Special Class Railway Apprentice

Solved Paper 2012

Marks: (200 3)

Duration : 6 hrs (2 hrs 3)

Paper I

General Ability Test

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10 )

(i) In this-section; a number of sentences are given.
The sentences are underlined in three separate
parts and each one is labelled (a), (b) and (c).
Read each sentence to find out whether there is
an error in any underlined part. No sentence has
more than one error. When you find an error in
any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c),
indicate your response on the separate Answer
Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel
that, there is no error in a sentence. In that case,
letter (d) will signify a No error response.
(ii) You are to indicate only one response for each
item in your Answer Sheet. (If you indicate more
than one response, your answer will be
considered wrong.) Errors may be in grammar,
word usage or idioms. There may be a word
missing or there may be a word which should be
removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are
required only to indicate your response on the
Answer Sheet.
Examples P and Q have been solved for you.
P. The young child (a) singed (b) a very sweet
song (c) No error (d)
Q. We worked (a) very hard (b) throughout the
season (c) No error (d)
Explanation In item P, the word singed is wrong.
The letter, under this part is (b), so (b) is the correct
answer. Similarly, for item Q, (d) is the correct
answer, as the sentence-does not contain any error.
1. The person who (a) I met yesterday (b) was my
classmate. (c) No error (d)

2. To me it appears that (a) Anthropology is the

more interesting (b) of all subjects. (c) No
error (d)
3. A number of Indians have become (a) software
engineers in the USA because of their
proficiency in, English (b) isnt it? (c) No
error (d)
4. Since his arrival in India, (a) he is visiting as
many villages as he can (b) to acquire a
firsthand knowledge of the rural India. (c)
No error (d)
5. It was decided in an emergency meeting of
teachers (a) in the college (b) to impose on
students a fine of five hundred rupees. (c)
No error (d)
6. The honesty (a) is (b) a virtue. (c) No error (d)
7. The committee (a) could not come to (b) a final
conclusion. (c) No error (d)
8. Although, he is my immediate neighbour (a)
I do not get help from him (b) especially when I
need it the most. (c) No error (d)
9. It is impossible (a) to either predict the future
(b) or forget the past. (c) No error (d)
10. The cattle in the meadow (a) was terrified to
hear unexpected (b) the roar of a lion which
appeared to be wild with anger. (c) No error (d)

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20) Each of the following

items consists of a sentence followed by four words or
groups of words. Select the synonym of the word
(occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the
context.

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11. The Ministers ITINERARY has not been
announced yet.
(a) detailed route
(b) series of lectures
(c) topic of discussion (d) venue of meeting
12. The decision to hold elections in the four States
of the country has been kept in ABEYANCE till
the decision of the Supreme Court.
(a) guessing
(b) confusion
(c) suspension
(d) consideration
13. What a TEDIOUS
yesterday?
(a) intellectual
(c) ordinary

lecture

we

attended

(b) exciting
(d) boring

14. He has achieved REMARKABLE success.

(a) outstanding
(b) strange
(c) rare
(d) surprising

23. A new court has been established to try

JUVENILE offenders.
(a) young (b) female (c) aged (d) male
24. He is disliked by all his colleagues for his
ARROGANCE.
(a) humility
(b) generosity
(c) joviality
(d) decency
25. He got VOLUNTARY retirement on account of
his failing health.
(a) urgent
(b) compulsory
(c) premature
(d) undesirable
26. The land is FERTILE.
(a) poor
(c) deserted

(b) barren
(d) fruitless

15. The town is situated in a hot and ARID zone.

(a) humid (b) sandy (c) marshy (d) dry

27. For some reasons, the police want to CONCEAL

the identity of the detainee.
(a) reveal
(b) confuse
(c) disclaim
(d) refuse

16. The PASSION for uniformity in spelling is

unparalleled in the modern age.
(a) desire
(b) feeling
(c) wish
(d) ambition

28. You may not VIOLATE the rules and regulations

of the college.
(a) respect
(b) study
(c) comply with
(d) adopt

17. The radio APPRISED the public of the safe

return of the first space pilot.
(a) advised
(b) informed
(c) instructed
(d) revealed

29. People GATHERED at his shop.

(a) dispersed
(b) spread
(c) disappeared
(d) cleared

18. He has been very FEEBLE since his illness.

(a) unwell
(b) thin
(c) foolish
(d) weak
19. He was INFURIATED by the maddening
behaviour of the clerk at the post office.
(a) disgusted
(b) enraged
(c) pacified
(d) depressed
20. The medicine did not exactly cure the patient,
but it considerably ALLEVIATED his agony.
(a) improved
(b) increased
(c) reduced
(d) made pleasant

Directions (Q. Nos. 20-30) Each of the following

items consists of a sentence followed by four words or
groups of words. Select the antonym of the word or
words (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as
per the context.
21. The CONFRONTATION between the two
parties could not be averted.
(a) friendship
(b) angry disagreement
(c) reconstitution
(d) agreement
22. Sometimes even INDUSTRIOUS people fail.
(a) indolent
(b) mercenary
(c) fortunate
(d) factious

30. The universitys plans were FRAUGHT WITH

difficulties.
(a) burdened with
(b) designed for
(c) devoid of
(d) cause of

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40) Fill in the blanks with

appropriate phrasal verbs from the alternatives given
below under each item.
31. He is ____ making his career in sales.
(a) committed for
(b) committed in
(c) committed with
(d) committed to
32. As she became tired, errors began to____ her
work.
(a) creep with
(b) creep into
(c) creep off
(d) creep up
33. She seems ____ bad luck.
(a) cursed by
(b) cursed, with
(c) cursed for
(d) cursed on
34. Your option on this issue ____ traditional
political boundaries.
(a) cuts across
(b) cuts into
(c) cuts off
(d) cuts by
35. Sorry, I am not _______ local places.
(a) conversant to
(b) conversant in
(c) conversant with
(d) conversant into

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

36. His actions are hardly the tall claims he
makes.
(a) compatible with
(b) compatible to
(c) compatible for
(d) compatible on
37. He wanted to_____his colleagues before
reducing a decision.
(a) confer with
(b) confer to
(c) confer in
(d) confer upon
38. The child is ____ calcium.
(a) deficient into
(b) deficient in
(c) deficient from
(d) deficient on
39. Several people have _____ sick today.
(a) called in
(b) called for
(c) called on
(d) called to
40. He was ________ by his aunt.
(a) brought up
(b) brought out
(c) brought off
(d) brought with

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50) In the following items,

some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You
are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled
P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the
proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet
accordingly.
Example Z has been solved for you.
Z Some people believe that the effect P/is very bad
Q/on children R/of cinema S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PSRQ
(b) SPQR
(c) SRPQ
(d) QSRP
Explanation The proper way of writing the
sentence is Some people believe that the effect of
cinema on children is very bad. This is indicated by
the sequence PSRQ and So, (a) is the correct
answer.
41. I came to India and when I landed P/two words
of Hindi Q/I could speak, rather badly R/when I
was twelve S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) RQPS
(b) SPRQ
(c) QSRP
(d) PRSQ
42. The only way to learn is to live a life
P/automatically develop Q/social habits R/in
which such habits S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) RPSQ (b) QSRP (c) PRQS (d) SRQP
43. Once you do P/and speak out before a group for
the first time Q/you have taken a big step
forward R/although, it is not easy to get on your
feet S.

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The correct sequence should be

(a) SQPR
(b) PRSQ
(c) QSRP
(d) RQSP
44. We go into the city and to get a general picture
P/collect enough samples Q what is going on
there/R and it tells us S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) SPRQ
(b) RPSQ
(c) QPSR
(d) PSQR
45. For five years for a number of railway
companies P/Edison worked Q/in various
towns R/as a telegraph operator S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PSRQ
(b) SPQR
(c) RQPS
(d) QSPR
46. In the whole page he can P/point out Q/hardly
R/any mistake S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PQRS
(b) PRQS
(c) SRPQ
(d) RPQS
47. Her mother when she was born P/ten years ago
Q/threw her R/into a dustbin S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PQRS
(b) RSPQ
(c) PSQR
(d) QPSR
48. The Central Leather Institute for curing and
tanning rat skin P/has developed Q/to make
purses and footwear R/a new process S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) SRPQ
(b) PSQR
(c) SPRQ
(d) QSPR
49. Most people not realizing how essential
judicious exercise is P/for good health Q/take
next to no physical exercise R/and are surprised
when they fail ill S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PRSQ
(b) PQSR
(c) RSPQ
(d) QRSP
50. She would rather die P/where her heart should
have been Q/than throw herself on the mercy of
her sister in law R/who had a big rock S.
The correct sequence should be
(a) PRQS
(b) PRSQ
(c) PSQR
(d) SPRQ

Directions (Q. Nos. 5160) In this section, you

have two short passages. After each passage, you will
find several questions based on the passage. First, read a
passage and then answer the questions based on it. You
are required to select your answers based on the contents
of the passage and opinion of the author only.

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Examples I and J have been solved for you.

Passage (Example)
In our approach to life, be it pragmatic or otherwise,
a basic fact that confronts us squarely and
unmistakably is the desire for peace, security and
happiness. Different forms of life at different levels
of existence make up the teeming denizens of this
Earth of ours. And, no matter whether they belong
to the higher groups such as human beings or to the
lower groups such as animals, all beings primarily
seek peace, comfort and security. Life is as dear to a
mute creature as it is to a man. Even, the lowliest
insect strives for protection against dangers that
threaten its life. Just as each one of us wants to live
and not to die, so do all other creatures.
I. The authors main point is that
(a) different forms of life are found on the
Earth
(b) different levels of existence are possible in
nature
(c) peace and security are the chief goals of all
living beings
(d) even the weakest creature struggles to
preserve its life
J. Which one of the following assumptions or
steps is essential in developing the authors
position?
(a) All forms of life have a single overriding goal
(b) The will to survive of a creature is
identified with a desire for peace
(c) All beings are divided into higher and
lower groups
(d) A parallel is drawn between happiness and
life, and pain and death
Explanation
I. The idea which represents the authors main
point is peace and security are the chief goals
of all living beings, which is response (c). So,
(c) is the correct answer,
J. The best assumption underlying the passage is
The will to survive of a creature is identified
with a desire for peace, which is response (b).
So, (b) is the correct answer.

Passage I
Have you ever heard a parrot or a pet talk? Or
perhaps you have-seen the roadside astrologer who
has a couple of parrots in his cage which, at his
command, picks out your fortune card from a pile of
cards. You may also have heard of
pigeons
which,once acted as messengers.

All these make you ask the question : are birds

intelligent? Can they learn things? Formerly the
biologists thought that birds could not learn anything,
because their brains were too small and too simple,
compared to the intricate nervous-system, and brain
of higher animals. They can act only by instinct,
following certain fixed behavioural patterns. Recent
studies have shown that bird behaviour is a
combination of instinctive or fixed behaviour and
learned or flexible behaviour.
51. The given-passage deals with
(a) bird behaviour
(b) the learning capacity of birds/pets
(c) the roadside astrologer
(d) the use of instinct and command by birds
52. The writer evidently
(a) believes that ,birds are intelligent by birth
(b) suggests that birds can learn by practice
(c) negates the capacity of birds
(d) likes to experiment with pets
53. Formerly the biologists thought birds could not
learn anything because
(a) they blindly follow their instinct
(b) they are only interested to eat
(c) they do not have an intricate nervous system
(d) None of the above
54. Recent studies have shown that birds behave in
a particular/ peculiar way because
(a) of training and hard-work
(b) they have such unborn, qualities
(c) they listen to the command of their instinct
(d) of their instinctive or fixed behaviour and
learned or flexible behaviour
55. What can be the most suitable title to the
passage?
(a) Birds and other pets
(b) Birds their instinct and behaviour
(c) How to train birds?
(d) The brain of birds

Passage II
In the early decades of the twentieth century,
German was one of the important languages of
scientific communication. A scientist did not need the
knowledge of any other language to stay abreast of
current developments in his/her field But, a recent
survey shows that scientists are using German less and
less, and are switching over to English. Even in the
field of medicine, where on the whole, German till
occupies a place of importance, the general trend, is
towards English.

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

Greek was the language in which medical
treatises appeared. In the middle ages, Latin was the
language of learning in the countries of Europe. In the
eighteenth century, the national languages displaced
Latin. In Germany, doctors began to use German.
Now, in,the last thirty years, there has been a further
change. English has become the best, perhaps the only
medium, through which communication with a wider
audience is feasible.
56. What is the reason for the decline in the use of
German as a language for medical writing?
(a) Germans defeat in the World War II
(b) The preference of English worldwide with a
larger audience
(c) The first medical treatise did not appear in
German
(d) English is easier than German
57. What was the language in which the first
medical treatises appeared?
(a) English
(b) French
(c) Greek
(d) German
58. In the given context, the author recommends
the use of English in medical books because
(a) English has a universal appeal and it keeps
abreast of current developments
(b) English has replaced most national
languages
(c) most medical journals are published in
English
(d) scientists are using less and less German
59. The author suggests that if a scientist wants to
stay abreast of current developments in his/her
field, he/she must
(a) read medical magazines in all languages
(b) read medical magazines only in English
(c) travel across the globe
(d) learn all national languages
60. The most suitable title to this passage is
(a) English versus German
(b) English as a medium of communication
(c) Medical science
(d) English as the language of medical sciences

Directions (Q. Nos. 61-94) The following six items

consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement
II. You are to examine these two statements carefully
and select the answers to these items using the codes
given below.
(a) Both the statements are individually true
and Statement II is the correct explanation
of Statement I

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(b) Both the statements are individually true

but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
61. Statement I Division of labour is the separation
of a work process into a number of tasks, with
each task performed by a separate person or
group of persons.
Statement II Division of labour is a complex
web of independent and isolated work.
62. Statement I Intensive cultivation accelerates
land degradation.
Statement II Second Green Revolution
emphasizes on the improvement of the
mechanism to stop land degradation.
63. Statement I Agriculture in Monsoon Asia is
characterized by the predominance of food crop
cultivation.
Statement II Farming in Monsoon Asia is
mainly meant for subsistence purpose.
64. Statement I One of the important decisions of
the framers of the Constitution of India was to
guarantee every adult citizen in India the right
to vote.
Statement II The universal adult franchise is
not consistent with the principle of equality.
65. Statement I Caste involves a system consisting
of many, castes arranged in a hierarchy of rank
and status.
Statement II The hierarchical ordering of
castes is based on the distinction between
purity and pollution.
66. Statement I Seasonal employment results in
large-scale migration of the agricultural
labourers from agriculturally backward regions
to that of the developed regions.
Statement II In seasonal unemployment, once
the seasons are over, the agricultural workers,
especially landless labourers and marginal
farmers remain unemployed.
67. In which one among the following states is the
Dihang-Dibang Biosphere Reserve located?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Asom
(c) Odisha
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
68. Which one among the following is the correct
order of the states through which the river
Chambal flows?
(a) Madhya
PradeshUttar
Pradesh
Rajasthan

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(b) Madhya PradeshGujaratRajasthan
(c) RajasthanMadhya Pradesh Bihar
(d) GujaratMadhya PradeshUttar, Pradesh
69. Regur soil is ideally suited for the growth of
which one among the following crops?
(a) Groundnut
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Cotton
70. Which one among the following states produces
highest amount of mica?
(a) Bihar
(b) Odisha
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Andhra Pradesh
71. Which one among the following water bodies
separates the Andaman Islands from Nicobar
Islands?
(a) 11 Channel
(b) 10 Channel
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Andaman Sea
72. A plant leaf appears to be green because it
(a) absorbs green light
(b) reflects all but yellow and blue light
(c) reflects green light
(d) absorbs red and yellow light
73. Which one among the following enzymes is
unique in the alimentary canal of cattle?
(a) Cellulase
(b) Amylase
(c) Pectinase
(d) Driselase
74. Cartilage present in body is
(a) a muscular tissue (b) an epithelial tissue
(c) a connective tissue (d) a germinal tissue
75. Which one among the following is an
environment-friendly activity?
(a) Burning of waste polythene and plastics for
their disposal
(b) Use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides to
increase crop productivity
(c) Burning of biomass as fuel
(d) Use of biogas as fuel
76. Which one among the following glands is
present in pairs in human body?
(a) Adrenal (b) Liver (c) Pancreas (d) Pineal
77. During the process of respiration in human
beings, the exchange of gases takes place in
(a) bronchi
(b) alveoli
(c) bronchiole
(d) pleura
78. The stylistic compositions of Sunga terracotas
are typically
(a) handmade
(b) single-mould impressed
(c) double-mould impressed
(d) wheel-turned

79. The famous historical book, Travels in The

Mughal Empire was written by
(a) IBN Batuta
(b) Francois Bernier
(c) Al-Biruni
(d) Thomas Roe
80. Consider the following statements about
Rabindranath Tagore
1. He composed a number of patriotic songs
during the Swadeshi Movement.
2. He returned his knighthood to condemn the
brutal killing of innocent people at
Jalianwalla Bagh.
3. He refused to accept the Nobel Prize
conferred by the British.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. With which revolution, the Socialist Movement
began to develop in India?
(a) Russian Revolution
(b) French Revolution
(c) American, War of Independence
(d) Industrial Revolution
82. Which one among the following was not a
feature of the provincial executive according to
the Government of India Act, 1935?
(a) The executive authority of the province was
vested in the Governor
(b) There was a Council of Ministers to advise
the Governor
(c) Dyarchy established by the Government of
India Act, 1919 was abolished at the
provincial level
(d) The Governor could be removed by a vote
of no-confidence of the Provincial
Legislature
83. Which of the following statements about caste
system in India is/are correct?
1. Caste is determined by birth.
2. Caste groups are exogamous.
3. Caste membership involves rules about food
and food-sharing.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) Only 1
84. Sanskritization as a process of cultural change
has primarily a contextual significance. In this
context, which one among the following
statements is correct?

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

(a) It is a process of alienation
(b) It is particularistic in origin and therefore,
belongs to the little tradition
(c) It results in loss of social status
(d) It is against cultural mobility and social
change
85. Which of the following are the characteristics of
social change?
1. Social change is universal although the rate
of change varies.
2. Social change is both intentional and
unplanned.
3. Social change has variable consequences.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
86. The National Backward Classes Finance and
Development Corporation aims to provide
credit facilities to beneficiaries whose annual
income is
(a) less than the poverty line for various
income generation activities
(b) more than the poverty line for various
income generation activities
(c) more than double the poverty line for
various income generation activities
(d) less than double the poverty line for various
income generation activities
87. Which of the following powers are available to
the President of India but not to the Governor of
a State?
1. Power to grant pardon in case of death
sentence.
2. Diplomatic powers.
3. Power to veto the bills passed by the State
Legislature.
4. Power to declare emergency.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) I and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 4
88. Which of the following statements about
Humayun is/are correct?
1. He built a new city at Delhi, which he named
Dinpanah.
2. The
autobiography
of
Humayun,
Humayun-nama, was written by his sister,
Gulbadan Begum.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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89. Who among the following Indian rulers, was the

first to change war-technology from matchlocks
to flintlocks?
(a) Siraj-ud-Daula
(b) Hyder Ali
(c) Ranjit Singh
(d) Tipu Sultan
90. Annie Besant formed the Home Rule Leagued in
India based on the pattern of Home Rule
Movement in
(a) Ireland
(b) Scotland
(c) England
(d) Eastern Europe
91. Which one among the following did not happen
in the year 1946?
(a) Announcement of the Cabinet Mission of
India
(b) Direct Action call given by the Muslim
League
(c) Formation of Interim Government
(d) Lord Mountbattens appointment as
Viceroy of India
92. Which one among the following falsifies the
statement If the letter comes, the arrangements
will be made?
(a) The letter does not comes, but the
arrangements are made
(b) The letter comes, but the arrangements are
not made
(c) The letter does not come, but the
arrangements are not made either
(d) The arrangements are made
93. Which one among the following, if true, would
contradict the statement, Famous industrialists
are all superrich and-the superrich actively
engages in philanthropy?
(a) Vs family owns 85% of the fertilizer
industry in the country, but their
engagement in social causes is quite low
(b) The name of I group and the leather
industries are practically synonymous;
however, their presence and support is
evident in the education sector
(c) P runs a family foundation for the needy in
the society, but her boss at the bank does not
allow her much time for the foundation work
(d) Famous and Superrich are relative terms
94. Which one among the following would most
strengthen the claim that bats navigate by
echolocation?
(a) If bats are discovered as the unique species
with the ability to navigate by echolocation
(b) If a link with other members of their order
of species is found which also possess the
trait of echolocation

8 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

(c) Research shows that evolution has made
the eyes of the bats more efficient with time
(d) Observer groups report that the bats live in
dark caves and can identify their prey only
within a very close range

Directions (Q. Nos.95-96) The following two items

have a question each and followed by two statements
labelled as Statement I and Statement II. You are to
identify the answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only Statement I is sufficient
(b) Only Statement II is sufficient
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II together
are sufficient
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are not
sufficient
95. Q, R, S and T are four; consecutive calendar
years. Is Q a leap year?
Statement I Q and R do not have same
number of days.
Statement II Q and T have same number of days.
96. What is the difference between the ages of Y
and X?
Statement I The ratio between the ages of X
and Y is 2 : 3.
Statement II Ys age is 50% more than Xs age.
97. A is 5 years older than B; B is thrice as old as C.
Sum of the ages of A, B and C is 40 years. How
old is A?
(a) 10 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 15 years
(d) 20 years
98. Consider the following pictures of a dice:
What is the number opposite to 1?

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) 6

99. If 15% of X is added to X and 5% of the result is

subtracted from the result, then the value of X
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) No change
(d) depends on X
100. Which one among the following parts of India
falls under earthquake zone V ?

(a) Western Ghats

(b) Indo-Gangetic Basin
(c) Vindhyan Region
(d) North-Eastern Region
101. Arrange the following National Parks of India
on the basis of their location beginning from
North to South :
1. Indravati
2. Bandhavgarh
3. Bandipur
4. Kanha
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
Codes
(a) 2431 (b) 4231 (c) 2413 (d) 4213
102. Chinkara is considered as the integral part of
which one among the following communities?
(a) Apatanis
(b) Lepchas
(c) Bishnois
(d) Bhutias
103. Following are some components of money
supply in India
1. Currency with the public.
2. Aggregate demand deposits with banks.
3. Aggregate time deposits with banks.
4. Other deposits with the Reserve Bank of
India.
Which of the aforesaid items are components of
narrow money (M 1 ) in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) I, 2 and 4
(d) I and 4
104. Which one among the following statements
regarding the measures undertaken by the
Government of India to galvanize the
institutional credit system for farmers is not
correct?
(a) Government
is
implementing
a
comprehensive Farm Credit Package
(b) Government is providing concessional crop
loans up to ` 7 lakhs to the farmers
(c) Farm loans up to ` 1 lakh have been made
collateral free
(d) Agricultural credit is disbursed only
through single-agency network
105. Which of the following factors can decrease
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) of any
freshwater ecosystem?
(a) Large amount of sewage
(b) Large
biomass
accumulation
and
decomposition
(c) Increased organic matter pollution
(d) Low temperature and low plant biomass
accumulation

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

106. Doctors use electrocardiogram (ECG) to
(a) estimate the volume of blood pumped by
the heart per minute
(b) detect changes in the electrical impulses in
the heart during its contraction and
relaxation
(c) determine the changes in the sound pattern
during opening and closure of valves
(d) compare the sound waves resulting from
vibration produced by cardiac muscles
during pumping of heart
107. Net population size will increase if
(a) initial population size along with birthrate
and immigration rate are more than death
rate and emigration rate
(b) initial population size along with birthrate
and immigration rate are less than death
rate and emigration rate
(c) only birthrate and immigration rate are
more than death rate and emigration rate
(d) only birthrate and immigration rate are less
than death rate and emigration rate
108. Consider the following statements
1. Red algae appear black since they do not
absorb light of any wavelength.
2. Yeast is commonly used for fermentation
prior to baking.
3. Olive oil is extracted from seeds of olive
plants.
4. Commercially used saffron represents dried
stigmas from flowers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
109. Which of the following statements about
democracy are correct?
1. Democracy is a government of the people, for
the people and by the people.
2. Democracy is a rule of majority.
3. Democracy provides an opportunity to the
people to voice their grievances in a peaceful
manner.
4. Democracy always leads to disintegration of
the society.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
110. Consider the following statements
1. The Lucknow Pact of 1916, promoted the
spirit of unity between the Indian National
Congress and the All India Muslim League.

| 9

2. Tilak was opposed to the signing of the

Lucknow Pact.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
111. Who among the following was not given capital
punishment in the Lahore Conspiracy Case?
(a) Ajit Singh
(b) Raj Guru
(c) Sukhdev
(d) Bhagat Singh
112. Consider the following statements relating to the
Khilafat Movement
1. The Khilafat agitation was launched in 1920
on the question of the future of Turkey which
was a defeated power in the First World War.
2. The educated Indian Muslims were taking
serious interest in the affairs of Turkey.
3. During the Amritsar Congress (1919), it was
decided between the leaders of the Congress
and the Khilafat Committee that the Khilafat
agitation would be continued under
Mahatma Gandhis leadership.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2
113. Who among the following sports persons were
commissioned as Honorary Lieutenant Colonel
in the Territorial Army in November 2011 for
their outstanding contribution in the field of
sports and to their commitment to the Army?
1. Rahul Dravid
2. M S Dhoni
3. Abhinav Bindra
4. Sushil Kumar
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
114. Which one among the following is the first UN
agency to accept Palestine as its full member in
October 2011?
(a) UNESCO
(b) WTO
(c) WHO
(d) IMF
115. M is taller than S, who is shorter than R. Vp is
taller than Ak, Ah is shorter than Vk. Neither Vp
nor Vk is tallest. If R is standing second in
decreasing order of height, who will stand in
the middle in the group of these seven persons?
(a) Vp
(b) Vp or Vk
(c) Ah
(d) Cannot be determined

10 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

116. Consider the following statements about Indias
Five Year Plan
1. Prior to the Fourth Five-Year Plan, the
allocation of state resources was based on
schematic pattern.
2. Lack of transparent and objective mechanism
in allocation of state resources led to the
adoption of the Gadgil formula in 1969.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
117. The benefits under the Rashtriya Swasthya
Bima Yojana include which of the following?
1. Hospitalization expenses, taking care of the
most common illnesses excluding maternity
benefits.
2. Health insurance cover of ` 30000 per family
per annum on a family floater basis.
3. Cashless attendance to all covered ailments.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3

Paper II

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

118. Student ranked sixteenth from the top and

twenty-ninth from the bottom, among those
who passed an examination. Six students did
not participate in the examination and five
failed. The number of students in the class was
(a) 40
(b) 44
(c) 50
(d) 55
119. Five friends A, B, C, D and E are standing in a
row facing South but not necessarily in the
same order. Only B is between A and E, C is
immediate right to E, and D is immediate left to
A. On the basis of this, which one among the
following statements is definitely true?
(a) B is to the right of E
(b) A is second to the left of C
(c) D is third to the left of E
(d) B is to the left of A
120. A clock is so placed that at 12 noon, its minute
hand points towards North-East. In which
direction does its hour hand point at 1:30 PM?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West

Physical Sciences

r
. If r
r2
denotes its position vector, then which of the
following are correct?
1. Its linear momentum is conserved.
2. Its angular momentum is conserved.
3. Its torque vanishes.

1. A meteorite moves under a force F =

Select the correct answer using the code given

below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
2. Consider the following statements.
Nuclear force is
1. charge independent
2. long range
3. central
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
3. What will happen when a 40 W, 220 V lamp and
100 W, 220 V lamp are connected in series
across 440 V supply?
(a) 40 W lamp will fuse
(b) 100 W lamp will fuse

(c) Both the lamps will fuse

(d) Neither lamp will fuse
4. A particle executing SHM has kinetic energy
K 0 cos2 wt . The maximum values of potential
energy and total energy are respectively
(a) K 0 / 2 and K 0
(b) K 0 and 2 K 0
(c) K 0 and K 0
(d) 0 and 2 K 0
5. Consider a point P, the contact point of a wheel
of radius r on the ground which rolls on the
ground without slipping. What is the
displacement of point P, when the wheel
completes half rotation?
(a) 2r
(b) p r
(c) r p 2 + 4
(d) r p 2 + 2
6. The waves on the surface of water are a
combination of longitudinal waves and
transverse waves. They are called ripples. What
is the motion of the particles of the medium?
(a) Linear
(b) Parabolic
(c) Circular
(d) Elliptical
7. The displacement of a particle along x-axis is
given by y = a sin 2 wt. Which one of the
following is correct?

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

(a) The motion of particle corresponds to SHM
with frequency w/(2p )
(b) The motion of particle corresponds to SHM
with frequency w/p
(c) The motion of particle corresponds to SHM
with frequency 3 w/(2p )
(d) The motion is not SHM
8. A projectile is fired from the earth vertically
with a velocity kv, where v is the escape velocity
and k is constant. The maximum height to
which it rises as measured from the centre of
earth of radius R is
R
R
R
kR
(a) 2
(b)
(c)
(d)
2
2
k
1+ k
1-k
1+ k 2
where, k<1.
9. If a body of density s is immersed in a liquid of
density r and its weight is observed to be w,
then its true weight is
sw
sw
(a)
(b)
s+ r
sr
r
r

(c) w 1+
(d) w 1 -
s
s

10. What
is
the
external
work
done
(approximately) when 1 g of helium is heated
through 1 C at constant pressure?
(a) 1 J
(b) 2 J
(c) 4 J
(d) 8 J
11. A jet of water with area of cross-section A
striking against a wall at an angle q to the
horizontal rebounds elastically. If the velocity of
the jet is v, density is d, then what is the normal
force acting on the wall?
(a) 2 Av 2d cos q
(b) Av 2d cos q
(c) 2 Avd cos q
(d) Avd cos q
12. Consider the following statements in respect of
a nuclear fission reaction
1. Temperature becomes very high during the
process.
2. Pressure becomes very high during the
process.
3. Fission fragments are radioactive.
4. g-rays are emitted.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
13. Heat supplied in a process is used completely to
do work against the external surroundings.
Then, the process may be identified as which
one of the following?
(a) Adiabatic
(b) Isochoric
(c) Isothermal
(d) None of these

| 11

14. The rate at which work is done on a charge + q

moving with velocity v in presence of electric
field E and magnetic field B is equal to
(a) zero
(b) q(v E)
(c) q(v B )
(d) - q(v B )
15. The de-Broglie wavelength of a photon is equal
to that of electron. Which one of the following
statements is correct?
(a) The total energy of electron is less than that
of photon
(b) The kinetic energy of photon is less than
that of electron
(c) The total energy of electron is greater than
that of photon
(d) The kinetic energy of photon is equal to
that of photon.
16. What is the tension along the rigid rod in a
dumb bell?
(a) Zero
(b) Small (non-zero)
(c) Large but finite
(d) Infinite
17. The displacement of a particle varies according
to y = 4 (cos pt + sin pt ). The amplitude of the
particle is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 2 2
(d) 4 2
18. A beam of light composed of red and green rays
is incident obliquely at a point on the face of a
rectangular glass slab. When coming out from
the opposite face, the red and green colours
emerge from
(a) one point propagating in two directions
(b) one point propagating in the same direction
(c) two points propagating in the same
direction
(d) two points propagating in two different
directions
19. A diver(at a depth d from the surface of water)
in water of refractive index m sees the world
outside through a horizontal circle of radius
d
d
(a)
(b)
m
m 2 -1
(c)

d
2

(d) None of these

m +1
20. A person covers one-third of the distance with
10 km/h, the second one-third distance with
20 km/h and the rest one-third distance with
60 km/h. What is the average speed?
(a) 12 km/h
(b) 18 km/h
(c) 24 km/h
(d) 30 km/h

12 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

21. A vernier callipers has its main scale of 10 cm
equally divided into 100 equal parts. Its vernier
scale of 20 divisions coincides with 19 divisions
of main scale. What is the least count of the
instrument?
(a) 0.01 cm
(b) 0.001 cm
(c) 0.05 cm
(d) 0.005 cm
22. If DU and DW represent the increase in internal
energy and work done by the system
respectively in a thermodynamical process,
then which one of the following is correct?
(a) DU = DW in adiabatic process
(b) DU = - DW in isothermal process
(c) DU = - DW in adiabatic process
(d) DU = DW in isothermal process
23. The temperature determines the direction of
net change of
(a) gross kinetic energy
(b) intermolecular kinetic energy
(c) gross potential energy
(d) intermolecular potential energy

(a) Both length and diameter are halved

(b) Both length and diameter are doubled
(c) Diameter is halved and length is doubled
(d) Diameter is doubled and length is halved
28. A heater boils 1 kg of water in time T1 and
another heater boils the same amount of water
in time T 2. If both the heaters are connected in
parallel, the time taken to boil the same amount
of water will be
TT
(a) T1 + T2
(b) 1 2
T1 + T2
(c)

T12
T1 + T2

(d)

T22
T1 + T2

29. A small object placed on a rotating horizontal

turn table just slips when it is placed at a
distance 9 cm from the axis of rotation. If the
angular velocity of the turn table is tripled, the
object slips when its distance from the axis of
rotation is
(a) 1 cm
(b) 2 cm (c) 4 cm (d) 9 cm

24. Two rods of copper and brass having initial

lengths l1 and l2 respectively are connected
together to form a single rod of length l1 + l2.
The coefficients of linear expansion of copper
and brass are a c and a b respectively. If the
length of each rod increases by same amount
when their temperatures are raised by t C, then
l1
what is
equal to?
l1 + l2
a
ac
(a) c
(b)
ab
ac + ab
a
ab
(c) b
(d)
ac
ac + ab

30. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface

very slowly. The coefficient of friction between,
the insect and the surface is 1/3. If the line
joining the centre of hemispherical surface and
the insect makes an angle a with the vertical,
what is the maximum value of a?
(a) cot -l (3)
(b) tan -l (3)
(c) sec - l (3)
(d) cosec - l (3)

25. In an adiabatic change, if pressure p and

temperature T of a monoatomic gas are related
as p is proportional to T c , then what is c equal
to?
(a) 2/5
(b) 3/5
(c) 5/2
(d) 5/3

32. A wooden ball of density r is immersed in a

liquid of density s to a depth h below the surface
of water and then released. The height to which
the ball jumps out of water is

26. The velocity of sound increases with increase in

temperature. What is the increase in velocity for
every 1 rise of temperature? (Velocity of sound
at 0C = 330 ms-1)
(a) 0.061 m/s
(b) 0.61 m/s
(c) 1.6 m/s
(d) 6.1 m/s
27. A constant potential difference is applied across
the ends of a wire. Which one of the following
operations will reduce the rate of heat
generation to half?

31. The linear momentum p of a body varies with

time as p = a + bt 2, where a and b are constants.
The net force acting on the body for
one-dimensional motion varies as
(a) t2
(b) t -1
(c) t -2
(d) t

(a) 1 - h
s

(b) 1 + h
s

(c) - 1 h
s

s
(d) - 1 h
r

33. g-rays pass through a strong uniform electric

field, in which directions are they deflected?
(a) In the direction of electric field
(b) In the direction perpendicular to electric
field
(c) In the direction opposite to electric field
(d) Do not get deflected

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

34. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The
point of suspension is now moved upward
according to the relation y = kt 2, where y is the
vertical displacement at any instant t. The time
period now becomes T2. What is T1/ T2 equal
to?(k =1 m /s2 , g = 10 m/s2 )
(a) 1. 2

(b) 0. 8

(c) 0. 9

(d)

1. 5

px
35. For the stationary wave y = 4 sin cos
15
(96 pt ), what is the distance between a node
and next antinode?
(a) 7.5 units
(b) 15 units
(c) 22.5 units
(d) 30 units
36. Consider the following statements
1. The velocity of sound is greater in media
whose compressibility is low.
2. The velocity of sound is greater in solids than
in gases.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
31. A convex lens intercepts a converging beam of
light which would have met 15 cm away from
its centre. If the focal length of the lens is 30 cm,
the shift of the meeting point would be
(a) 10 cm
(b) 12 cm
(c) 7.5 m
(d) 5 cm
38. An object is placed between 20 cm and 40 cm in
front of a concave mirror having radius of
curvature 40 cm. The image produced by the
mirror will lie
(a) within 20 cm and 40 cm
(b) beyond 40 cm
(c) within 20 cm
(d) at infinity
39. For a person having hypermetropia
(a) the near point shifts towards the eyes
(b) the near point shifts away from the eyes
(c) the far point shifts towards the eyes
(d) the far point shifts away from the eyes
40. If the second electronic orbit of Bohrs atom has
a radius r, then the radius of the third orbit is
(a) 2.25 r (b) 3r
(c) 9r
(d) r/3
41. A ray of light from a denser medium strikes a
rarer medium at an angle of incidence i. The
reflected and refracted rays make an angle 90
with each other. The angle of reflection and
angle of refraction are r and r respectively. The
critical angle is

-l

(a) sin (tan r)

(c) sin -l (tan r)

| 13

-l

(b) cos (tan r)

(d) sec - l (tan r)

42. A body executes SHM, at a displacement x, its

potential energy is E1. At a displacement y, its
potential energy is E2. What is the potential
energy of the body at a displacement (x + y )?
(a) E1 + E2

(b) E1 + E2

E12

(d) E1E2

(c)

E22

43. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.4 m

carries a current of 2 A. It is suspended in
mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field
B. What is the magnitude of the magnetic field?
(a) 0.007 T
(b) 0.07 T
(c) 0.7 T
(d) 7 T
44. A particle moves in x-y plane according to the
equations x = 4t2 + 5t +16 and y = 5t, where x, y
are in metre and t is in second. What is the
acceleration of the particle?
(a) 8 ms-2
(b) 12 ms-2
-2
(c) 14 ms
(d) None of these
45. A particle moves in x-y plane with velocity
v = ai + bxj , where a, b are constants. Initially,
the particle was located at x = 0 and y = 0. What
is the equation of trajectory of the particle?
(a) ay+ bx2
(b) by = ax2
2
(c) 2ay = bx
(d) ay = 2bx 2
46. Consider the following statements.
1. During the motion around the sun in
elliptical orbit, the total mechanical energy of
the earth remains constant.
2. The gravitational field in which the earth
moves is a conservative force field.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. Consider the following statements.
1. The main contribution to the binding energy
of the nucleus comes from a term
proportional to the mass number.
2. Volume of the nucleus is proportional to mass
number.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
48. A wire of magnetic material having length L is
bent at its middle point at an angle of 60. If the
magnetic moment of original wire is M, what is
the magnetic moment of the new form?
(a) M
(b) M / 2 (c) 2 M (d) M/2

14 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

50. Horizontal component and dip of the earths

magnetic field are zero, respectively, at
(a) north and south poles (b) equator and poles
(c) poles and equator
(d) None of these
51. In which one of the following emissions, the
electronic structure has no role to play?
(a) X-ray emission
(b) g-ray emission
(c) Cathode ray emission
(d) Photoelectric emission
52. A simple pendulum oscillates without damping.
When the displacement of the bob is less than
the maximum, then which one of the following
statements is/are correct?
1. The acceleration is directed along the tangent
to the path of the motion of the bob of the
pendulum.
2. The magnitude of velocity is greater than zero.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
53. In the figure given above, the reading of
voltmeter across the resistor is 3 V. What is the
reading of voltmeter across the inductor?

5V

(a) 2 V
(c) 4 V

(b) 3 V
(d) None of these

54. In the given figure, three similar lamps A, B and

C are connected to a source. If the lamp C fuses,
how will the light emitted by A and B change?
A

Source

(a) No change
(b) Brilliance of A decreases and that of B
increases
(c) Brilliance of both A and B increase
(d) Brilliance of both A and B decrease
55. A point object is placed on the bottom of a glass
vessel. A liquid of refractive index 4/3 is poured
into the vessel till the level of the liquid reaches
12 cm from the bottom. When seen from above
the glass vessel, the object appears to be shifted
up by
(a) 9 cm
(b) 6 cm (c) 3 cm (d) Zero
56. An ideal gas is taken through a cycle ABCA as
shown above in p-V diagram. What is the work
done during the cycle?
B (2p, V )

Pressure (p)

49. A bar magnet is suspended from the middle

point in a uniform magnetic field. The couple
acting on the bar magnet is minimum when the
magnet is
(a) parallel to the field
(b) perpendicular to the field
(c) at an angle of 45 to the field
(d) at an angle of 60 to the field

C (2p, 3V )

A (p, V )
Volume (V )

(a) pV/2

(b) pV

(c) 2 pV

(d) Zero

57. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is

spinned to angular velocity w and then carefully
placed on a horizontal surface (coefficient of
friction is m). Assume that the pressure exerted
by disc on the surface is uniform. What is the net
torque acting on disc?
2 mMgR
mMgR
(a)
(b)
3
3
3 mMgR
(c)
(d) None of these
3
58. If a thermometer reads melting point of water
as 20 C and boiling point as 180 C how much
does the thermometer read when the actual
temperature is 60 C?
(a) 98 C (b) 116 C (c) 120 C (d) 126 C
59. A particle moves in a straight line with a velocity
v and moves under a retardation equal to k
times the distance described. What is the
distance covered before it comes to rest?
(a) v k
(b) v/ k
(c) 2v / k
(d) None of these
60. An amount of 100 g of copper with specific heat
0.1 cal g -1 C -1 at 200C is dipped into 100 cc of

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

water at 24 C. What is the final temperature of
the system?
(a) 30C
(b) 40C
(c) 50 C (d) 60C
61. The hydrogen line spectrum provides evidence
for the
(a) Heisenberg uncertainty principle
(b) wave like properties of light
(c) diatomic nature of hydrogen
(d) quantized nature of atomic energy states
62. Which one of the following arrangements
shows the bonds HH, CC and SiSi in
order of increasing bond energy?
(a) Si Si < C C < H H
(b) C C < H H < Si Si
(c) H H < Si - Si < C C
(d) H H < C - C < Si Si
63. Which molecule has the shortest bond length?
(a) N 2
(b) O 2
(c) Cl 2
(d) Br2
64. A mixture of 0.10 mol H2 and O.050 mol O 2 are
placed in a bomb calorimeter with a heat
capacity of 5.1 104 J C -1. The initial
temperature is 25.00 C and the temperature
after combustion is 25.56 C. What is the DH f
for H2O (l)?
(Assume 100% conversion to water and neglect
heat absorbed by water)
(a) - 286 kJ mol -1
(b) +190 kJ mol -1
(c) - 190 kJ mol -1
(d) +286 kJ mol -1
65. What is the amount of heat that is released
when 8.17 g of Al(s) is converted to Al 2O 3(s) at
25 C and 1 atm via the reaction
4 Al(s )+ 3 O 2(g ) 2 Al 2O 3 (s)?
(For the reaction, DH =-3352 kJ, atomic mass
of Al = 27)
(a) 134 kJ
(b) 254 kJ
(c) 268 kJ
(d) 1. 01 103 kJ
66. In which reaction will an increase in the volume
of the container favour the formation of
products?
(a) C(s )+ H2O(g )
CO(g ) + H2(g )
(b) H2(g )+ I2(g )
2HI(g )
(c) 4NH3(g )+ 5O 2(g )
4 NO(g)
+6H2O(g )
(d) 3O 2(g )
2O 3(g )

s
s
s

67. What is the concentration of a solution

prepared by dissolving 4.20 g of NaF in 500 g of
water?
(a) 0.00840 molal
(b) 0.00840 molar
(c) 0.200 molal
(d) 0.200 molar

| 15

68. When 1.20 g of sulphur is melted with 15.00 g

of naphthalene, the solution freezes at 77.2 C.
What is the molar mass of this form of sulphur?
[Data for naphthalene; Melting point
= 80.00C, Freezing point depression constant,
K f = 6. 80 C m1,]
(a) 160 g mol -1
(b) 190 g mol -1
-1
(c) 260 g mol
(d) 450 g mol -1
69. Magnesium fluoride MgF 2 is a slightly soluble
salt whose solubility product K sp = 3.7 10-8.
What is the approximate solubility of MgF2?
(a) 9. 2 10-8 M
(b) 1. 2 10-8 M
(c) 1. 4 10-4 M
(d) 2.1 10-3 M
70. What is the [ H+ ] in a 0.010 M solution of HCN?
[The equilibrium constant, K a , for HCN equals
6. 2 10-10]
(a) 3. 6 10-3 M
(b) 2. 5 10-6 M
-7
(c) 1. 0 10 M
(d) 6. 2 10-10M
71. The half-life for the radioactive decay of 32P is
14.3 days. How many days would be required
for a sample of a radio pharmaceutical
containing 32 P to decrease to 20% of its initial
activity?[log 10 2 = 0. 301]
(a) 33.2 days
(b) 61.8 days
(c) 71.5 days
(d) 286 days
72. The activity of a radioactive isotope is 3000
counts per minute at a certain time and 2400
counts per minute 48 h later. What is its half
life?[log10 2 = 0. 30]
(a) 831 h (b) 800 h (c) 144 h (d) 124 h
73. Chromium is extensively used in electroplating
industry. Oxidation of Cr(atomic number: 24)
to Cr 2+ ion involves removal of valence
electrons from
(a) 4s and 3d orbitals (b) 4s and 4p orbitals
(c) 3d orbital only
(d) 4s orbital only
74. Consider the following molecules /ions.
1. NH4+
2. H3O+
3. NH3
4. SiCl 4
Which pair does not contain a lone pair?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
75. Closely sealed test tubes containing NO 2 gas are
placed separately on water baths at 270 K and
363 K.
Consider the following equilibrium:
2NO 2(g ) N 2O 4(g ) DH = -57.2kJ mol -1
(brown)

(colourless)

16 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

Which one of the following is the correct
observation?
(a) The brown colour is discharged at both
temperatures.
(b) The brown colour intensifies at both
temperatures.
(c) The intensity of brown colour decreases at
low temperature while it intensifies at high
temperature.
(d) The intensity of brown colour increases at
low temperature while it diminishes at high
temperature.
76. A Scuba diver swimming in deep sea water
comes towards the surface of water. The diver
experiences
(a) high concentration of O 2 when under the
deep sea
(b) high concentration of O 2 when moving
towards the surface
(c) same concentration of O 2 under both
conditions
(d) low concentration of O 2 when under the
deep sea
77. Bacterial action on preserved meat is
diminished by addition of common salt. This
phenomenon is explained by
(a) depression in freezing point of water
(b) ionic nature of salt
(c) loss of water in the bacterium cell
(d) gain in water in the bacterium cell
78. An isobaric product is formed if radioactivity
proceeds by emission of
(a) one b- particle
(b) one a-particle
(c) one a and two b-particles
(d) two b-particles
79. Which bond would be expected to have the
positive end of the bond dipole on the nitrogen
atom?
(a) NH
(b) CN
(c) AlN
(d) NO
80. The dissociation of HI molecule, as shown
below occurs at a temperature of 629K. The rate
constant k = 3.02 10-5 M -1s-1
2HI(g) H2(g)+ l 2(g )
What is the reaction order?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2

(d) 3

81. Which one among the following is a liquid at

0C?
(a) HF
(b) HCl
(c) HBr
(d) HI

82. Consider the following ions.

1. Na+
2. Al 3+
3. Si 4+
In naturally occurring zeolites which of the
above ions are present?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
83. Which one of the following is not correct in
respect of ortho-silicates?
(a) They are not formed by discrete SiO 4
4 unit
(b) The unit SiO 4makes
a
cyclic
frame
work
4
(c) There is no double bond between Si and O
atoms
(d) They are used as gem-stone
84. Which one of the following is not correct in
respect of hydrogen peroxide?
(a) It
is
industrially
produced
from
2-ethylanthroquinol
(b) It has a linear structure
(c) It acts both as oxidizing and reducing agent
(d) It is widely used as bleaching agent
85. For simple molecules NO 2 and S2which one of
the following statements is correct?
(a) Both are diamagnetic
(b) NO 2 is diamagnetic while S2 is paramagnetic
(c) S2 is diamagnetic while NO 2 is paramagnetic
(d) Both are paramagnetic
86. The standard electrode potential for half-cell
reduction of X 2 (g) and Y2(g) are 2.87 and 1.36
E/V. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) X 2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than Y2
(b) Y2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than X 2
(c) X is a stronger reducing agent than Y ion
(d) The reducing strength of X - and Y - ions is
the same
87. A chemical substance (X) is commercially
prepared by electrolysis of brine solution and is
being sold under trade name, Chlorox as
anti-bleaching agent. The compound X is
(a) NaOCl
(b) NaClO 2
(c) NaClO 3
(d) NaClO 4
88. Among the following the most reactive is
(a) S2O
(b) SO 3
(c) SO 2
(d) SO 32
89. In the extraction of copper, metal is formed in
the bessemer converter due to which one of the
following reactions?
(a) Cu 2S+ 2Cu 2O 6Cu+SO 2
(b) Cu 2S 2Cu+S
(c) Cu 2O + Fe 2Cu+ FeO
(d) 2Cu 2O 4Cu+O 2

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

| 17

90. Potash alum contains the metals like potassium

and aluminium. What are the metal ions
present in chrome alum?
(a) Chromium and aluminium only
(b) Iron and aluminium
(c) Potassium and chromium only
(d) Potassium, chromium and aluminium

97. Which property of hydrogen points its more

resemblance with halogen family members as
compared to alkali metals?
(a) Affinity for non-metals
(b) Ionization potential
(c) Electronic configuration
(d) Reducing nature

91. During extraction of Al from bauxite ore, the

impurities of Fe2O 3are removed by boiling the
ore with
(a) liquid NH3
(b) aqueous NaOH
(c) conc H2SO 4
(d) conc HNO 3

98. The total number of N O bonds present in

N 2O 5 molecule are
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7

92. Consider the following statements in respect of

oxides of sulphur.
1. In gas phase SO 2 molecules are V-shaped.
2. In gas phase SO 3 molecule has a planar
structure.
3. g - SO 3 is cyclic trimer and solid at 0C.
Which of the statements above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
93. NH3 on passing through which one of the
following is most significantly absorbed?
(a) P2O 5
(b) CaO
(c) Na 2O
(d) TiO 2
94. In Habers process for the manufacturing of
ammonia best yields are obtained under which
one of the following conditions?
(a) 250C to 380C and 1 atm using a catalyst
(b) 380C to 450C and 100 atm using a
catalyst
(c) 380C to 450C and 200 atm using a
catalyst
(d) 200C to 250 C and 100 atm using a
catalyst
95. Bromine gas is commercially prepared from
brine by displacement reaction
Cl 2 + 2Br (aq) 2Cl - (aq)+ Br2
Br2 gas thus formed is removed by passing a
stream of air and then reabsorbed in a solution
of
(a) KOH
(b) Ca(OH)2
(c) Na 2CO 3
(d) H3PO 4
96. The basic chemical reaction that is used in the
commercial extraction of zinc involves the
reduction of ZnO with
(a) CO
(b) Na-Hg
(c) Mg
(d) SO 2

99. If 1 L of air is passed repeatedly on hot copper

and hot magnesium till no further decrease in
volume takes place, the residual gas contains
(a) carbon dioxide and argon
(b) oxygen, nitrogen and carbon dioxide
(c) argon only
(d) oxygen and argon
100. Consider the following.
In the extraction of Au, from rocks containing
Au which of the following are used?
1. Hg
2. KOH
3. KCN
Which of the above are the correct extracting
agents?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
101. The type of isomerism exhibited by
HO 2C HC==CH CH C HCO 2H
|
CH3
is
(a) functional isomerism
(b) geometric isomerism
(c) optical isomerism
(d) geometric and optical isomerism
102. Aromatic compounds are stable with wide
applications. Which one of following
monocyclic rings with conjugated p electrons is
aromatic?
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

18 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

103. Chloroform is an anesthetic and a small amount
of alcohol is added to its bottles because
(a) it retards anesthetic property of chloroform
(b) it accelerates the formation of phosgene
(c) it converts any phosgene formed to
harmless carbonate
(d) None of the above

110. A solution of aniline in commercial chloroform

kept for months started giving a pungent odour.
This is due to the formation of
(a) phenyl isocyanate
(b) phenyl cyanide
(c) phenyl isocyanide
(d) phenyl isothiocyanate

104. Freons, culprits in depletion of ozone layer are

industrially produced from
(a) CF4
(b) CH2Cl 2
(c) hexachlorobenzene (d) CHCl 3 and CCl 4

111. In wine making industry, the fermentation of

sugars is done under anaerobic conditions to
(a) accelerate the formation of ethanol
(b) oxidize the produced ethanol to ethanoic
acid
(c) avoid the oxidation of ethanol to ethanoic
acid
(d) None of the above

105. Consider the following isomeric butanes.

1. H3C CH2 CH2 CH2 Br
CH3

2. H3C CH2 C H Br
CH3

3. H3C C Br

CH3
4. (H3C)2CH CH2Br
What is the correct order of the above isomeric
butanes of SN 2 reaction?
(a) 1 > 4 > 2 > 3
(b) 3 > 4 > 2 > 1
(c) 4 > 1 > 2 > 3
(d) 2 > 1 > 4 > 3
106. Lucas reagent reacts fastest with
(a) butan-1-ol
(b) butan-2-ol
(c) 2-methylpropan-1-ol
(d) 2-methylpropan-2-ol
OH

107. Ph CHO + HCN gives Ph C H which is

CN
(a) optically active
(b) a meso compound
(c) racemate
(d) a mixture of diastereomers
108. Benzene can be converted to acetophenone by
its treatment with
(a) H3CCOCl/ AlCl 3
(b) H3CCN/ AlCl 3
(c) (H3CCO)2O / AlCl 3 (d) All of these
109. Consider the following.
1. Propionaldehyde
2. Benzaldehyde
3. Benzophenone
4. Acetophenone
What is the correct order of the reactivity of the
above towards nucleophiles?
(a) 3 > 2 > 4 > 1
(b) 3 > 4 > 2 > 1
(c) 2 > 1 > 3 > 4
(d) 1 > 2 > 4 > 3

112. Purity of ether before its use as an anesthetic

agent is tested by
(a) KI and starch
(b) H2SO 4
(c) CuSO 4
(d) None of these
113. Consider the following statements.
Statement I 1-butene reacts with HBr to give
1-bromobutane.
Statement II Reactive intermediate of the
reaction is carbocation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect
of the above statements?
(a) Both statement I and statement II are
correct and statement II is the correct
explanation of statement I
(b) Both statement I and statement II are
correct but statement-II is not the correct
explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
114. An optically inactive natural a-amino acid is
(a) glycine
(b) alanine
(c) lysine
(d) valine
115. Which one of the following compounds is not a
lipid?
(a) Vitamin-A
(b) Tristearin
(c) Cholesterol
(d) Alanine
116. Consider the following reaction,
NH2
NH2
NaNO2/HCl

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

What is the major product (B) of the above
reaction?

118. Consider the following molecules,

Br
Cl

Br
Cl

F
(A)

(a)

(B)

The enantiomers rotate the plane polarized

light in opposite directions. If the molecule A
rotates the plane polarized light by (+ ) 56, then
B will exhibit rotation of
(a) 0
(b) (- ) 56
(c) (+ ) 56
(d) None of these

CN

(b)

(c)

(d)

119. Consider the following structures,

N
H

Br

NH2

NHCOCH2
Br2

H3 O

What is the major product (B) of the above,

reaction?
NH2

NH2
Br

(a)

Br

Br
NH2

NH2

Br

Br

Br

Cl

Cl
(B)

Cl

Br

I
(C)

Which one of the following is correct in respect

of above structures?
(a) The structures A and B are enantiomers
(b) The structures A and C are geometrical
isomers
(c) The structures A and B are two molecules of
the same compound
(d) The structures A and C are two molecules of
the same compound
120. DDT can be synthesized from the chlorination
product of which one of the following
aldehydes?
(a) HCHO
(b) H3CCHO
(c) H3CCH2CHO
(d) C 6H5CHO

(b)

Br

(A)

117. Consider the following reaction,

(c)

NH

Br

| 19

(d)

Paper III
n

Mathematics

1. What is the coefficient of x in the expansion of

2
3
n2

1 + x + x + x + . . . + x ?

1 ! 2! 3!
n !

n
1
2
(a)
(b) 2n
(c) n!
(d)
n!
n!

2. Two real numbers x and y are selected from the

closed interval [0, 4]. What is the probability
that the selected numbers satisfy the inequation
y 2 x?
(a) 3/16
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/3
(d) 1/2

20 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

3. What is

100

10

(x - [ x]) dx equal to, where [x]

denotes the greatest integer function?

(a) 90
(b) 45 (c) 0
(d) -1
4. Let f ( x )= x 2 - 1 for 0 < x < 2 and 2x + 3 for
2 x < 3. The quadratic equation whose roots
are lim f(x) and lim f(x) is
x 2 2

x 2 +

(a) x - 4 x + 21 = 0
(c) x 2 - 10 x + 21 = 0

(b) x 2 - 6 x + 9 = 0
(d) x 2 + 10 x - 21 = 0

5. Let f(x) be a continuous function defined for

1 x 3. If f(x) takes rational values for all x
and f(2) = 10 , then what is f (1.5) equal to?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 10
(d) Cannot be determined as the data is
insufficient
6. If A = { - 2, - 1, 0, 1, 2} and f : A Z,
f ( x ) = x 2 - 2x - 3, then what is the pre image(s)
of - 3?
(a) 0 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 0, 2
(d) f

Directions (Q.Nos. 7-8) Consider the following

determinant
a
b
ax + by

b
c
bx + cy

ax + by
bx + cy
0

7. What is the value of the determinant, if

b2 - ac < 0 and a> 0?
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) Zero
(d) Sign cannot be determined

11. Ten coins are thrown simultaneously. What is

the probability of getting atleast seven heads?
(a) 3/64
(b) 5/64
(c) 7/64
(d) 11/64
12. What is the locus of a complex number
z = x + iy, where i = -1 in the argand plane
satisfying the relation arg (z - a) = p / 4, where
a is a real number?
(a) x 2 - y 2 = a2
(b) x 2 + y 2 = a2
(c) x + y = a
2

(d) x - y = a
2

13. If |x - 5x + 6|> x - 5x + 6, then which one of

the following is correct?
(a) x > 3
(b) x < 2
(c) 2 < x < 3
(d) - 3 < x < - 2
100

3
3
14. If 349( x + iy ) = + i
and x = ky ,then
2
2
what is the value of k? (i = -1 )
1
(a) (b) 3
3
1
(c) - 3
(d) 3
15. If A and B are two events such that
3
7
P ( A )= , P (B )= , then which one of the
5
10
following is correct?
3
7
(a) P( A B )
(b) P ( A B )
10
10
3
7
3
7
(c) < P ( A B )<
(d) < P ( A B )
5
10
5
10

Directions (Q.Nos.16-17) Consider the function

f ( x )=[ x] sin (px ), where [x] is the greatest integer not
exceeding x.

8. What is the value of the determinant, if

b2 - ac = 0 and a> 0?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) b2 + ac
(d) abc

16. What is the limit of f(x) as x k, where k is an

integer?
(a) -1
(b) 0
(c) k - 1
(d) None of these

9. If f(x) is continuous for all real values of x, then

17. What is the left hand derivative of f(x) at x = k,

where k is an integer?
(a) (-1)k (k - 1) p
(b) (-1)k -1(k - 1) p

what is f (r - 1 + x ) dx equal to?

r =1

(a) f ( x ) dx
0

(c) n f ( x ) dx
0

(b) f ( x ) dx
0

(d) (n - 1) f ( x ) dx
0

10. What is the number of bijective functions from a

set A to itself, when|A|=106?
(a) 106
(b) (106)2 (c) 106! (d) 2106

(c) (-1)k kp

(d) (-1)k -1 kp

18. A determinant of the second order is made with

the elements 0 and 1. What is the probability
that the determinant made is non-negative?
(a) 13/16
(b) 3/16
(c) 3/4
(d) 7/8

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

19. What is the sum of real roots of the equation
x 2 + 4 | x|- 5 = 0 ?
(a) 4
(c) 0

(b) 1
(d) -1

20. If y 2 = P ( x ) a polynomial of degree n 3, ,then

d 3 d 2 y
what is 2
equal to?
y
dx
dx 2
(a) - P ( x ) P ( x )
(b) P ( x ) P ( x )
(c) P ( x ) P ( x )
(d) - P ( x ) P ( x )
21. How many natural numbers less than a million
can be formed using the digits 0, 7 and 8?
(a) 728
(b) 726
(c) 730
(d) 724
22. Three persons A, B and C are to speak at a
function along with five others. If they all speak
in random order, what is the probability that A
speaks before B and B speaks before C?
3
1
3
5
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
8
6
5
6
23. If A is a skew-symmetric matrix of order 3, then
matrix A 3 is a/an
(a) orthogonal matrix
(b) diagonal matrix
(c) symmetric matrix
(d) skew-symmetric matrix
dy ax + g
24. The solution of
represents a circle, if
=
dx by + f
(a) a = b
(b) a = - b
(c) a = - 2b
(d) a = 2b
25. Let ABCD be a parallelogram whose diagonals
intersect at P. If O is the origin, then what is
OA + OB + OC +OD equal to?
(a) 2 OP
(b) 3 OP
(c) 4 OP
(d) 6 OP
26. Let f : R R be a differentiable function and
f ( x ) 2 t dt
f (1)= 4 . What is the value of lim
x 1 4
x -1
equal to?
(a) 8 f (1)
(b) 4 f (1)
(c) 2 f (1)
(d) f (1)
27. All curves in the xy-plane having the property
that the tangents pass through the origin are
(a) y = cx 2
(b) y = cx
2
(c) x = cy
(d) xy = c
28. Consider the following statements
1. If A ={( x, y ) R R : x 3 + y 3 =1} and
B ={( x, y ) R R : x - y =1}, then
A B contains exactly one element.

| 21

2. If A ={( x, y ) R R : x + y =1} and

B ={( x, y ) R R : x + y =1}, then
A B contains exactly two elements.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
29. For any n 2 , let M n(R) denote the set of all
n n matrices over the set of real numbers.
Consider the following statements
1. If A M n (R ) is a non-zero matrix with
det ( A ) = 0, then det(adj A) = 0.
2. For any A M n(R )
det (adj A) = (det A )n- 1
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
30. If the set of integers with the operation defined
by a * b = a+ b - 1 forms a group, what is the
inverse of a?
(a) - a
(b) 2a
(c) 2 - a
(d) 1 - a
31. Consider the following statements
1. If for some positive integers
p, q, r ( p < q < r), 22 p + 1, 22q +1, 22r + 1 are
in GP, then p-1, q-1, r-1 will be in HP.
2. If x, y, z are positive integers such that
x -1, y -1, z -1are in HP, then for any real
number u 0, ( xu)-1, ( yu)-1, (zu)-1 will also
be in HP.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Let us define the length of a vector
ai + bj+ ck = a+ b+ c. The definition coincides
with the usual definition of length of a vector
ai + bj + ck iff
(a) a = b = c = 0
(b) any two of a, b, c are zero
(c) any one of a, b, c is zero
(d) a+ b+ c = 0

Directions (Q.Nos. 33-35) Consider the following

p/4

integral I n =

tan n x dx ,where n N , n > 1

33. What is I n + I n-2 equal to?

1
1
(a)
(b)
n -1
n
1
1
(c)
(d)
n+1
n+ 2

22 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

34. What is In - 1 + In+ 1 equal to?
1
1
(a)
(b)
n -1
n
1
1
(c)
(d)
n+1
n+ 2
35. Consider the following statements
1
1
1
1
1.
2. < 2I n-1 <
< 2I n <
n+1
n -1
n
n-2
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
36. Out of 13 applicants for a job, there are
5 women and 8 men. It is desired to select
2 persons for this job. What is the probability
that atleast one of the selected persons will be a
woman?
(a) 5/13 (b) 10/13 (c) 14/39 (d) 25/39
37. If p is chosen at random in the closed interval
[0, 5], the prob a bil ity that the equa tion
p+ 2
x 2 + px +
= 0 will have real roots is equal
4
to?
(a) 1/2
(b) 1/5
(c) 2/3
(d) 3/5
38. The

set
of
matrices
x - x

S =
such that 0 x R forms a
- x x

group under multiplication with identity

element
1 1
1 -1
(a)
(b)

1
1

-1 1
1
1
2 - 2
-1 1
(c)
(d)

1 1
1 -1

2 2

39. If A, B, C are acute positive angles such that

A+ B+C = p and cot A cot B cot C = k, then
1
1
(a) k
(b) k
3 3
3 3
1
1
(c) k <
(d) k >
9
3
40. If A = sin 2 q + cos4 q, then for all real q, which
one of the following is correct?
3
(a) 1 A 2
(b) A 1
4
13
3
13
(c)
(d) A
A 1
16
4
16
41. If S is a finite set containing n elements, then
what is the total number of binary operations on
S?

(a) nn
2
(c) nn

(b) 2n
(d) n2

42. Let A be the fixed point (0, 4) and B be a moving

point (2t, 0). Let the mid-point of AB be M. Let
the perpendicular bisector of AB meet the y-axis
at N. What is the locus of mid-point P of MN?
(a) x 2 +(y - 2)2 = 1 / 2
(b) - x 2 +( y - 2)2 = 1 / 2
(c) x 2 + y = 2
(d) x+ y 2 = 2
43. If z1, z2 are two non-zero complex numbers
such that |z1 + z2|=| z1|+| z2|, then what is
arg(z1 ) - arg(z2 ) equal to?
(a) -p
(b) - p / 2
(c) 0
(d) p / 2
44. What is the equation to the line passing through
a i and perpendicular to j and k?
(a) x-axis
(b) y-axis
(c) z-axis
(d) None of these
45. If a, b, c are non-zero vectors such that
a b = c and b c = a, then consider the
following statements
1. a, b, c are orthogonal in pairs.
2. Each of a, b, c are unit vectors.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
46. Consider the following statements
1. The sum of two unit vectors can be a unit
vector.
2. The magnitude of the difference between two
unit vectors can be greater than the
magnitude of a unit vector.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
47. If a and b are two non-zero, non-collinear
vectors and m, n are scalars such that
ma + nb = 0, then
(a) m 0, n 0
(b) m = 0, n 0
(c) m 0, n = 0
(d) m = 0, n = 0
48. What is ex (2 + sin 2x ) sec 2 x dx equal to?
(a) ex (1 + cos 2x ) sin x +C
(b) ex (sec x + tan x )+C
(c) 2ex tan x + C
(d) 2ex sec x +C
where, C is the constant of integration.

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

Directions (Q.Nos. 49-50) The last term in the

n

log 3 8

1 1

is

binomial expansion of 21/ 3 2 33 9

49. What is n equal to?

(a) 8
(b) 9

(c) 10

(d) 11

50. What is the 5th term in the expansion?

(a) 840
(b) 720
(c) 360
(d) 210

Directions (Q.Nos. 51-52) Let f be a twice

differentiable function such that
f ( x ) = - f ( x ) and f ( x )= g( x).
Let h( x )={ f ( x )}2 +{g( x )}2, where h(5)=11.
51. What is h( x ) equal to?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) x

(d) x 2

52. What is h(10) equal to?

(a) 0
(b) 11
(c) 22

(d) 44

53. If B = B and I - B = A, then which one of the

following is correct?
(a) A 2 = B
(b) A 2 = A
2
(c) A = I
(d) A 2 = - A
54. What is the equation of the curve through the
2ay
point (1, 1) and whose slope is
?
x( y - a)
(a) y a x 2a = e y -1
(b) y a x 2a = e y
2a a
y -1
(c) y x = e
(d) y 2a x a = e y
55. What is the degree of the differential equation
2/ 3
d3 y
d2 y
dy

+
4
3
+5
= 0?
3
2
dx
dx
dx

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
56. Consider the following statements in respect of
the function f ( x )=1+|sin x| .
1. f (x) is continuous everywhere.
2. f (x) is differentiable at x = 0 .
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. What do the lines | x|+2| y|=1 represent?
(a) Sides of a triangle
(b) Sides of a rhombus
(c) Sides of a square
(d) None of these
a sin x + b cos x
58. The function
, x R attains
c sin x + d cos x
neither maximum nor minimum, if
a b
a b
(a) =
(b) =
c d
d c
a c
(c) =
(d) None of these
d b

| 23

dx
59. What is
equal to?
p/ 6 1 + tan x
p
p
(a)
(b)
6
12
p2
(c)
(d) None of these
12
p/ 3

60. If the three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are

A(l, 0), B(2, 3), C(3, 2). What are the
coordinates of the fourth point?
(a) (2, 1)
(b) (2, -1)
(c) (-1, 2)
(d) (-1, - 2)
61. If one of the lines represented by
6 x 2 + kxy + y 2 = 0 is 2x + y = 0, then what is
the value of k?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) - 5
62. If H is an orthogonal square matrix, then what is
the determinant of H?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 4
63. A family of curves involves four parameters. Let
the order of differential equation representing
the family be m. What is m equal to?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
64. The number of pairs of parallel tangents that an
ellipse has, is
(a) zero
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) infinite
65. Consider the function f ( x ) =|x - 1| defined on
an interval [ -1, 2]. The point x 0, where
f ( x )= 0 on that interval
(a) is 0
(b) is 1
(c) is -1
(d) does not exist
66. Let x m + y m = 1. If
the value of m?
(a) 1/3
(c) 1

dy
y
= -
dx
x

1/ 3

, then what is

(b) 2/3
(d) 3/2

67. Consider the functions f ( x ) = ex , g( x ) = log e x.

Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
(a) f (x) is always positive.
(b) f ( x ) > g( x ) for all values of x.
(c) g(x) is always positive.
(d) f (x) and g (x) curves never intersect.
1
68. Let f ( x ) =
. In which one of the following
| x|
intervals is the function discontinuous?
(a) (0, 1) (b) (-1, 0) (c) [0, 1] (d) (0, 1]
69. A line makes equal angles with the diagonals of
a cube. What is the sine of the angle?

24 | SCRA Solved Paper 2012

(a) 2/ 3
(c) 1 / 2

(b) 1 / 3
(d) None of these

70. In an arithmetic series of 16 terms with first

term 16, the sum is equal to the square of the
last term. What is the common difference?
(a) 8/5
(b) - 4/5
(c) - 8 /5
(d) None of these
71. The solution of | x - 2| < 5 is all the real
numbers satisfying
(a) -2 < x < 5
(b) - 3 < x < 7
(c) - 5 < x < 7
(d) - 3 < x < 5
72. Let z be the complex conjugate of z. The curve
represented by Re (z )2 = k 2is a
(a) parabola
(b) rectangular hyperbola
(c) hyperbola but not rectangular
(d) pair of straight lines
73. Which one of the following functions is inverse
of itself?
1 - sin x
1 - x2
(a)
(b)
1+ sin x
2+ x2
(c)

1 ex + e- x
ln
2 ex - e- x

(d) None of these

74. Let N1 be the total number of injective

mappings from a set with m elements to a set
with n elements when m n. When m > n, let
the number of injective mappings be N 2. Then,
(a) N1 > N 2
(b) N1 < N 2
(c) N1 = N 2
(d) N1 + N 2 = m + n
75. Let A1 be the area enclosed in between an
ellipse and the circle drawn with the major axis
as a diameter and A2 be the area enclosed
between the same ellipse and the circle drawn
with the minor axis as diameter. Then , which
one of the following is correct?
(a) A1 = A2
(b) A1 < A2
(c) A1 > A2
(d) A1 - A2 = p (b2 - a2 )
76. Let a = i + j+ k and b be a vector such that
a b = 0 and a b = 0. Then, which one of the
following is correct?
(a) b = la for some scalar l
(b) b = 0
(c) b is perpendicular to a
(d) b is a non-zero vector

x 2dx

x6 + 1

77. What is

1
log ( 2 + 1)
3
1
(c) log ( 2 - 1)
3
(a)

equal to?
1
log ( 2 + 1)
2
1
(d) log ( 2 - 1)
2
(b)

78. Let f(x) be a function defined in the closed

interval I, where I = [0, 1].
0, when x is rational
f ( x )= 1,
when x is irrational

Then, which one of the following is correct?

(a) f(x) is continuous on I.
(b) f(x) is continuous on I except for a finite
number of points.
(c) f(x) is continuous nowhere on I.
(d) None of the above
79. If A is a 3 3 matrix and det (3A )= k det(A),
then what is the value of k?
(a) 3
(b) 9
(c) 27
(d) 81
80. What is the area of the re gion in the first
quad rant bounded by the y-axis and the
curves y = sin x and y = cos x?
(a) 2 sq units
(b) ( 2 + 1) sq units
(c) ( 2 - 1) sq units
(d) (2 2 - 1) sq units
1 |x|
81. What is
dx equal to?
-1 x
(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 1/2
82. The straight line ax + by+c = 0 and the
coordinate axes form an isosceles triangle,
when
(a)|a| =|b|
(b) |a| =|c|
(c) |b| =|c|
(d) None of these
83. If
the
planes
and
r (2i - lj + k )= 3
r (4i + j - mk )= 5 are parallel, then what is l
equal to?
(a) 1/2
(b) 1
(c) -1/2 (d) -1
84. If a , b, c are three non-zero vectors such that
a + b+ c = 0 and m = a b + b c + c a, then
which one of the following is correct?
(a) m < 0 (b) m > 0
(c) m = 0 (d) Cannot be determined
2n

1+ i
85. The least positive integer n for which
,
1 -i
where i = -1, has a negative value is
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
86. The factors of sin q + sin f - cos q sin (q + f)are
(a) sin q and 1 + sin (q + f)

| 25

SCRA Solved Paper 2012

(b) sin q and 1 - cos (q + f)
(c) sin f and 1 - cos (q + f)
(d) None of the above

2. fof(x) is an identity function.

87. The inverse of a symmetric matrix, if it exists, is

(a) symmetric
(b) skew-symmetric
(c) always unit matrix (d) None of these
88. Which one of the following points does not lie
on the circle with centre at (3, 4) and radius 5?
(a) (0, 0) (b) (- 1,1) (c) (2, 3) (d) (3, - 1)
89. The equation Ax + By + C = 0 involves only
(a) one arbitrary constant
(b) two arbitrary constants
(c) three arbitrary constants
(d) None of the above
90. Let X be the set of all persons living in a state.
Elements x, y in X are said to be related, if
x < ywhenever y is 5 yr older than x. Which one
of the following is correct?
(a) The relation is an equivalence relation.
(b) The relation is transitive only.
(c) The relation is transitive and symmetric but
not reflexive.
(d) The relation is neither reflexive, nor
symmetric, nor transitive.

Directions (Q.Nos. 91-93) Consider

f ( x )=

1+ x
, ( x 0) and g( x )= fofofof ( x ).
1- x

91. What is g(x) equal to?

1
1
(a)
(b)
(c) x
1- x
x
1
92. What is g(x) g equal to?
x
1
1
(a)
(b) 2
(c) x 2
1- x
x

(d)

1
1+ x

(d) 1

93. Consider the following statements

1. g(x) is an identity function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Directions (Q.Nos. 94-96) Consider the polynomial

with

p( x )=( x - a )( x - b )( x - g )
a = cos 75 , b = cos 45 and cos g = cos165.

94. What is the constant term of p(x) equal to?

(a)

1
2

(b)

1
2 2

(c)

1
4 2

(d) -

1
4 2

95. What is the coefficient of x 2 in p(x)?

(a) - 1
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) None
96. What is the coefficient of x in p(x)?
2 2+1
4
2+1
(c)
4
(a)

(b) -

2 2+1
4

(d) None of these

Directions (Q.Nos. 97-100) The series of natural

numbers is divided into groups (1), (2, 3, 4), (5, 6, 7,
8, 9) and so on.
97. How many numbers are there in the nth
group?
(a) n
(b) 2 n - 1 (c) 2n
(d) 2 n+1
98. What is the first term in the nth group?
(a) 2 n - 1
(b) n2 - 2 n - 1
(c) n2 - 2 n + 2
(d) None of these
99. What is the sum of the numbers in the nth
group?
(a) (2n + 1)(n2 - n + 1) (b) n3 - 3n2 + 3n - 1
(c) n3 + (n + 1)3
(d) None of these
100. What is the last term in the nth group?
(a) 4n+1 (b) 2n2
(c) n2
(d) None

Answer with Explanations

Paper I General Ability Test

6. (a) Remove the

1. (a) Put whom in place of who.

7. (c) Put decision in place of conclusion.

2. (b) Put most in place of more.

8. (c) Remove the.

3. (c) Put havent they in place of isnt it.

9. (b) Put either before to.

4. (b) Put has been in place of is.

10. (b) Put were in place of was

5. (d) This sentence is error free.

11. (a)

12. (c)

13. (d)

14. (a)

15. (d)