Xususi-2014-2015 Qish

1.
Which numbers do indicate the scalp, pachionian granules and parietal

bone?
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 1, 9, 11
C) 4, 3, 11
D) 4, 9, 5
E) 5, 11, 13
2. Which numbers do indicate the dura mater, pia mater and brain cortex?
A) 5, 8, 9
B) 1, 4, 6
C) 2, 5, 7
D) 6, 8, 11
E) 4, 5, 13
3. Which numbers do indicate the liquor channels, dural vessel and pia mater?
A) 4, 7, 5
B) 3, 7, 8
C) 2, 5, 6
D) 1, 3, 4
E) 2, 6, 8
4. Which numbers do indicate the dura mater, elastic fibers and
arachnoid mater?
A) 9, 8, 2
B) 5, 6, 7
C) 3, 4, 6
D) 1, 2, 5
E) 3, 7, 8
5. Which numbers do indicate the pia mater, fibrous astrocyte and

oliqodendrocyte?
A) 2, 5, 6
B) 1, 3, 6
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 2, 3, 7
E) 1, 4, 7
6. Which numbers do indicate the dura mater, pia mater and the anterior
funicle?
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 8
C) 3, 4, 9
D) 3, 2, 7
E) 2, 3, 6
7. Which numbers do indicate the white matter, central channel and cells
of anterior horn?
A) 2, 4, 8
B) 3, 6, 7
C) 4, 3, 5
D) 3, 6, 8
E) 1, 2, 5
8. Which numbers do indicate neuropil, blood vessel and ventrodorsal

nucleus cells?
A) 2,5, 6
B) 4, 6, 3
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 1, 4, 6
E) 1, 3, 4
9. Which numbers do indicate the anterior horn, intermedio-medial

nucleus and the central canal?
A) 8, 10, 11
B) 4, 9, 10
C) 7, 10, 11
D) 6, 7, 10
E) 3, 5, 6
10.Which numbers do indicate the sheath of posterior root and capsule of

ganglion?
A) 2, 4, 8
B) 1, 3, 6
C) 4, 5, 7
D) 2, 3, 5
E) 3, 7, 8
10
11.Which numbers do indicate the fibrocyte, nucleus of neuron and blood

vessel?
A) 3, 6, 10
B) 2, 7, 8
C) 5, 6, 9
D) 1, 5, 4
E) 6, 7, 8
11
12.Which numbers do indicate the unmyelinated nerve fibers, pericyte

and neurolemmocyte?
A) 3, 5, 7
B) 5, 7, 8
C) 2, 4, 9
D) 1, 2, 4
E) 3, 6, 10
12
13. Which numbers do indicate the anterior root, epineurium and endoneurium?
A) 2, 3, 5
B) 1, 4, 6
C) 6, 7, 10
D) 3, 5, 11
E) 8, 10, 12
13
14.By which structure is lined a central canal of spinal cord?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
ependymal cells
astrocytes
epitheliocytes
microglial cells
endothelial cells
15.Which elements are received by dorsal horns of the spinal cord?
central processes of the sensory neurons whose cell bodies lie in the dorsal
root ganglion
peripheral processes of the sensory neurons whose cell bodies lie in the
dorsal root ganglion
Cell bodies of interneurons and motor neurons
There is no correct answer
processes of the multipolar motor neurons
16.Which statement is true about the dura mater covering the brain?
It is a dense, collagenous connective tissue composed of two layers
It is a dense, collagenous connective tissue composed of one layer
It is a loose, collagenous connective tissue composed of two layers
It is reticular tissue composed of two layers
17.Choose the correct statement
a. Periosteal dura mater, the outer layer, is composed of osteoprogenitor
cells, fibroblasts, and organized bundles of collagen fibers
b. Meningeal dura mater, the outer layer, is composed of osteoprogenitor
cells, fibroblasts, and organized bundles of collagen fibers
c. Periosteal dura mater closely attached to the inner surface of the skull,
except at the sutures and base of the skull, where the attachment is
loose
d. Periosteal dura mater serves as the periosteum of the outer surface of
the skull, and as such it is not vascularized
e. Ventral horns of the spinal cord, which house cell bodies of large
sensory neurons whose axons exit the spinal cord via the ventral roots.
18. How are nerve cell bodies of autonomic ganglia by definition?

a. motor in function because they cause smooth or cardiac muscle contraction
b. sensor in function because they cause smooth or cardiac muscle sensation
c. sensor in function because they cause glandular secretion.
d. there is no correct answer
e. Interneurons because they provide communications
19. Where are synapsed preganglionic sympathetic fibers in the sympathetic
system?
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a. postganglionic sympathetic cell bodies in the sympathetic ganglia located in

the sympathetic chain ganglia
b. postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies in the sympathetic ganglia
located in the sympathetic chain ganglia
c. postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies in the sympathetic ganglia
located in the parasympathetic chain ganglia
d. postganglionic parasympathetic cell bodies in the sympathetic ganglia
located in the collateral ganglia
e. There is no correct answer
20. Where are distributed the postganglionic sympathetic nerves originating in the
ganglia?
a. distributed by peripheral nerves that they join after exiting the ganglia.
b. Enter the brain
c. Enter the spinal cord
d. terminate in the skeletal muscle that they innervate
e. There is no correct answer
21. With which cranial nerves are associated sensory ganglia?
a. V, VII, IX, and X
b. III, IV, VI, and XII
c. I, V, VII and XI
d. III, IV, VI and XI
e. III, V, VI and X
22. Where is found the spinal dura mater?
a. from the foramen magnum to the second segment of the sacrum
b. from the foramen Lushka to the second segment of the coccigeum
c. from the foramen magnum to the third segment of the sacrum
d. from the second cervical segment to the second lumbar segment
e. from the foramen parvum to the first lumbar segment
23. What is the choroid plexus?
a. Folds of pia mater housing an abundance of fenestrated capillaries
b. Folds of arachnoid mater housing an abundance of fenestrated
capillaries
c. Folds of pia mater housing an abundance of sinusoidal capillaries
d. Folds of ependymal cells housing an abundance of fenestrated
capillaries
e. Folds of choroidea housing an abundance of continuous capillaries
24. Where is the choroid plexus located?
1. In fourth ventricle of the brain
2. In lateral ventricle of the brain
3. In vascular tunic of the eye
4. In central channel of the spinal cord
5. Inside of the arachnoid matter
6. In third ventricle of the brain
a. 1, 2, 6
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b.
c.
d.
e.
1, 2, 4
2, 4, 5
1, 4, 6
1, 2, 3
25. Which elements belong to white matter?

1. aggregations of neuronal cell bodies
2. myelinated nerve fibers
3. some unmyelinated fibers
4. neuroglial cells
5. pericaryons of neurons
6. large number of unmyelinated fibers
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 4, 5
d. 1, 3, 6
e. 2, 4, 6
26. What of the following is avascular?
a. the arachnoid layer of the meninges
b. the epineurium of peripheral nerves
c. the endoneurium of peripheral nerves
d. the dura mater of the meninges
e. there is no correct answer
27. What is not found between the fibroblasts of arachnoid?
a. Tight junctions
b. gap junctions
c. desmosomes
e. adherent junctions
28. What is located inside of meningeal dura mater?
1. fibroblasts displaying dark-staining cytoplasm
2. sheet-like layers of fine collagen fibers
3. small blood vessels.
4. loose network of reticular fibers
5. myofibroblasts displaying light-staining cytoplasm
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
e. 1, 4, 5
29. Which elements belong to gray matter?
16
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
myelinated nerve fibers

aggregations of neuronal cell bodies
unmyelinated portions of axons
neuroglial cells
cortico-spinal fibers
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 2, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3
30. What is located inside of periosteal dura mater?
1. loose network of elastic fibers
2. osteoprogenitor cells
3. fibroblasts
4. organized bundles of collagen fibers
6. myofibroblasts
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 3, 6
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 2, 4, 5
e. 3, 4, 6
31. What of the following is not correct regarding the CSF?
a. It is replaced its total volume about one time daily
b. It is produced at the rate of about 14 to 36 mL/hour
c. It may contain a few desquamated
d. it is low in protein but rich in sodium and chloride ions
e. It is clear and has a low density
32. Which elements are located inside of neuropil?
a. tangled network of axons, dendrites, and neuroglial processes
b. aggregations of neuron cell bodies embedded in white matter
c. ganglia of the peripheral nervous system
d. cell body of neuron
e. processes of neuroglial cells
33. What is located inside the nuclei of dorsal hornes of spinal cord?
a. aggregations of cell bodies of sensory neurons
b. aggregations of cell bodies of motor neurons
c. aggregations of nerve fibers and collagen fibers
d. tangled network of axons, dendrites and elastic fibers
e. Shwann cells and oligodendrocytes
34. What is located inside of the border cell layer of dura mater?
a. A layer of cells internal to the meningeal dura mater, composed of flattened
fibroblasts
b. A layer of cells external to the meningeal dura mater, composed of flattened
fibroblasts
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c. A layer of cells between the arachnoid mater and pia mater

d. A layer of cells between the pia mater and brain tissue
e. Interface between meningeal dura and periosteum of bones of scull
35.Where is the epineurium thickest?
a. where it is continuous with the dura covering the spinal cord
b. where the nerves branch into smaller nerve components
c. where it covers the endoneurium
e. where the spinal nerves terminate
36. What is found inside of epineurium?
1. dense, irregular, collagenous connective tissue
2. thick elastic fibers that cover the endoneurium
3. collagen fibers that aligned and oriented to prevent damage
4. dense, regular, collagenous connective tissue
5. simple squamous epithelial cells
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 5
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 2, 4, 5
37. Where is the epineurium thinnest?
a. where the nerves branch into smaller nerve components
b. where it is continuous with the dura covering the CNS at the spinal
cord or brain
c. where it covers the endoneurium
e. where the spinal or cranial nerves originate
38. Which cells do produce the reticular fibers of endoneurium?
a. Schwann cells
b. fibroblasts
c. fixed macrophages
d. perivascular mast cells
e. muscle cells
39. How is called the connective tissue surrounding the entire peripheral nerve?
a. Epineurium
b. Perineurium
c. Endoneurium
d. Epimysium
e. Peritenonium
40. Which cells are not found around neurons of sensory ganglia?
1. squamous capsule cells
2. cuboidal capsule cells
3. mast cells
4. satellite cells
5. oligodendrocytes
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6. astrocytes
a. 1, 3, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 3, 4, 5
e. 1, 4, 5, 6
41. With which nerves are associated the sensory ganglia?
1. with cranial nerve V
2. with cranial nerve VI
3. with cranial nerve IX
4. with cranial nerve X
5. with each of the spinal nerves
6. with cranial nerve III
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 5
c. 1, 3, 5, 6
d. 2, 3, 4, 5
e. 2, 4, 5, 6
42. Identify the correct explanation of spinal ganglia.
a. Their cells are enveloped by cuboidal capsule cells
b. Their cells are enveloped by columnar capsule cells
c. They are also called dorsal roof ganglia
d. They house pseudounipolar cell bodies of the motor
nerves
e. They house multipolar cell bodies of the motor
nerves
43. What of the following surround neurons in dorsal root ganglia?
a. the capsule cells, satellite cells and collagen
b. the epineural cells, oligodendrogliya and collagen
c. the capsule cells, pericytes and collagen
d. the epithelial cells, satellite cells and elastin
e. the smooth muscle cells, glial cells and collagen
44. Where do the central processes of neurons in dorsal roof ganglia pass?
a. to the spinal cord within the spinal nerves
b. to the peripheral organs within the spinal nerves
c. to the peripheral organs within the cranial nerves
d. to the Meysners nerve plexus
e. to the Auerbachs nerve plexus
45. Where are located the neurons peripheral processes of which transduce
information from the external environment?
a. dorsal root ganglia
b. ventral root ganglia
c. ventral horn of spinal cord
d. autonomic ganglia
e. Auerbachs nerve plexus
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46. Which numbers do indicate the lamina propria, venule and elements of
submucosal plexus?
A) 2, 6, 5
B) 4, 6, 5
C) 7, 3, 4
D) 1, 3, 5
E) 1, 2, 5
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47. Which numbers do indicate the submucosa, venule and nerve fibers?
A) 1, 4, 5
B) 3, 6, 7
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 3, 4, 5
E) 2, 5, 6
48. Where does the somatic nervous system provide motor impulses?
a. Synergistic muscles
b. smooth muscles
c. there is no correct answer
d. secretory cells of the exocrine glands
e. secretory cells of the endocrine glands
49. What is not characteristic to the sympathetic nervous system?
a. constricts the pupils of the eyes
b. increase respiration
c. increase blood pressure
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d. increase heart rate

e. dilating pupils of the eyes
50. What is not characteristic to the parasympathetic nervous system?
a. dilating pupils of the eyes
b. constricts the pupils of the eyes
c. decrease respiration
d. decrease blood pressure
e. decrease heart rate
51. What is characteristic to the parasympathetic nervous system?
a. increases the actions of the visceral system
b. increase respiration
c. increase blood pressure
d. increase heart rate
e. dilating pupils of the eyes
52. What is broadly considered to function in vasoconstriction?
a. sympathetic nervous system
b. parasympathetic nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. enteric nervous system
53. What is broadly considered to be secretomotor in function?
a. parasympathetic nervous system
b. sympathetic nervous system
c. somatic nervous system
d. enteric nervous system
54. How are the postganglionic neurons?
a. multipolar
b. unipolar
c. bipolar
d. pseudounipolar
55. Which fibers are unmyelinated?
a. Postganglionic fibers of sympathetic nervous system
b. Postganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous system
c. Preganglionic fibers of sympathetic nervous system
d. Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic nervous system
e. Postganglionic fibers of somatic nervous system
56. Where is the acetylcholine main neurotransmitter?
1. between preganglionic and postganglionic fibers
2. at synapses between postganglionic sympathetic fibers and effector organs
3. between parasympathetic postganglionic endings and effector organs
4. at synapses between postganglionic sympathetic fibers and smooth muscle
cells
5. at synapses on skeletal muscle cells
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a. 1, 3, 5
b. 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 2, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 3
57. Where is the acetylcholine not main neurotransmitter?
1. at synapses on skeletal muscle cells
2. between preganglionic and postganglionic fibers
3. at synapses between postganglionic sympathetic fibers and effector organs
4. between parasympathetic postganglionic endings and effector organs
5. at synapses between postganglionic sympathetic fibers and smooth muscle
cells
6. at endings of Purkinje neurons
a. 3, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 3, 5
e. 3, 4, 5
58. Where do go the preganglionic fibers in sympathetic nervous system?
1. synapse on the ganglion in the sympathetic trunk
2. enter the abdominal cavity as splanchnic nerves
3. synapse on the collateral ganglia
4. synapse on the ganglia of cranial nerves
5. synapse on the intramural ganglia
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 5
e. 2, 3, 4
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59. Which numbers do indicate the Purkinje cells, Golgi cells and parallel fibers?
A) 2, 4, 5
B) 1, 3, 6
C) 4, 7, 8
D) 3, 5, 9
E) 1, 2, 9
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60. Which of the following is found in the cerebellum?

A. Basket cells
B. Schwann cells
C. Ganglion
D. Neuroglia
E. Satellite cells
61. Where are located Purkinje neurons?
A. II layer of cerebellar cortex
B. I layer of brain cortex
C. II layer of brain cortex
D. III layer cerebellar cortex
E. IV layer of brain cortex
62.Which type of neurons are located in the granular layer of cerebellar cortex?
A. Golgi neurons
B. Basket neurons
C. Purkinje neurons
D. Stellate neurons
E. Pyramidal neurons
63. Which neurons form the efferent ways of cerebellar cortex?
A. Purkinje neurons
B. Basket neurons
C. Golgi neurons
D. Stellate neurons
A. Pyramidal neurons
64. Cell bodies of preganglionic parasympathetic nervesA. originating in segments of the sacral spinal cord
B. housed in the chain ganglia
C. exit the ganglia, via white rami communicantes
D. do not reenter the peripheral nerve for distribution
E. are Pyramidal neurons
65. How is the cerebellar output in action?
A. Inhibitory
B. Excitatory
C. glutamatergic
D. sensory
E. Neuromuscular
66.Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system?
A. Grey matter of spinal cord
B. Branchial plexus and brain
C. Receptors
D. Ganglia and spinal cord
E. arachnoidal cells
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67. What is the characteristic feature of cerebellar cortex?

a. inhibitory output using GABA as the neurotransmitter
b. excitatory output using GABA as the neurotransmitter
c. inhibitory output using glycin as the neurotransmitter
d. inhibitory output using glutamate as the neurotransmitter
e. excitatory output using norepinephrine as the neurotransmitter
68.What is developed from a small mass of cells at the lateral margins of the neural
plate?
a. cells of neural tube
b. neural crest cells
c. mesoderm cells
d. angiogenic cells
e. smooth muscle cells
69. Where are located the arachnoid villi?
a. In the lumina of the dural venous sinuses
b. In the lumina of the pial arterious sinuses
c. In the subarachnoid space
d. In the subpial space
e. In the lumina of the arachnoid venous sinuses
70. What is the charasteric feature of the granular layer of cerebellar cortex?
a. Is the deepest layer, that consists of small granule cells and glomeruli
b. Is the middle layer, that consists of small granule cells and glomeruli
c. Is the deepest layer, that consists of large granule cells and basket
cells
d. Is the deepest layer, that consists of small granule cells and Martinotti
cells
e. Is the superficial layer, that consists of flask-shaped cells and
glomeruli
71.What are the cerebellar islands?
a. Glomeruli
b. Astrocytes
c. Purkinje cells
d. There is no correct answer
e. Cerebellar capillaries
72.Where does take their origin the satellite cells of peripheral
ganglia?
a. Neural crest cells
b. Mesoderm
c. There is no correct answer
d. Neural tube
e. mesenchyme
73.What are the Glomeruli the cerebellar cortex?
a. regions of synapses between axons entering the cerebellum and the
granule cells
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b. regions of synapses between dendrites entering the cerebellum and

the granule cells.
c. regions of the cerebellar cortex where capillaries form a network
d. regions of the cerebellar cortex where nerve fibers originate from
Purkinje cells
e. regions of synapses between the dendrites and axons of the granule
cells.
74.Which of the following take its origin from the neural crest cells?
1. Epitheliocytes of the skin and oral mucosa
2. Most of the sensory components of the PNS
3. Sensory neurons of cranial and spinal sensory ganglia (dorsal root
ganglia)
4. Autonomic ganglia and the postganglionic autonomic neurons originating
in them
5. Much of the mesenchyme of the trunk
6. Odontoblasts (cells responsible for production of dentin)
a. 2, 3, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 5, 6
d. 1, 2, 3, 6
e. 2, 4, 5, 6
75. What are the features of Purkinje cells?
1. the large, flask-shaped cells
2. present only in the cerebellum
3. their arborized dendrites project into the molecular layer
4. their myelinated axons project into the white matter
5. receive only excitatory synapses
6. small rounded bipolar cells
7. large pseudounipolar neurons
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3, 6
c. 1, 3, 5, 7
d. 2, 3, 5, 7
e. 1, 4, 6, 7
76. Which of the following take its origin from the neural crest cells?
1. Chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla
2. Cells of the dura mater
3. Cells of the arachnoid and pia mater
4. Satellite cells of skeletal muscle
5. Satellite cells of peripheral ganglia
6. Schwann cells
a. 1, 3, 5, 6
b. 2, 3, 4, 6
c. 1, 2, 3, 4
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d. 1, 2, 5, 6
e. 1, 2, 3, 6
77. What is not function of neuroglial cells?
1. Integrative
2. Motor
3. Supportive
4. Protective
5. Receptive
a. 1, 2, 5
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 1, 2, 4
78.What of the following do contain the Purkinje neurons?
a. II layer of cerebellar cortex
b. I layer of brain cortex
c. II layer of brain cortex
d. III layer cerebellar cortex
e. IV layer of brain cortex
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79. Which numbers do indicate the fusiform neuron, stellate neuron and giant
pyramidal neuron?
A) 2, 4, 7
B) 3, 8, 9
C) 4, 5, 10
D) 6, 8, 10
E) 3, 4, 9
80.Where are the Martinotti cells found?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Cerebellar cortex
c. Spinal cord
d. Spinal ganglia
e. Retina
81. What is true concerning the vitreous body?
A. a transparent, refractile gel that fills the cavity of the eye
B. is composed mostly (99%) of electrolytes containing a minute amount of
water, collagen fibers,
C. adheres to the sclera over its entire surface
D. Include many mast cells
E. suspended within the eye by fibers
82. Identify the correct statement
A. The future retina and the optic nerve are first to be observed during
development
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B. The mesoderm gives rise to lens and vascular tunic of the eye
C. Mesenchyme condenses to form the cornea
D. The sclera and retina are first to be observed during development
E. The development of eye begins at 6th week of gestation
83. Where do the extrinsic muscles of the eye insert?
A. Sclera
B. Episclera
C. Tenons capsule
D. Periorbital fat
E. Conjunctiva
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84. Which numbers do indicate the layer of nerve fibers, outer nuclear layer and
pigment epithelium of retina?
A) There is no correct answer

B) 10, 3, 8
C) 3, 8, 9
D) 5, 11, 3
E) 11, 5, 8
85. Which numbers do indicate the layer of nerve fibers, outer nuclear layer and
pigment epithelium of retina?
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A) 11, 3, 8
B) 10, 3, 8
C) There is no correct answer
D) 5, 11, 3
E) 11, 5, 8
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86. Which numbers do indicate the cons, axons of ganglion cells and amacrine
cells? Follow the true sequence of numbers indicating those structures.
A) 10, 2, 15
B) 8, 2, 15
C) 11, 3, 15
D) There is no correct answer
E) 12, 3, 14
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86.Which numbers do indicate the striated muscle fibers and bulb of eyelash?
A) 4, 7
B) 3, 7
C) 2, 4
D) 4, 6
E) There is no correct answer
34
87.Which numbers do indicate the superior arch of conjunctiva, endothelium of

anterior chamber and anterior chamber?
A) 2, 8, 7
B) 1, 9, 7
C) 8, 9, 10
D) 7, 9, 3
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88.Which numbers do indicate the superior arch of conjunctiva, endothelium of

anterior chamber and anterior chamber?

B) 2, 8, 7
C) 1, 9, 7
D) 7, 9, 3
E) 7, 9, 3
89.Which numbers do indicate the bony labyrinth, membranous spiral lamina and
cochlear duct?
36
A) 5, 3, 7
B) 8, 5, 6
C) 4, 7, 8
D) 5, 3, 6
37
90.Which numbers do indicate the bony labyrinth, membranous spiral lamina and
cochlear duct?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
there is no correct answer

3, 4, 8
3, 5, 4
2, 5, 8
5, 6, 7
91.Which numbers do indicate the scala tympani, basilar membrane and stria
vascularis?
38
A) 9, 7, 6
B) 1, 3, 7
C) 4, 7, 6
D) 2, 6, 7
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92. Which numbers do indicate the pillar epithelial cells, inner hair cells and
columnar external limiting cell?
A) 8, 5, 2
B) 1, 3, 5
C) 2, 8, 1
D) 6, 3, 7
40
93.Which numbers do indicate the osseus spiral lamina, spiral ganglion and
vestibular (Reissners) membrane?
A) 9, 10, 2
B) 1, 9, 10
C) 2, 4, 9
D) 2, 8, 10
94.Which numbers do indicate the vestibular (Reissners) membrane, spiral
ganglion and osseus spiral lamina? Follow the true sequence of shown elements
A) 2, 9, 10,
B) 5, 8, 9
C) 8, 9, 10
D) 2, 7, 10
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E) there is no correct answer
42
95.Which numbers do indicate the endolymph, semicircular duct and II-type

vestibular hair cells?
A) 3, 1, 6
B) 1, 6, 2
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C) 4, 3, 1
D) 6, 5, 3
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96.Which numbers do indicate the II-type vestibular hair cells, glycoprotein layer
of otolitic membrane and vestibular supporting cells?
A) 7, 4, 5
B) 2, 5, 7
C) 3, 6, 5
D) 4, 6, 7
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97. To which type of receptors belong the taste and olfactory organs?
A. Exteroceptors
B. Interoceptors
C. Intraceptors
D. Proprioceptors
E. Both Intra- and Proprioceptors
98. Which of the following is not the modality of exteroceptors?
A. general visceral afferent
B. general somatic afferent
C. special somatic afferent
D. special visceral afferent
E. Receptors for olfaction
99. Which modality does serve the organ of smell?
A. special visceral afferent
B. general visceral afferent
C. general somatic afferent
D. special somatic afferent
E. special visceral efferent
100. Which of the following is covered by olfactory epithelium?
1) vestibule of the nasal cavity
2) posterior regions of the nasal cavity
3) the roof of the nasal cavity
4) the superior aspect of the nasal septum
5) the superior concha
6) the root of the nasal cavity
7) the middle concha
A. 3, 4, 5
B. 1, 2, 7
C. 1, 3, 5
D. 2, 3, 4
E. 3, 4, 7
101. What is not located in the underlying lamina propria of olfactory epithelium?
1) serous fluid-secreting Bowman's glands
2) a rich vascular plexus
3) collections of axons
4) mucou fluid-secreting Bowman's glands
5) serous fluid-secreting Brunner's glands
6) collections of neuronal cell bodies and axons
A. 1, 2, 3
B. 1, 2, 5
C. 1, 3, 5
D. 2, 3, 6
E. 2, 4, 6
46
102.Which cell is a type of neuron?

a. Olfactory cells
b. Brush cells
c. Basal cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. Hensens cells
103.What type of cells are not found in the olfactory mucosa?
a. Ciliated cells
b. Brush cells
c. Olfactory cells
d. Sustentacular cells
e. Basal cells
103. Which cells of taste buds do not form synaptic junctions with nerve fibers?
a. Basal cells
b. Dark cells
c. Light cells
d. Intermediate cells
e. Type II cells
105. Where are located the taste reseptors?
A. On the plasma membrane, covering microvilli of type I, II, and III
cells
B. On the plasma membrane, covering cilia of type I, II, and III cells
C. On the plasma membrane, covering the basal cells of taste buds
D. Inside the taste cells
E. In the nucleus of supporting cells
106. What are the stem cells for the cells of taste buds?
A. Basal cells of taste buds
B. Basal cells of papillae
C. Supporting cells of taste buds
D. Sensory cells
E. Cells of epithelial lining of root of the tongue
47
107. Where are found taste buds besides tongue?

A. On the soft palate and glossopalatine arch
B. Anterior surface of epiglottis
C. On the vestibule of oral cavity
D. Posterior wall of the pharynx and lingual tonsil
E. On the hard palate
108. In which sensory organ does excitation associated with cell hyperpolarisation?
A) Organ of vision
B) Organ of smell
C) touch reseptors
D) Organ of hearing
E) Taste buds
109. Which region of tongue is more sensitive to detect salty tastes?
A. Immediately posterolateral to the tip
B. Tip of the tongue
C. Lateral parts of the ventral surface
D. Between the body and the root of the tongue
E. On the circumvallate papillae
110. Which modality does serve the organ of taste?
A. special visceral afferent
B. general visceral afferent
C. general somatic afferent
D. special somatic afferent
E. special visceral efferent
111. Which types of cells do not belong to taste organ?
1) Brush cells
2) Basal cells
3) Dark cells
4) Light cells
5) Intermediate cells
6) Hairy cells
7) Ciliated cells
A. 1, 6, 7
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 2, 4, 5
D. 2, 3, 7
E. 1, 2, 5
48
112. With which cells are not formed synaptic junctions of nerve fibers entering the
taste bud?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
type IV cells
type I
type II
type III cells
dark cells
113. What were noted as taste hairs with the light microscope?
A. long, slender microvilli that protrude from the taste pore
B. long, slender stereocilia that protrude from the taste pore
C. short, slender cilia that protrude from the taste pore
D. short, slender microvilli that protrude from the taste glands
E. long, nonmotile cilia that protrude from the taste buds
114. What of these glands do release their secret at the base of circumvallate
papillae?
A. glands of von Ebner
B. glands of von Willebrand
C. glands of von Brunner
D. glands of Bowman
E. glands of Purkinje
115. Which sides of the circumvallate papillae do not contain the taste buds ?
A. the dorsum of these papillae
B. epithelial lining of the groove around them
C. epithelial lining of the side of them
D. epithelial lining of the base of the groove
E. the lateral surfaces of these papillae
116. What are the taste buds?
A. intraepithelial sensory organs
B. extraepithelial sensory organs
C. intramural sensory organs
D. intrafusal sensory organs
E. extracapsular organs of sence
117. What does protrude from the taste pore ?
A. long, slender microvilli
B. nerve fibers entering the taste bud
C. synaptic junctions with type I, type II, and type III cells
D. long, slender and numerous cilia
E. long, slender stereocilia
118. What does form the taste pore?
A. the squamous epithelial cells that overlie the taste bud
B. the squamous myoepithelial cells that overlie the taste bud
C. the columnar epithelial cells that overlie the taste bud
D. the squamous epithelial cells that underlie the taste bud
49
E. the cuboidal epithelial cells that overlie the taste organ

119. What is the taste pore?
A. The part of taste bud
B. The opening at the apex of lingual tonsil
C. The microvilli of neuroepithelial cells
D. Chemical sensation
E. Taste papillae of tongue
120. Which cells of taste buds do not form synaptic junctions with nerve fibers?
A. Basal cells
B. Dark cells
C. Light cells
D. Intermediate cells
E. Type II cells
121. What are the stem cells for the cells of taste buds?
a. Basal cells of taste buds
b. Basal cells of papillae
c. Supporting cells of taste buds
d. Sensory cells
e. Cells of epithelial lining of root of the tongue
122. Where are found taste buds besides tongue?
a. On the soft palate and glossopalatine arch
b. Anterior surface of epiglottis
c. On the vestibule of oral cavity
d. Posterior wall of the pharynx and lingual tonsil
e. On the hard palate
123. Which numbers do indicate the other stratum of epidermis, sweat glands and
blood vessels?
50
A) 3, 6, 1
B) 1, 4, 6
C) 8, 1, 6
D) 2, 5, 8
51
124.Which numbers do indicate the reticular fibers, stratum granulosum and

melanocyte?
A) 4, 13, 6
B) 13, 3, 7
C) 13, 3, 6
D) 11, 4, 6
52
125.Which numbers do indicate the dermis and sebaceous gland?

B) 1, 5
C) 1, 3
D) 3, 5
E) 4, 3
53
126. Which numbers do indicate the skin ligaments, stratum spinosum and
papillary crysta?
A) 10, 3, 7
B) 6, 7, 10
C) 2, 6, 10
D) 3, 6, 9
54
127. Which numbers do indicate the tonofilaments, keratinosomes and

mitochondrion?

B) 3, 7, 4
C) 3, 5, 4
D) 2, 8, 5
55
E) 2, 3, 6
56
128.Which numbers do indicate the pigment inclusions and stratum basale?
A) Noncorrect question
B) 2, 5
C) 3, 6
D) 3,5
E) 3, 7
57
129. What does attach the stratum basale cells to the basal lamina?
A. hemidesmosomes
B. desmosomes
C. zonula adherence
D. focal contacts
E. anchoring cells
130. Identify the incorrect statement
A. Keratohyaline granules are membrane-coating granules
B. The thickest layer of the epidermis is the stratum spinosum
C. The basally located keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum are mitotically
active
D. The cells in the stratum spinosum are richer in bundles of intermediate
filaments
E. Bundles called tonofibrils cause the cytoplasm to become eosinophilic
A. The tonofilaments represent cytoplasmic secretory granules
B. The tonofilaments represent cytokeratin
C. In the stratum spinosum bundles of tonofilaments radiate outward from the
perinuclear region toward highly interdigitated cellular processes
D. As keratinocytes move toward the surface through the stratum spinosum,
they continue to produce tonofilaments
E. The membrane-coating granules are lamellar granules
A. membrane-coating granules release their content outside at stratum
granulosum
B. membrane-coating granules release their content outside at stratum
spinosum
C. lamellar granules are nonmembranous granules that release their content
outside at stratum basalis
58
D. membrane-coating granules contain the bundles of tonofilaments

E. Keratohyaline granules house lipid substance arranged in a closely packed,
lamellar configuration.
133. What provides formation of five distinct zones of the epidermis?
A. cytomorphosis of keratinocytes
B. cytomorphosis of melanocytes
C. histomorphosis of keratinosomes
D. histomorphosis of skin macrophages
E. cytokinesis of keratinocytes
134. Choose the right statement about the keratinocytes.
1) they undergo mitosis at night periods of day
2) they undergo mitosis at light periods of day
3) the cells above continue to be pushed toward the surface
4) they accumulate keratin filaments in their karyoplasm
5) in stratum basale they containing basophilic cytoplasm
a) 1, 3, 5
b) 1, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 5
e) 2, 4, 5
135. What is located inside of thick skin?
1) sweat glands
2) hair follicles
3) arrector pili muscles
4) sebaceous glands
5) five epidermal layers
6) ducts of sweat glands
A. 1, 5, 6
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 2, 4, 5
E. 2, 5, 6
136. What is not located inside of thin skin?
A. five epidermal layers
B. sweat glands
C. hair follicles
D. arrector pili muscles
E. sebaceous glands
137. Which layer is the thickest layer of epidermis, whose keratinocytes, known as
prickle cells, interdigitate with one another by forming intercellular bridges?
A. Stratum spinosum
59
B. Stratum granulosum
C. Stratum basale
D. Stratum corneum
E. Stratum lucidum
138.. Which cells are not found in stratum basale?
A. Langerhans cells
B. mitotically active cells
C. Merkel cells
D. Melanocytes
E. keratinocytes
139. What is not true about the deepest layer of skin?
A. Contains ducts of sebaceous glands
B. include type I collagen
C. include thick elastic fibers
D. include connective tissue cells
E. contains sweat glands and their ducts
140. What are the tonofilaments?
A. intermediate filaments
B. microfilaments
C. microtubules
D. actin filaments
E. hemidesmosomes
141. Which junctions are located on the lateral cell membrane attaching stratum
basale cells to each other and to cells of the stratum spinosum?
A. Desmosomes
B. Hemidesmosomes
C. Tight junctions
D. Zonula occludence
E. Zonula adherence
142. Which function is performed by the malpighian layer?
A. responsible for the turnover of epidermal keratinocytes
B. responsible for the turnover of epidermal melanocytes
C. responsible for the turnover of dermal cells
D. responsible for the turnover of malpighian corpuscules
E. responsible for the turnover of intestinal cells
143. What is represented by tonofilaments?
A. Cytokeratin
B. Cytodesmin
C. Actin proteins
D. Tubulin proteins
E. Fillagrin
144. What is not found inside of cells of stratum spinosum?
A. keratohyalin granules
B. Tonofibrils
C. cytoplasmic secretory granules
60
D. membrane-coating granules
E. lamellar granules
145. Where are found dermatoglyphs?
A. In skin of finger and toe pad surfaces
B. In skin of finger and outer surface of hands
C. In skin of all surface of palms
D. In skin of all surface of palms and toe pad surfaces
E. In thin skin of inner surfaces of palms and soles
146. When are formed dermatoglyphs?
A. in the fetus and remain unchanged throughout life
B. in the fetus and become changed throughout life
C. in the 5-th week and change throughout life
D. in the conceptus and remain unchanged throughout life
E. in the first year of postnatal life and remain unchanged throughout life
147. What is deposited in cytoplasmic aspect of the plasma membrane of cells in
the stratum lucidum?
A. involucrin
B. keratohyline filaments
C. eleidin
D. ceramides
E. diasylglyserol
a. Keratohyaline granules are membrane-coating granules
b. The thickest layer of the epidermis is the stratum spinosum
c. The basally located keratinocytes in the stratum spinosum are mitotically
active
d. The cells in the stratum spinosum are richer in bundles of intermediate
filaments
e. Bundles called tonofibrils cause the cytoplasm to become eosinophilic
a. The tonofilaments represent cytoplasmic secretory granules
b. The tonofilaments represent cytokeratin
c. In the stratum spinosum bundles of tonofilaments radiate outward from the
perinuclear region toward highly interdigitated cellular processes
d. As keratinocytes move toward the surface through the stratum spinosum,
they continue to produce tonofilaments
e. The membrane-coating granules are lamellar granules
a. membrane-coating granules release their content outside at stratum
granulosum
b. membrane-coating granules release their content outside at stratum
spinosum
c. lamellar granules are nonmembranous granules that release their content
outside at stratum basalis
d. membrane-coating granules contain the bundles of tonofilaments
61
e. Keratohyaline granules house lipid substance arranged in a closely packed,

lamellar configuration.
62
151. What is true about the external root sheath?

A. derived from the cells of basal layer of epidermis
B. consists of three components
C. derived from the cells of hair follicule
D. include the Henle's layer
E. include the cuticle
152.
What is the half moon shaped white area on a nail called?
a. Lunula
b. Eponychium
c. Matrix
d. Nail bed
e. Root
153.
What is the growing part of the nail?
a. Matrix
b. Eponychium
c. Lunula
d. Nail bed
e. Root
154.
What type of glands are the ceruminous glands?
a. Apocrine sweat gland
b. Eccrine sweat gland
c. Endocrine gland
d. Sebaceous glands
e. Oil gland
155.
What is underneath the nail plate?
a. Nail bed
b. Eponychium
c. Matrix
d. Lunula
e. Root
156.
Which of the following is found in the hair follicle?
a. Huxley's layer
b. Muller's cells
c. Pigment epithelium
d. Horizontal cells
e. Cones
63
157. Which of the following is NOT considered an epidermal appendage?

a. Hypodermis
b. Hair
c. Sweat gland
d. Nails
e. Sebaceous glands
158. What is the portion of the nail which is underneath skin?
a. Root
b. Eponychium
c. Matrix
d. Nail bed
e. Lunula
159. What of the following are components of hard keratin?
A. keratin filaments embedded in trichohyalin
B. keratin filaments embedded in filaggrin
C. keratolinin embedded in filaggrin
D. keratohyalin inside of eleidin
E. trichohyalin inside of involucrine
160. Which numbers do indicate the dura mater, neurohypophysis and
infundibulum? Follow the true sequence of numbers showing those elements.
64

B) 6, 4, 10
C) 2, 7, 10
D) 7, 4, 11
E) 4, 6, 13
65
161. Which numbers do indicate the corticotropic, simpatotropic and thyrotropic

cells of hypophysis?
A) Noncorrect question
B) 4, 1, 2
C) 3, 2, 4
D) 1, 3, 4
E) 5, 2, 1
162. Where is oxytocin secreted from?

a. Neurohypophisis
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Infundibulum
d. Adenohypophisis
e. Pars intermedia
163.
What cell type secretes FSH?
a. Gonadotropic cells
b. Thyrotropic cells
66
c. Somatotropic cells
d. Corticotropic cells
e. Lactotropic cells
164.
What type of hormone is oxytocin?
a. Peptide
b. Protein
c. Steroid
d. Catecholamine
e. lipid
165.
Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secreted from?
a. Neurohypophysis
b. Pars tuberalis
c. Infundibulum
d. Adenohypophysis
e. Pars intermedia
166.
. Which hormone causes contractions of myoepithelial cells of
the mammary glands, assisting in milk ejection?
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin
C. Secret of mammary gland
D. Gonadoliberin
E. Corticoloberin
167. Which hormone receptors do not use G proteins to activate a second messenger?
A. FSH
B. Epinephrine
C. thyroid-stimulating hormone
D. serotonin
E. TSH
168. What vessels are found in the median eminence?
A. primary capillary plexus
B. Inferior hypophyseal arteries
C. Posterior hypophyseal arteries
D. Secondary capillary plexus
E. Infundibular artheries
169. Which vessels drain the primary capillary plexus?
A. Hypophyseal portal veins
67
B.
C.
D.
E.
Hypothalamic portal veins

Inferior hypophyseal veins
Posterior hypophyseal arteries
Infundibular venule
170. Where is corpora arenacea found?

A. Pineal gland
B. Pituitary
C. Adrenal gland
D. Pancreas
E. Thyroid
171. The parenchymal cells of the pineal gland is composed primarily of
A. pinealocytes and interstitial cells
B. pinealocytes and oxyphilic cells
C. chief cells and pituicytes
D. pituicytes and neuroglial cells
E. chief cells and oxyphilic cells
172. Which types of cells does include the parenchyma of the epiphysis?
A. Pinealocytes and interstitial cells
B. Pinealocytes and fibroblasts
C. Pinealocytes and neurons
D. Chief cells and oxyphilic cells
E. Macrophages and Pinealocytes
173. Which hormone is produced by the epiphysis in the light periods of day?
167. Serotonin
168. Melatonin
169. TSH and LH
170. Norepinephrin
68
171. Mammotropin
174.Which innervation has pineal gland?
A. Sympatetic
B. Parasympatetic
C. Cholinergic
D. Somatic
E. Parasympatetic and cholinergic
175. Where are tropic hormones are secreted from?
a. Adenohypophysis
b. Median eminence
c. Pars tuberalis
d. Infundibulum
e. Hypothalamus
176. Where are liberins are secreted from?
A. Median eminence
B. Adenohypophysis
C. Pars tuberalis
D. Infundibulum
E. Hypothalamus
177. Which differences are between the axons of arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus
and other axons of the body?
a. instead of delivering a signal to another cell, they liberate either releasing or
inhibiting hormones
b. instead of delivering a nerve impulses , they liberate thyroid hormones
c. instead of delivering a signal to another cell, they liberate oxytocin and ADH
d. instead of releasing cerebrospinal fluid, they liberate releasing hormones
e. instead of delivering a signal to another cell, they liberate either inhibiting
hormones and FSH
178.
. What are the releasing or inhibiting hormones?
a. They are taken by the hypophyseal portal system and delivered to the
secondary capillary bed
69
b. They are taken by the inferior hypophyseal artheries and delivered to the
c. They are taken by the hypophyseal portal system and delivered to the
primary capillary bed
d. They are taken by the hypothalamic portal system and delivered to the
e. They are delivered to the capillary bed of epiphisis
179. Choose the false description.
a. Many of the hormones that circulate in the bloodstream are in oversupply
b. Many of the hormones that circulate in the extracellular fluid are in
oversupply
c. Few of the hormones that circulate in the bloodstream are in oversupply
d. Many of the hormones that circulate in the bloodstream are in limited supply
e. Many of the cytokines are reabsorbed from the bloodstream
180. Which organ does produce the follitropin?
f. Adenohypophysis
g. Median eminence
h. Pars tuberalis
i. Infundibulum
j. Hypothalamus
181. Which organ does produce the liberins?
a. Medial portion of hypothalamus
b. Median eminence
c. Adenohypophysis
d. Sopraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus
e. Parathyroid gland
182. Where is the somatoliberine released?
A. the primary capillary plexus of the median eminence
B. the secondary capillary plexus, located in the pars distalis
C. the primary capillary plexus, located in the pars distalis
D. the primary capillary plexus of the pars tuberalis
E. the secondary capillary plexus of the median eminence
70
183.Which numbers do indicate the contact line of cells, collection of glycogen

and mitochondria?
A) 6, 3, 5
B) 3, 5, 8
C) 3, 4, 5
D) 8, 3, 4
184.. Which type is involved in the secretion of thyroglobulin?
A. Follicular cells
B. Oxyphilic cells
C. Parafollicular cells
D. Principal cells
E. Chromaffin cells
71
185. Which type is involved in the secretion of calsotonin?

A. Parafollicular cells
B. Follicular cells
C. Oxyphilic cells
D. Principal cells
E. Chromaffin cells
186. What is not true concerning the follicular cells of thyroid gland?
A. have a round to ovoid nucleus with two nucleoli and oxyphilic cytoplasm
B. have a round to ovoid nucleus with two nucleoli and basophilic
cytoplasm
C. have numerous apically located cilia
D. numerous short stereocilia that extend into the colloid
E. under the control of TSH
187. What is taken place during production of thyroid hormones?
A. Iodide is actively transported via sodium/iodide symporters
B. Iodide is actively transported via potassium/iodide symporters
C. Iodide is passively transported via sodium channels
D. Iodide is passively transported via calsium channels
E. Iodide is actively transported via sodium/potassium symporters
188. What is true about the iodide oxidation in thyroid?
B.
occurs by the enzyme thyroid peroxidase

requires the presence of hydrogen ions
C.
requires the presence of FSH
D.
requires the presence of argentum peroxide (H2O2)
E.
requires the presence of thyroid decarboxylase
A.
189. How are formed the triiodinated and tetraiodinated tyrosines?
72
A. by the coupling of an MIT and a DIT or of two DITs, respectively.

B. during production of thyroglobulin in secondary lysosomes
C. in the RER of parafollicular cells
D. by the coupling of iodine with aminoacid thyrosin and a DIT
E. by the coupling of an MIT and thyrosin
190. From which source do develop the thyroid gland?
A. Third branchial pouch
B. First branchial pouch
C. Fifth branchial pouch
D. Mesodermal germ layer
E. Ectoderm germ layer
191. Where is take place the iodination of thyroglobulin?

A. In the colloid at the apical surface of thyrocytes
B. In the colloid at the basal surface of thyrocytes
C. In deep parts of colloid
D. Inside the C-cells
E. In the Golgi apparatus of thyrocytes
192. When is take place the resorption of colloid?
A. In response to TSH
B. In response to iodine
C. In response to FSH
D. In response to LH
E. In response to thyroxin-binding protein
193. Which cells are largest cells of thyroid gland?
A. Parafollicular cells
73
B. Thyrocytes
C. Pericytes
D. Fibrocytes
E. T-lymphocytes
194. Where is the thyroglobulin synthesized?
a. on ribosomes of the RER of follicular cells
b. on ribosomes of the RER of oxyphilic cells
c. in the Golgi complex of parafollicular cells
d. in the secretory vesicles of follicular cells
e. in the SER and Golgi complex of oxyphilic cells
195. Where is the thyroglobulin glycosylated?
a. in the RER and the Golgi apparatus of follicular cells
b. in the RER and the Golgi apparatus of oxyphilic cells
c. in the Golgi complex of chief cells
d. in the secretory vesicles of parafollicular cells
e. in the Golgi complex of oxyphilic cells
196. Which origin have parathyroid glands?
A. From third and forth branchial pouch
B. From fifth branchial pouch
C. From ectoderm germ layer
D. From neural crest
E. From mesoderm germ layer
197. Which cells of parathyroid do contain high amount of mitochondria?
A. Oxyphil cell
B. Principal cell
C. Parafollicular cells
D. Follicular cells
E. Chromaffin cells
198.
Deficiency of which hormone may lead to titanic contractions?
A. Parathormone
74
B. Calsitonin
C. Thyroxin
D. TSH
E. Mineralocorticoids
199. How is the parathormone production regulated?
a. By the serum calsium level
b. By the ACTH
c. By the hypophiseal hormones
d. By the hypothalamic hormones
e. By the bone calsium level
200. Which hormone does rapidly lower blood calsium level?
a. Calsitonin
b. Parathormone
c. Thyroxin
d. TSH
e. Mineralocorticoids
201. Where is the precursor, preproparathyroid hormone, is synthesized?

a. on ribosomes of the RER of chief cells
b. on ribosomes of the RER of oxyphilic cells
c. on ribosomes of the RER of pituicytes
d. on Golgi complex of chief cells
e. on peroxisomes of interstitial cells
202. Where are the proparathyroid hormone and a polypeptide formed?
a. In the lumen of the RER of chief cells
b. In the lumen of the RER of oxyphilic cells
c. on ribosomes of the RER of pituicytes
d. on Golgi complex of chief cells
e. on peroxisomes of interstitial cells
203. Where is the proparathyroid hormone cleaved into PTH and a small
polypeptide?
a. in the Golgi complex of chief cells
75
b.
c.
d.
e.
In the lumen of the RER of chief cells

In the lumen of the RER of oxyphilic cells
on ribosomes of the RER of pituicytes
on peroxisomes of interstitial cells
204. Which
capillaries,
capillary?
numbers do indicate the medullary

cortical arteriole and sinusoid
76
A) 2, 6, 3
B) 1, 3, 6
C) 2, 3, 5
D) 2, 4, 6
77

A. Arteries arising from adrenal medulla form a network of fenestrated
capillaries in the cortical parenchyma
B. Small venules arising from adrenal cortex pass through the suprarenal
medulla.
C. Short cortical arteries arising from subcapsular plexus form a
network of capillaries in the cortical parenchyma.
D. The right suprarenal vein joins the inferior vena cava, and the left
suprarenal vein drains into the left renal vein.
E. superior suprarenal arteries originate from the inferior phrenic arteries
206. Which cells do secrete glucocorticoids?
A. Cells of zona fasciculata
B. Chromaffin cells
C. Cells of zona reticularis
D. Corticotropocytes
E. Parietal cells
207. Which cell type is found in the adrenal medulla?
A. Chromaffin cells
B. Principal cell
C. Oxyphil cell
D. Parafollicular cells
E. Follicular cells
208. Which of the following is the middle layer of the adrenal cortex?
A. Zona fasciculata
B. Chromaffin cells
C. Zona reticularis
D. Zona glomerulosa
E. Zona superficialis
209.
Release of the catecholamins from chromaffin cells is
induced by
A. Stimulation of the sympathetic ganglion cells in the suprarenal
medulla
B. Release of asetylcholine from postganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers
C. Release of asetylcholine from ganglion cells
D. Stimulation of the sensory nerve endings
E. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nerve
210. From which source do originate the suprarenal medulla?
A. from neural crest cells
B. from mesoderm
C. from ectoderm
D. from parietal layer of lateral mesoderm
E. from entoderm
78
211. From which substance are produced adrenocortical hormones?

A. Cholesterol
B. Thyroxin
C. Thyrosin
D. Serotonin
E. dophamin
212. Which types of muscle cells are not found inside of myocardium?
1. Those belonging to fibrous cardiac skeleton
2. Those which attach the myocardium to the fibrous
skeleton
3. Those specialized for endocrine secretions
4. Those specialized for immune function
5. Those specialized for impulse conduction
6. Those specialized for exocrine secretions
a. 1, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 3, 4, 6
e. 3, 5, 6
213. Where is located the sinoatrial node?
a. at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right atrium
b. at the junction of the inferior vena cava and the right atrium
c. at the junction of the superior vena cava and the left atrium
d. at the junction of the superior vena cava and the right ventricle
e. at the junction of the superior vena cava and the subclavian vein
214. How does spread the impulse creating by sinoatrial node?
a. It spreads over the atrial chamber walls by internodal pathways
b. It spreads over the ventricular chamber walls by internodal pathways
c. It spreads over the atrial chamber walls by interventricular pathways
d. It spreads over the vena cava walls by internodal pathways
e. It spreads over the aorta walls by interfascicular pathways
215. Where are the Purkinje fibers located?
a. at the apex of the heart
b. in the cerebellar cortex
c. in the interatrial septum
d. in the autonomic nervous system
e. at the base of the heart
216. How does the sympathetic nervous system influence heartbeat?
a. modulate the rate and stroke volume of the heartbeat
b. initiate the heartbeat
c. maintain electrolyte balance in cardiac cells
d. initiate the contraction of atria
e. have not any influence on heartbeat
217. Which substances are produced from cardiac muscle cells?
1. atriopeptin
79
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
atrial natriuretic polypeptide

cardiodilatin
cardionatrin
cardiocalsin
cardioprotein
a. 1, 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 5, 6
c. 2, 4, 5, 6
d. 1, 2, 3, 5
e. 1, 4, 5, 6
218. What are not components of the cardiac skeleton?
1. The annuli fibrosi
2. The annuli ventriculi
3. The trigonum fibrosum
4. The trigonum annulosum
5. The septum membranaceum
6. The septum fibrosum
a. 2, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 5
e. 1, 3, 6
219. In which part of heart is formed the annuli fibrosi?
a. around the base of the aorta, pulmonary artery, and the atrioventricular
orifices
b. in the vicinity of the cuspal area of the aortic valve
c. in around the vicinity of the sinoatrial node
d. in around upper portion of the interventricular septum
e. in upper portion of the interatrial septum
220. In which part of heart is formed the trigonum fibrosum?
a. primarily in the vicinity of the cuspal area of the aortic valve
b. around the base of the aorta, pulmonary artery, and the atrioventricular
orifices
c. in around the vicinity of the sinoatrial node
d. in around upper portion of the interventricular septum
e. in upper portion of the interatrial septum
221. Which action has the atriopeptin?
a. fluid maintenance, electrolyte balance and decrease blood pressure
b. fluid production, electrolyte balance and decrease blood pressure
80
c. fluid release, electrolyte balance and increase blood pressure

d. contraction of atria and decrease blood pressure
e. production of peptides and increase blood pressure
222. Where does the atrial natriuretic polypeptide released?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
into the surrounding capillaries

into the surrounding lymphatic vessels
into the lumen of atria
into the lumen of ventricles
into the intestine
223. Which numbers do indicate the tunica media of vein, tunica media of artery
and
tunica adventitia of vein?
81
A) 7, 2, 3
B) 8, 2. 4
C) 7, 1, 3
D) 4, 2, 7
82
224.Which numbers do indicate the postcapillary venule, precapillary and vein?

Follow the true sequence of numbers showing those structures ..
.
A) 4, 2, 6
B) 1,2, 6
C) 2, 4, 5
D) 1, 5, 6
83
225.
Which numbers do indicate the arteriole, lymphatic valves and
collecting venules?
A) 3, 9, 7
B) 4, 9, 7
C) 3, 10, 9
D) 2, 10, 7
84
226 Which numbers do indicate the lymphatic valve, veins and bundle of nerve
fibers?
A) 2, 8, 4
B) 2, 7, 4
C) 4, 7, 1
D) 3, 8, 2
85
227.
Which numbers do indicate the venules, leukocytes and
lymphatic capillaries?
A) 4, 2, 1
B) 6, 2, 1
C) 1, 2, 3
D) 3, 4, 5
86
228. What are the common carotid artery and the subclavian artery in function?
a. conducting arteries
b. muscular arteries
c. mixed arteries
d. distributing arteries
e. fibrous arteries
229 Which elemnts are found in the tunica intima of muscular artheries?
1. Fenestrated membranes
2. Endothelium
3. basal lamina
4. subendothelial layer
5. thick internal elastic lamina
6. stereocilia
a. 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 5, 6
d. 1, 2, 3, 5
e. 1, 2, 3, 6
230. In which vessels walls are yellow in the fresh state because of the elastin
abundance?
a. carotid artery
b. femoral artery
c. ulnar arthery
d. Brachial arthery
e. Brachial vein
231. In which part of vessel are the fibroelastic connective tissue with vasa
vasorum; lymphatic vessels and nerve fibers found?
a. Tunica adventitia
b. Tunica intima
c. Tunica media
d. Subendothelial layer
e. Myoelastic layer
232. Which type of junctions are mostly found between the endothelial cells?
a. occluding junctions
b. adherent junctions
c. desmosomes
d. communicating junctions
e. macula adherence
233. What are not functions of endothelial cells in arterial wall?
1. transport of water, macromolecules, and electrolytes
2. production of glycoprotein von Willebrand factor
3. production of tripsin
4. production of neurotransmitters
87
5. production of ground substance components

6. production of cytokins
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
3, 4, 5
2, 3, 5
2, 3, 6
1, 2, 3
3, 4, 6
234. What are the Weibel-Palade bodies?

1. membrane-bound inclusions
2. they have a dense matrix housing tubular elements
3. they containing the glycoprotein von Willebrand
factor
4. they prevent platelets from clot formation
5. they are stored only in veins
6. nonmembranous inclusions
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 5
d. 2, 3, 6
e. 2, 3, 5
235. Which statements are true about the muscular arteries?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
The tunica intima is thinner than that in the elastic arteries

The tunica intima is thicker than that in the elastic arteries
the internal elastic lamina has undulating surface
subendothelial layer contains a few smooth muscle cells
the endothelium make tight junctions with smooth muscle cells of the tunica
media
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 4, 5
e. 1, 4, 5
236.. In which vessels may be found the bifid internal elastic lamina?
a. Muscular artheries
b. Carotid artheries
c. Muscular veins
d. Vena cava inferior
e. Aorta
237. The wall of which vessels contain fenestrated membranes?
a. tunica media of the elastic arteries
b. tunica media of the ulnar arteries
88
c. tunica media of the ulnar veins

d. tunica adventitia of the elastic arteries
e. tunica intima of the muscular artheries
238. Which cells do produce the extracellular matrix in the tunica media of
artheries?
a. smooth muscle cells
b. endothelial cells
c. fibroblasts
d. endocrine cells
e. exocrine cells
239. Which elements do include the tunica media of muscular artheries?
1. chondroitin sulfate
2. collagen fibers
3. reticular fibers
4. basal lamina
5. elastin fibers
6. fenestrated memranes
7. heparane sulfate
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1, 2, 3, 5
1, 2, 4, 6
1, 2, 4, 5
2, 3, 5, 6
1, 4, 5, 6
240. What is a thoroughfare which is a an intermediate between an arteriole and

capillary?
a. Metarteriole
b. Metartery
c. Metvenule
d. Metcapillary
e. postcapillary
241.
Which of the following is a distinct structure found specifically
in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow?
a. Sinusoidal capillaries
b. Fenestrated capillaries
c. Continuous capillaries
d. AV anastomoses
e. Venous sinus
242.
What are wide, leaky capillaries called?
a. Sinusoidal capillaries
b. Fenestrated capillaries
c. Continuous capillaries
89
d. AV anastomoses
e. Venous sinus
243. Which structure has one or two layers of muscle in the tunica media?
a. Arteriole
b. Capillary
c. Venule
d. Elastic artery
e. Muscular artery
244. . Which numbers do indicate the connective tissue elements, tight junction and
peripheral parts of endothelial cells?
A) 4, 3, 5
B) Noncorrect question
C) 5, 1, 4
D) 6, 4, 3
E) 1, 4, 6
245. Which numbers do indicate the fenestrae, collagen fibers and tight junctions
between endothelial cells?
90
A) 6, 4, 5
B) 3, 4, 6
C) 6, 5, 3
D) 4, 5, 3
E) Noncorrect question
246. What vessel regulates the amount of blood going into a capillary bed?
a. Arteriole
b. Capillary
c. Venule
d. Elastic artery
e. Muscular artery
247. Which structure contains pores?
a. Fenestrated capillaries
b. Continuous capillaries
c. Sinusoidal capillaries
91
d. AV anastomoses
e. Venous sinus
248. Which one of the following is a pluripotential cell that is prevalent around
post capillary venules?
a. Pericyte
b. Endothelial cell
c. Fibroblast
d. Histiocyte
e. Macrophage
249. How is the blood flow from the arterial system controlled?
A. By the smooth muscle cells in the wall of metarterioles
B. By the smooth muscle cells in the wall of venules
C. By the smooth muscle cells in the wall of sinusoidal capillaries
D. By the smooth muscle cells in the wall of fenestrated capillaries
E. All of the above
250. What is the thoroughfare channel?
A. Vessel without precapillary sphincters
B. form the proximal portion of the metarterioles
C. empty the blood into lymphatic capillaries
D. small venules of the venous system
E. transition between the arthery and venules
251. What are vasa vasorum?
a. Blood vessels
b. Valves
c. Vasopressin secreting cells
d. Nerves
e. Vasoactive material

A. Terminals of most arteries end in capillary beds, which deliver their blood to
venules for the return back to the venous side of the cardiovascular system.
B. In many parts of the body the artery simply joins with a lymphatic vessel
92
C. The structures of the arterial and venous ends of the AVA has an extremely
thin wall to provide exchange of substances
D. subendothelial layer is composed of plump polygonal cells that are
modified, longitudinally arranged epithelial cells
E. the fenestrate capillaries are found in the papillary layer of dermis
253. What type of tissue lines blood vessels?
a. Simple squamous epithelium
b. Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. Simple columnar epithelium
d. Stratified squamous epithelium
e. Transitional epithelium
A. The boundaries between the tunica intima and the tunica media of most
veins include the internal elastic lamina.
B. The structure of veins is not necessarily uniform, even for veins of the
same size or for the same vein along its entire length.
C. Veins are described as having the three layers
D. Although the muscular and elastic layers in veins are not developed
better in veins than in artheries
E. The connective tissue components in veins are more pronounced than in
arteries.
A. the lymphatic vascular system is closed system in that there is no pump and
no circulation of fluid
B. The lymphatic vascular system begins in the tissues of the body as blindended lymphatic capillaries
C. Afferent lymphatic vessels deliver lymph into the lymph nodes
D. Lymphocytes are added to the lymph as it leaves by efferent lymphatic
vessels, eventually reaching a lymphatic duct.
E. Bundles of lymphatic anchoring filaments terminate on the abluminal
plasma membrane.
256. Which vessels are the large lymphatic vessels resemble?
93
A. small veins
B. small artheries
C. artherioles
D. capillaries
E. vena cava superior
A. The blood from the capillary bed is drained to the small veins
B. The muscular and elastic layers in veins are not well developed as in
artheries
C. The connective tissue components in veins are more pronounced than in
artheries
D. In certain areas of the body the veins have little or no smooth muscle in their
wall
E. The tunica and media in the wall of veins are not distinguishable
258. What is true about the walls of postcapillary venules?
A. Composed of endothelial cells, surrounded by reticular fibers and
pericytes
B. Contain smooth muscle cells
C. Contain tunica media with high amount of elastic fibers
D. Are less permeable than precapillary artheriols
E. Have the adventitia with longitudinally arranged collagen bundles
259. What is not true about the endothelial cells of capillaries?
a. they represented by a two layers of squamous cells rolled into a tube
b. They represented by a single layer of squamous cells rolled into a tube
c. long axis of their endotheliocytes lying in the same direction as the blood
flow
d. their elliptical nucleus bulges out into the lumen of the capillary
e. their intermediate filaments located around the perinuclear zone
260. What type of proteins are found inside of endothelial intermediate filaments?
a. Vimentin and desmin
b. Vimentin and desmoglein
c. Vimentin and glial acid protein
d. Tubulin and desmin
94
e. Fillagrin and desmin

261. At which site of capillary endothelial lining is formed the marginal fold?
a. at the cellular junctions and projects into the lumen.
b. at the endothelial cell - basal lamina interface
c. at the contact sites between pericytes and endotheliocytes
d. at the cellular junctions and projects toward the abluminal face
e. inside of endothelial cells between their organelles
262. Where are located pericytes?
a. along the outside of the capillaries and small venules
b. along the inside of the capillaries and small venules
c. along the outside of the capillaries and artheioles
d. along the outside of the veins and small venules
e. along the outside of the myelinated nerve fibers
263. Choose the incorrect statement about the pericytes.
a. They may undergo differentiation to become skeletal muscle cells
b. They surround capillaries and small venules
c. They have long primary processes along the axis of the vessel
d. Their secondary processes form gap junctions with the endotheliocytes
e. They share the basal lamina of the endothelial cells
264. What is not found inside of pericytes?
1. plakoglobin
2. tropomyosin
3. isomyosin
4. occludin
5. protein kinase
6. desmoplakin
a. 1, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 2, 3, 4
265. What is not function of pericytes?
a. synthesis of von Willebrand factor
b. regulation of blood flow through the capillaries
c. differentiation to become smooth muscle cells
d. differentiation to become endothelial cells
e. transport of molecules across the vessel wall
266. What is true regarding the continuous capillaries?
a. Na+,K+-ATPase is located in the endothelial abluminal cell membrane
b. present in muscle, nervous, and connective tissues
c. in the brain tissue they are classified as modified continuous capillaries
d. intercellular junctions between their endothelial cells are fasciae occludentes
e. their endothelial cells prevent passage of many molecules
267. Which organs do contain the capillaries with pores (fenestrae) in their walls
that are 60 to 80 nm in diameter and covered by a pore diaphragm?
95
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
exocrine glands
Pancreas
Small intestine
Thymus
Parathyroid gland
renal glomerulus
a. 2, 3, 5
b. 1, 3, 4
c. 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 3, 5
e. 2, 3, 6
268. Where are found fenestrated capillaries that lack diaphragms?
a. renal glomerulus
b. exocrine glands
c. Pancreas
d. Small intestine
e. Parathyroid gland
269. What is the structure of ultrathin diaphragm in fenestrated capillaries after
processing with platinum-carbon shadowing?
a. They display eight fibrils radiating out from a central area and forming
wedge-like channels
b. They display ten fibrils radiating out from a central area and forming wedgelike channels
c. They display eight fibrils radiating from a central area and forming hairpin
turn
d. They display three fibrils parallel to each other forming wedge-like channels
e. They display four filaments attached to each other by fillagrin proteins
270. Which of the following do not characterize the sinusoidal capillaries?
a. The vascular channels in the pituitary gland, liver, skin
b. Because of their location, they have an enlarged diameter of 30 to 40m
c. They contain many large fenestrae that lack diaphragms
d. the endothelial wall may be discontinuous, as is the basal lamina
e. macrophages may be located either in or along the outside of the endothelial
wall.
271. Which substances are produced by the endothelial cells of capillaries?
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Fibronectin
Fibroplastin
Laminin
type III collagen
endothelin I
Prostacyclin
Ceramides
96
a. 1, 3, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 6
c. 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
e. 2, 4, 5, 6
272. How is controlled the blood flow from the arterial system?
F. By the smooth muscle cells in the wall of metarterioles
G. By the smooth muscle cells in the wall of venules
H. By the smooth muscle cells in the wall of sinusoidal capillaries
I. By the smooth muscle cells in the wall of fenestrated capillaries
J. There is no correct answer
273. What is the feature of thoroughfare channel?
A. without precapillary sphincters
B. form the proximal portion of the metarterioles
C. empty the blood into lymphatic capillaries
D. small venules of the venous system
E. transition between the arthery and venules
A. Terminals of most arteries end in capillary beds, which deliver their
blood to venules
B. In many parts of the body the artery simply joins with a lymphatic vessel
C. The AVA has an extremely thin wall to provide exchange of substances
D. subendothelial layer is composed of longitudinally arranged epithelial
cells
E. the fenestrate capillaries are found in the papillary layer of dermis
275. What is not true statement regarding veins?
a. they outnumber arteries and have smaller luminal diameters
b. they outnumber arteries and have larger luminal diameters
c. 70% of the total blood volume is in these vessels
d. their walls are usually collapsed
e. they represent low-pressure vascular system
276. What of the following is not found in the wall of postcapillary venules?
97
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
smooth muscle cells

Endothelium
reticular fibers
pericytes
basal lamina
vasa vasorum
collagen fibers
1, 6, 7
1, 2, 3
2, 4, 5
2, 3, 6
1, 3, 7
277. In which vessels the pericytes consequently are replaced by smooth muscle
cells, forming a continuous layer?
a. in the larger venules
b. in the larger artherioles
c. in the smaller artheries
d. in the larger capillaries
e. in the larger capillaries
278. The wall of which vessels is most permeable?
a. postcapillary venules
b. capillaries
c. artherioles
d. veins
e. metartherioles
279. Which vessels function in lymphocyte recognition and segregation by typespecific receptors on their luminal surface?
a. high-endothelial venules
b. capillaries
c. postcapillary artherioles
d. postcapillary veins
e. metartherioles
280. Choose the incorrect statement about the medium veins.
a. Elastic fibers form laminae characteristic of an internal elastic lamina
b. They drain most of the body, including most of the regions of the extremities
c. Their tunica intima includes the endothelium and its basal lamina and
reticular fibers
d. Sometimes an elastic network surrounds the endothelium
e. The smooth muscle cells of the tunica media are in a loosely organized layer
281. What is the structure of a venous valve?
a. it is composed of two leaflets, each having a thin fold of intima jutting out
from the wall
98
b. it is composed of three leaflets, each having a part of elastin jutting out from
the wall
c. it is composed of two leaflets, each having a thin fold of the intima jutting
into the wall
d. it is composed of one leaflets, having a thin fold of the intima jutting out
from the wall
e. it is composed of elastic lamina, having a thick fold of the media jutting
inside of vessel
282. Where is the lymph emptied into the cardiovascular system?
a. at the junctions of the internal jugular and the subclavian veins.
b. at the junctions of the external jugular and the subclavian veins.
c. at the junctions of the internal jugular and the external jugular veins.
d. at the junctions of the right atrium and the subclavian veins.
e. at the junctions of the brachiocephalic and the subclavian veins.
283. Find the incorrect statement about the lymphatic capillaries.
a. have anchoring filaments that terminate on the adluminal plasma membrane
b. these are blind-ended, thin-walled capillaries
c. composed of a single layer of attenuated endothelial cells
d. have an incomplete basal lamina
e. the endothelial cells overlap each other but also have intercellular clefts
284. What differes the wall of lymphatic vessels from that of small veins?
a. their lumina are larger and their walls thinner
b. their lumina are thinner and their walls larger
c. their lumina do not contain valves
d. beneath their endothelium is thick layer of smooth muscle cells
e. there are more clear boundaries between the layers
285. In which layer the muscular elements of vessels are developed better?
A. In the middle layer.
B. In adventitia.
C. In subendothelial layer of tunica intima.
D. There is no muscles because it is the nonmuscular vein.
E. There is no correct answer .
286. Which numbers do indicate the neutrophilic metamyelocyte, early
eosinophilic myelocyte and basophilic erythroblast?
99
A) 2, 14, 11
B) 2, 10, 14
C) 3, 14, 11
D) 3, 15, 11
287. Which numbers do indicate the hemangiogenic tissue, sinusoids and
periosteum?
100
A) 3, 1, 6
B) 1, 2, 6
C) 5, 3, 1
D) 4, 6, 3
101
288. Which numbers do indicate the monocyte, CFC-Eo and progenitor cell?
A) 27, 11, 15
B) 10, 15, 27
C) 13,11, 26
D) 10, 13, 27
102
289. What is the embryonic hemopoesis?

A. Development of blood as tissue
B. Development of bone marrow
C. Formation of marrow cells during embryonic stage
D. Death of blood cells during embryonic stage
E. Physiologic regeneration of hemoglobin in embryo
290. At which stage is take place blood formation in the yolk sac?
A. In the second week of gestation
B. In the fifth week of gestation
C. In the adult human
D. In the postnatal stage
E. At the third trimester of pregnancy
291. When is begin the hepatic stage of blood formation?
A. In the fifth week of gestation
B. In the third week of gestation
C. In the adult human
D. In the postnatal stage
E. At the third trimester of pregnancy
292. What is take place in the yolk sac?
A. Erythropoesis
B. Leukopoesis
C. Thrombocytopoesis
D. Granulocytopoesis
E. Lymphopoesis
293. When is the bone marrow become the hemopoetic organ?
A. In the second trimester of pregnancy
B. In the first trimester of pregnancy
C. In the third week of gestation
D. In the adult human
E. In the postnatal stage
294. Which organs are involved in the embryonic hemopoesis?
A. Yolk sac, liver, spleen
B. Yolk sac, liver, MALT
C. Amnyonic cavity and bone marrow
D. Allantois, liver and bone marrow
E. Intraemryonic cavity, spleen
295. What is the type of hemopoesis in the bone marrow?
A. Normoblastic
B. Meroblastic
C. Megaloblastic
D. Lymphoblastic
E. Erytromegalocytic
103
296. Blood cell formation begins

A. 2 weeks after conception
B. 4 weeks after conception
C. 5 weeks after conception
D. 2 months after conception
E. At 8th week of gestation
297. What is taking place in liver in the fetal life?
A. Erythropoiesis and leukopoiesis
B. Only erythropoiesis
C. Only thrombocytopoiesis
D. Leucopoiesis and thrombocytopoiesis
E. Erythropoiesis and megakaryopoiesis
298. Which cells give rise to erythrocytes?
A. CFU-E
B. CFU-Ba
C. CFU-Eo
D. CFU-GM
E. Myeloblast
299. When does begin the medullar hemopoesis?
a. In the third month
b. In the first month
c. In the forth month
d. In the fifth month
e. In the seventh month
300. When does begin the mesoblastic phase of blood cell formation?
a. 2 weeks after conception
b. 3 weeks after conception
c. 4 weeks after conception
d. 2 months after conception
e. 1 month after conception
301. Where does begin the embryonic hemopoesis?
a. in the mesoderm of the yolk sac
b. in the ectoderm of the primitive yolk sac
c. in the entoderm of the yolk sac
d. in the liver of embryo
e. in the bone marrow of embryo
104
302. Where are arised the nucleated erythrocytes during the embryonic
hemopoesis?
a. in the mesoderm of the yolk sac
b. in the ectoderm of the primitive yolk sac
c. in the entoderm of the yolk sac
d. in the liver of embryo
e. in the bone marrow of embryo
303. Which cells give rise to nucleated erythrocytes during the embryonic
hemopoesis?
a. Erythroblasts inside of blood islands
b. Reticulocytes inside of blood islands
c. CFU-Er inside of blood islands
d. Erythroblasts outside of blood islands
e. Meqakaryocytes of blood islands
304. Which cells are formed from the peripheral cells of blood islands?
a. Endotheliocytes
b. Erythroblasts
c. nucleated erythrocytes
d. nonnucleated pericytes
e. smooth muscle cells of the vessel wall
305. By which phase is replaced the mesoblastic phase of embryonic hemopoesis?
a. by the hepatic phase at the 6th week of gestation
b. by the hepatic phase at the 4th week of gestation
c. by the splenic phase at the 6th week of gestation
d. by the thymic phase at the 3rd week of gestation
e. by the myeloid phase at the 8th week of gestation
306. When do appear the leukocytes at embryonic hemopoesis?
a. by the 8th week of gestation
b. by the 4th week of gestation
105
c. by the 6th week of gestation

d. by the 7th month of gestation
e. by the 2nd week of gestation
307. What is taking place in the liver in the 6th week of gestation?
a. Haemopoesis
b. Production of plasmatic cells
c. Modification of VLDP
d. Detoxification of carbohydrates
e. Protein and lipid synthesis
308. What of the following is correct?
a. postnatally the liver and the spleen are not active in hemopoiesis
b. prenatally the liver and the spleen are not active in hemopoiesis
c. the liver and the spleen are active in hemopoiesis in infants
d. the liver and the spleen are active in T cell production
e. the liver and the spleen are active in B cell production
309. Which elements do differentiate into nucleated erythrocytes?
a. the peripheral cells of blood islands
b. the central cells of blood islands
c. erythroblasts of bone marrow
d. CFU-E in the bone marrow
e. Reticulocytes of blood islands
310. Which numbers do indicate the epithelio-reticular network of cortex,
subcapsular epithelial reticular cells and blood vessels?
106
A) 5, 6, 2
B) 3, 5, 6
C) 5, 2, 7
D) 1, 3, 7
311. Choose the correct statements about the pluripotential hemopoietic stem cells.
1. They give rise to all formed elements of blood
2. they account for 0.1% of the nucleated cell population of bone marrow
3. They are usually amitotic
4. They always undergo bursts of cell division
5. They giving rise to five types of multipotential hemopoietic stem cells
6. They giving rise to to three types of oligopotential hemopoietic stem cells
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 1, 2, 6
d. 2, 4, 6
e. 3, 4, 5
107
312. Which cells are arised from the division of pluripotential hemopoietic stem
cells?
a. CFU-GEMM and CFU-Ly
b. GM-CSF and CFU-Ly
c. CFU-GEMM and CFU-Er
d. CFU-Eo and CFU-GEMM
e. Erythroblasts and endotheliocytes
313. Which cells are not formed from the CFU-GEMM cells?
1. NK-cells
2. Erythrocytes
3. Granulocytes
4. Monocytes
5. Platelets
6. lymphocytes
7. B cells
a. 1, 6, 7
b. 1, 2, 6
c. 1, 5, 7
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 2, 4, 6
314. What cells are resemble lymphocytes and constitute a small fraction of the
null-cell population of circulating blood?
a. PHSCs and MHSCs
b. PHSCs and erythroblasts
c. CFU-N and CFU-Ly
d. Prolymphoblasts
e. CFU-B and promonocytes
108
315. After immediate division of these cells are arised the eosinophilic stab cells.
Identify them.
a. Eosinophilic metamyelocytes
b. Eosinophilic myelocytes
c. Eosinophilic premyelocytes
d. Eosinophilic lymphoblasts
e. BFU-E
316. Which growth factors stimulate proliferation of pluripotential and
multipotential stem cells, thus maintaining their populations?
1. steel factor
2. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
3. TGF and TNF
4. IL1 and TNF
5. interleukin 4
6. interleukin 7
7. granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
a. 1, 2, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 3, 5, 7
d. 2, 4, 6, 7
e. 1, 2, 4, 6
317. Which growth factors are responsible for the mobilization and differentiation
of multipotential stem cells into unipotential progenitor cells?
1. stem cell factor
2. granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
3. interleukin 4
4. monocyte colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF)
5. macrophage inhibitory protein- (MIP-)
6. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
7. erythropoietin
a. 2, 4, 5, 7
b. 1, 3, 4, 6
c. 2, 3, 4, 6
d. 1, 3, 6, 7
e. 1, 2, 5, 7
318. Identify the daughter cells which are arised when the one CFU-E undergo
division?
a. proerythroblasts
b. basophilic erythroblasts
c. ortochromophilic erythroblasts
d. reticulocytes
e. nurse cells and eosinophiles
109
319. What are the first recognizable erythrocyte precursors?

a. proerythroblasts
b. basophilic erythroblasts
c. ortochromophilic erythroblasts
d. reticulocytes
e. CFU-E
320. With which cells do the monocytes share their bipotential cells?
a. with neutrophils
b. with eosinophiles
c. with basophils
d. with nurse cells and platelets
e. with lymphocytes
321. Choose the incorrect statement concerning the bone marrow.
a. its veins are smaller than the arteries
b. its veins, arteries, and sinusoids form the vascular compartment
c. its intervening spaces are filled with pleomorphic islands of hemopoietic
cells
d. its nutrient arteries pierce the diaphysis via the nutrient foramina
e. the reticular tissue forms the stroma of this organ
322. What of the following is not true about the bone marrow?
a. it provides much of differentiation of B lymphocytes
b. It is the soft, gelatinous, highly vascular, and cellular tissue
c. It is isolated from bone by the endosteum
d. it constitutes almost 5% of the total body weight
e. it is responsible for the initial maturation of T lymphocytes
323. When does the hemopoiesis begin in the bone marrow?
a. from the fifth month of prenatal life
b. from the first month of prenatal life
c. from the eight month of prenatal life
d. from the fifth week of prenatal life
e. from the fifth month of postnatal life
324. What is not the function of bone marrow macrophages?
a. transmit iron to developing leucoblasts
b. destroy the extruded nuclei of erythrocyte precursors
110
c. destroy the malformed cells and the excess cytoplasm

d. regulate hemopoietic cell differentiation and maturation
e. participate in the synthesis of the heme portion of hemoglobin
325. What of the following show the location of bone marrow macrophages?
a. their processes penetrate the spaces between smooth muscle cells to enter
sinusoidal lumina
b. their processes penetrate the spaces between endothelial cells to enter lumina
of artherioles
c. their cell bodies penetrate the spaces between endothelial cells to enter
sinusoidal lumina
d. their microvilli are located between the leucopoetic cells
e. their feetend penetrate the spaces between pericytes to cover the capillary
lumina
326. What of the following are not found in the wall of bone marrow sinusoids?
1. must cells
2. endothelial cells
3. slender threads of reticular fibers
4. large number of adventitial reticular cells
5. smooth muscle cells
6. bundles of elastic fibers
a. 1, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 6
d. 2, 4, 6
e. 3, 4, 5
327. What forms the three-dimensional network surrounding discrete hemopoietic
cords in the bone marrow?
a. Processes of adventitial reticular cells
b. Processes of macrophages
111
c. Processes of adventitial mast cells

d. Processes of hemopoetic cells
e. Processes of granulocyte reticular cells
328. Which cells do accumulate fat in their cytoplasm to resemble adipose cells in
bone marrow?
a. adventitial reticular cells
b. osteoblasts
c. osteoprogenitor cells
d. macrophages
e. undifferentiated mast cells
329. Which cells of bone marrow do produce the steel factor (stem cell factor)?
a. stromal cells
b. osteoprogenitor cells
c. pluripotential stem cells
d. CFU-S and CFU-Ly
e. macrophages
330. Which of the following do stimulate the proliferation of pluripotential and
multipotential stem cells, thus maintaining their populations?
1. M-CSF and G-CSF
2. steel factor
3. granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor
4. two interleukins (IL-3 and IL-7)
5. Erythropoietin
6. IL-2, IL-5 and IL-6
a. 1, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 5, 6
d. 2, 3, 5
112
e. 3, 4, 5
331. Which cells is function in the process of T lymphocyte testing in thymus?

a. bone marrow-derived dendritic cells
b. bone marrow-derived mast cells
c. thymus-derived dendritic cells
d. spleen-derived dendritic cells
e. bone marrow-derived B cells
332. What is needed for cells functioning in T lymphocyte testing inside of
thymus?
a. Expression of both classes of the epitope-MHC molecule complexes on their
surface
b. Expression of I class of the epitope-MHC molecule complexe on their
surface
c. Expression of both classes of the epitope-antigen molecule complexes on
their surface
d. Expression of both classes of the antigen-antibody molecule complexes on
their surface
e. Expression of I and II classes of the CSF molecule complexes on their
surface
333. Find the correct statement regarding the thymus.
a. The capillaries of the cortex are of the continuous type
b. The capillaries of the cortex invested by a sheath of type II epithelial
reticular cells
c. type III epithelial reticular cells form a blood-thymus barrier
d. self-macromolecules are not permitted to cross the blood-thymus barrier
e. The cortical capillary network drains into small arterioles in the medulla
334. Which cells do form the blood-thymus barrier?
a. type I epithelial reticular cells
b. type II epithelial reticular cells
c. type III epithelial reticular cells
d. type IV epithelial reticular cells
e. type V epithelial reticular cells
335. Which numbers do indicate the diffuse cortex, medullary cord and medullary
sinuses?
113
A) 4, 9, 8
B) 5, 8, 9
C) 4, 7, 9
D) 5, 11, 7
114
336. Which numbers do indicate the T lymphocyte dependent

zone, penicillar arteriole and marginal sinus?
A) 11, 4, 5
B) 7, 3, 11
C) 8, 3, 7
D) 4, 11, 3
337. What of the following is found in the spleen capsule?

1. fibroelastic connective tissue
2. occasionally smooth muscle cells
3. visceral peritoneum
4. skeletal muscle cells
5. Macrophages
6. Epithelial reticular cells
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3, 6
d. 3, 4, 6
e. 1, 2, 5
338. What of the following is not the spleen function in human?
115
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
reservoir of red blood cells

the immunological capacity of antibody formation
T-cell and B-cell proliferation
filter of the blood in destroying old erythrocytes
during fetal development - a hemopoietic organ
339. What is not true regarding the branching of the splenic arteries?
a. branches of these vessels, pulpar arteries, are conveyed within the trabecules
b. they branch repeatedly as they pierce the connective tissue capsule at the
hilum of the spleen
c. branches of these vessels, trabecular arteries, are conveyed into the
substance of the spleen
d. when the trabecular arteries are reduced to about 0.2 mm in diameter, they
leave trabeculae
e. the tunica adventitia of vessels that left the trabeculae become loosely
organized
340. Which vessels do contain the PALS?
a. central artery
b. splenic veins
c. splenic artery
d. hepatic artery
e. HEVs of lymph nodes
341. Which vessels give rise to penicillar arteries?
a. central splenic arteries
b. red pulp arteries
c. terminal arterial capillaries
d. splenic sinusoids
e. trabecular arteries
342. What is the Schweigger-Seidel sheath?
a. thickened region of the sheathed arteriole surrounded by a sheath of
macrophages
b. thickened region of the sheathed venule surrounded by a sheath of
macrophages
c. thickened region of the sheathed capillary surrounded by a sheath of
macrophages
d. thickened region of the pulpar arteriole surrounded by a sheath of reticular
cells
e. thickened region of the sheathed arteriole surrounded by a sheath of elastic
fibers
343. Which organ does include the periarterial lymphatic sheath PALS?
a. Spleen
116
b. Lymph node
c. Hepatic artery
d. Kidney
e. Palatine tonsil
344. What of the following explains the closed circulation theory in spleen?
a. the endothelial lining of the terminal capillaries is continuous with the sinus
endothelium
b. the endothelial lining of the penicillar arteriole is continuous with the sinus
endothelium
c. the endothelial lining of the sheathed capillaries is continuous with the white
pulp
d. the endothelial lining of the terminal arterial capillaries is continuous with
the red pulp
e. the terminal arterial capillaries terminate prior to reaching the sinusoids
345. What of the following explains the open circulation theory in spleen?
a. the terminal arterial capillaries terminate prior to reaching the sinusoids
b. the terminal capillaries is continuous with the sinus endothelium
c. the penicillar arteriole terminate prior to reaching the sinusoids
d. sheathed capillaries terminate prior to reaching the white pulp
e. some vessels connect to the sinusoids of the red pulp
346. Which elements are found inside of splenic cords?
2. extravasated blood
3. stellate reticular cells
4. Langerhance cells
5. Extravasated lymph
6. macrophages
a. 1, 2, 3, 6
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3, 4, 6
d. 1, 2, 5
e. 1, 2, 3, 5
117
347. Which statement does not indicate the pathway of B cell migration after their
differentiatiation in lymphoid nodules?
a. B cells migrate to the periarterial lymphatic sheath to inactivate the antigens
b. B cells enter the marginal sinuses and migrate to the site of antigenic
challenge
c. B cells become part of the circulating in blood pool of lymphocytes
d. some plasma cells may stay in marginal zone and release antibodies into the
marginal sinuses
e. most plasma cells migrate to bone marrow to release their antibodies into
bone marrow sinuses
348. Which cells isolate the type III collagen fibers from blood, preventing a
platelet reaction to the collagen in spleen?
a. stellate reticular cells
b. Macrophages
c. T lymphocytes
d. B lymphocytes and Fibroblasts
e. Endotheliocytes
349. What cells are not found in the centre of the lymphoid follicle?
a. T lymphocytes
b. B lymphocytes
c. Lymphoblasts
d. Follicular dendritic cells
e. macrophages
350. Which receptors are not present on the surface of NK cells?
1. Fc receptors that recognize the constant portion of the IgG antibody
2. killer-activating receptors that bind to certain markers on the surface of
nucleated cells
3. killer-inhibitory receptors that recognize MHC I molecules
4. CD4 and CD8 to recognize MHC molecules
5. Fc receptors that recognize the constant portion of the IgA and IgM
antibody
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 4
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 2, 4, 5
118
e. 1, 3, 5
351. Find the components not belonging to the innate immune system.
1. Memory cells
2. Complement system
3. Macrophages
4. Neutrophils
5. Natural killer (NK) cells
6. Plasma cells
7. T killer cells
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
1, 6, 7
1, 2, 6
1, 3, 7
2, 3, 4
2, 4, 5
352. What is not characteristic of innate immune response?

a. it responds in a specific manner; and has immunological memory
b. it is much older than the adaptive immune system
c. it responds rapidly, usually within a few hours, to an antigenic invasion
d. it responds in a nonspecific manner; and has no immunological memory
e. complement, antimicrobial peptides and cytokines represent its critical
components
353. What of the following are critical components of innate immune response?
1. Complement
2. antimicrobial peptides
3. plasma cells
4. T killers
5. macrophages
6. NK cells
7. Toll-like receptors (TLRs)
a. 1, 2, 5, 6, 7
b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 7
c. 1, 2, 4, 5, 6
d. 2, 3, 4, 6, 7
e. 1, 3, 4, 6, 7
354. What is not function of the complement?
a. Produce perforins that damage the microbe's cell membrane
b. Attacks microbes that found their way into the bloodstream
c. Forms a membrane attack complex that damages the microbe's cell
membrane.
119
d. The presence of C3b on the microbial surface facilitates phagocytosis of

microbes
e. Provides innate immune response
355. Which properties have the adaptive immune response?
1. Specificity
2. Nonspecificity
3. Diversity
4. memory
5. self/nonself recognition
6. rapid primary response
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 5, 6
c. 2, 3, 4, 5
d. 2, 3, 5, 6
e. 2, 4, 5, 6
356. Which reseptors are expressed by memory cells of immune system?
1. B-cell receptors (sIgs)
2. TCRs
3. CD4 and CD3
4. CD8 and CD7
5. TLRs
6. integrins
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 5
d. 3 and 6
e. 4 and 5
357. What is taking place if during embryonic development lymphocyte encounters
the substance to which it is designed to react?
1. clonal deletion
2. clonal anergy
3. clonal expansion
4. anamnestic response
5. adaptive immune response
6. the lymphocyte is disabled
a. 1, 2, 6
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 2, 3, 6
358. Which numbers do indicate the fibromuscular layer, epithelium of respiratory
mucosa and adventitia of trachea?
120
A) 5, 1, 6
B) 1, 5, 6
C) 3, 1, 6
D) 3, 2, 5
121
359. Which numbers do indicate the nuclei of ciliated epithelial cells, nuclei of
intermediate cells and basal lamina?

B) 5, 3, 7
C) 4, 5, 7
D) 3, 4, 7
E) 3, 4, 6
122
360.Which numbers do indicate the nuclei of ciliated epithelial cells, nuclei of

goblet cells and lumen of trachea?
A) 3, 4, 1
B) There is no correct answer
C) 5, 3, 1
D) 4, 5, 1
E) 3, 4, 8
361. Inside of respiratory epithelium of trachea present all of the following cells,
without:
a. Clara cells
b. Brush cells
c. Ciliated cells
d. Endocrine cells
e. Basal cells
362. Find the elements that are not present in the lamina propria and the submucosa of
the intrapulmonary bronchi?
123
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
cartilage C-rings
seromucous glands
lymphoid elements
hyaline cartilage plates
Peyers patches
Epitheliocytes
a. 1, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 2, 4, 6
e. 1, 4, 5
363.Which elements subdivide into tertiary bronchi?
a. secondary bronchi
b. bronchopulmonary lobules
c. primary bronchi
d. terminal bronchiles
e. trachea
364. What of the following do not belong to intrapulmonary bronchi?
a. Primary bronchi
b. Secondary bronchi
c. tertiary bronchi
d. respiratory bronchioles
e. terminal bronchioles
365. Which trends are not observed with decreasing of airways in size?
a. increase in the numbers of glands and ciliated cells
b. decrease in the amount of cartilage
c. decrease in the numbers of glands and goblet cells
d. decrease the height of epithelial cells
e. increase in smooth muscle and elastic tissue
366. Choose the incorrect statement regarding bronchioles.
a. their wall contain large number of ciliated and goblet cells
b. the primary bronchiole supplies air to a pulmonary lobule
c. they are considered the 10th to 15th generation of bronchial tree branching
d. their diameter commonly is described as less than 1 mm
e. their epithelial lining ranges from simple columnar to simple cuboidal
367. What is not characteristic of the Clara cells?
a. they are believed to protect the alveolar epithelium
b. columnar cells with dome-shaped apices that have short, blunt microvilli
c. their apical cytoplasm houses numerous secretory granules containing
glycoproteins
d. these cells degrade toxins in the inhaled air via cytochrome P-450 enzymes
e. produce a surfactant-like material that reduces the surface tension
124
368. What do line the superior surfaces of the epiglottis and vocal folds?
a. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
b. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
c. pseudostratified cuboidal epithelium
d. stratified columnar epithelium
e. simple columnar epithelium
369. What cells do facilitate the maintenance of patency in bronchioles and divide to
regenerate the bronchiolar epithelium?
a. Clara cells
b. Mast cells
c. Goblet cells
d. Ciliated cells
e. Brush cells
370. Which cells are present in the respiratory epithelium of trachea?
1. goblet cells
2. mast cells
3. brush cells
4. serous cells
5. Kulchitsky cells
6. Clara cells
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 5
c. 1, 3, 4, 6
d. 2, 3, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 4, 6
371. What does explain the decreasing of the air flow velocity in bronchial tree
toward the respiratory portion of the respiratory system?
a. increase of total cross-sectional diameter of the various bronchial branches
at each level
b. decrease of the luminal diameter of each succeeding bronchial tubule
c. decrease of total cross-sectional diameter of the various bronchial branches
at each level
d. bounding of the bronches by cartilaginous wall laterally
e. increasing of the number of smooth muscle and goblet cells
372. Find the elements that are belong to the wall of terminal bronchioles.
1. Clara cells and cuboidal cells, some with cilia
2. Dense regular connective tissue
3. one or two layers of smooth muscle cells
4. elastic fibers radiating from the adventitia
5. Clara cells, goblet cells and columnar cells
6. Columnar ciliated and type II pneumocyte with cilia
a. 1, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 2, 4, 6
125
e. 3, 4, 6
373. Which numbers do indicate the spiral muscular layer, surface mucus and
bronchial glands?
A) 2, 5, 6
B) 5, 3, 6
C) 6, 4, 2
D) 3, 4, 5
126
374. Which numbers do indicate the spiral muscular layer, bronchial cartilage and
lamina propria?
A) 4, 3, 5
B) 5, 3, 4,
C) 2, 5, 3
D) 6, 4, 3
127
375. Which numbers do indicate the alveolar ducts, interalveolar septum and
respiratory bronchioles?
A) 5, 9, 3
B) 7, 9, 3
C) 5, 12, 10
D) 6, 9, 10
128
376.Which numbers do indicate the fibrocyte, basal bodies and basal epithelial
cells of the bronchiolar wall?
A) 3, 6, 5
B) 4, 5, 6
C) 9, 5, 3
D) 1, 6, 9
129
377. Which numbers do indicate the connective tissue elements, simple cuboidal
ciliated epithelial cells and smooth muscle cells of the bronchiolar wall?

B) 7, 4, 1
C) 7, 5, 1
D) 6, 1, 5
E) 4, 1, 5
130
378. What of the following are the components of pulmonary surfactant?

1. glycoproteins SP-A and SP-B
2. dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine
3. phosphatidylglycerol
4. neutral lipid
5. apoproteins SP-A, SP-B, SP-C, and SP-D
6. apoproteins SP-C, and SP-D
7. lipoproteins SP-A and SP-B
a. 2, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 2, 3, 5, 6
d. 1, 2, 6, 7
e. 1, 3, 4, 7
379. What does form the surfactant after releasing into the lumen of the alveolus?
a. a broad, lattice-like network known as tubular myelin
b. network into secretory vesicles, known as composite bodies
c. network into secretory vesicles, known as lamellar bodies
d. the layer of immediate precursors of lamellar bodies
e. a broad, lattice-like network known as pneumomyelin
380. Which statement gives incorrect explanation to the alveolar macrophages?
a. They arise from the lymphocytes gain access to the pulmonary interstitium
b. They are dust cells that migrate between pneumocytes, and enter the lumen of
the alveolus.
c. They assist type II pneumocytes in the uptake of surfactant
d. They are transported to the pharynx by ciliary action of cells
e. They reenter the pulmonary interstitium and migrate into lymph vessels to exit
the lungs
381. Which numbers do indicate the dermis, epithelial layer of vermilion part and
sebaceous glands?
131
A) 1, 5, 9
B) 5, 2, 9
C) 9, 3, 5
D) 5, 1, 8
382. Which numbers do indicate the fibrous zone of soft palate, lamina propria of
palatine mucosa and respiratory epithelium?
A) 2, 6, 3
B) 6, 3, 8
C) 7, 3, 6
D) 2, 4, 8
383. Which elements are not present in the vermilion zone of the lip?
1. sweat glands
2. hair follicles
3. nonfunctional sebaceous glands
4. functional sebaceous glands
5. epithelial cells
6. rete apparatus
a. 1, 2, 4
132
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 3, 4, 5
e. 3, 4, 6
384. What is present in the mucous aspect of the lip?
1. nonfunctional sebaceous glands
2. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
3. dense, irregular collagenous type connective tissue
4. numerous mucous, minor salivary glands
5. rete apparatus that include capillary loops
6. dense, regular collagenous type connective tissue
7. simple squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 1, 2, 7
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 1, 5, 6
e. 1, 3, 7
385. Which substances are not manufactured by salivary glands?
1. salivary protease
2. salivary amylase
3. lactoferrin
4. lysozymes
5. antifungal agents
6. secretory immunoglobulin (IgG)
7. lactoglobulin
a. 1, 5, 6, 7
b. 1, 2, 3, 7
c. 1, 3, 4, 5
d. 2, 4, 6, 7
e. 1, 4, 5, 6
386. Which type of epithelium is not found in the oral cavity?
a. nonkeratinized simple squamous
b. stratified squamous keratinized
c. nonkeratinized stratified squamous
d. parakeratinized stratified squamous
e. masticatory epithelium
387. Choose the elements that are not located in lining mucosa of oral cavity?
1. nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
2. dense irregular collagenous connective tissue
3. keratinized stratified columnar epithelium
4. dense regular collagenous connective tissue
5. stratified squamous epithelium that bear taste buds
a. 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 4, 5
c. 1, 2, 3
133
d. 1, 2, 4
e. 2, 3, 5
388. Which regions of the oral cavity are lined by a masticatory mucosa?
1. soft palate
2. gingival surface
3. dorsal surface of the tongue
4. hard palate
5. ventral surface of the tongue
6. cheeks
7. ventral surface of the lips
a. 2, 3, 4
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 1, 3, 7
d. 2, 4, 5
e. 1, 2, 6
389. What of the following is not function of the intestine?
1. Ingestion
2. Mastication
3. Deglutition
4. absorption of food
5. elimination of digestible remnants
6. hormone production
a. 1, 2, 3, 5
b. 1, 2, 4, 6
c. 2, 3, 5, 6
d. 1, 3, 5, 6
e. 2, 3, 4, 5
390. In which part of digestive system the spherical masses, called bolus are
formed and what of their size?
a. in the oral cavity, and they are about 2cm in
diameter
b. in the stomach, and they are about 2cm in diameter
c. in the small intestine, and they are about 5cm in
diameter
d. in the large intestine , and they are about 10 cm in
diameter
e. in the oral cavity, and they are about 2mm in
diameter
391. Where is the Meissner's plexus found?
a. In the submucosa of digestive system
b. In the mucosa of digestive system
c. In the muscularis externa of digestive system
d. In the submucosa of urinary system
e. In the mucosa of respiratory system
392. What is not controlled by Meissner's nerve plexus?
134
a. the activity of the muscularis externa

b. the motility of the mucosa
c. to limited extent, motility of the submucosa
d. secretory activities of mucosal glands
e. secretory activities of submucosal glands
393. What are the pacemakers for the contraction of muscularis externa of
alimentary tract?
a. The interstitial cells of Cajal
b. The interstitial cells of Auerbach
c. Smooth muscle cells of Meissner's plexus
d. Sympathetic adrenergic neurons
e. Parasympathetic cholinergic nerve fibers
394. Where is the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve cell bodies located?
a. Auerbach's myenteric plexus
b. Auerbach's submucosal plexus
c. Meissner's myenteric plexus
d. Inside of muscularis mucosa
e. Inside of tunica serosa
395. Which numbers do indicate the nonkeratinized stratified epithelial layer, wall
of alveolar bone and point of cemento-enamel junction?
Follow the true sequence of numbers, showing those elements.
A) 4, 5, 7
B) 2, 5, 7
C) 4, 7, 6
D) 2, 3, 6
135
136
396. Which numbers do indicate the dental lamina, enamel and dentin surrounded
the dental arch?
A) 11, 6, 9
B) 1, 12, 9
C) 8, 1, 11
D) 6, 8, 12
397. What is not found in the pulp?
a. loose connective tissue including pain fibers and adipose cells
b. sympathetic fibers control the luminal diameters of blood vessels
c. sensory fibers are responsible for the transmission of pain sensation
d. myelinated fibers that form the Raschkow plexus
e. vasomotor fibers that regulate vessel lumen
398. Choose the nonmineralized structures of the tooth.
1. primary enamel cuticle
2. Enamel
3. Predentin
4. Dentin
137
5.
6.
7.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Cementum
Periodontal ligament
odontoblastic processes
1, 3, 6, 7
1, 2, 3, 5
1, 3, 5, 7
2, 3, 4, 6
1, 4, 6, 7
399. Which part of the pulp does include the Raschkow plexus?
a. just deep to the cell-rich zone
b. just deep to the cell-free zone
c. in the space between odontoblasts
d. in the dentinal tubule
e. on the surface of the pulp
400. When does begin the first sign of odontogenesis?
a. between the 6th and 7th weeks of gestation
b. between the 1st and 4th weeks of gestation
c. between the 2nd and 3rd weeks of gestation
d. between the 6th and 7th months of gestation
e. between the 4th and 5th months of gestation
401. What does surround the horseshoe-shaped band of epithelial cells - the dental
lamina?
a. neural crest-derived ectomesenchyme of the mandibular and maxillary
arches
b. epithelial cells-derived ectomesenchyme of the mandibular and
maxillary arches
c. neural crest-derived entoderm of the mandibular and maxillary
cartilages
d. entodermally-derived mesenchyme of the mandibular and maxillary
bones
e. neural tube-derived ectomesenchyme of the mandibular and maxillary
margines
138
402. What structure develops after proliferation of cells of the dental bud?
a. dental cap, initiating the cap stage of tooth development
b. dental lamina, initiating the lamina stage of tooth development
c. succedaneous lamina, initiating the bell stage of tooth development
d. outer enamel epithelium, initiating the appositional stage of tooth
development
e. dental papilla, initiating the bell stage of tooth development
403. What of the following are not parts of enamel organ?
1. stellate reticulum, whose cells have numerous processes
2. simple squamous outer enamel epithelium
3. simple squamous inner enamel epithelium
4. congregation of ectomesenchymal cells, the dental papilla
5. vascularized membranous capsule, the dental sac
6. connective tissue of the gingiva, and alveolus
a. 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 2, 3, 5
d. 3, 4, 6
e. 1, 2, 3
404. Where is the stratum intermedium develops at odontogenesis?
a. between the stellate reticulum and inner enamel epithelium of the enamel
organ
b. between the outer reticulum and inner enamel epithelium of the enamel
organ
c. between the outer and inner enamel epithelium of the enamel organ
d. between the tooth and its associated structures
e. between the tooth and cells of the enamel organ of neural crest origin
405. Identify the wrong statement regarding enamel.
a. calcium hydroxyapatite crystal orientation in enamel rods is strictly parallel
to each other
b. it is produced by cells known as ameloblasts, elaborating it daily in 4- to 8m segments
139
c. successive rod segments adhere to one another, forming keyhole-shaped

enamel rods
d. enamel prisms extend over the complete width of the enamel
e. enamel prisms extend from the dentinoenamel junction to the enamel surface
406. Which condition does permit a subdivision of the enamel rod into a
cylindrical head and rectangular solid?
a. the various orientation of calcium hydroxyapatite crystals within enamel
rods
b. dying of the ameloblasts before the tooth erupts into the oral cavity
c. the parallel orientation of calcium hydroxyapatite crystals within enamel
rods
d. extending of enamel prisms over the complete width of the enamel
e. changes in the shape of certain cells of the tooth germ
407. Which part of cementum is without cementoblasts?
a. All parts of cementum include these cells
b. The region of it near to neck of tooth
c. The region of it near to apex of tooth
d. The acellular cementum
e. Cellular cementum
408. Identify the elements that are present inside of cementum.
1. 45% to 50% calcium hydroxyapatite
2. type I collagen
3. proteoglycans and glycoproteins
4. type II collagen
5. 45% to 50% calcium hydrocarbonate
6. Elastin and heparan sulfate
a. 1, 2, 3
b. 1, 2, 5
c. 2, 3, 6
d. 1, 3, 5
e. 2, 4, 6
409. What of the following is not characteristic to the cementoblasts?
a. They provide the replacement of deciduous teeth by their succedaneous
counterparts
b. They are responsible for the formation of cementum
c. They cover cementum at its interface with the periodontal ligament
d. They continue to elaborate cementum for the life of the tooth
e. They become cementocytes occupying the lenticular spaces, known as
lacunae
410. Where does extend the processes of cementocytes inside of narrow canaliculi?
a. toward the vascular periodontal ligament
b. toward the central portion of pulp
c. toward the vascular dentinum
d. toward the cementodentinal junction
e. to the periphery of predentinum
140
411. The appearance of which element characterizes the bell stage of tooth
development?
a. the stratum intermedium
b. the enamel organ
c. outer enamel epithelium
d. simple squamous inner enamel epithelium
e. cervical loop and the stellate reticulum
412. Which numbers do indicate the intralobular ducts, interlobar septa and
intercalated ducts? Follow the true sequence of numbers, showing those elements..
A) 6, 2, 4
B) 5, 2, 4
C) 2, 6, 4
D) 6, 1, 5
413. Which numbers do indicate the initiation part of intercalated duct, mucous
cell and serous demilunes?
141
A) 6, 4, 5
B) 7, 5, 4
C) 4, 7, 1
D) 3, 5, 1
142
414. Which numbers do indicate the parasympathetic ganglion, vein and lymphatic
capillary? Follow the true sequence of numbers, showing those elements..

B) 1, 5, 6
C) 6, 5, 1
D) 4, 1, 5
E) 6, 5, 4
143
415. Which statement is not correct regarding myoepithelial cells of salivary

glands?
a. They are located outside of the acinar cells basal
laminae
b. Their processes envelop the secretory acinus and
striated ducts
c. They make hemidesmosomal attachments with the
basal lamina
d. In electron micrographs their processes resemble
smooth muscle cells
e. they release of the secretory product into the duct of
the gland
416. What are the smallest branches of the duct system in salivary glands?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
intercalated ducts
interlobar ducts
striated ducts
terminal duct
interlobular ducts
417. Select the true explanation to the striated ducts of the major salivary glands?
a. They are composed of a single layer of cuboidal to
low columnar cells
b. They are composed of a single layer of small
cuboidal cells including many stereocilia
c. They possess myoepithelial cells
d. The folds of their epithelial cells are occupied by
elongated lysosomes
e. The apical membranes of their epithelial cells are
highly folded
418. What is the secondary saliva?
a. the saliva that is hypotonic and relesed to the
intralobular ducts
b. the saliva found in the lumen of secretory portion of
salivary gland
c. the saliva produced by the acinar cells and isotonic
with plasma
d. The saliva that is modified by the cells of the
intercalated ducts
144
e. the saliva that is hypotonic and relesed to the

intracalated ducts
419. Find the statement that is not true regarding the tonsils.
a. They react to antigens by forming monocytes and
antigen-presenting cells
b. They are incompletely encapsulated aggregates of
lymphoid nodules
c. They are interposed into the path of airborne and
ingested antigens
d. They react to these antigens by forming
lymphocytes
e. Their crypts contain food debris, desquamated
epithelial cells and dead leukocytes
420. How many crypts are there inside of the palatine tonsils?
a. 10 - 12
b. 15 - 45
c. 3 - 5
d. 20 - 40
e. 1 - 5
421. Which elements does not found inside of crypts of the palatine tonsils?
1. serous cells
2. food debris
3. desquamated epithelial cells
4. dead mucous cells
5. dead leukocytes
6. bacteria
7. erythrocytes
a. 1, 4, 7
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 3, 6
d. 2, 5, 6
e. 2, 4, 6
422. What of the following is the component of MALT?
a. Lingual tonsil
b. thyroid follicles
c. interstitial cells of pineal gland
d. ovarian follicles
e. Leydig cells
423. What of the following is the component of GALT?
a. Peyers patches
b. Lingual tonsil
c. thyroid follicles
d. interstitial cells of pineal gland
e. pharyngeal tonsil
145
424. What are the components of Peyer's patches?

1. APCs
2. BALT
3. lymphoid follicles
4. B cells
5. T cells
6. Tonsils
7. Vasa vasorum
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 1, 2, 4, 7
c. 2, 3, 6, 7
d. 1, 2, 4, 5
e. 1, 3, 6
425. Which cells capture antigens and transfer them without first processing them
into epitopes?
a. microfold cells
b. Macrophages
c. B lymphocytes
d. Epithelioreticular cells of intestine
e. Columnar brush cells
426. What are the M cells - microfold cells in nature?
a. squamous-like cells in the epithelium over the
Peyer's patches
b. columnar-like cells in the epithelium over the
esophageal glands
c. cuboidal-like cells in the epithelium over the Peyer's
patches
d. pyramid-like cells in the epithelium over the tonsills
e. squamous-like cells in the ducts of pancreas
427. What does not include the Peyer's patches?
a. afferent lymphatic vessels
b. efferent lymph drainage
c. small arterioles
d. HEVs
e. APSs and capillaries
428. Which numbers do indicate the submucosa, vessels and nerves, external
longitudinal smooth muscle layer of muscularis externa? Follow the true sequence
of numbers, showing those elements.
.
146
A) 5, 8, 7
B) 3, 8, 7
C) 3, 8, 6
D) 5, 6, 8
147
429. Which numbers do indicate the gastric glands, esophageal cardiac glands and
simple columnar epithelium? Follow the true sequence of numbers, showing those
elements.
A) 7, 6, 2
B) 3, 6, 1
C) 3, 5, 2
D) 7, 5, 1
430. What of the following is not situated in the wall of esophagus?
a. BALT
b. MALT
c. skeletal muscle
d. Auerbach's plexus
e. Antigen presenting cells
431. What of the following is not present in the middle third of esophagus?
a. Simple columnar epithelia
b. Skeletal muscle fibers
c. smooth muscle fibers
d. Auerbach's plexus
e. Submucosal glands
432. What of the following is not present in the lowest third of esophagus?
a. Skeletal muscle fibers
b. smooth muscle fibers
c. Auerbach's plexus
148
d. Submucosal glands
e. Stratified epithelia
433. Which numbers do indicate the vascular and neural plexi of submucosa,
mesothelium of serosa and gastric pits? Follow the true sequence of numbers,
showing those elements
A) 4, 7, 1
B) 3, 1, 7
C) 3, 7,1
D) 2, 1, 7
149
434. Which numbers do indicate the chief cells, mucous cells of gastric glands and
lumens of gastric glands? Follow the true sequence of numbers, showing those
elements
A) 4, 1, 6
B) 2, 3, 6
C) 5, 1, 4
D) 2, 1, 6
150
435. Which numbers do indicate the rough endoplasmic reticulum, basal laminae
and microvilli? Follow the true sequence of numbers, showing those elements .
A) 5, 7, 3
B) 7, 3, 1
C) 5, 2, 3
D) 7, 5, 2
151
436. Which numbers do indicate the submucosa, simple columnar epithelium and
muscularis mucosae? Follow the true sequence of numbers, showing those
elements .
A) 6, 2, 5
B) 5, 6, 2
C) 6, 3, 5
D) 4, 3, 2
152
437. Which of the following statements concerning the large intestine is false?
a. the goblet cells become very sparse
b. the function of the large intestine is absorption of water
c. the outer longitudinal layer of the muscularis externa is discontinuous and is
present only as three separate bands
d. villi are absent
e. the outer wall of the ascending and descending colon is partly adventitia and
partly covered by serosa
438. Which type of epithelium does cover the glands of the stomach?
a. . Simple columnar epithelium
b. . Simple cuboidal epithelium
c. . Simple squamous epithelium
d. . Stratified squamous epithelium
e. . Transitional epithelium
439. Which cells do secrete the hydrochloric acid?
a. .Parietal cells
b. .Oxyntic cells
c. Chief cells
d. . Mucous neck cells
e. . surface lining cells
440. Which cells secrete pepsinogen?
a. . Chief cells
b. Parietal cells
c. . Oxyntic cells
d. .. Mucous neck cells
e. enteroendocrine cells
153
441. Which cells secrete gastrin?

a. DNES cell
b. Chief cells
c. Oxyntric cells
d. Parietal cells
e. Mucous neck cells
442. Which of the following cells is not found in the epithelium of the stomach?
a. Basket cells
b. chief cells
c. parietal cells
d. surface mucosal cells
443. Which of the following cells is not found in the epithelium of the stomach?
a. Surface absorptive cells
b. chief cells
c. parietal cells
d. surface mucosal cells
444. Identify the CORRECT statement
a. Parietal cells of the principal glands of the stomach secrete hydrochloric acid
b. . In addition to pepsinogen, parietal cells secrete intrinsic factor
c. Gastrin released by endocrine cells of the stomach inhibits the secretion of
acid and pepsinogen
d. The taenia coli form three bundles of longitudinal muscle on the outside of
the appendix
e. Paneth cells are present on the surface of intestinal villi
445.
What are the rugae in the stomach?
a. longitudinal folds of the mucosa and submucosa

154
b.
c.
d.
e.
the invaginations of epithelial lining of the stomach into the mucosa

shallowest invaginations of epithelial lining
bottom of each gastric pit
446.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
What are the gastric pits (foveolae)?
the invaginations of epithelial lining of the stomach into the mucosa

longitudinal folds of the mucosa and submucosa
shallowest invaginations of epithelial lining
bottom of each gastric pit
447. Where are located the gastric glands?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Tunica mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis mucosa
Serosa
448.Where are located cells producing the visible mucus?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
Tunica mucosa
Submucosa
Muscularis mucosa
Serosa
449. Find the true explanation to the mucous neck cells of gastric glands.
a. they produce the mucus which is same with that
produced by surface-lining cells
b. these are columnar and resemble surface-lining cells
c. they are distorted by pressures from neighboring
cells
d. they have short microvilli and a well-developed
Golgi apparatus
e. their mitochondria are located mainly in the basal
region of the cell
450. Which part of the stomach does contain the large number of regenerative
cells?
a. in the neck of the gastric glands
b. in the bottom of fundal glands
c. in the neck of the gastric foveole
155
d. in the base of the gastric rugae

e. in the base of the gastric glands
451. By which cells is the hydrochloric acid (HCl) and gastric intrinsic factor
produced?
a. Parietal cells
b. Regenerative cells
c. Surface-lining cells
d. DNES cells
e. mucous neck cells
452. What of the following is not correct about the parietal cells?
a. their cytoplasm is basophilic
b. they have pyramid-shaped bodies
c. they have round, basally located nuclei
d. they have deep intracellular canaliculi
e. they have tubulovesicular system
453. What of the following cells do contain deep intracellular canaliculi?
a. Parietal cells
b. Regenerative cells
c. Surface-lining cells
d. DNES cells
e. mucous neck cells
454. Choose the incorrect statement regarding the parietal cells of gastric glands.
a. they proliferate to replace all of the specialized cells
lining the fundic glands
b. they rich in mitochondria, constituting almost half of
the cytoplasm
c. they include numerous tubular vesicles, forming the
tubulovesicular system
d. their protein synthetic apparatus present only to a
limited extend
e. one of their product is the gastric intrinsic factor
455. Which numbers do indicate the mesothelium, glands and villi of ileum?
156
A) No
nc
orr
ect
B)
C)
D)
E)
456. Which
indicate the
mesothelial cells
lumen of small
question
6, 3, 2
5, 3, 2
6, 3, 4
5, 3, 4
numbers do
submucosa,
of serosa and
intestine?
157
A) 4, 7, 1
B) 7, 5, 2
C) 3, 4, 7
457.
D) 3, 6, 7
E) 7, 5, 1
Which numbers do indicate the
hemocapillary, goblet cell and
dendritic cells?
158
A) 4, 3, 6
B) 3, 5, 6
C) 2, 3, 4
D) 6, 5, 3
159
458. Which cells do reesterify fatty acids into triglycerides and form chylomicrons
in small intestine?
a. surface absorptive cells
b. goblet cells
c. DNES cells
d. Adipose cells
e. Mucous absorptive cells
459. Which numbers do indicate the connective tissue elements, interlobular artery
and interlobular vein? Follow the true sequence of numbers, showing those
elements.
A) 6, 2, 3
B) 3, 4, 6
C) 2, 3, 6
D) 5, 4, 3
E) 5, 3, 4
160
460. Which numbers do indicate the mononucleated hepatocyte and central vein?
A) 3, 1
B) 5, 4
C) 6, 4
D) 2, 3
E) 2, 1
161
461. Which numbers do indicate the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, collagen

fibers and endothelial cells?
A) 10, 2, 11
B) 12, 2, 9
C) 6, 1, 3
D) 5, 1, 7
E) 8, 4, 9
462. What of the following is not the function of hepatocytes?
a. phagocytosing of defunct erythrocytes
b. exocrine secretion
c. endocrine secretions
d. metabolism of the end products of absorption
e. storing inclusion products
463. What do not contain the bile, produced by the liver?
a. IgE and free bilirubin
b. bile salts and bile acids
c. phospholipids and lecithin
d. cholesterol and plasma electrolytes
e. Cholesterol and IgA
464. Which substances are used for the production of the bile salts de novo?
a. cholic acid and either taurine or glycine
b. cholic acid and cholesterol
c. glycocholic acid and conjugated bilirubin
162
d. cholesterol and bilirubin glucuronide

e. bilirubin and either taurine or glycine
465. Which substances do undergo enterohepatic recirculation?
a. bile salts
b. lecithin
c. cholesterol
d. phosphoproteins
e. conjugated bilirubin
466. Where are the very low density lipoproteins (VLDLs) produced?
a. in hepatocytes
b. in surface-absorbing cells of the small intestine
c. in surface-absorbing cells of the large intestine
d. in M cells of small intestine
e. in adipose cells of the liver
467. Which vessels do deliver to the hepatocytes the iron-rich blood?
a. portal vein
b. left hepatic artery
c. right hepatic artery
d. hepatic veins
e. portal artery
468. What of the following are the components of the portal areas?
1. Interlobular vein
2. Interlobular bile ducts
3. inlet arterioles
4. lymph vessels
5. distributing veins
6. central vein
7. Interlobular artery
a. 1, 2, 4, 7
b. 1, 2, 3, 5
c. 2, 3, 6, 7
d. 1, 3, 5
e. 2, 4, 6
469. What is the initial branch of the hepatic vein?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
central vein
Interlobular vein
inlet capillaries
arterioles
hepatic sinusoids
470. What of the following is located between the anastomosing, fenestrated plates
of liver cells?
163
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
hepatic sinusoids
distributing veins
Interlobular bile ducts
cholangioles
bile capillaries
471. What of the following does pierce the limiting plate of modified hepatocytes
to join the hepatic sinusoids?
1. Inlet arterioles
2. inlet venules
3. hepatic sinusoids
4. central vein
5. Interlobular vein
6. distributing veins
7. branches from the peribiliary capillary plexus
a. 1, 2, 7
b. 1, 3, 5
c. 2, 3, 6
d. 1, 5, 6, 7
e. 2 and 4
472. What of the following is not true about the organization of liver?
a. There are six portal areas around each classical
lobule
b. Three equally distributed portal areas are present
around each classical lobule
c. The distributing arterioles arise from the slender
branch of the hepatic artery
d. The distributing arterioles arise within the portal
area
e. The inlet arterioles, branch from the distributing
arterioles
473. What of the following is vascularized by a peribiliary capillary plexus?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.
the interlobular bile ducts

the large distributing bile ducts
the cholangioles
the interlobar bile ducts
right hepatic duct
474. Which numbers do indicate the interlobar duct and arteries?
164
A) 4, 1
B) 7, 2
C) 5, 4
D) 3, 6
E) 5, 6
475. Which substances do increase the action of centroacinar cells?
a. secretin and acetylcholine
b. bombesinand acetylcholine
c. secretinand epinephrine
d. motilinand histamin
e. secretinand heparin
476.Where is produced the alkaline fluid, which neutralizes and buffers the acid
chyme that enters the duodenum from the pyloric stomach?
a. In centroacinar cells
b. In acinar cells
c. In parietal cells of duodenum
d. In interlobular ducts of pancreas
e. In M cells of duodenum
477. What of the following influences the release of enzyme-poor fluid in
pancreas?
a. the hormone secretin, produced by enteroendocrine cells of the small
intestine
165
b. the hormone acetylcholine, released by the postganglionic sympathetic

fibers
c. the hormone secretin, produced by enteroendocrine cells of the large
intestine
d. the hormone acetylcholine, produced by enteroendocrine cells of the large
intestine
e. the hormone bombesin, produced by enteroendocrine cells of the large
intestine
478. Find the statements not belonging to the beta () cells of islet of Langerhance.
1. concentrated in perifery of islet
2. concentrated in center of islet
3. have dense core granule surrounded by wide electron-lucent halo
4. their product decreases blood glucose levels
5. immunocytochemical procedures allow them to be recognized
6. routine histological examination allow them to be recognized
7. their product increases blood glucose levels
a. 1, 6, 7
b. 1, 4, 5
c. 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 2, 3, 7
479. Find the statements belonging to the alfa () cells of islet of Langerhanse.
1. concentrated in perifery of islet
3. have dense core granule with narrow electron-lucent halo
4. their product decreases blood glucose levels
5. immunocytochemical procedures allow them to be recognized
6. routine histological examination allow them to be recognized
a. 1, 3, 5, 7
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
c. 1, 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 3, 4, 7
e. 2, 3, 4, 5
480. Find the statements belonging to the (D and D1) cells of islet of
Langerhanse.
1. Scattered throughout islet
2. concentrated in periphery of islet
4. have electron-lucent homogeneous granule
5. their product inhibits hormone release from endocrine pancreas
6. their number constitute 5% of total cell population
a. 1, 4, 5, 6
b. 1, 2, 3, 4
166
c. 1, 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 3, 4, 7
e. 2, 3, 4, 5
481. Which substance inhibits hormone release from endocrine pancreas?
a. Somatostatin
b. Glucagon
c. Insulin
d. Secretin
e. Pancreatic polypeptid
482. Which substances inhibit exocrine secretions of pancreas?
a. Somatostatin and pancreatic polypeptide
b. Glucagon and insulin
c. Secretin and hormone cholecystokinin
d. Pancreozymin and acetylcholine
e. Somatostatin and acetylcholine
483. Which numbers do indicate the leukocyte, body of podocyte and basal
membrane?
A) 2, 4, 7
B) 1, 2, 5
167
C) 10, 5, 9
D) 11, 2, 7
E) 5, 4, 8
168
484.Which numbers do indicate the visceral layer of glomerular capsule, blood

capillaries and convoluted tubule?
A) 5, 7, 9
B) 3, 6, 8
C) 2, 8, 9
D) 6, 1, 3
E) 3, 7, 6
169
485. What is the true statement regarding kidney lobule?

a. It represented by each medullary ray with part of the cortical labyrinth
surrounding it
b. It is a renal pyramid, with its associated cortical arch and cortical columns
c. It is a cone-shaped structure including proximal and distal convoluted
tubule
d. It represented by each cortical column with part of the medullary labyrinth
surrounding it
e. It is separated from the neighbor by medullary rays and renal pyramids
486. Identify the answer that is not correct regarding renal medullary interstitium
a. It is less extensive than that found in the cortex
b. it occupies nearly 30% of the volume of the inner medulla
c. it include the uriniferous tubules and the extensive vascular network
d. its interstitial cells situated like the rungs of a ladder
e. its interstitial cells are numerous between straight collecting ducts
487. Where are medullary interstitial cells most numerous?
1. between straight collecting ducts
2. between renal corpuscules
3. between the ducts of Bellini
4. around distal convoluted tubules
5. between proximal convoluted tubules
a. 1 and 3
b. 1, 2, 3
c. 1, 3, 5
d. 2 and 4
e. 3 and 4
488. Identify the cell population of renal medullary interstitium
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Fibroblasts
Mast cells
Interrenal cells
Macrophages
Interstitial cells
Dust cells
Kupfer cells
a. 1, 4, 5
b. 1, 3, 5
170
c. 2, 4, 6
d. 1, 2, 7
e. 2, 3, 7
489.Which numbers do indicate the smooth muscle cells and basal epitheliocytes?
A) 5, 3
B) 1, 2
C) 3, 6
D) 4, 5
E) 5, 6
490.What of the following eventually fuses with the epididymis?
a. ductuli efferentes
b. seminiferous tubules
c. tubuli recti
d. ductuli epididymis
e. ductuli defferentes
491. What are not components of the prostatic secretion?
1. proteolytic enzymes
2. fructose
171
3. acid phosphatase
4. fibrinolysin
5. citric acid
6. lypochrome pigment
7. dihydrotestosterone
a. 2, 6, 7
b. 1, 2, 6
c. 2, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3
e. 3, 6, 7
492. What type of epithelium lines the seminal vesicles?

a. . Pseudostratified.
b. Simple columnar.
c. Stratified squamous.
d. Simple squamous.
e. Simple cuboidal
493. From which source do develop the follicular cells in ovarii?
1. mesothelial epithelium
2. the primitive sex cords of the mesonephros
3. the neyral crest cells
4. the entoderm germ layer
5. the ectoderm germ layer
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 5
c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 4, 5
e. 2, 3, 4
494. Which cells do form the theca interna?
172
a. Stromal cells
b. fibrous connective tissue cells
c. epithelial tissue cells
d. muscle cells
e. endothelial cells
495.Which cells do form the theca externa?
a. fibrous connective tissue cells
b. Stromal cells
c. epithelial tissue cells
d. muscle cells
e. endothelial cells
496.Which cells do contain LH receptors on their plasmalemma?
a. the theca interna cells
b. the theca externa cells
c. muscle cells of ovarii
d. endothelial cells of ovarii
e. the follicular cells
497. What does cover the lumen of the vagina?
a. stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium
b. simple squamous epithelium
c. pseudostratified nonkeratinized epithelium
d. stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
e. stratified columnar epithelium
498. What of the following is not true regarding the vagina?
a. vaginal bacterial flora produce citric acid
b. some of its superficial cells may contain keratohyalin
c. Langerhans cells in the epithelium function in antigen presentation
d. T lymphocytes are housed in the inguinal lymph nodes
e. the epithelial cells are stimulated by estrogen to synthesize glycogen
173
499. Which numbers do indicate the amniotic epithelium and fibrinoid layer?
A) 2, 4
B) 4, 5
C) 2, 3
D) 4, 6
E) 5, 6
500. Which type of epithelium does line the lactiferous sinus and the lactiferous
duct?
a. a stratified cuboidal epithelium
b. a stratified squamous, keratinized epithelium.
c. a simple squamous, keratinized epithelium
d. a stratified squamous, nonkeratinized epithelium
e. a simple columnar epithelium
174

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1.

Which numbers do indicate the scalp, pachionian granules and parietal

5. Which numbers do indicate the pia mater, fibrous astrocyte and

8. Which numbers do indicate neuropil, blood vessel and ventrodorsal

9. Which numbers do indicate the anterior horn, intermedio-medial

10.Which numbers do indicate the sheath of posterior root and capsule of

11.Which numbers do indicate the fibrocyte, nucleus of neuron and blood

12.Which numbers do indicate the unmyelinated nerve fibers, pericyte

14.By which structure is lined a central canal of spinal cord?

18. How are nerve cell bodies of autonomic ganglia by definition?

a. postganglionic sympathetic cell bodies in the sympathetic ganglia located in

25. Which elements belong to white matter?

myelinated nerve fibers

c. A layer of cells between the arachnoid mater and pia mater

d. increase heart rate

60. Which of the following is found in the cerebellum?

67. What is the characteristic feature of cerebellar cortex?

b. regions of synapses between dendrites entering the cerebellum and

A) There is no correct answer

87.Which numbers do indicate the superior arch of conjunctiva, endothelium of

88.Which numbers do indicate the superior arch of conjunctiva, endothelium of

A) There is no correct answer

there is no correct answer

E) there is no correct answer

95.Which numbers do indicate the endolymph, semicircular duct and II-type

102.Which cell is a type of neuron?

107. Where are found taste buds besides tongue?

E. the cuboidal epithelial cells that overlie the taste organ

124.Which numbers do indicate the reticular fibers, stratum granulosum and

125.Which numbers do indicate the dermis and sebaceous gland?

A) There is no correct answer

127. Which numbers do indicate the tonofilaments, keratinosomes and

A) There is no correct answer

128.Which numbers do indicate the pigment inclusions and stratum basale?

D. membrane-coating granules contain the bundles of tonofilaments

e. Keratohyaline granules house lipid substance arranged in a closely packed,

151. What is true about the external root sheath?

157. Which of the following is NOT considered an epidermal appendage?

A) There is no correct answer

161. Which numbers do indicate the corticotropic, simpatotropic and thyrotropic

162. Where is oxytocin secreted from?

Hypothalamic portal veins

170. Where is corpora arenacea found?

183.Which numbers do indicate the contact line of cells, collection of glycogen

185. Which type is involved in the secretion of calsotonin?

occurs by the enzyme thyroid peroxidase

requires the presence of FSH

requires the presence of argentum peroxide (H2O2)

requires the presence of thyroid decarboxylase

189. How are formed the triiodinated and tetraiodinated tyrosines?

A. by the coupling of an MIT and a DIT or of two DITs, respectively.

191. Where is take place the iodination of thyroglobulin?

Deficiency of which hormone may lead to titanic contractions?

201. Where is the precursor, preproparathyroid hormone, is synthesized?

In the lumen of the RER of chief cells

numbers do indicate the medullary

205. Identify the incorrect statement

211. From which substance are produced adrenocortical hormones?

atrial natriuretic polypeptide

c. fluid release, electrolyte balance and increase blood pressure

into the surrounding capillaries

224.Which numbers do indicate the postcapillary venule, precapillary and vein?