

a.congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b.luteal phase defect
c.polycystic ovarian syndrome
d.pheochromocytoma

63.A pregnant woman in III trimester has normal blood pressure when standing & sitting.When
supine,blood pressure drops to 90/50.What is the diagnosis?
a.compression of uterine artery
b.compression of aorta
c.compression of IVC
d.compression of internal iliac vessels

64.Which one of the following is the WHO criterion for oligospermia in seminal fluid analysis?
a.sperm count less than 50 million/HPF
b.sperm count less than 40 million/HPF
c.sperm count less tha 30 million/HPF
d.sperm count less than 20 million /HPF

65.Which of the following are the causes of retroversion of the uterus?

1.PID
2.prolapse uterus
3.endometriosis
select the correct answer using the code below:
a.1,2,&3
b.1& 2 only
c.2& 3 only
d.1& 3 only

66.Which one of the following is not an operation for uterine inversion?

a.O Sullivans
b.Haultains
c.Spinellis
d.Fentonis

67.A 45 yr old woman comes with pap smear report of squamous metaplasia.What advice shud be
given to her?

a.colposcopy
b.cervical biopsy
c.conozation
d.no treatment

68.Which one of the following is not charachteristic feature of bacterial vaginosis?

a.presence of clue cells
b.thick white discharge
c.vaginal Ph >4.5
d.fishy odour

69.Fetomaternal transfusion of fetal RBCs in mother can be detected by which one of the following
tests?
a.Direct coombs test
b.Kleihaur betke test
c.electrophorosis
d.indirext coombs test

70.Multiple pregnancy is not a/w an increased incidence of which one of the following?
a.hyperemesis gravidarum
b.congenital malformations
c.pregnancy induced hypertension
d.post date pregnancy

71.Sexcord stromal cell tumors do not include which one of the following?
a.granulosa cell tumor

b.theca cell tumor

c.arrhenoblastoma
d.brenners tumor

72.A case of choriocarcinoma 30 yr old having one child,presenting with growth in the uterus &
single metastasis in lung(stageIII score 4).What wud be the appropriate treatment for her?
a.single agent chemotherapy
b.multiple agent chemotherapy
c.hysterectomy with single agent chemotherapy
d.hysterectomy with multiple agent chemotherapy

73.An unmarried 20 yr old girl has unilateral ovarian cyst of 7 into 8 cm.with CA125 at 500
mIU/ml.There are thick septa & papillation in cyst.On laprotomy,capsule is intact.Other ovary &
viscera are normal.What is the appropriate surgery for her(along with staging procedure)?
a.ovarian cystectomy
b.salpingo-oophorectomy
c.hysterectomy with unilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
d.panhysterectomy

74.Surgical staging is done for the following genital malignancies except:

a.ovarian malignancy
b.gestational trophoblastic neoplasm
c.endometrial carcinoma
d.F.tube malignancy

75.Which one of the following groups has only epithelial tumors of ovary?

a.serous cystadenoma,mucinous cystadenoma,endometroid carcinoma

b.mucinous cystadenoma,endometroid carcinoma,stromal cell carcinoma
c.endometroid carcinoma,brenners tumour,sex cord tumor
d.dermoid,endometroid tumor,mucinous cystadenoma

76.Which female genital malignancy is most common in pregnancy?

a.ovarian cancer
b.vaginal vulvar cancer
c.endometrial cancer
d.cervical cancer

77.A 34 yr old lady who has completed her family,shows a positive pap smear(C.I.N.III).What will be
the further arrangement?
a.wertheims hysterectomy
b.ward mayos hysterectomy
c.simple abdominal hysterectomy
d.cervical conisation

78.At laprotomy for endometrial cancer the growth was found invading inner half of mypmetrium,rt
ovary & upper part of vagina.What is the staging?
a.II b
b.IIIa
c.IIIb
d.Iva

79.Contraceptive efficacy is generally assessed by which one of the following methods?

a.pearl index
b.contraceptive effectiveness
c.use effectiveness
d.failure rate

80.Which one of the following antibiotics reduces effectiveness of oral contraceptive pills & may
cause breakthrough bleeding?
a.doxycycline
b.penicilline
c.rifampicin
d.clindamycin

81.Which one of the following disinfecting procedure is preferred for disinfection of blankets,beds &
books kept in a room?
a.formaldehyde fumigation
b.autoclaving
c.sprinking 70% alcohol
d.bleaching powder

82.Which of the following is a characteristic of a point source epidemic?

a.herd immunity regulates spread of cases
b.person to person transmission is seen
c.secondary wave of cases is always seen

d.all cases develop within one incubation period

83.While investigating an epidemic,search for more cases is continued till what period?
a.twice the incubation period of the disease since occurrence of the last case
b.thrice the incubation period of the disease since occurrence of the last case
c.longest incubation period for the disease
d.incubation period for the disease plus two standard deviations

84.In national immunization coverage evaluation surveys,what is the commonly used sampling
method?
a.simple random sampling
b.systemic random sampling
c.stratified random sampling
d.cluster random sampling

85.Consider the following statements:

1.poliovirus is a retrovirus
2.man is the only reservoir of poliovirus
Which of the statements given above are/is correct?
a.1 only
b.2 only
c.both 1 & 2
c.none

86.Which one of the following tests is not used for checking quality of pastereurization of milk?
a.phosphatase test
b.standard plate count
c.coliform count
d.orthotoludine test

87.Milk is poor source of which of the following?

a.essential fatty acids
b.iron
c.vit-C
d.vit-A
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a.1&3
b.1&4
c.2&3
d.1&2

88.Which one of the following is categorised as a high risk pregnancy?

a.birth order 3
b.maternal ht 150 cm
c.twin pregnancy
d.blood group AB+ve

89.Among the causes of maternal mortality,which one of the following is the correct descending
order due to which the maternal deaths occur in India?
a.haemorrhage,obstructed labour,abortion,sepsis

b.obstructed labour,haemorrhage,abortion,sepsis
c.sepsis,obstructed labour,abortion,haemorrhage
d.haemorrhage,sepsis,abortion,obstructed labour

90.What is the health indicator obtained by dividing body ht(in cm) by cube root of body wt(in kg)?
a.quetlets index
b.broca index
c.ponderal index
d.corpulence index

91.Use of combined pill is contraindicated in women with any of the following conditions except?
a.lactation
b.DM
c.thromboembolism
c.TB

92.Consider the following pairs:

contraceptive method preg.rate
1. condoms 2-14/HWY
2. Cu-T <1/HWY
c. oral pills 1-5/HWY

Which of the above apir is correctly matched?

a.1&2

b.1only
c.1&3
d.3only

93.Which one of the following is the level of residual free chlorine recommended for swimming pool
water disinfection?
a.0.5 mg/lit
b.0.8 mg/lit
c.1 mg/lit
d.5 mg/lit

94.Which one of the following is the standard prescribed for setback(open space around the
house)in rural areas?
a.built up area 1/3 & open space 2/3
b.built up area 2/5 & open space 3/5
c.built up area & open space
d.built up area & open space

95.Which of the following committees introduced the concept of multipurpose health worker?
a.bhore committee
b.jungalwala committee
c.kartar singh committee
d.mudliar committee

96.Which one of the following pair for water quality standard is correctly matched?
Parameter max.tolerance limit
a. Chlorides :50mg/lit
b. Nitrates :50mg/lit
c. hardness :50mg/lit
d. total dissolved solids :50mg/lit

97.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
list-I list-II
(type of infection transmission) (example)
a.fomite transmission 1.rubella
b.cyclo-developmental 2.malaria
c.cyclo-propagative 3.filariasis
d.vertical transmission 4.typhoid

codes:
ABCD
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 1 2 4 3
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 3 1 2

[snip].Which of the following is not a part of control measures for diptheria?

a.treatment of cases with erythromycin
b.treatment of carriers with antitoxin

c.isolation of cases
d.regular immunisation of under-fives

99.Dysphagia,diplopia,dysarthria are characteristic symptoms of food poisoning due to :

a.staph.aureus
b.cl.botulinum
c.s.typhimurium
d.b.cereus

100. prepatent period in lymphatic filariasis is defined as the time interval between inoculated of
infective larvae & :
a.blockage of lymphatics
b.first appearance of detectabale microfilaria
c.developmental of lymphoedema
d.development of adult worm

101.sIn management of leprosy two yearsduration is recommended for which of the following?
a.treatment of multibacillary cases
b.treatment of paucibacillary cases
c.surveillance after treatment in multibacillary cases
d.surveillance after treatment in paucibacillary cases

102.The oral typhoid vaccine(Ty 21a)in INDIA contains:

a.killed salmonalla typhi only
b.live attenuated s.typhi only
c.killed s.typhi & s.paratyphi A

d.live attenuated s.typhyi & s.paratyphi A

103.Consider the following pairs:

disease incubation period
1. polio 3-5 days
2. typhoid 10-14 days
3. yellow fever 8-12 days
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a.2 only
b.2&3
c.1&3
d.1 only

104.Which one of the following is a charachteristic of epidemiology of leishmaniasis in INDIA?

a.it does not occur at high altitudes
b.incubation period is 3-8 days
c.females are more affected
d.it is not a fatal disease

105.Match list-I with list-II & select the correct answer using the code given belowthe lists:
list-I list-II
(disease) (inheritance)
A. albinism 1.auto dominant
B. vit-Dresistant rickets 2.auto recessive

c. G6PD deficiency 3.sex linked dominant

d. neurofibromatosis 4.sex linked recessive

codes:
ABCD
a. 2 4 3 1
b. 2 3 4 1
c. 1 4 3 2
d. 1 3 4 2

106.Which one of the following is the correct chronological order in which the given acts were
passed in INDIA?
a.Quarantine act,Vaccination act,Sarda act,Factory act
b.Quarantine act,Sarda act,Factory act,Vaccination act
c.Sarda act,Vaccination act,Quarantine act,Factory act
d.Vaccination act,Quarantine act,Factory act,Sarda act

107. Social physician concept was mooted by ?

a.Bhore committee
b.Chadha committee
c.Shrivastav committee
d.Kartar singh committee

108.Which one of the following is an indicator of operational efficiency for malaria control
programme in india?
a.API(annual parasite incidence)

b.ABER(annual blood examionation rate)

c.AFI(annual falciparum incidence)
d.SPR(slide positivity rate)

109.Which of the following is a novel feature of RNTCP?

a.achieving 80% BCG coverage
b.achieving 85% detection rate
c.achieving 70% cure rate
d.involvement of NGOs

110.Match list-I with list-II & select the corrct answer using the code given below the lists:
list-I list-II
(diagrams) (type of data for which used)
A. bar diagram 1.continuous data
B. frequancy polygon 2.discrete data
C. line diagram 3.correlation data
D. scatter plot 4.trends of events
Code:
ABCD
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 2 4 1 3

111.Which one of the following pair is correctly amtched:

Vaccines Type
a. yellow fever killed
b. rubella killed
c. diphtheria live
d. mumps live

112.Among the following milk sources,which one is the correct sequence with decreasing fat
content?
a.buffalo,cow,goat,human
b.buffalo,goat,cow,human
c.buffalo,human,cow,goat
d.buffalo,goat,human,cow

113.Under which level of prevention shud sentinel surveillance be categorised?

a.primordial prevention
b.primary prevention
c.secondary prevention
d.tertiary prevention

114.Inventory of material means which one of the following ?

a.list of item procured
b.stock disturbed during a period
c.the quantum of material ordered for
d.stock on hand at any given time

115.What is the reagent used in Horrocks appratus for determing chlorine demand of water?
a.orthotoluidine
b.methylene blue
c.starch iodine indicator
d.sodium bicarbonate

DIRECTIONS:
The following 5 items consist of two following statements:one labelled as the Assertion(A) & the
other as Reason.You are to examine these two statements carefully & select the answetrs to these
items using the codes below:
Codes:
a.both A & R are individually true & R is correct explaination of A
b.both A &R are individually true but R is not the correct explaination of A
c.A is true but R is false
d.A is false but R is true

116.Assertion:In tetanus,herd immunity doesnt protect the individual

Reason: tetanus toxoid is a toxoid vaccine

117.Assertion:India is in the late expanding phase of the demographic cycle

Reason: birth rate in India is declining rapidly

118.Assertion:use of soap water & disinfectants shud be avoided in flushing where septic tank is
used
Reason: In India septic tank are designed to allow a retention period of 24 hrs

119.Assertion:cases of carcinoma stomach have declined steadily over last 30 ys in affluent

countries.
Reason:consumption of preserved,curved & salted foods has increased in industrialised countries in
last 30 yrs

120.Assertion : BCG vaccination is capable of converting lepromin test fromnegative to positive

Reason: lepromin test is not adiagnostic test.