Page | 1

PART I
PERSONAL IDENTIFICATION
(FINGERPRINT)

1.

What is fingerprint impression?

Answer: Fingerprint impression is refers to a pattern or designed formed by the ridges on
the end joint of the fingers or thumb.

2.

When fingerprint is formed in the human being?

Answer: Fingerprint is formed three to four months (3-4) in the mothers womb.

3.

What are the composite of the end joint of the fingers or thumb which form the impression?
Answer: End joint of the fingers or thumb is made up of papillary ridges, and furrows.

Papillary ridges or sometimes referred to as friction ridges or epidermal ridges are

raised strips of the skin by which fingerprint are made; while,

Furrows are the depressions or canals between the ridges.

4.

What are the kinds of fingerprint impression?

Answer: There are two kinds of fingerprint impression:

Real impression, it is intentionally made impression with the use of any printing
materials.

Chance impression, these are imprinted impression by mere chance or without

intention to produce the print.

5.

What are the ways of taking real fingerprint impressions?

Answer: Fingerprints are made by:

Rolled impression, this is printed by rolling the fingers or thumb away from the
center of the subjects body.

Plain impressions, this is printed without rolling the fingers or thumb.

6.

What are the classifications of chance impression?

Answer: Chance impression is either visible or latent print.

It is visible impression when the print is apparent even without chemical treatment;

It is latent print impression, however, if the print is invisible but made visible
if some substances are applied.

7.

What makes different between DACTYLOGRAPHY and DACTYLOSCOPY?

Answer: Both are art of studying fingerprint as a means of personal identification but in
Dactylography, it refers to the recording of fingerprint; while, in DACTYLOSCOPY it refers
to the comparison of fingerprint.

8.

What are the characteristics of fingerprint?

Answer: Fingerprints have the character of:

Individuality, no two people have fingerprint that are exactly alike.

Permanency, configuration and details of individual ridges remain constant (never

change).

Infallibility, fingerprint evidence is reliable.

9.

What are the layers of the skin and their effects in the character of fingerprint?
Answer: Skin has:

an outer scarf or epidermis; &

an inner scarf or dermis.

In case of temporary impairment, the outer scarf revert to their natural alignment
and fingerprint will not changed or destroy, but if the inner scarf will impaired, the
fingerprint will be destroyed and will not be restored.

10.

When fingerprint evidence warrant conviction?

Answer: To warrant a conviction, the fingerprints corresponding to those of the accused
must have been found in the crime scene which they could have been impressed at the time
when the crime is committed.

11.

How latent impressions are made?

Answer: They are made by the perspiration on top of the ridges of the fingers.

12.

What was the first Appellate Court to pass upon the admissibility of fingerprint as evidence?
Answer: In 1911, an Illinois Court, in the case of People vs. Jennings, was the first
Appellate Court to pass upon the admissibility of fingerprint as evidence.

Page | 2
13.

Is fingerprints photograph sufficient in court to support conviction?

Answer: Yes. In the case of State vs. Conners, the court was held competent to show by a
photograph the fingerprint upon the post without producing the post in court.

14.

What is the first judicial decision in the

fingerprinting?
Answer: People vs. Medina, 59 Phil. 330.

15.

What are the different fingerprint patterns?

Answer: All fingerprints are divided into three classes on the basis of their general
patterns, namely:
A. Arch (5%)
B. Loops (65%)
C. Whorl (30%)

16.

What is arch pattern?

Answer: Arch is the least common of the three general patterns and is subdivided into two
distinct groups, Plain and Tented.

The Plain Arch is the simplest of all fingerprint patterns and is formed by ridges
entering from one side of the print and exiting on the opposite side. These ridges
tend to rise in the center of the pattern, forming a wave-like pattern.

The Tented Arch is similar to the Plain Arch except that instead of rising smoothly
at the center, there is sharp upthrust or spike, or the ridges meet at an angle less
than 90 degrees.

17.

What is loop pattern?

Answer: A Loop is a type of pattern in which one or more ridges enter either side, recurve,
touch or pass an imaginary line between Delta and Core, and tend to exit the same side as
the ridge entry. It is the most common of the three general patterns and subdivided into
two distinct groups, ulnar and radial. It is ulnar when the Ridges are flow in the
direction of the little finger. It is radial when the ridges are flow in the direction of
the thumb.

18.

What is whorl pattern?

Answer: Whorl pattern is the second most common of the three general patterns. They are
subdivided into 4 distinct groups: Accidental, Double Loop, Central Pocket Loop and Plain.

19.

What is plain whorl pattern?

Answer: Plain Whorls are the most common and simplest of the Whorl subtypes. It is
important to remember that Plain Whorls have two Deltas and at least one recurving ridge in
front of each. In a Whorl pattern, the ridges are usually circular.

20.

What are the characteristics of plain whorl?

Answer: They are:

A Plain Whorl pattern must have Type Lines and a minimum of two Deltas.

A Plain Whorl has at least one ridge that makes a complete circuit and touch the
imaginary line drawn between the two deltas.

This ridge may be in the form of a spiral, oval, circle or variant of a circle.

21.

What is central pocket loop whorl?

Answer: Central Pocket patterns have type lines, a minimum of two Deltas and at least one
ridge tends to make a complete circle. An imaginary line drawn between two deltas must not
touch or cross any of the recurving ridges within the pattern area.

22.

What is double loop whorl?

Answer: A Double Loop pattern, as the name implies, is made up of two Loops combined into
one fingerprint. A Double Loop pattern consists of two separate Loop formations with two
separate and distinct sets of Shoulders and two Deltas.

23.

What is accidental whorl?

Answer:
A. Accidental Whorls consist of a combination of two different types of pattern (with
the exception of Plain Arches).
B. Accidental Whorls have two or more Deltas and fall into their own category.
C. Accidental Whorls may occur in some of the combinations listed below:

Loop and a Whorl

Loop and a Tented Arch

Loop and Central Pocket Loop

Double Loop and Central Pocket Loop

Philippine

jurisprudence

on

the

science

of

Page | 3
24.

In summary, how many fingerprint patterns? What are they and give their corresponding symbols?
Answer: There are eight fingerprint patterns, namely:

Plain arch (A)

Tented arch(T)

Ulnar loop(U)

Radial loop(R)

Plain whorl(W)

Central pocket loop whorl(C)

Double loop whorl(D)

Accidental whorl(X)

25.

What is pattern area?

Answer: The pattern area is that part of the loop or whorl in which appear the cores,
deltas, and ridges which are enclosed by type lines.

26.

What is a type line?

Answer: Type lines may be defined as the two innermost ridges which start parallel,
diverge, and surround or tend to surround the pattern area.

27.

What is the distinction between a divergence and a bifurcation?

Answer: A divergence is the spreading apart of two lines which have been running parallel
or nearly parallel; while a bifurcation is the forking or dividing of one line into two or
more branches.

28.

Can we use as a type lines the fork of the bifurcation?

Answer: No, except when the forks run parallel after bifurcating and then diverge.

29.

What are the focal points in the fingerprint examination?

Answer: The focal points in the fingerprint examination are the delta and the core.

30.

What is delta?
Answer: Delta is that point on a ridge at or in front of and nearest the center of the
divergence of the type lines.

31.

What are the different ridges that may use as delta?

Answer: They are:

A bifurcation

Abrupt ending ridge

Dot

Short ridge

Meeting of two ridge

32.

When a dot or other type of delta and the bifurcation are equally closed to the divergence of
the type lines, which one will be selected as delta?
Answer: Select the bifurcation.

33.

When there are two or more possible deltas which conform to the definition, which one will be
selected?
Answer: The one nearest to the core.

34.

What is core?
Answer: The core, is the approximate center of the finger impression?

35.

What are the rules that govern the selection of the core?
Answer: They are:

The core is placed upon or within the innermost sufficient recurve;

When the innermost sufficient recurve contains no ending ridge or rod rising as high
as the shoulders of the loop, the core is placed on the shoulder of the loop farther
from the delta.

When the innermost sufficient recurved contains an uneven number of rods raising as
high as the shoulders, the core is placed upon the end of the center rod whether it
touches the looping ridge or not.

When the innermost sufficient recurve contains an even number of rods rising as high
as the shoulders, the core is placed upon the end of he farther one of the two
center rods.

36.

What is meant by a shoulder of the loop?

Page | 4
Answer: The shoulders of the loop are the points which the recurving ridge definitely turns
inward or curves.

37.

What are the different kinds of ridges that are valuable for comparison purposes?
Answer: They are:

Bifurcation. The point where a ridge divides or forks to become two and run either
parallel or diverge;

Island Ridge. A short ridge located within the temporary divergence of parallel
ridges, running parallel to the ridge on either side.

Enclosure. Refers to a ridge forks and then turns to a single parallel ridge within
a relatively short distance.

Dot. A very short section of a ridge, usually round in contour, with probably only
one pore showing.

Short ridge. Refers to a Ridge that has an open area at either end.

Ending ridge. Ridge that has abrupt ending and has previously continued for a quite
distance.

Broken ridge. Refers to a ridge that is broken up into segment.

Crossover/bridge. This is Short ridges that interconnect two another parallel

ridges.

Spur. This is a very short ridge jutting out from a free-flowing ridge.

Divergence. These are ridges running together in parallel fashion, tend to separate
and continue on another course.

38.

What is the standard number of similarity of ridges to arrive at the conclusion that two
fingerprint are the same from the other?
Answer: Most experts require from 10 to 12 matching points.

39.

What are the divisions of the classifications formula?

Answer: They are:

Primary classification

Secondary classification

Capital letter group

Small letter group

Sub secondary classification

Major division

Final classification

Key classification

40.

What is primary classification?

Answer: This is the result of the summation of all the numerical values assigned to whorls
which are expressed as numerator (for even number in the chart position) and denominator
(add number in the chart position) plus the pre-established fraction of one over one 1/1.

41.

In case there is no whorl in the chart what is the primary classification of the set of
fingerprint?
Answer: 1/1

42.

What are the subdivisions of secondary classification?

Answer: They are:

Capital letter group, This is symbolized by a capital letters of the pattern

represented by two index fingers after the primary classification. Right finger is
the numerator and the left finger is the denominator. There are five basic types of
patterns which can appear:

Arch
A

tented Arch
T

Radial loop
R

Ulnar loop
U

Whorl
W

Small letter group, This refers to three types of patterns only, namely;

plain arch
(a)

tented arch
(t)

radial loop
(r)

43.

What is subsecondary classification?

Answer: This is accomplished by grouping according to the ridge counts of loops and the
ridge tracing of whorls. Only index, middle and ring fingers of left and right hand are
involved

Page | 5
44.

What is ridge count?

Answer: Knowing the number of ridges intervening between the delta and the core is referred
to as ridge counting.

45.

What are the rules of ridge counting?

Answer: They are:

Neither delta nor core is counted

In the event there is a ridge exactly at the point where the imaginary line would be
drawn, two ridges are counted.

Where the line crosses an island, both sides are counted.

Fagments and dots are counted as ridges only if they appear to be as a thick and
heavy as the other ridges in the immediate pattern.

A ridge count of 1 to 9 in the index fingers is brought up into the subsecondary

formula as I; while a count of 10 or more is O.

A ridge count of 1 to 10 in the middle fingers is brought up into the subsecondary

formula as I; while a count of 11 or more is O.

A ridge count of 1 to 13 in the ring fingers is brought up into the subsecondary

formula as I; while a count of 14 or more is O.

46.

What is whorl tracing

Answer: Refers to the tracing of the ridges from the left delta to the right delta. The
intervening ridges between the tracing ridge and the right delta are then counted.

47.

What are the rules of ridge tracing?

Answer: They are:

If the ridge traced passes inside of (above) the right delta, and there are 3 or
more ridges intervene between the tracing ridge and the delta, the tracing is
designated as inner or with a symbol of I.

If the ridge traced passes outside of (below), the right delta, and there are 3 or
more ridges intervene between the tracing ridge and the delta, the tracing is
designated as Outer or with a symbol of O.

All other tracing are designated as Meeting or with a symbol of M.

When the ridge traced ends abruptly and it is determined that the ridge definitely
ends, the tracing drops down to the next lower ridge

48.

What is major division?

Answer: This is done by ridge counting the loops and ridge tracing the whorl appearing on
the thumb. This is placed just to the left of the primary in the classification formula.
Where whorl appears in the thumb reflects the whorl tracing; where a loop appears,
translate the ridge count into Small (S) Medium (M) and Large (L).

49.

What is a final classification?

Answer: This is based upon the ridge count of the loop in the right little finger. It is
indicated at the extreme right of the numerator in the classification. If loops does not
appears in the right little finger a loop in the left little finger may be used. It is then
indicated at the extreme right of the denominator. If no loops appear in the little
fingers, a whorl may be used to obtain a final counting from left delta to core if in the
right hand and from right delta to core if in the left hand. If there are two or more
cores, the ridge count is made from left delta to the core which is the least number of
ridges distant from the delta. Double loop is counted from the delta to the core at the
upright loop. Where loops of a double loop are horizontal, the nearest core is used. Should
both little finger are arches no final classification is used. The use of a whorl in a
little finger for a final is required only in connection with a large group or collection
of print.

50.

What is a key classification?

Answer: This is obtained by counting the ridges of the
fingerprint card(beginning from the right thumb), exclusive
never considered for the key as they are reserved for the
found is always placed to the extreme left of the numerator

51.

When an impression is so scarred that neither ridge tracing nor counting can be determined,
what impression should be given?
Answer: Give both the general type value and the sub-classification value of the
corresponding finger of the other hand.

52.

When an impression is so scarred that neither of the general type of pattern nor the ridge
tracing or count can be determined and it so happens that corresponding finger of the other
hand is similarly scarred, what impression should be given?
Answer: Given the probable value of whorls with meeting tracing.

first
of the
final.
of the

loop
appearing on the
little fingers which are
The key, no matter where
classification formula.

Page | 6
53.

What is the classification if one finger is amputated?

Answer: It is the classification identical with that of the opposite finger, including
pattern and ridge count, or tracing, and referenced to every other possible classification.

54.

What is the classification if two or more fingers are amputated?

Answer: They are given classification identical with the
additional references.

55.

What is the classification if two amputated fingers are opposite each other?
Answer: Both are given the classification of whorls with meeting tracing.

56.

What is the classification if the fingerprint card bearing a notation of fingers missing at
birth or missing from pre-natal cause?
Answer: The missing fingers should be treated as amputations in that they are given the
identical classifications of the opposite fingers and are filed in the amputation group.

57.

If all 10 fingers are amputated or missing at birth, what will be the classification?
Answer: It should be: M 32 W MMM
M 32 W MMM
In those cases where all of the fingers are amputated, the inked footprints should
be obtained.

fingers

opposite,

with

no

XXXX

PART II
POLYGRAPHY-LIE DETECTION-DECEPTOGRAPHY
1.

What is Polygraphy?
Answer: (Lie detection test or Deceptography) is defined as the scientific detection of
deception through the use or aid of a polygraph.

2.

What is Polygraph?
Answer: derived from two Greek words Poly which means Many or more; and Graphos which
means Writings. A device or instrument capable of recording changes in blood pressure/pulse
beats, respiration, and galvano-skin-reflex (GSR) as indicative of emotional excitement
especially of lying when questioned.

3.

What is Deception?
Answer: is an act of deceiving or misleading which is usually accomplished by lying.

4.

What is meant by Lying?

Answer: the uttering or conveying falsehood or creating a false or, misleading impression
with intention of wrongfully affecting the act, option or affection of others.

5.

What is meant by Detection?

Answer: is the act of
obscured.

discovering

the

existence

or

presence

of

something

hidden

of

6.

What is Emotion?
Answer: is a complex state of feeling involving conscious experience, internal and external
physical responses, and power to motivate the organism to action.

7.

What is Stimulus?
Answer: is the force or motion reaching the organism and excites the preceptors.

8.

What is Reaction?
Answer: is any activity aroused in an organism by a stimulus, which is of mental process.

9.

What is Response?
Answer: is any reaction, usually of muscular or glandular processes that depends upon
stimulation.

10.

What is meant by Specific Response?

Answer: is one that is exhibited by a subject to a particular question, which is a
deviation from his norm.

11.

What is meant by the term Subject in polygraph examination?

Page | 7
Answer: refers to any person undergoing polygraph examination.
12.

Who are Polygraph Examiner/Polygraphist?

Answer: one conducting the polygraph examination or test.

13.

What is Polygraph Test/Examination?

Answer: is the whole process of questioning or taking of one chart from a series of
questions or all of the charts and questions sheet used in the test.

14.

What is Polygraph Chart/ Polygram?

Answer: refers to the recorded tracing of all the emotional patterns permanently on the
charts or graphs from series of questions.

15.

Why a person tells a lie?

Answer: Every person tells a lie because of fears of detection.

16.

What are the different Subjects Age Characteristics?

Answer: they are:
a
7 to 12 years - Fantastic subjects.
b
13 to 19 years - Distinction of fantasy and reality; at this age level, the subject
is at the age of imitation and idolatry; his/her ego may start to develop.
c
20 to 25 years - His ego begins to lessen because he thinks that he is not important
person. Subjects like him are idealistic and be principle.
d
26 to 60 years They serve as best witnesses. Intellect is fully developed and
intelligence is well coordinated with memory.
e
61 to death Their memories are fading for their senses are defective. They are no
longer good witnesses.

17.

What are the types of emotion?

Answer: they are:
a
Emotion as Conscious Experience
b
Emotion as Motive:
Facilitating behavior - Ex. Destruction, attack or fight, and assault or offend.
Interfering behavior - Ex. Retreat fighting, surrenders, and hides or offends.
c
Emotion as Response - This concerns bodily reactions, usually a muscular or
glandular process that depends upon stimulation. Said process may be either be
external and internal ones. It is in this third type that the polygraph has to keep
his eyes wide open to all information regarding emotional responses. The theory of
polygraph is based primarily upon this third aspect.

18.

What are the different emotional responses?

Answer: they are:

External responses - These responses are very much observable even without the aid
of any emotion-stress recording machine. Good examples of these responses as
indicative of guilt or deceptions are those, which were enumerated on the Observable
methods especially both facial and postural reactions.

Internal responses - Scientifically known as visceral response, these pertain to

the responses of the internal of the systems and properties of the human body as
applied in the study of lie-detection with the used or aid of polygraph, thus:

19.

What are the different systems of human body?

Answer: they are:

The Nervous System - Controls the glands, muscular tissues, and the rest of the
nerve-connecting organs to and from the brain.

The Respiratory System - Takes care of the inhalation and exhalation process or the
breathing cycles.

The Circulatory System - Regulates heart actions, blood pressure, blood volume, and
pulse rates.

The Excretory System (Electrical Properties of the Skin) - Facilitates the changes
in the electrical phenomena of the galvanic-skin-reflex (GSR), its resistance, and
the brain potentials.

20.

Who are behind the development of Cardiograph?

Answer: they are:

Angelo Mosso (1895) - Studied fear and its influence on the heart and his
observations subsequently formed the basis for the technique; developed the
Sphygmomanometer and the Scientific Cradle, which he used in studying fear and its
influence on the heart.

Cesar Lombroso (1895) - Employed the first scientific instrument to detect

deception-Hydrosphygmograph that measured changes in pulse and blood pressure when
suspects were questioned about their involvement in or knowledge of a specific
response.

Page | 8

William Marston (1915) - He dealt with the sphygmomanometer, which was used to
obtain periodic discontinuous blood pressure readings during the course of an
examination; He also experienced with and helped to develop the Pneumograph, which
records breathing patterns, and the Galvanograph, which registers changes in skin
resistance.
John Larson (1921) - Developed polygraph, an instrument capable of continuously
records blood pressure, pulse and respiration; The polygraph instrument that he
developed was described as polygraphic apparatus in a portable form.
Leonarde Keeler (1926) - Continued research and development of polygraph; In 1949,
he invented the Keelers polygraph with components that simultaneously records
changes in blood pressure, pulse and respiration, as well as the newly developed
galvanic skin reflex; He devised the chart roll paper, a better method of
questioning and the incorporated the kymograph.

21.

Who are behind the development of Pneumograph?

Answer: they are:

Vittorio Benussi (1914) Successfully detected deception with a Pneumograph-an

instrument that graphically measures an examinees inhalation and exhalation; He
demonstrated that changes in breathing patterns accompany deception.

Harold Burtt (1918) - Determined that respiratory changes were indicative of

deception; Found out that changes in systolic blood pressure were of greater value
in determining deception than changes in respiration.

22.

Who are behind the development of Galvanograph?

Answer: they are:

Sticker (1897) - First to suggest the use of the Galvanograph for detecting
deception based on the work of several predecessors; Theorized that the galvanic
skin phenomena was influenced by exciting mental impressions and that they will have
no effect upon it.

Veraguth (1907) - First to used the term psychogalvanic reflex; Believed that the
electrical phenomenon was due to the activity of the sweat glands.

23.

Who is behind the development of Polygraph?

Answer: Leonarde Keeler (1926)He devised the metal recording bellows; Devised the kymograph
and the rolled chart paper; Incorporated the cardiograph and Pneumograph components that
measure blood pressure and respiration respectively.

24.

What are the different Questioning Techniques?

Answer: they are:

Relevant-Irrelevant Test - Developed by Larson and Keeler in 1942.

Relevant-Irrelevant with Embarrassing personal question test - Developed by various

examiners around 1946.

Relevant-Irrelevant with Surprise control question - Developed by Inbau and Reid

about 1948.

Relevant-Irrelevant with Reviewed (known lie) and guilt complex question - Developed
by Inbau and Reid about 1950-53.

Backster Zone Comparison Test - Developed by Cleve Backster in 1960.

25.

What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant Test?

Answer: (A) Guilt reacts only to relevant questions;
reactions.

(B)

Innocent

subject

shows

no

26.

What are the Theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with Embarrassing personal question test?
Answer: (A) To determine reactivity of subject; (B) To stimulate innocent subject.

27.

What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with Surprise control question?

Answer: (A) To stimulate the innocent subject; (B) To provide contract for the guilty.

28.

What are the theories of Relevant-Irrelevant with Reviewed (known lie) and guilt complex
question?
Answer: (A) To stimulate the innocent subject; (B) To identify the general nervous tension
and guilt complex reactor; (C) To improve contract between innocent and guilty subject.

29.

What are the theories of Backster Zone Comparison Test?

Answer: (A) Based on the principle of psychological set; (B) Provide constant monitoring of
subject reactivity; (B) Designed to disclose outside issues

30.

What is the theory of polygraph examination?

Answer: A conscious mentally effort on the part of normal person to deceive, causes
involuntary physiological changes which are in effect a bodys reaction to an imminent
danger to his well-being.

Page | 9
31.

What are the CONCEPTS OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION?

Answer: they are:

Used to test an individual for the purpose of detecting deception or verify the
truth of statement;

Records identifiable physiological reactions of the subject, such as high blood

pressure, pulse rate, respiration and skin resistance; and
32.

The effectiveness of the polygraph in recording symptoms of deception is based on the

theory. What are the OBJECTIVES OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION? Answer: they are:

Obtain additional investigative leads to the facts of the case/offenses;

Ascertain if the person is telling the truth;

Locate the fruits or the tools of the crime of the whereabouts of a wanted person;

Identify other persons involved;

Obtain valuable information from reluctant witnesses; and

Eliminates innocent suspects.

33.

What are the PRINCIPAL USES OF POLYGRAPH?

Answer: they are:

Aids in investigation;

Speeds up processing of investigation;

Eliminates innocent suspects;

Pre-employment screening; and

Honesty test.

34.

What are the LIMITATIONS OF POLYGRAPH?

Answer: they are:

It is an invaluable investigative aid; but never a substitute for investigation.

It is not a lie detector; it is a scientific diagnostic instrument.

It does not determine facts; it records only responses of the subject.

It is only as accurate as the examiner is competent.

35.

What is the ACCURACY AND RELIABILITY OF THE POLYGRAPH?

Answer: The Us Justice Department funded experiments conducted by psychologists from 1975
to 1976 at the University of Utah showed the polygraph to be 90% accurate. Only 10% of the
results were declared inconclusive. However, in more recent research, the confirmed average
validity was shown to be 96%. Polygraphists produce very high rates of agreement (96% 100%) based on numerical scoring.

36.

What are the instances where the test be admitted in court?

Answer: they are:

There must be a court order

There must be stipulation between the parties;

When it is used to impeach or corroborate the testimony of a trial witness.

The court further cited the, significant process in the field of polygraph testing
administrator are better trained and have better equipment.

37.

What are the BASIC FACTORS THAT WILL CONTRIBUTE GREATLY TO THE SUCCESFUL USE OF THE POLYGRAPH?
Answer: they are:

Highly trained and experienced examiner;

A reliable instrument;

A well planned interrogation room; and

Good teamwork by the investigator, examiner and their superiors.

38.

What are the MORAL QUALITIES OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINER?

Answer: they are:
a
He must be free from prejudice;
b
Sincere desire to be a good examiner;
c
Devote himself to the profession by maintaining a high personal integrity and by
increasing his professional proficiency through constant study and research;
d
Constantly bear in mind his obligation to his subjects to afford them all possible
safeguards against error;
e
Never accept any subject for examination if they are unfit to the test;
f
Always conduct the test in a professional and ethical manner;
g
He must be an impartial seeker of truth; and
h
Never let his personal feelings or sympathies, or the feelings or sympathies or
prejudice of others influence the result of the test

39.

What are the TECHNICAL QUALIFICATIONS OF POLYGRAPH EXAMINER?

Answer: they are:

Have a complete knowledge of the instrument and its capabilities and limitations;

P a g e | 10

Complete knowledge of the most modern polygraph technique;

Proficient in the conduct of the examination, such as test construction, chart
marking, chart probing, chart interpretation, pre-test interview and interrogation

40.

What are the RESPONSIBILITIES OF THE INVESTIGATOR TO THE SUBJECT?

Answer: they are:

Learn enough about the polygraph;

Not to reveal the details of an offense, which may be utilized in the application of
the, Peak of Tension Test.

Assure the subject that if he is truthful, the test is a means to indicate his
innocence;

Stress the polygraph capability to record responses accurately;

Assure the subject that the examiner is qualified and impartial to all subject; and

Avoid any claim for the instrument or examiner that is not being supported by facts.

41.

What are the RESPONSIBILITIES OF A POLYGRAPH EXAMINER TO HIS SUBJECT?

Answer: they are:

Recognized the fact that his primary responsibility must be to the person who
voluntarily submitted himself to a polygraph test

He should never conduct a polygraph test without first advising the subject of his
constitutional rights against self-incrimination;

He should never conduct an examination unless the instrument is in good working

condition;

He should not render a conclusive verbal opinion unless there are at least two or
more test charts; and

He must be thoroughly familiar with the techniques and procedures in polygraph test.

42.

What are the CONDITIONS THAT WOULD INVALIDATE A POLYGRAPH EXAMINATION?

Answer: they are:
a
Extreme nervousness or emotional tension;
The possible effects of a truthful persons extreme emotional tension or
nervousness must be given serious consideration in making a polygraph
diagnosis.
The psychological changes and disturbances induced by nervousness usually
appear on the polygraph record without relationship to particular question
or questions.
b

Physiological abnormalities;
Excessive high or low blood pressure;
Heart disease or disorders;
Respiratory disorder, (even common olds); and
Toothache, severe headache or practically any painful ailment.

Mental

Unresponsiveness.
Lack of emotional response hampers accurate testing;
Extreme fatigue or mental exhaustion;
Under the influence of alcohol or drugs; and
Unnecessary bodily movement can lead to misleading BP readings/tracings.

abnormalities;
Pronounced neurosis, psychosis, abnormally low intelligence or retardation;
State of self-hypnosis or temporary amnesia; and
Pathological liars.

43.

What are the PRINCIPLES OF POLYGRAPH?

Answer: they are:

The polygraph is based on theory that when telling a lie, subject will respond
physiologically because of Fear of Detection;

In endeavoring to conceal the truth, one might feel a thudding increase of the heart
beat, the rush of blood to the face, an uncomfortable impulse to swallow, or other
symptoms resulting from Fear over possibility that the lie be detected; and

These physiological changesbreathing, blood pressure, pulse rate and the galvanic
skin reflex, are phenomena with which the polygraph examiner concerns him.

44.

What are the ESSENTIAL PARTS OF POLYGRAPH?

Answer: The polygraph has two, three, four, or more recording channels according to their
importance in lie-detection. In an ordinary polygraph (consisting of three-recording
channels) various accessories are placed on some chosen parts of the body of the subject.

P a g e | 11

These attachments are set as receivers to the changes in the body and conduct those changes
electrically, electronically and pneumatically to the instrument, which are finally
recorded on charts and graphs. These receivers are:
Pneumograph - The first receiver is the Pneumograph tube (a rubberized corrugated tube) which
is attached to the subjects chest or stomach. These attachments are part of the polygraph that
detects the air volume changes of the chest through the breathing cycles.
Cardiograph and/or Cardio-Sphygmograph - The second receiver is a blood pressure cuff wrapped
around subjects upper arm or wrist, and inflated to a suitable air pressure. Changes in blood
pressure and pulse rate are detected.
Galvanograph and/or Galvo-graph (GSR) - The third receiver is a set of electrodes attached
either between the palmer and dorsal surfaces of the subjects hands or on the adjacent or
relative fingers of the same hand of the subject Operating electrically and electronically,
physiological changes are measured through an electrode placed on the inactive portion (amethod) and/or through the flow of current between two electrodes (b-method).
Kymograph (Chart-drive) - Another essential part of the polygraph, although not a direct
receiver of internal responses. The kymograph is the chart drive or paper-fed mechanism which
is powered by a synchronous electric motor or dynamo.

45.

What are the DIAGNOSTIC TECHNIQUE in The Pre-Test Interview and Preparation of Test Questions
Answer: the are:
a
No test should be ever conducted without a pretest interview, during which the subject is
conditioned for the test, and the questions to be asked have been carefully formulated by
the examiner.
b
The pretest interview also involves the casual asking of a series of questions which are
designed to elicit verbal and nonverbal responses that will give the examiner an indication
of the subjects truthful or deceptive status without unnecessarily releasing his tension
or engaging in any accusatory interrogation.
c
The examiner should not be withhold any information from the subject about the instrument,
its attachments, or recordings. This will serve to increase a lying subjects concern over
possible detection, which is the most important requirement for an effective examination.
d
During the pretest interview, the subject is appraised of his constitutional right to
remain silent and have competent and independent counsel preferably of his own choice, and
that he must give his written consent to show proof that he is willing voluntarily to
undergo the test. The taking of his personal data and explanation of the test procedure
follow this.
e
The pretest interview is very essential because through it, extraneous fear, apprehension,
nervousness or distaste of the idea of the test is overcome. It places the subject in a
cooperative and objective point of view to willingly approach the test, and at the same
time afford the examiner to make an observation and evaluation of the subject to form the
basis for the type of test technique best applicable. The success of the polygraph test
greatly depends on the rapport existing between the examiner and his subject.
f
During this period, attachment of the polygraph accessories is made with a brief
explanation of the function of each. This is followed by a review of the details of the
case and the subsequent development and introduction of the questions to be asked.

46.

What are the Purposes of Interview?

Answer: they are:
a
To condition the subject psychologically for the test.
b
To determine whether or not the subject is fit to take the test.
c
To afford the examiner to make an observation and evaluation of the subject in order to be
able to determine the type of test technique best applicable on the case.
d
For the examiner to be able to establish rapport with the subject.
e
For the examiner to determine whether the subject voluntarily submits himself to the test.

47.

What is the great importance to polygraph examination?

Answer: great importance to polygraph examination is the formulation of test questions. The
formulation of test questions carries from case to case. The information supplying these
questions emanates from the investigators handling the case from the statements of the
witnesses or the subject himself, the official and professional records, interviews and
other resources or agencies.

48.

What are the General Rules in Question Formulation?

Answer: Following are the General Rules in Question Formulation:
a
Questions must be simple and direct.
b
They must not involve legal terminologies; ex. Rape, assault, murder, etc.
c
They must be answerable by yes or no and should be as short as possible.
d
Their meaning must be clear and unmistakable and phrased in a language the subject easily
understands.
e
They must not be in the form of accusation.
f
They must never contain an influence, which presupposes knowledge on the part of the
subject.
g
All questions must refer to only one offense.

P a g e | 12
h
i
49.

All questions must refer to only one element of an offense.

They must not contain inference to ones religion, race or belief.

What are the DIFFERENT TYPES OF TEST QUESTIONS?

Answer: In every criminal investigation, there is prescribed standard operational
questioning of subjects in any given case. In order to acquire knowledge of the case, full
appreciation and/or study various types of questions is a must for every investigator or
examiner. Hence, in polygraph, the following are different types of question used for test
construction.
a
Relevant Question (Critical) - These are the primary or key questions asked by the examiner
in order to resolve a specific subject matter. It is further classified according to its
stimulation effect when applied, namely:
b
Strong Relevant or Primary Relevant Questions are relevant questions, which have intense
and specific relationship to the crime or problem, being considered. These are intended to
produce strong emotional response in guilty subjects. Ex. Did you steal Joans wristwatch?
Did you steal anything from Joans house?
c
Weak Relevant Question are questions that concern some secondary elements of the crime
and deal mostly on guilty knowledge and partial involvement. Ex. Do you know where the
missing wristwatch of Joan now? Further, the weak relevant is classified into the
following:

Sacrifice Relevant or DYAT Questions (Do You intend to Answer Truthfully) are
designed to absorb the response generally generated by the introduction of the first
relevant questions in the series. Reaction to these questions gives the examiner a
clue as to subjects attitude of willingness or voluntaries to submit to the test.
Ex. Regarding the stolen wristwatch, do you intend answer truthfully each question
about that?

Knowledge Question This type of question is propounded to the subject to prove

whether he possesses the information leading to the identification of the offender
or the location of the evidence. Ex. Do you know for sure who stole the wristwatch
of Joan?

Evidence-Connecting Questions This has to do with inviting subjects attention on

the probability of incriminating proof that would tend to establish his guilt by
linking him and his predicaments to the fingerprints, footprints, tool marks, etc.
collected at the crime scene. Ex. Were the footprints outside the house of Joan
yours?
d
Irrelevant Question (Neutral) - After the subject has been interviewed, it is the primary
duty of the examiner to prepare and arrange several types of questions to be asked during
what kind of question test of no importance to the case under investigation, but of great
significance to controlling fatigue, nervousness and discomfort of the subject. Irrelevant
or neutral questions must precede the relevant ones. Some of them may form like this: Ex.

Did you eat today

Do you Smoke?

Are you wearing brown shoes now?

Is the cigarette you smoke a Marlboro brand?

Do you live at General Santos?

e
Control Question (Probable Lie) - This is a question based on a known lie made by the
subject about denying having done something which verified or known to be true. Control
questions have two kinds, namely:

Preliminary Control Question recalls the offense done from the time of
childhood up to three to five years before the occurrence of the present
offense being investigated.
Ex. Before reaching the age of 25, have you
ever stolen anything?

Secondary Control Question more specific in nature and based upon another
species or wrongdoing that will enhance the subjects opportunity for
responsiveness. Its scope includes up to the present period of examination.
Ex. Have you ever stolen anything from the locality?
f

Guilt Complex Question - This refers to questions which safeguard against mistaking
relevant question response of the guilt complex reactor as deception responses and is based
on a fictitious crime situation closely parallel and equal in weight to the actual crime
under investigation, so that the guilty can be sure he did not commit it. Ex. Did you steal
the gold coin collection? Remember that the stealing of a gold coin collection was not
actually committed because the alleged crime investigated was the lost of the precious
wristwatch of Joan.
Symptomatic Question - Its function is to detect and evaluate the presence of outside
issues which may suppress responses to relevant questions. This is often true that the
subject fear they might be asked about another case in which they are involved, but are not
the subject-matter under investigation. Ex. Are you completely convinced that I will not
ask any question on this test that has not already been reviewed?
S K Y Question (S- Suspect, K- Knowledge and Y-you) as the subject. These three questions
grouped together by Backster to confirm the previous charts and may detect indirect
involvement on guilt knowledge. Ex. (S) Do you suspect anyone in particular of stealing

P a g e | 13
Joans wristwatch?(K) Do you know for sure who stole Joans wristwatch? (Y) Did you steal
Joans wristwatch?
50.

What are the COLOR ZONE

Answer: they are:
a
Red Zone Strong Relevant
b
Green Zone Probable Lie (Control)
c
Black Zone Symptomatic (Outside Issue)
d
Yellow Zone Irrelevant and Sacrifice Relevant
e
Yellow or Red Zone Weak Relevant
-oOo-

PART III
FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
1.

What is Photography?
Answer: an art, and certainly is a science of producing an image by the action of light on
light sensitive substances (silver halides) and by the application of several chemicals
and physical laws.

2.

What is vital to photography?

Answer: Light, for it is the physical means used to produce the image. without light, there
will be no image.

3.

What are the CLASSIFICATIONS OF LIGHT?

Answer:
Light, as a form of radiant energy, is classified according to wavelength
frequency.

and

4.

What is WAVELENGTH?
Answer: Wavelength is the distance between any two such identical points in a given instant
of time. Since the electromagnetic spectrum is arranged according to wavelength, there must
be measurement of this length. The length of light waves is measured from a point on one
crest to an identical point on the next crest.

5.

What is FREQUENCY?
Answer: The frequency of light is the number of complete waves that would pass a given
point in a second time. The longer the wavelength, the fewer the number of waves that will
pass a point in a second or the longer the wavelength the less the frequency; the shorter
the wavelength the greater the frequency.

6.

What is the COMPOSITION OF WHITE LIGHT?

Answer: White light is composed of all visible light wavelengths in the visible spectrum.
Sunlight is white and is an ideal or equal blending of all the wavelengths of the visible
spectrum. If any of these wavelength are missing, even in part, we have another color
instead of white light.
What is OPTICS?
Answer: Optics is a branch of science concerned with the behavior of light.

7.
8.

What are the basic characteristics of light behavior which we used to see and to produce
photographic image?
Answer: they are:

REFLECTION. Any object that is non-luminous, that does not itself emit light, can be
seen only by reflected light that has originated at a luminous source. All objects
reflect some light and absorb some. Glass mirrors, polished metals, white papers,
all reflect most of the light and absorb some. Black objects absorb most of the
light and reflect very little. Light that are either absorbed or transmitted, that
is, when light passes through a medium such as glass or any transparent substance.

ABSORPTION. Light will normally be absorbed to some degree no matter what type of
surfaces is encountered. The color of the object is largely a matter of absorption
and reflection. When white light falls on an object that absorbs some of the
wavelengths and reflects and transmitted others, the object appears to have color.
The wavelength that is reflected or transmitted determines the color of the object.
For example, a red object appears red because it reflects or transmit only the red
wavelengths. The others which is green and blue, are absorbed by the object.

REFRACTION. When light strikes the surface of opaque objects some is absorbed and
some is reflected. But when it strikes an object which is transparent, such as
glass, a little light is absorbed. These penetrating rays, however, have quite

P a g e | 14
probably undergone some changes; they have been bent. The bending or deflection is
what is termed as refraction.
9.

What is the LAW OF REFRACTION?

Answer: If a light rays hit perpendicular to the surface between two mediums of different
density, the ray is not bent. If the light strikes the surface at an angle, the ray will be
bent. The direction in which the light is bent is dependent upon the density of its mediums
the light is traveling to.

10.

What is INDEX OF REFRACTION?

Answer: Light travels at varying speeds. The speed of light in air or vacuum is
approximately 186,000 miles per second while in some glass is approximately 124,000 miles
per second. Using the two figures, the refractive index of the glass would be 1.5 (124,000
divided into 186,000). The refractive index of water is about 1.3. the refractive index is
never less than 1 and rarely more than 2. The higher the index number, the greater the
light bending power of the substance. A practical use of this knowledge is in the
determination of the angle of refraction of lenses made for various types of glass and use
for varying purposes.

11.

What is CAMERA LENSE or OPTICS?

Answer: A camera optic or lens, is a spherical and symmetrical piece of polished glass.
The purpose of which is to gather, refracts and project light ray on the rear wall of the
camera and to produce a clear, sharp image.

12.

What is the effect If a film is placed in front of the wall opposite the pinhole?
Answer; the negative image that appears after the film if develop will not be very sharp,
but it will be quite recognizable as an image of the subject at which the pinhole was
aimed. It will not be sharp because the pinhole actually lets in more than one ray of light
from each point on the subject and these rays do not strike at exactly the same point on
the film. If the pinhole sized is decreased to reduced image blur, it requires also a long
exposure time ( which is already long). In addition a very tiny pinhole tends to scatter
the light rays and thus image blur actually increases.

13.

How to accomplish a brighter and sharper image?

Answer: Both can be accomplished by reflecting or refracting the light so that it can
collect great bundles of light rays from a single point and redirect them all to meet again at
another point on the film.

14.

What part of a camera usually has a function of reflecting or refracting the light so that it
can collect great bundles of light rays from a single point and redirect them all to meet again
at another point on the film?
Answer: the camera lens.

15.

What is the effect if the distance between lens and subject is shortened?
Answer; if the distance between lens and subject is shortened, the distance between lens
and film is extended. This of course, the adjustment being made when focusing the camera;
the lens is moved away from the film for close subjects and moved towards the film for
distant subject.

16.

What are the TYPES OF SINGLE SIMPLE LENS?

Answer: Simple lenses are classified according to the way in which they bend the rays of
light falling upon them. They are divided into two groups:

Positive lens/ Convergent lens. Basically these lenses are thicker at the center
than at the edges. Tehse lenses from real images because light rays passing through
them converged, that is, the rays leaving the lens are bent inward and toward one
another and so eventually meet (focus). Lens in this class are also termed convex,
convergent, or collective. The most common positive lens is the double convex which
will cause light rays from either side of the lens surface, to converge. All these
lenses have at least one convex surface, that is, a surface that curved outward.

Negative lens. These lenses are thicker at the ends than at the center and have at
least one concave surface. These lens called concave divergent, or dispersive. Light
rays that passed through them are spread apart, negative lenses are not used alone
but they from part of a compound lens to correct for errors or distortion.

17.

What is meant by Focal Plane of a lens?

Answer: The focal plane of a lens is the plane where the lens projected image which is
clear and sharp. This plane is sometimes called the film plane, as the film is located at
this point to capture the image.

18.

What is meant by Focal Length of a lens?

Answer: Focal lengths can be defined as the distance from the lens to the point at which
light rays that entered the lens on parallel paths will be brought to focus. If the camera
lens is focused at infinity which in practical terms means focused on a subject a great
distance away (200 feet or more), the light rays reflected by that subject will be

P a g e | 15
traveling on parallel paths, for all practical purposes, when they reach the lens. So the
definition of focal length is often given as the distance between the lens and the film
when the lens is focused at infinity. The photographer seldom or need no measure the focal
length of a lens for this characteristic is almost always marked on the front of the lens
mount, in millimeters or in inches.
19.

What is the importance of Focal Length of a lens?

Answer: The focal length of a lens controls the image brightness, speed of the lens, and
the image size at the focal plane. It is a fixed value of the lens and cannot be varied by
the photographer. Also, it is inherent factor of the lens which is controlled by the
thickness of the lens and the curvatures of its surfaces.

20.

What is the best tool for learning to use of lenses?

Answer: A 35 mm single lens reflex camera is the best tool for learning to use of lenses
of varying focal lengths because you can actually see what the lens is putting in your
picture frame. The picture can be studied in the finder, observe the relative sizes of
images within the pictures depth.

21.

What is Lens Speed?

Answer: it is the largest opening of the diaphragm (aperture) at which a lens can be used.
Speed here refers to intensity of the light reaching the film, and not to any movement.
Thus an f/2 lens is faster than f/4 because an f/2 has a wider aperture and will admit more
light at a given time.

22.

What are fast lenses?

Answer: Lenses having a large aperture are called fast lenses because their large
aperture makes it possible to take photographic at a very short exposure interval or under
very dim light conditions. The closer this widest aperture comes to 1, or to being equal in
diameter to the focal length of the lens, the faster the lens.

23.

What is the practical application of a fast lens?

Answer: the practical application of a fast lens is when the light level of a scene is very
low, such as in a night club scene. In short, the faster the lens, the lesser the amount of
light needed to reproduced an image

24.

What is camera shutter?

Answer; A mechanical device used to control the duration of the time interval during which
light will travel to act on the film. It is an adjustable mechanism that regulates the
amount of light reaching the film by varying the length of time light is allowed to pass
through the lens.

25.

What is Focal Plane Shutter?

Answer: Focal Plane Shutter is also known as curtain shutter consist of a
lightproof
rubberized cloth curtain having rectangular openings or slits usually arranged to move
horizontally/ or vertically in some cameras. It house entirely within the camera body and
is mounted in two rollers. When an exposure is made, the leading curtain moves, say to the
right, uncovering the film so that light can act upon it. At the end of the exposure
interval, curtain moves to the right to cover the film surface once again.

26.

What is the advantage of Focal Plane Shutter?

Answer: The advantage of this type of shutter is to allow the lens interchangeability and
it has a high shutter speed up to 1/1000 of a second.

27.

What is the disadvantage of Focal Plane Shutter?

Answer:
where critical measurements in motion are required, this shutter is undesirable
because of image distortion. At the instant, the fast moving subject may appear elongated
or shortened than it actually is, depending on the direction of motion.

28.

What is Shutter Speed

Answer: Shutter speed refers to the time that the shutter is opened, following light to
reach the film. The interval during which it is desired for the shutter to remain open is
selected by rotating the shutter speed dial and setting it on the desired scale.

29.

What is usually the shutter-speed scale marking?

Answer: The cameras shutter-speed scale markings are usually T, or D, 1, 2, 8, 15, 30, 60,
125, 250, 500, 1000, and / or even 2000. The first number in this series stands for 1 full
second, but all other number are fractions of a second, 2 is for second, 4 is second
and so forth. The scale may vary from this example, depending upon the camera but each
shutter setting gives one half of the time of the preceding number and twice of the
succeeding one.
All these numbers are abbreviated expressions for fractions of a second
and denote shutter speed.

30.

What is the B setting stands for?

P a g e | 16
Answer: the B setting stands for bulb a word that goes far back into camera history.
Used for exposure longer than one second. Pressure on the shutter release button will open
the shutter and will remain opened as long as pressure is maintained. But once pressure is
released, the shutter closes again.
31.

What is the T setting stands for?

Answer: the T setting stands for time time like the bulb setting the T setting is
also used for time exposure of more than one second . It differs from the bulb setting only
in that the shutter release button does not have to have held down to make an exposure.
Pressure on the button causes the shutter open. It will remain open until the shutter
releases button is pressed a second time to close it.

32.

How to Photograph a Moving Object?

Answer: When an object is in motion during exposure, its image on the film also moves, even
though the duration of exposure (shutter speed) is 1/1000 of a second, the images moves a
small fraction of an inch during this time. The problem for the photographer, then, is to
determine just how much image movement can be tolerated before it becomes objectionable and
regulate the shutter speed accordingly. As a general rule, the permissible image movement
(circle of confusion) is 1/1000 of an inch if they are to be enlarged.

33.

What are the four factors which determine the distance of an image moves on the film during
exposure?
Answer: The four factors which determine the distance of an image moves on the film during
exposure are:
a
The object distance (from lens to object)
b
The image distance (from lens to film)
c
The speed of the object (perpendicular to lens axis)
d
The interval of the exposure

The first three factors determine the speed at which the image moves across the
film and the fourth simply limits the times it is allowed to move, thereby limiting
the distance of image movement.

34.

What is the use of LIGHT METER OR EXPOSURE METER?

Answer: These meters measures the incident light falling upon or the light reflected from a
photographic subject, and provide means of converting this information into useable shutter
speed and stop. However, this aid is mainly used as a guide, the final interpretation of
lighting and camera factors, and picture requirement for best exposure is the decision of
the photographer.

35.

How to know the EXPOSURE without the built-in LIGHT METER of a camera?
Answer: cameras which do not have built-in light meters, exposure is determined by
following the manufacturers suggested general guidelines supplied with the film, and then
ISO (formerly ASA/ DIN) scale on the camera film speed dial series simply as a reminder.
Exposure can be done by using the speed number of the film as the initial shutter speed on
the camera; 1/100 of the second shutter speed for ASA/ 100 film; 1/400 for a second for
ASA/400 film, and so forth. Set the film as close as can be on the shutter speed dial,
1/125 for ASA/100; 1/500 for ASA/400 and so forth. Then set the f/number according to the
class of lighting condition common throughout photographic literature, and, in most cases,
are used in the film as an aid in determining exposure. The information sheet is only a
guide; it does not guarantee perfect exposure. Variables not adequately considered are:
time of the day, time of the year, geographical location, direction of the light, and type
of the subject.

36.

What are the different TYPES OF DAYLIGHT ILLUMINATIONS?

Answer:

Bright Sun. The sky is clear, bright, and free of large cloud masses or atmospheric
haze. Any shadows cast by the sun are sharply defined. An ideal photographic
condition.

Hazy Sun. The sun is partially obscured by clouds or haze, the edges of shadows are
slightly diffused or set and are less clearly defined than those in bright sun.

Cloudy Bright. The sun is largely obscured by clouds or haze. The sun is in
evidence, but the shadow are not apparent. This daylight condition exists when the
light is bright even glaring and it seems there should be shadows but there are few,
if any.

Cloudy Dull. The sun is completely obscured by heavy layers of clouds or dense haze.
Light is completely diffused and it is difficult to determine the exact position of
the sun.

37.

What are the different TYPES OF SUBJECT BRIGHTNESS?

Answer:

P a g e | 17

Dark Subject. Dark subjects reflects only about 9 percent of the light striking it
and absorbs the remainder. Included in this category are vehicles and weapons,
people in dark-toned clothing etc.
Average Subject. Is one that reflects approximately 18 percent of the light striking
it and absorbs the remainder. Examples are people in medium-colored clothing, most
buildings, street scenes, and interior views.
Bright Subject. Reflects twice as much as an average subject. Typical subjects in
this category are a fair-skinned and
light-haired person, people in light
clothing, and light-colored buildings.
Brilliant Subject. A brilliant subject reflects about four times as much light as an
average subject and absorbs very little light, some of this subject are people in
light colored clothing on a white and sandy beach, a white sailboat against a blue
sky and white buildings of a desert village.

38.

What are the different REFLECTIVE POWER OF COLORS?

Answer: The following list are the approximate percentage of light that is reflected by
some colors,
white (75%), chrome yellow (62%), cardinal red
(27%), pearl gray (75%),
cream (62%), brown (27%), satin green (75%), sky blue (62%), maroon (27%).

39.

What is meant by FOCUS in a CAMERA LENS FOCUS?

Answer: focus a lens means to concentrate light rays on one particular surface, which, in a
camera, is the surface of the film.

40.

What is focal point?

Answer: focal point is the point where ones visual attention becomes focused, and the
point on the films surface where the entire light ray concentrate or intersects is known
as the point of principal focus.

41.

What is FOCUSING RING?

Answer: The focusing ring is large knurled ring around the barrel of the lens
that
operates on a type of screw-thread mechanism. When turned, the lens will either moves away
or toward the camera body, depending upon the direction of rotation. The closer an object
is to the camera, the more the ring have to be turned in one direction to increase the lens
on objects at increasingly greater distances;

42.

What is meant by Focusing?

Answer: focusing means adjusting or changing the distance between the focal plane and the
lens center. To focus; hold the camera to your eye in level with the viewfinder. Turn the
focusing ring clockwise or counter-clockwise until a sharp image of the subject appears in
the center of the viewfinder.

43.

What is the importance of filter in photography?

Answer: Filters are important tools in photography because they significant increase the
photographers ability to control the image. Filters can penetrate haze as though if it
were not there. Can also put contrast into black and white reproduction of two different
colors of equal brightness, or can make two different colors merge as a single brightness
value in the print.

44.

What are the Functions and Uses of filter?

Answer: Filters can be used in two ways in photography:

to modify the light falling on the subject (a filter over the light source) or,

to modify the light passing through the lens before it reaches the film (a filter
in front of the lens).

45.

What is the effect if a colored glass filter is placed in a beam of white light?
Answer: When a colored glass filter is placed in a beam of white light, the color
composition of the light is altered. According to its color, a filter will absorb some
wavelengths and transmit others.

46.

What is the effect if filter is placed over a lens?

Answer: When a filter is placed over a lens it does two things:
a
It lighten its own color, and
b
darkens its complementary colors.

Because a filter selectively absorbs certain colors, it appears colored. A red

filter appears red because it absorbs blue and green and transmit red. A blue
filter absorbs red and green, and a green filter absorbs blue and red. A filter
which absorbs only blue appears yellow because it transmits red and green.

47.

What are the different kinds of Filter?

Answer: they are:

Correction Filters. Are used to equalized the color sensitiveness of film emulsions
into make nearly coincide with that of the eyes. The film emulsions is more
sensitive to blue. To renders color in their relative brightness, as seen by human

P a g e | 18

eye, a filter is used to change the sensitivity of the film, making it more
responsive to yellow and greens. Usually correction filters are yellow.
Contrast Filters. Although two colors may be different, if their brightness value is
the same they will reproduce as almost the same shade of the gray in the print. To
crate the needed contrast, a filter is used. The filter selected should transmit one
of the colors and absorb the other more or less completely, thus, contrast between
green and red can be affected by using a green or red filter. The green filter makes
green lighter than the red, whereas the red filter eliminate green entirely and
yields a print that represents green as black and the red as white.

48.

What is the Special Purpose Filters?

Answer: in Neutral Density, filter used to reduced the amount of light transmitted t o the
film without selective filtering of any particular wavelength. In Ultraviolet or skylight,
use to filter out unwanted blue, which often appears in pictures of subjects in open shade,
rainy or overcast days, in distant scenic views, etc.

49.

What are the basic structures of a black and white film?

Answer: the basic structures of a black and white film are the following:

Top Coating, is an overcoming of a thin layer of hard gelatin which helps protect
the silver halide emultion from scratches and abrasions.

Emultion Layer, composed of silver compounds which are light sensitive, but for
photographic purposes, halogens such as bromide; chloride; and iodine (used in
small amounts, seldom more than 5% with silver bromide in fast film emulsion) is
added to silver halides,

Antihalation Backing, a black dye applied on the rear surface of the film, its
function is to absorb light that may penetrate the emulsion layer thus preventing
it to reflect back to the emulsion. The dye removed during the processing by one of
the chemical in the developer. Its second function is to control the film curling
towards the emulsion layer.

50.

What are the basic structures of COLOR FILM?

Answer: Basically, the structure of color film is almost the same as black and white film,
except that the emulsion layer consists of three layers, stacked one on top of the other.
A. top Layer is sensitive to blue light only; green and red light passes through it
without exposing the color blind halides
B. yellow Filter known as carey-lea silver suspended in gelatin is coated between the
top and second layer to absorb any penetrating blue light but freely passes green
light and red light.
C. middle Layer is orthochromatic, sensitive to blue (which can not reach it) and red.
It is also somewhat sensitive to green light, but to such a degree that it is not
important.

51.

What are the different types of FILM ACCORDING TO COLOR SENSITIVITY?

Answer: All types of the photographic emultion are sensitive to the color of blue violet,
and ultraviolet. The films sensivity to other colors is obtained by adding dyes to the
emulsion during manufacture.

nonchromatic, sensitive to ultraviolet and blue-violet colors only. This film may be
used when natural redentition is not important. For example, is used to copy black
and white originals and to photograph colorless subjects when extreme contrast is
needed.

orthochromatic, sensitive to blues and greens, but not to reds. Reds are recorded as
dark tones, while greens and blues as light tones when printed.

Panchromatic, sensitive to all colors, and are further subdivided according to their
degree of sensitivity to each color. This film is commonly used in investigative
photography because it produces the most natural recording of colors.

Infrared, sensitive to blues and infrared radiations, which is beyond the human
eyes sensitivity. It is useful in penetration haze because of its longer
wavelength. In investigate photography, it is useful in the laboratory analysis of
questionable documents; in the discovery of old or faded tattoos or areas where
small objects are hidden under the skin, and in the construction of camera traps.

52.

What is Film speed?

Answer: Is the sensitivity of the film emulsion to light, which is measured and express in
a numerical rating called ISO formerly known as ASA/ DIN. This means that higher the ISO
number, the more sensitive the film is to light, and that pictures can be taken indoors
under dim light conditions. One film may be rated ISO -100, and another film ISO-200. This
means that the 200 film is twice as fast (twice more sensitive to light) than the 100 film.
Hence, would only require half the amount of light to produce a satisfactory negative. Each
time the film speed is doubled, it is equal to one f/ stop in exposure. For instance, in
the example given, if ISO-100 is exposed at f/8, then ISO-200 would be exposed at f/11 to
produce the same negative quality.

P a g e | 19
53.

What are the uses of film under varying condition?

Answer: Any film above ISO-100 can be considered high speed and anything less is usually
slow speed and Tine-green. The suggested uses of the following film under varying condition
are:

ISO-25 or lowest the condition will permit, for best color and sharpness.

ISO-100 or 200, for general purpose.

ISO-400, for dim light or with moving object.

ISO-1000, and up, for extremely low-light conditions.

54.

What are the different steps in the development of negative through chemical process?
Answer: the development of a negative through chemical process entails different steps in
the following order:

Predevelopment water rinse (optional),

actual development,

rinse bath,

fixing bath,

washing, and

drying.

55.

In negative development, what are the factors which must be pointed out?
Answer: they are

Cleanliness is a must when working with chemicals. Work areas must be free of
extraneous objects. If this is not done the negative may be worthless before it ever
gets into developing solution.

Chemical for negative development or printing are set up from left to right to avoid
mistake in processing. When using these chemicals do not go back to the previous
solution in the chain. This will destroy the negative and will definitely affect the
chemical themselves.

When diluting concentrated acids, always add the acid to the water slowly, stirring
constantly. Never adds the water to the acids because the acid may spatter on the
face and hands causing serious burns.

56.

How to obtain visible image?

Answer: To obtain a visible image, the exposed emulsion is treated in a solution known a
developer. This solution converts the light affected halides to metallic silver which forms
the visible image.

57.

What are the ingredients of developers?

Answer: Most all modern developer contains the following ingredients;

Development agent/reducer, the basic and most important ingredient in the developing
solution is the reducer, Metol-hyroquinon is the most versatile and popular of all
developers. Although amidol, glycin , paraphenylene diamine, and pyro are also use.

Accelerator, Borax, sodium carbonate, sodium hydroxide are some of the alkalis used
to increased the rate of oxidation of the reducing agent, softens the gelatin o the
film emulsion, and speeds up solution penetration. However a solution containing
only a reducer and an accelerator will oxidize quickly and act to rapidly.

Restrainer, the chemical most commonly used as a restrainer is potassium bromide.

Without the restrainer, most developing solution act too fast and develop unexposed
silver halides near the surface of the emulsion which causes fog, steaks, and image
lacking in contrast.

Preservative, all organic developing agents in an alkaline state have a strong

chemical attraction to oxygen, so preservative such as sodium sulfite or sodium
bisulfite is added to prevent excessive oxidation thus prolonging the useful life of
the developing solution and prevents the formation of colored oxidation products
which caused stains.

58.

What are Basic layers of printing paper?

Answer: they are:

Base. Made of paper which must be chemically pure to insure that it will not
interfere with the chemical processes to which the emulsion is subjected. Available
either in single or double weight paper.

Baryta Layer. A gelatin layer containing baryta crystal to increase the reflectivity
of the paper.

Emulsion Layer. Contain minute silver halides suspended with gelatin which needs
only to reproduce the total range of a negative.

59.

What are the Types of Photographic Printing Paper?

Answer: they are:

P a g e | 20

60.

Chloride Papers. Have a slow speed emulsion containing silver chloride, are fine
grain and produce deep blanks, used for contact printing.
Bromide Papers. Have a faster emulsion speed than chloride paper, achieve
sensitivity through the use of bromide halides. Because of the relatively high
sensitivity to light, these emulsion are particularly suitable for projecting
printing.
Chlorobromide Papers. Contain both silver chloride and silver bromide halides.
Emulsion Speed lies between that of chlorine and bromide papers, used both for
contact and projection printing.
Variable Contrast Paper. Combines the contrast range in one paper, this versatility
is achieved with a special chlorobromide emulsion that produces varying contrast
responses upon exposure to different colored light.

What is PRINTING?
Answer: Printing is the process whereby light is transmitted through the negative to
produce a like positive image.
DEFINITION OF TERMS

61.

What is Abrasions?
Answer: Abrasions are fined lines or streaks that occur then a sharp or rough object rubs
against the emulsion surface before development, are also caused by grit ot rough spots in
the camera.

62.

What is Acutance?
Answer: The degree to which an emulsion can record a sharp division between image area
details of different contrast.

63.

What is Air Bells?

Answer: Air bells are smell air bubbles that adhere to the film surface and prevent the
processing solution from acting on the film, producing small clear spots on film.

64.

What is Contrast?
Answer: The difference between the bright and dark areas in photograph of the densities of
various areas in the negative.

65.

What is Emulsion?
Answer: A light sensitive layer of finely divided salt (silver halides), suspended in
gelatin, which is thinly spread on the surface of a permanent support such as acetate.

66.

What is Fogging?
Answer: Is the reduction of unexposed silver halides, which results from faulty development
or average film and causes a general lowering of contrast by veiling the shadow areas.

67.

What is Highlights?
Answer: Refers to the dense portion of a negative, which is caused by bright area in the
subject that reflects a great amount of light, causing a corresponding heavy density in the
negative.

68.

What is Halftones?
Answer: The subject brightness between the lightest and darkest area recorded on the
negative corresponding densities.

69.

What is Latent Image?

Answer: The invisible image formed in an emulsion by exposure to light.

70.

What is Latitude?
Answer: The ability of an emulsion to record subject brightness difference in density. An
emulsion capable of reproducing all brightness values from dark to very bright has wide
latitude and conversely an emulsion which will reproduce only a narrow or short range of
brightness value has poor latitude.

71.

What is Negative Density?

Answer: Negative density is defined as the degree of blackening of a silver deposit in a
film emulsion in relation to the light incident upon it, or the amount of metallic silver
deposited in the negative emulsion.Density is used to describe the light transmitting
qualities of the negative and is controlled
by the thickness of the silver deposit.
Therefore, the amount of metallic silver in any area of the negative is known as density.
The density of any negative is a dense negative and a light negative is called a thin
negative.

72.

What is Reticulation?

P a g e | 21
Answer: Reticulation of the emulsion is a network of lines having a grainy, leather-like
appearance. This action occurs when film is subjected to sudden temperature changes in
transferring from one solution to another.
73.

What is Resolving Power?

Answer: Resolving power refers to the ability of an emulsion to record fine subject detail
distinguishably.

74.

What is Silver Halides?

Answer: Are metallic silver compound that darkens on exposure to light.

75.

What is Safelights?
Answer: Essentially, safelights are filters, the functions is to transmit the maximum
amount of light which may be properly used for visibility without damage to the sensitized
material.
-oOo-

PART IV
FIREARMS IDENTIFICATION (BALLISTICS)
1.

What is BALLISTICS?
Answer: is a science in itself because it evolved from systematic knowledge, research and
development, training, experience and education of those who pioneered in this field.
Technically speaking, it refers to the science of firearms identification which involves
the scientific examination of ballistics exhibits such as:
a
fires bullets;
b
fired shells;
c
firearms; and
d
allied matters, used in crime.
LEGAL DEFINITION: It is the microscopic examination of fired cartridge cases and
bullets together with the recording and presentation by means of photograph of what is
revealed by the microscope.

2.

What is INTERIOR BALLISTICS?

Answer: is the study of motion of projectiles with the gun barrel. From the release of the
firing pin to the moment the sound of the shot can be heard as it leaves the muzzle
occupied only 0.01 seconds, in a modern rifle.

3.

What are the critical elements involved in the study of interior ballistics?
Answer: they are the relationship of the weight of charge to the weight if projectile, the
length of bore; the optimum size, shape, and density of the propellant grains for different
guns, and the related problems if maximum and minimum muzzle pressures.

4.

What is Hang fire?

Answer: hang fire refers to the failure of a cartridge to explode on time or delayed in
firing.

5.

What is Loading Density?

Answer: refers to the ratio of the weight of the powder charge to the powder chamber
(case).

6.

What is Misfire?
Answer: refers to the failure of the cartridge to discharge. This is different from hang
fire which merely a delayed combustion, while misfire a complete failure eve to start
combustion.

7.

What is PSI?
Answer: PSI means pounds per square inch. It is often seen designated as PSIA. This
designation is now used to signify a measurement of chamber pressure taken with a piezoelectric device.

8.

What is Recoil?

P a g e | 22
Answer: refers to the equal and opposite reaction of the gun against the forward movement
of the bullet during explosions.
A. Residual Pressure the pressure remaining in the chamber after the bullet has left
the barrel.
9.

What is EXTERIOR BALLISTICS?

Answer: it deals with the motion of projectiles from the time they leave the muzzle of the
firearm to the time they hit the target.

10.

What is velocity?
Answer: velocity refers to the speed of the bullet per unit of time. Ex. M16 3, 300
ft. /sec.

11.

What is Muzzle blast?

Answer: the noise created at the muzzle point of the gun due to the sudden escape of the
expanding gas coming in contact with the air in the surrounding atmosphere at the muzzle
point.

12.

What is Trajectory?
Answer: the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the gun muzzle to the
target. The following are the kinds of trajectory, straight horizontal line.

13.

What is Range?
Answer: the straight distance between the muzzle point and the target.
What is accurate (effective) range?
Answer: the distance within the shooter has control of his shots, meaning he can place his
shoots at the desired spots.

14.

15.

What is Maximum range?

Answer: the farthest distance that a projectile can be propelled from a firearm.

16.

What is Air Resistance?

Answer: resistance encountered by the bullet while in flight.

17.

What is Pull of gravity?

Answer: downward reaction of the bullet while in flight.

18.

What is Penetration?
Answer: depth of entry on target.

19.

What is Accuracy range?

Answer:
the maximum distance at which a particular gun and cartridges will consistently
place all shots in the standard target for that distance.

20.

What is Bullet Energy?

Answer: the power possessed by a moving bullet, or its ability to keep going when it meets
obstacles.

21.

What is Effective Range?

Answer: the maximum distance at which the bullet may reasonably be expected to travel
accurately.

22.

What is Extreme Range?

Answer: the greatest distance the bullet will travel when the cartridge is fired.

23.

What is Initial point?

Answer: the range at which the bullets trajectory fist crosses line of sight. This is
normally occurs at a range of about 25 yards.

24.

What is chronograph?
Answer: Instrument used to measure the velocity of projectile.

25.

What is Key-hole-shot?
Answer: the tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting the target sideways as a
result of not spinning of its axis.

26.

What is Maximum range?

Answer: the farthest distance that a projectile can be propelled from a firearm.

27.

What is Ricochet?
Answer: the bouncing off or defection of a bullet from its original trajectory (normal
path).

28.

What is Stopping Power?

P a g e | 23
Answer: the power of the bullet that put out the victim out of action instantly. So it
should be understood that stopping power is not necessarily the same thing as killing
power.
29.

What is Zero range?

Answer: the farthest distance at which the line of sight and the bullets path intersect.

30.

What is TERMINAL BALLISTICS?

Answer: study of the effect of the impact of the bullet on the target.

31.

What are involves in TERMINAL BALLISTICS?

Answer: they are:
a
Terminal Accuracy size of the bullet grouping on the target
b
Terminal energy energy of the projectile when it strikes the target. Also known as
striking energy.
c
Terminal Penetration depth of entry of the bullet in the target.
d
Terminal velocity speed of the bullet upon striking the target.

32.

What is SHOTS BALLISITCS?

Answer: deals with the attributes and properties of shots and pellets.

33.

What is WOUND BALLISTICS?

Answer: study of the effects of projectile to human body. .

34.

What is Blackening?
Answer: wound caused by the deposition of smoke particles by all types of powders at close
ranges.

35.

What is Tattooing?
Answer: embedding of unburned and semi burned powder particles into the surface of the
target.

36.

Why the blasted tissues are cherry red in color?

Answer:
the blasted tissues are cherry red in color because of the presence of carbon
monoxide.

37.

What are the indications whether the gunshot injury is suicidal, homicidal or Accidental?
Answer: they are:
a
gunshot wound is suicidal when:

only one gunshot wound

Usually the distance is short range or class range

Presence of the suicide note

History of frustration or despondency of the victim

Presence of cadaveric spasm on the hand of the victim

b
gunshot wound is homicidal when:

Wound is located at any part of the body

Signs of struggle (defense wound) maybe present in the victim

Disturbances of the surroundings

Wounding weapon usually not found at the scene of the crime

c
gunshot wound is accidental when:

Usually only one gunshot wound

Wound located at any part of the body

Absence of personal grudge between the victim and the one who fired the gun

Testimony from the witnesses

38.

What is Shotgun wound?

Answer: it is an open wound produced by the penetration of pellets or shots in the victims
body.

39.

What are the characteristics of the Shotgun wound of entrance?

Answer: they are:
a
There is singeing of the hair; presence of wads and particles of gunpowder inside
the wound of entrance
b
When a shot is up to six inches distance, there is marked lacerated of the skin and
destruction of tissues due to the pressure of the explosion.
c
If the distance about one yard, there is a blackening of tissues with slight
burning, singeing and tattooing.
d
If the distance is about two to three yards, the wound has a big central hole with
ragged edges and a few stray wounds of entrance around the central hole. There will
be no more blackening or burning of the skin, gunpowder tattooing, singeing of the
hair and pieces of wads near the wound of entrance.

P a g e | 24
e

If the distance is four yards, a small group of pellets may penetrate the tissues
producing a central core.

40.

What is FORENSIC BALLISTICS?

Answer: Identification of firearms by means of ammunition fired through them. This is the
real branch of the science which the police use as their guide in field investigations.

41.

What is meant by the term FORENSIC

Answer:
As applied to ballistics, or to any other subject, suggest a relationship to
courts of Justice and legal proceedings.

42.

What is the technical definition of Firearm?

Answer: instrument that is used for the propulsion of projectile by means of the expansive
force of gases of burning gunpowder.

43.

What is the technical definition of Firearm or Arm?

Answer: includes rifles, muskets, carbines, shot guns, pistols, revolvers and all other
weapons from which a bullet a ball, a shot, a shell or missiles may be discharged by means
of gunpowder or other explosives. The term also includes air rifles, except that are in
small in caliber at and usually used as toys. The barrel of a firearm for purposes of
Section 877 of the Revised Administrative Code is considered as a complete firearm (legal
Sec. 877 of the RAC and Sec. 290 of NIRC)

44.

What is Rifle?
Answer: long rifle bored firearm designed to hit targets a greater or longer distance with
spiral grooves to fire only a single shot.

45.

What is Musket?
Answer: long smooth bored firearm that is designed to prepare a single shot.

46.

What is Shotgun?
Answer: long smooth bored firearm having a barrel of 25-30 inches long and designed to shot
birds in flight; long smooth bored firearm and breech loading designed to fire number of
lead pellets or shot in on charge.

47.

What is Carbine?
Answer:
a short barrel riffle, having a barrel not longer than 22 inches and it is
designed to fire a single shot through a rifled-bore, either semi-automatic or full
automaton, for every press on the trigger.

48.

What are the essential parts of firearms?

Answer: Any firearm, large or small, has four essentials parts:

Barrel it is long tube. It may be smooth, as in shotgun, or with spiral grooves on

the inner surface, as in a rifle

Chamber it is a widened hole at the breech (rear) end of the barrel. It holds the
cartridge (explosive charge).

Breech mechanism the breech mechanism closes the rear end of the barrel, holding
the cartridge in the chamber.

Firing mechanism the firing mechanism may be electric, as in some large artillery.
In small arms, a spring moves a pointed firing pin through the breech bolt against a
sensitive primer in the cartridge. The firing pin is cocked (drawn back) against a
hook called the sear.

49.

What is Pistol?
Answer: a handgun that use magazine feed

50.

What is Revolver?
Answer: A handgun with the corresponding cylinder that revolves before the barrel which
consist of different chambers.

51.

Who are BERTHOLD SCHWARTZ A German monk, and ROGER BACON, an English monk?
Answer: they are both credited with gunpowder invention. (Most reference books credit Roger
Bacon, English monk and scientists, with the invention of gunpowder in 1248, and Berthold
Schwartz, with the application of gunpowder to the propelling of a missile in the early
1300s. This powder was that we now call black powder) It is also often stated that
gunpowder was first invented by Chinese were aware of gunpowder and use as a propellant
long before its advantage became recognized in Europe. It may also assume the Arabs with
their advance knowledge of Chemistry at that time.

52.

Who is the Father of Modern Ballistics?

Answer: Col. Calvin H. Goddard, Md., OS, U.S. Army.

53.

Who is Alexander John Forsyth?

P a g e | 25
Answer: Father of the percussion ignition.
54.

Who designed and invented the semi-automatic US Riffle, Caliber .30 MI?
Answer: John C. Garand

55.

Who pioneered the making of Thompson Sub-machine gun?

Answer: John T. Thompson

56.

What is firearms caliber?

Answer: The caliber of the firearm is the diameter of the bore of the barrel measured form
land to land. Caliber in rifled firearm expresses in inches or fraction of an inch by the
American and English manufacturers and millimeters or in centimeters by manufacturers in
continental Europe.

57.

What are the characters of a rifle?

Answer: Rifle is a gun with spiral grooves in its long barrel that spin the bullet as it is
shot. Rifles are usually held against the shoulder when firing. Soldiers use rifles in
battle.

58.

What are the parts of rifle?

Answer: all rifles have four basic parts: the barrel, the stock, the action, and the
sights.

59.

What powder was developed in 1800?

Answer: Smokeless powder.

60.

What are the characteristics of a Machine gun?

Answer: Machine gun is an automatic weapon that can fire from 400 to 1,600 rounds of
ammunition each minute. Machine gun barrels range in size from .22 calibers to 20
millimeters ammunitions fed into the gun from a cloth or metal belt, or from a cartridge
holder called a magazine.

61.

When the crime scene investigator recovers a fired shell, where should he put his identifying
marks?
Answer: he should put at the inner surface near the mouth

62.

A rim fire cartridge case bearing firing pin impression that is recovered at the crime scene
is normally presumed to have been fired from what type of firearms?
Answer:
revolver
What gun mechanism grasps the rim of cartridge case to pull it out from the chamber?
Answer: extractor

63.
64.

While the bullet is traveling through the gun barrel, its bearing surface is not in close
contact with the bore surface. In effect, most of the expanding gases came out first than the
bullet. This problem is caused by:
Answer: improper bullet design

65.

What is refers to the distance the bullet needs to travel through the barrel to complete a
single rotation?
Answer: rifling

66.

What instrument is best used to examine bullet and cartridge cases for purposes of determining
similarity in class characteristics?
Answer: comparison microscope

67.

Caliber is one example of firearm class characteristics. What indicates by this term?
Answer: bullet diameter in hundredths of an inch

68.

Calibers of European made firearms are usually expressed in millimeters. In Western caliber
system, what is the counterpart of 9mm?
Answer: cal .38 SPL

69.

In ballistics, any object that fired or launched from a firearm is technically called:
Answer: projectile

70.

What Significant factors that affect the distance traveled by the residues emitted from a
firearm?
Answer: wind, temperature, and barometric pressure

71.

Strictly speaking, a cartridge is a single unit of ammunition consisting of:

Answer: the cartridge case, primer and one or more projectiles

72.

There are different scientific instruments used in determining the caliber or firearm evidence.
What instrument is solely used for measuring the bore diameter of gun barrel?

P a g e | 26
Answer: Caliper
73.

What characteristics that would be common to a particular group or family of items?

Answer: class characteristics

74.

In comparing bullets, most positive identifications are made on striations that are found:
Answer: on land impressions near the base of the bullet

75.

What limits the forward travel of revolver ammunition into the chamber?
Answer:
rim

76.

Death or serious injury may or may not have been caused by accidental discharge of a firearm.
In this situation, a questioned gun is submitted at the crime laboratory to undergo:
Answer: firearm functionality testing

77.

What force opposes forward motion of the projectile in flight?

Answer: gravity

78.

Gunshot residues that allow a firearm examiner to determine a muzzle to garment distance
are found around:
Answer: bullet entrance holes

79.

When a cartridge is chambered then ejected in a semi automatic or auto loading type of
firearm, it receives marks from the breech mechanisms. Which of these marks found in the shell
which may be in the form of impression if the cartridge is fired but could also be in the form
of striated action mark if the cartridge is thrown out without being fired?
Answer: magazine lip marks

80.

What area of forensic ballistics covers the determination of distance between the shooter & the
target?
Answer: forensic external ballistics

81.

What instrument for ballistics examination can be used to photograph bullets in flight, which
aids in investigating the velocity of projectiles?
Answer: Chronograph

82.

Which class characteristics of firearms can be determined by analyzing fired bullet recovered
at the crime scene?
Answer: Caliber & rifling pattern

83.

Given more than one bullet, the first problem that should be resolved by the firearm examiner
is:
Answer: Was the bullet fired from the suspect firearm?

84.

What marks is found on shells ejected from auto loading firearms that appear as striated
action marks and sometimes impressed action marks?
Answer: ejector marks

85.

All cases involving firearms identification start with:

Answer: Test firing of questioned firearm

86.

In a semi automatic pistol found at the crime scene, where should the recovering officer
place his identifying marks before packing it for transmission at the crime laboratory?
Answer: pistol grip

87.

The rifling of the firearms is located inside the barrel. It consists of:
Answer: lands and grooves

88.

A rimmed shell is usually fired from:

Answer: revolver

89.

The term double action with reference to revolver means most nearly that:
Answer: pulling the trigger will automatically cock of the firearm

90.

What is refers to the caliber of a gun?

Answer: the diameter of its barrel

91.

When a police officer should fire his handgun?

Answer: only at last resort

92.

What is mostly refers to the term muzzle velocity?

Answer: speed at which a bullet leaves the gun

93.

What is the effect when a shot is fired on an automatic pistol by a criminal?

P a g e | 27
Answer:
firing

the shell in most cases will be found at the scene of

-oOoPART V
QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION
CONCEPT OF DOCUMENT
1.

What is document?
Answer: generally defined as any material containing marks, symbols, or signs either
visible, or partially visible that may present or ultimately convey a meaning to someone,
maybe in the form of pencil, ink writing, typewriting, or printing on paper.

2.

What are the legal definitions of document?

Answer: they are:

Any written document by which a right is established or an obligation is

extinguished (People vs. Moreno, CA, 338 O.G. 119).

every deed or instrument executed by person by whom some disposition or agreement is

proved, evidenced or set forth (People vs. Nillosquin, CA, 48 O.G. 4453)

In relation to Criminal Jurisprudence under the Best evidence rule: any physical
embodiment of information of ideas; e.g. a letter, a contract, a receipt, a book of
account, a blue print, or an X-ray plate (Black`s Law Dictionary)

3.

If a private document is intended to become a part of the public record and falsified prior
thereto, what is the crime committed?
Answer: falsification of a public document

4.

What are writings which do not constitute document- based on some Supreme Court Rulings?
Answer:

A draft of a Municipal payroll which is not yet approved by the proper authority
(People vs. Camacho, 44Phil. 484)

Mere blank forms of official documents, the spaces of which are not filled up
(People vs. Santiago, CA, 48 O.G. 4558)

Pamphlets or books which do not evidence any disposition or agreement are not
documents but are mere merchandise (People vs. Agnis, 47 Phil. 945)
CONCEPT OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT

5.

What is questioned document?

Answer: questioned document is one in which the facts appearing therein may not be true,
and are contested either in whole or part with respect to its authenticity, identity, or
origin. It may be a deed, contract, will, election ballots, marriage contract, check,
visas, application form, check writer, certificates, etc.

6.

What is disputed document?

Answer: this term suggesting that there is an argument or controversy over the document,
and strictly speaking this is true meaning.

7.

What is the focus of Questioned document examination?

Answer: Questioned document examination is a branch of forensics which focuses on the
analysis of documents which are disputed.

8.

What are the requirements to become a questioned document examiner?

Answer: the courts (State v. Evans 1991) have decided that a person needs both: study and
practice -- that is, a period of training (internship or apprenticeship is better than a
self-study course) and a period of experience (twenty some previous cases worked on is a
good average).

9.

What is meant by the term EXPERT WITNESS?

Answer: A legal term used to describe a witness who by reason of his special training or
experience is permitted to express an opinion regarding the issue, or a certain aspect of
the issue, which is involved in a court action.

10.

Who are DOCUMENT EXAMINER?

Answer: One who studies scientifically details and elements of documents in order to
identify their source or to discover other facts concerning them

P a g e | 28
11.

What is meant by the term ERASURE?

Answer: The removal of writings, typewriting or printing, maybe chemical eradication and or
by an abrasive erasure.

12.

What is meant by INSERTION OR INTERLINEATION?

Answer: the addition of writing and other material between lines or paragraphs or the
addition of whole page to a document.

13.

What are the DIVISIONS OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION?

Answer: they are:

Criminalistic Examination- involves the detection of forgery, erasure, alteration or

obliteration of documents.

Handwriting Investigation /Analysis- more focused in determining the author of

writing.

14.

Who Conducts the Preliminary Examination of Questioned Document?

Answer: conducted by a questioned document examiner.

15.

What is meant by OFF-HAND OPINION?

Answer: Off-hand opinion- not based on though scientific examination.

16.

What are the CLASSES OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENT?

Answer: The following are the general classification of QD.

Documents with questioned signatures;

Questioned documents alleged to have been containing fraudulent alterations;

Questioned or disputed holographic wills;

Documents investigated on the question of typewriting;

Questioned documents on issues of their age or date;

Questioned documents on issues of material used in their production; and,

Documents or writing investigated because it is all alleged that they identify some
persons through handwriting.

17.

What are the SCIENTIFIC METHODS IN QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATION?

Answer: they are:

Analysis (Recognition)- properties or characteristics, observed or measured.

Comparison- Properties or characteristics of the unknown determined through analysis

are now compared with the familiar or recorded properties of know items.

Evaluation- Similarities or dissimilarities in properties will each have a certain

value for identification, determined by its likelihood of occurrence.

18.

What are the INSTRUMENTS AND APPARATUS USED IN QUESTIONED DOCUMENT EXAMINATIONS
Answer: they are:

Magnifying lens- could be an ordinary hand-lens; the maximum diameter is four

inches, and this appears big with its wide frame it has a magnifying power of two
times the original only. Magnifying lenses of five times or more magnifying power,
with built-in-lightning are more useful.

SHADOWNGRAPH- a pictorial image formed by casting a shadow, usually of the hands,

upon a rightful surface or screen.

STEREOSCOPIC BINOCULAR MICROSCOPE- a tri-dimensional (3D) enlargement is possible

MEASURES AND TEST PLATES (TRANSPARENT GLASS)- those used for signatures and
typewriting (to measure degree of slant, size, etc.

TABLE LAMPS WITH ADJUSTABLE SHADES (Goose Neck Lamps)- used for controlled
illumination; needed in sidelight examination wherein light is place at low
angle in a position oblique to plane or document.

TRANSMITTED LIGHT GADGET- light comes from beneath or behind glass on document is
placed.

ULTRA VIOLET LAMP- used in the detection of counterfeited bills but can actually be
used to detect security features of qualified documents.

INFRARED VIEWER- primarily used to decipher writings in a charred document.

COMPARISON MICROSCOPE- similar to that of the bullet comparison microscope.

19.

What are the TECHNIQUES IN THE EXAMINATION OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS?

Answer: they are:

MICROSCOPIC EXAMINATION- Any examination or study which is made with the microscope
in order to discover minute physical details. Stereoscopic examination with low and
high power objectives is used to detect retouching, patching and unnatural pen-lift
in signature analysis.

P a g e | 29

TRANSMITTED LIGHT EXAMINATION- the document is viewed with the source of

illumination behind it and the light passing through the paper to determine the
presence
of erasures, matching of serrations and some other types of
alterations.
OBLIQUE LIGHT EXAMINATION- the illumination so controlled that it gazes or strikes
the surface of the document from one side at a very low angle. Decipherment of faded
handwriting, determination of outline in traced forgery, embossed impression, etc.
PHOTOGRAPHIC EXAMINATION- Actual observations are recorded in the photographs.
ULTRA-VIOLET EXAMINATION- Ultraviolet radiation is invisible and occurs in the
wave lengths just below the visible blue-violet end of the spectrum
(rainbow). These visible rays react on some substances so that visible light is
reflected, a phenomenon known as FLOURESCENCE. The exposure of a document to ultraviolet light is useful when it consists of
several pages and substitution is being
suspected. The color and intensity of fluorescence reaction is very apparent in case
of substituted page.
Mechanical and chemical erasures will certainly change the
reflectivity and fluorescence of the area affected.
INFARED EXAMINATION- employs invisible radiation beyond the red portion of the
visible spectrum (rainbow) which is usually recorded on a specially sensitized
photographic emulsion.

20.

Why photograph in QD is necessary?

Answer: Photography in QD is necessary to:

Serve as record of the initial condition of a disputed document;

Make clear what otherwise may be hidden or indistinct;

Enlarge writing in question so that every quality and characteristics of it can be

clearly and properly interpreted.

Enable any number of accurate reproductions of document, thus affording unlimited

opportunity for study;

Allow cutting apart as may be desired and the various parts classified for
comparisons;

Can shoe delicate discolorations due to chemical erasures or other fraudulent

changes, which may otherwise be overlooked, or misinterpreted;

Can show very clearly any erasures by abrasions made by ordinary rubber eraser and
it can record in permanent form with paper placed obliquely to the plane of the lens
and plate and inclined at just right angel of reflection so as o show differences in
the reflected light from different portions of the paper surface; and

With transmitted light, it is useful in: examination of watermarks; determining the

identity; or the differences in paper by showing arrangement of the fibers and the
markings of the wire gauze and dandy roll showing the continuity of strokes and
determining retouching or patching of a writing by showing clearly the presence of
added ink film and the uneven distribution of ink in interrupted strokes.

21.

What are the methods of examining ERASURES?

Answer: they are:

Physical inspection: using ultraviolet light, observation with light striking the
surface at a sharp angle, and observation under the microscope.

Fuming with iodine may cause an almost negligible stain, but in most instances not
the slightest semblance of a stain remains.

22.

What are the methods of examining INDENTED WRITING?

Answer: usually applied to the partially visible depressions appearing on a sheet of a
paper underneath the one on which the visible writing appears. Methods of examination are:

Physical methods maybe used by passing a strong beam of nearly parallel light almost
horizontally over the surface of the paper.

Fuming the document maybe of values in some cases.

Powders of various kinds maybe used without changing the document.

23.

What are the methods of examining BURNED OR CHARRED PAPER?

Answer: If the combustion is incomplete, there is a certain amount of success provided the
pieces are large enough to form a coherent message. Of primary importance is the proper
packing and shipping of this type of evidence. The pieces should be placed between layers
of cotton and ship in a strong, rigid box, exercising every precaution to avoid damage in
transit. It is believed best not to spray or moisten the evidence with water or any other
liquid for shipping purposes. The following methods maybe applied to decipher the original
message contained thereon:

Photographic methods, using various types of filters and different angles of

illumination may determine the writing contained thereon without changing the
appearance of the charred fragments.

Chemical methods, such as spraying, painting, or bathing charred pieces with

solutions of different chemical reagents.

P a g e | 30

Photographic plates maybe utilized by allowing the charred paper to remain in

contact with emulsion sides in total darkness from one to two weeks.
CARE, HANDLING AND PRESERVATION OF QUESTIONED DOCUMENTS

24.

How to care and handle DISPUTED DOCUMENTS AND DOCUMENTARY EVIDENCE?

Answer: the following should be observed:

It should be kept UNFOLDED AND IN A SEPARATE, PROPER SIZE ENVELOPE OR FOLDER.

It is also advisable that right after the document becomes disputed, or questioned,
it is important to make not only the usual photo static copy (Xerox), but also a
proper photograph or photo-enlargement.

It is often necessary for the lawyer or court to handle repeatedly the disputed
document. Should this be necessary, instead of handling and working with the
original document, the photograph should be used.

Touching with wet hands or fingers can create smearing in the ink, pointing with a
pencil can leave marks that create a suspicion of previous pencil marks, or
experiments as proof of attempted forgery.

Pointing a document with any other instruments, such as sharp stick, can cause sight
damage with although it cannot be seen by the naked eye, can show definite marks
under the microscope or on the enlarged photograph.

No test should be made to alter the conditions of the document.

Should any test be necessary, insist that it should be done in the presence of a
chemist, or in court, or in front of both parties involved the case.

25.

What are the DO`s in CARE, HANDLING AND PRESERVATION OF

DOCUMENTS?
Answer: they are:

Take disputed papers to Document Examiner`s Laboratory at the First Opportunity.

If storage is necessary, keep in dry place away from excessive heat strong light.

Maintain in consequential document, unfolded and in transparent plastic envelope or

evidence preserver.

26.

What are the Donts in CARE, HANDLING AND PRESERVATION OF

DOCUMENTS?
Answer: they are:

Do not underscore, make careless markings, fold, erase, impress rubber stamps,
sticker, write on, or otherwise alter any handwriting.

Do not smear with fingerprints powder or chemicals.

Do not carry handwriting document carelessly in wallet, notebook or brief case on

grounds of interviews.

Do not handle disputed papers, excessively or carry then in pocket for a long time.

Do not marked disputed documents (either by consciously writing instruments or

dividers)

Do not mutilate or damage by repeated refolding, creasing, cutting, tearing or

punching for filing purposes.

Do not allow anyone except qualified specialist to make chemical or other tests; do
not treat or dust for latent finger prints before consulting a document examiner.

27.

How to HANDLE CHARRED DOCUMENTS?

Answer: they are:

Those extremely fragile must be handled as little as possible and transporting them
to the laboratory requires extra-ordinary care. With forethought and caution they
can be brought from the distant fire scene to the laboratory.

They should be moved in the container in which they are found whenever possible.
When the fragments are not packed tightly, they should be padded with lightweight
absorbent cotton. If jarring cannot be entirely eliminated jarring the box must be
kept to a minimum.

The fragment must be held firmly without crushing and prevent movement or shifting
when finally packed in a sturdy container.
EXEMPLAR

28.

What is exemplar?
Answer: Exemplars, also called standards, are legally admissible authentic samples of
handwriting used for comparison with questioned writing. They are used by the document
examiner to enable her to form an opinion concerning the authenticity of handwriting in
dispute. There are two kinds of exemplars (informal which are documents previously executed
and known to be genuine) and formal (which are request writing samples). Exemplars are also
called known handwriting samples.

29.

What is the most reliable exemplar?

P a g e | 31
Answer: Informal handwriting exemplars (Collected Standards) are more reliable for
comparison purposes than request writing. Since informal writing was written in the normal
course of business, it more accurately reflects the subconscious habits of the writer.
Self-consciousness or conscious-awareness enters into the request writing process. Even
when there is no attempt to disguise request writing, it may not represent the normal
subconscious habits of the writer.
30.

What are the TYPES OF HANDWRITING STANDARDS?

Answer: they are:

Collected Standards are KNOWN (genuine or informal standard) handwriting of an

individual written in the course of daily life, both business and socials.

Request standards are signature or other handwritings (or hand printings) written by
an individual upon request for the purpose of comparison with other handwriting or
for specimen purposes.

Post Litem Motan Exemplars- writings produced by the subject after evidential
writings have come into dispute and solely for the purpose of establishing his
contentions.

31.

What are the DISADVANTAGES OF REQUEST WRITING SAMPLES?

Answer: they are:

Request writing taken after the incident may not be as close to the date of the
questioned writing as informal documents executed in the normal course of business.

Courts consider request writing taken after the fact as self-serving and may not
allow it. Some writers will deliberately disguise their request handwriting.

It may be difficult or impossible to duplicate the writing environment of the

suspect document in order to obtain comparable documents.

The writer may not be available for request writing or circumstances may have caused
changes that make it impossible to obtain similar request writing samples.
What are the SUGGESTED PROCEDURE FOR TAKING REQUEST HANDWRITING STANDARDS IN ALL TYPES OF
QUESTIONED-DOCUMENT PROBLEMS?
Answer: they are:

Let subject seat in a natural position at table or desk having smooth writing
surface.

Furnish subject with paper and writing instrument similar to those used in
questioned writings, lie; paper should be same size, and ruled or unruled; as
questioned document.

Never permit the subject to see any writing on the questioned document.

Dictate material to be written (or printed, if questioned material is hand printed):

give no assistance in spelling or arrangement on page. Dictate at a rate of speed
which will produce the subject natural writing habits.

Remove each specimen upon completion by subject number in consequence, date, time
and identify by initiating each, and request subjects to sign each specimen.

Observe all writing done by subjects and indicate any attempt of disguise, and
whether subjects appears to be normally right or left handed, etc.

32.

33.

HOW MANY SAMPLES OF HANDWRITING ARE NEEDED?

Answer: consider the following:

The type of case determines the number of exemplars that the document examiner needs
for comparison with the questioned documents. Always try to collect as many samples
as possible because it is more important to have suitable undisputed samples than a
large quantity of little comparable value. Cases have been won in court using a
single known signature to support the authenticity of a questioned document. One
signature is sufficient when all the characteristics of handwriting match. When
proving that an individual did not write a questioned document, it is necessary to
obtain a larger range of writing and one hundred signatures may not be enough. An
average would be twenty to twenty-five signatures and four to five pages of normal
handwriting and/or hand printing preferably written at different times.

More known documents are needed if the writer has a wide range of variation or an
oversimplified signature, while only a few signatures would suffice if the writer is
consistent. An oversimplified signature is one that contains few changes of
direction and is usually an illegible scrawl. Oversimplified signatures are easier
to imitate than more complex signatures that contain more changes of direction and
more stylized letter forms.

When a questioned signature shows obvious signs of forgery not present in the known
signature, one known signature should be enough to prove no genuineness. Forged
writing often contains tremor or has a drawn look.

A single signature would be sufficient to determine the facts when the questioned
signatures are written with a higher skill level than the suspected writer could
execute. However, it is better to have more exemplars whenever possible. The

P a g e | 32
document examiner must evaluate the exemplars to determine if she has sufficient
suitable material to render an accurate opinion.
34.

What are SUITABLE EXEMPLARS?

Answer: the following are suitable exemplar:

Cancelled checks, contracts, applications, and business letters make suitable

exemplars or standards. The writing can be properly identified, the date can be
verified, and the habits of the writer can be studied. Additional standards may be
needed if the words on the disputed writing do not match the exemplars.

Ideally, original writing should be available for the scrutiny of the document
examiner. Original writing is always better than a photocopy or a facsimile. If it
is impossible to obtain original documents, a first generation photocopy should be
supplied. The original documents should be requested whenever a photocopy is
supplied by the adverse party. Intermediate tones are almost always lost in a
photocopy because it aims to secure the greatest possible contrast. Subsequent
generations of photocopies may drop sufficient detail, rendering them worthless to a
competent document examiner.

According to the FBI Law Enforcement Bulletin published in September, 1970,

handwriting identification depends on the quality of the known writing. A's cannot
be compared with Gs John Jones' cannot be compared with 'Samuel Hansen' The J's
must be compared with J's and the 'ohn's' with 'ohn's.' Handwriting cannot be
compared with hand printing.

Documents similar in nature will make the best exemplars. Contracts should be
compared with contracts, and cancelled checks with cancelled checks. Try to procure
like signatures. An A should be compared with A, an Al with Al, and hand printing
with hand printing. Documents written with ink should be compared with other
documents written in ink. Try to find writing on similar documents. People often
have more than one style signature depending on the document being executed. Checks
may be executed in a more careless manner than wills and contracts. Do not use
signatures written while the writer was intoxicated unless the questioned documents
were written under similar circumstances.

Some hand printing can be compared with handwriting and vice versa. Some writers use
hand printed letters and handwritten ones interchangeably. Most common is the use of
hand printed capital letters in place of cursive. Other writers use the same letter
form for both hand printed and cursive writing.

While it may be possible to make a match with only a few exemplars, the more
exemplars available the better. Collect as many samples of handwriting, including
signatures, as possible. It is necessary to collect enough handwriting samples to
enable the expert to render a professional opinion. How much is enough? Enough would
be sufficient exemplars to eliminate any other writer as the author of a document.

35.

What are the CASES IN WHICH NO EXEMPLARS ARE NEEDED?

Answer: they are the following:

There are some cases in which no exemplars are needed to prove spuriousness. Since
no one can write his signature exactly the same way twice, identical signatures are
generally evidence of no genuineness. This would include traced forgeries, scanned
signatures, or even freehand simulations, as well as cut and paste signatures.

Some writers use signature stamps and autopens as legitimate signatures making it
are necessary to determine the nature of the signatures before an opinion of no
genuineness is given.

Signs of forgery are indicative of no genuineness. Documents that contain

indications of tracing can be identified without known signatures. Evidence of
tracing the signature would be a groove or guide line along the signature line or
residue of pencil or carbon.

When
a
questioned
signature
matches
the
handwriting
of
another
writer,
identification can be made that the writing was penned by that individual. In this
case, no known signatures of the victim are needed for comparison.

Writing of the impaired or illiterate can be identified as spurious if the

questioned writing exceeds the ability of the known writer. A high skill level
signature of an impaired individual can be rejected without comparison documents.

36.

What is REQUEST WRITING?

Answer:
Request writing exemplars are handwriting samples made at the request and under
the supervision of the police, document examiners, or attorneys for comparison with
questioned writing.

37.

What are the DOs AND DON'Ts FOR COLLECTING EXEMPLARS AND STANDARDS?
Answer: they are:

DON'T rely on too little writing. How much is enough? Enough to show the range of
handwriting characteristics of the writer.

DO obtain sufficient handwriting exemplars, at least twenty to twenty-five

signatures or four to five pages of handwriting or hand printing.

P a g e | 33

DON'T rely exclusively on writing that differs significantly from the questioned.
DO collect similar samples: hand printing with hand printing, ink signatures with
ink signatures, lined paper with lined paper, same size with same size.
DON'T rely on documents recently written if the comparison documents were written
many years ago.
DO collect standards dated at approximately the same time as the questioned.
DON'T compare writing written under abnormal conditions (for example, when the
writer was intoxicated) with normal writing.
DO collect documents that duplicate the writing environment: checks with checks,
contracts with contracts.
DO instruct the writer in order to obtain similar exemplars. For example, print with
all uppercase letters.
HANDWRITING AND SIGNATURE IDENTIFICATION

A. HANDWRITING
38.

How HANDWRITING is DEFINED?

Answer: Handwriting is the result of a very complicated series of facts, being used as
whole, combination of certain forms of visible mental and muscular habits acquired by long,
continued painstaking effort also knows as visible speech.
In Wignore`s Principles of judicial Proof, handwriting is defined as a visible
effect of bodily movement which is an almost unconscious expression of fixed muscular
habits, reacting from fixed mental impression of certain ideas associated with script form.

39.

What are the KINDS OF WRITINGS?

Answer:

Cursive- connected writing in which one letter is joined the next

Script- separated printed writing.

BLOCK- ALL CAPITAL LETTERS.

40.

Why imitation of the style of writing by another person becomes difficult?

Answer: because the other person cannot reproduce the muscular combination from the habit
of the first writer.

41.

What is refers to the brains writing center where the impulse to form a letter begins?
Answer: cortex

42.

What are the two groups of muscles involve in Handwriting?

Answer: (1) Extensor muscles which push up the pen to form the upward strokes, and (2)
Flexor muscles which push the pen to from the downward strokes.

43.

Generally speaking, what are the four groups of muscles employed in writing?
Answer: those which operate the joints of the fingers, wrist, elbow, and shoulder.

44.

What is motor coordination?

Answer: motor coordination is the delicate way in which the various muscles used in writing
work together to procedure written form is known as

45.

What are the environmental factors affecting the handwriting?

Answer:
These include the writing instrument itself, the writing surface and what lies
beneath it, and other variables of the writing situation.

46.

What are the two categories of handwriting characteristics?

Answer: (1) general, or class characteristics, and (2) individual characteristics.

47.

What are the factors that can affect Handwriting?

Answer: (1) injury, (2) illness, (3) medication, (4) drug or alcohol use, (5) stress, (6)
the writing surface, (7) the writing instrument, or (8) attempted disguise.
TERMINOLOGIES RELATED TO HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION AND EXAMINATIONS

48.

What is ALIGNMENT?
Answer: the relation of the writing or line of individual letters to the baseline.

49.

What is ANGULAR FORMS?

Answer: Sharp, straight strokes that are made by stopping the pen and changing direction
before continuing.

50.

What is ARCADE FORMS?

P a g e | 34
Answer: strokes that look like arches rounded on the top and open at the bottom.
51.

What is CHARACTERISTICS?
Answer: any property or mark which is commonly called the identifying details.

52.

What is COLLATION?
Answer: critical comparison on side by side examination of the standard and QD.

53.

What is COMPARISON?
Answer: the act of setting two or more items side by side to weigh their identifying
qualities.

54.

What is DISTINGUISED WRITING?

Answer: altered writing in hopes of hiding identity.

55.

What is DOWNSTROKE?
Answer: The movement of the pen toward the writer.

56.

What is FORM?
Answer: The way the writing looks, whether it is copybook, elaborated, simplifier or
printed

57.

What is GARLAND FORMS?

Answer: A cup like connected form that is open at the top and rounded on the bottom.

58.

What is GESTALT?
Answer:
The German word that means complete or whole. A good gestalt needs nothing
added or taken away to make it look right.

59.

What is GRAHOANALYSIS?
Answer: the study of handwriting based on the two fundamental strokes, the curve and the
straight strokes.

60.

What is GRAPHOMETRY?
Answer: analysis by comparison and measurement.

61.

What is HANDLETTERINGAnswer: Any disconnected style of writing in which each letter is written separately, also
called hand printing.

62.

What is LETTER SPACE?

Answer: The distance between the letters.

63.

What is LINE DIRECTIONAnswer: Movement of the baseline, it may be slant-up, down or straight across the page.

64.

What is LINE QUALLITY?

Answer: the overall character of the ink lines from the beginning to the ending stroke: it
may be a Good Line quality or Poor Line quality.

65.

What is LINE SPACE?

Answer: The amount of the space between lines.

66.

What is MICROSOPIC EXAMINATION?

Answer: Any study or examination which is made with the microscope in other to discover
minute details.

67.

What is MOVEMENT?
Answer: an important element in handwriting which embraces all the factors which are
related to the motion of the writing instrument skill, speed freedom, hesitation, rhythm,
emphasis, tremors and the like.

68.

What is NATURAL WRITING?

Answer: Any specimen of writing executed normally without any attempt to control or alter
its identifying habits and its usual quality or execution.

69.

What is NATURAL VARIATIONAnswer: normal or usual deviation

handwriting.

70.

found between

repeated specimens

of any

individual

What is PEN MPHASIS?

Answer:
The act of intermittently forcing the pen against the paper surfaces which
produces shading out with more rigid writing points heavy point emphasis can occur in
writing without any evidence of shading.

P a g e | 35
71.

What is PEN HOLD?

Answer: - The place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle at which he
holds it.

72.

What is PEN POSITION?

Answer: - relationship between the pen point and the paper.

73.

What is PEN PRESSURE?

Answer: the average force with which the pen contacts the paper.

74.

What is PRINTSCRIPT
Answer: - A creative combination of printing and cursive writing.

75.

What is PROPORTION or RATIO

Answer: the relation between the tall and the short letter

76.

What is QUALITY
Answer: - A distinct or peculiar character. Also, quality is used in describibg
handwriting to refer to any identifying factor that is related to the writing movement
itself.

77.

What is RHYTHM?
Answer: The element of the writing movement which is marked by regular or periodic
recurrences: maybe smooth, intermittent, or jerky in its quality; the flourishing
succession of motion which are recorded in a written record.

78.

What is SHADING?
Answer: widening of the ink strokes due to the added pressure on a flexible pen point or
to the use of a stub pen.

79.

What is SIMPLIFICATION?
Answer: Eliminating extra or superfluous strokes from the copybook model.

80.

What is SIZE?
Answer: the proportions between zones.

81.

What is SKILL?
Answer: writers proficiency; degree, ability, or skill of a write proficiency.

82.

What is SLOPE/ SLANT?

Answer:
the angle or inclination of the axis of the letters relative to the baseline:
Slant to the left; Slant to the right; and Vertical Slant.

83.

What is SYSTEM (OF WRITING)?

Answer: The combination of the basic design of letters and the writing movement as taught
in school make up the writing system.

84.

What is THREADY FORM?

Answer: An indefinite connective form that looks flat and wavy.
.
What is WRITING CONDITION?
Answer: circumstances under which the writing was prepared and the factors in influencing
the writers ability to write at the time of execution. It includes the writers position
(sitting, standing, abed, etc.), the paper support and backing, and the writing instrument;
writing ability may be modified by the condition of the writers health, nervous state or
degree of intoxication.

85.

86.

What is WRITING IMPULSE?

Answer: The result of the pen touching down on the paper and moving across the page, until
it is raised from the paper.
MOVEMENT IN HANDWRITING

87.

What are the KINDS OF MOVEMENT?

Answer: (1) Finger Movement- The thumb, the first and second and slightly the third fingers
are in actual motion. Most usually employed by children and illiterates. (2) Hand Movementproduced by the movement or action of the whole hand with the wrist as the center of
attraction; (3) Forearm Movement- movement of the shoulder, hand and arm with the support
of the table, and, (4) Whole Forearm Movement- action of the entire arm without resting.

88.

What are the CHARACTERISTICS OF MOTOR COORDINATION

Answer: (1) Free, smelt rounded curves; (2) Gradual changes of directions; (3) Pressure is
always in a state of change, moving from light to heavy or from heavy to light; (4) Speed

P a g e | 36
89.

What are the characteristics of FAULTY COORDINATION?

Answer: (1) Wavering and very irregular line or strokes with uncertain and unsteady
progress. There is no freedom of movement along the strokes of the letter-forms; and, (2)
Angular Line, a very common fault of coordination. Curves, large and small are not smoothly
rounded and there is no gradual change of direction.

90.

WHAT IS RHYTHM IN HANDWRITING?

ANSWER: Rhythm is succession of connected, uniform strokes in full coordination. This is
manifested by clear-cut accentuated strokes which increase and decrease in which like
perfect cones.

91.

What is characterized by succession of awkward, independent, poorly directed and disconnected

motions?
Answer: LACK OF RHYTHM

92.

Why rhythm is important?

Answer: important because one can determine if the writer normally and spontaneously write
with hesitation as if he is attempting to for another signature.

93.

What is Garland?
Answer: Links the downward stroke to the upstrokes with a flowing curve swinging from left
right. It is an easy, effortless mode of connection, written with speed.

94.

What is Angular connective form?

Answer: characterized by an abrupt stop and start in each turning point.

95.

What is STROKE?
Answer: Path trace by the pen on the paper.

TERMINOLOGIES CONCERNING STROKES

96.

What is AIRSTROKE?
Answer: The movement of the pen as it is raised from the paper and continues in the same
direction in the air.

97.

What is COVERING STROKE?

Answer: A stroke that is unnecessarily covers another stroke.

98.

What is FINAL stoke?

Answer: The ending stroke on a letter.

99.

What is UPSTROKE?
Answer: Movement of the pen away from the writer.

100.

What is SEQUENCE OF STROKE?

Answer: The order in which writing strokes are placed on the paper.

101.

What is SUPPORTED STROKES?

Answer: Upstrokes partially covering the previous down strokes.

102.

What is TRAIT STROKE?

Answer: A school of handwriting
individual writing strokes.

analysis

that

assigns

personality

trait

manners

to

QUALITIES OF THE STROKES

103.

What is Expansion?
Answer: whether the movement is extended or limited in its range with respect to both
vertical and horizontal dimension.

104.

What is Co-ordination?
Answer: whether the flow
continuous or interrupted.

of

movement

is

controlled

or

uncertain,

smooth

or

jerky,

105.

What is Speed-?
Answer: whether the movement has been rapid or slow and whether the pace has been steady
or variable.

106.

What is Pressure?
Answer: whether the pressure exerted in the movement and its upward and downward reach.

P a g e | 37
107.

What is Direction?
Answer: Left ward and right ward trend of the movement and its upward and downward reach.

108.

What is GENERAL (CLASS) CHARACTERISTICS?

Answer: those habits are part of basic writing system or which are modifications of the
system of writing found among so large a group of writes that have only slight
identification value.

109.

What is INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS?

Answer: the result of the writer`s muscular control, coordination, age, health, and nervous
temperament, frequency of writing, personality and character found in writing.

110.

What are the Indications of speed (speedy) writing?

Answer: they are:

Smooth, unbroken strokes and rounded forms.

Frequent signs or tendencies to the right.

Marked uncertain as to the location of the dots of small letters I, j & crosses
of small letter t.

Increased spontaneity of words or small letter t connected with the following

words.

Letters curtailed or degenerated almost to illegibility towards the end of words.

Wide writing- width of letters is greater than the connecting spaces adjoining it.

Great difference in emphasis between upstrokes and down strokes.

Marked simplification of letters especially capital letters.

Rising line.

Increased pen pressure.

Increase in the margin to left at the beginning of the line.

111.

What are the Indications of slow writing?

Answer: they are:

Wavering forms and broken strokes.

Frequent signs or tendencies to the left.

Conspicuous certainly as to the location of the dots of small letters I, j, or

t crosses with scarcely perceptible deviation from the intended direction.

Frequent pauses by meaningless blobs, angles, divided letters and retouches.

Careful execution of detail of letters toward the end or names.

Narrow writing.

No difference in emphasis in up stroke and down stroke.

Ornamental or flourishing connections.

Sinking lines.

112.

What are the CLASSIFICATION OF INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS?

Answer: they are

Permanent characteristics- found always in his handwriting.

Common or usual- found in a group of writers who studied the same system of writing.

Occasional- found occasionally in his handwriting.

Rare- found only in one or two persons in a group of one hundred individuals.

113.

HOW INDIVIDUAL CHARACTERISTICS ARE ACQUIRED?

Answer: acquired by:

Outgrowth of definite teaching

Result of imitation

Accidental condition or circumstances

Expression of certain mental and physical traits of the writer as affected by

education, by environment and by occupation.

114.

What are the PRINCIPLE IN HANDWRITING IDENTIFICATION?

Answer: they are:

When any two specimens of handwritings contain a combination of corresponding or

similar and specifically oriented characteristics of such number and significance as
to preclude the possibility of their occurrence by mere coincidence, and there are
no unaccounted for difference, it may be concluded that they are similar in writing
characteristics and therefore written by one and the same person.

Handwritings are fixed habits.

These writing habits become so automatic and unconscious that even by the most
strenuous effort, it is almost impossible to change them.

No duplication of handwriting by two individuals.

P a g e | 38
115.

What are the FUNDAMENTAL

PROBLEMS?
Answer: they are

LAW

WHICH

GOVERNS

THE

CONCLUSION

IN

HANDWRITING

IDENTIFICATION

A signature/handwriting naturally and genuinely written under normal condition contain all
of the individual habits of the writer`s signature which are put into it in a way that is
consistent with his writing ability and the writing quality of his signature.
A signature/handwriting is fraudulent if it contains habits, qualities or elements which
are significantly different from genuine signatures written under similar conditions.

B. SIGNATURE
116.

What is SIGNATURE?
Answer:
is the name of a person written by him/her in a document as a sign of
acknowledgement. Or, it is a name or mark that a person puts at the end of a document to
attest that he is its author or that he ratifies its contests.

117.

What is MODEL SIGNATURE?

Answer: A genuine signature that has been used to prepare an imitated or traced forgery

118.

Why THE EXAMINATION OF SIGNATURES IS CONSIDERED A SPECIALIZED BRANCH OF HANDWRITING

IDENTIFICATION, FOR THE FOLLOWING REASONS?
Answer: because:

It is a word most practiced by many people and therefore most fluently written.

It is a means to identify a person and have a great personal significance.

It is written with a little attention to spelling and some other details.

It is a word written with conscious thought about the mechanics of its production
and is written automatically.

It is the only word the illiterate can write with confidence.

119.

What are the TYPES OF SIGNATURES?

Answer: they are

FORMAL (CONVENTIONAL or COPYBOOK FORM) complete correct signature for an important

document such as will.

INFORMAL (CURSORY) usually for routine documents and personal correspondence.

a
Personalized
b
Semi-personalized

CARELESS SCRIBBLE for the mail carrier, delivery boy or the autograph collector.

120.

What are the SUGGESTED STEPS IN THE EXAMINATION OF SIGNATURE?

Answer: they are:

STEP 1- Place the questioned and the standard signatures in the juxta-position or
side-by-side for simultaneous viewing of the various elements and characteristics.

STEP 2 - The first element to be considered is the handwriting movement or the

manner of execution (slow, deliberate, rapid, etc.). The fundamental difference
existing between a genuine signature and an almost perfect forgery is in the manner
of execution.

STEP 3 Second elements to examine is the quality of the line, the presence or
tremors, smooth, fluent or hesitation. Defect in line quality is only appreciated
when simultaneous viewing is made.

STEP 4 Examine the beginning and ending lines, they are very significant,
determine whether the appearance blunt, club-shaped, tapered or/vanishing.

STEP 5 Design and structure of the letters. Determine as to roundness, smoothness,

angularity and direction. Each individual has a different concept of letter design.

STEP 6 Look for the presence of retouching or patching.

STEP 7 Connecting strokes, slant, ratio, size, lateral spacing.

STEP 8 Do not rely so much in the similarity or difference of the capital letters,
for theses are the often changed according to the whim of the writer.
oOo

P a g e | 39

PART VI
FORENSIC MEDICINE
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS

OF DEATH

1.

What is Forensic Medicine?

Answer: application of medicine in the solution of various problems in court.

2.

What is medicine?
Answer: deals with the prevention and treatment of diseases.

3.

What is pathology?
Answer: study of disease affecting the body.

4.

What is gynecology?
Answer: branch of medicine pertaining to disease of woman.

5.

What stage of muscular change which occurs 2-6 hrs after death and is characterized by
hardening of the muscles.
Answer: post-mortem rigidity (rigor mortis)

6.

When the dead body was seen by the investigator, there was a hardening of the muscles in the
face, what is the approximated time after his date?
Answer: two hours or less.

7.

What part of the body usually starts rigor mortis?

Answer: muscle of the jaw and face.

8.

What is the duration of rigor mortis during summer in the Philippines?

Answer: will lasts for 36-48 hours after death

9.

What is the duration of rigor mortis in the tropical countries like the Philippines?
Answer: 24-48 hours.

10.

What is heat stiffening?

Answer: A condition characterized by hardening of the muscles due to coagulation of muscle
protein when the dead body is exposed to intense heat.

11.

Normally, deaths temperature gradually decreases however there is an increase of temperature

due to fast, early putrefactive and chemical changes of the body. This is referred to as:
Answer: Post-mortem caloricity

12.

What is cadaveric spasm or instantaneous rigor?

Answer: it is the instant stiffening of a certain group of muscles which occurs immediately
at the moment of death associated with violent death due to extremes nervous tension,
fatigue and injury to the nervous system.

13.

The complete, continuous, and persistent cessation of respiration, circulation and almost all
brain functions of an organism is referred to as:
Answer: Somatic death

14.

What are the factors that affect the rate of cooling of the death body?
Answer: (1) Body size, (2) Death from asphyxia, (3) Age, (4) infectious disease

15.

If rigor mortis appears 2-6 hours after death, how about cadaveric spasm?
Answer: immediately at the moment of death.

16.

This refers to a fixed or permanent discoloration when the blood clotted inside the blood
vessels or has diffused to different parts of the body.
Answer: Diffusion lividity

17.

This refers to the burning of the dead body into ashes.

Answer: Cremation

18.

This voluntary contraction of muscles has a medico-legal implication because it records the
last act of life in a person.

P a g e | 40
Answer: cadaveric spasm or instantaneous rigor
19.

What is referred to when the skin of dead person, if viewed through a strong light, an opaque
will appear due to absence of floe?
Answer: Opacity of the skin

20.

A process of dissolution of tissues by the digestive action of its enzymes and bacteria that
result of softening and liquefaction of tissues and usually accompanied by liberation of foulsmelling gases and change of color of the tissues
Answer: putrification

21.

In temperate countries, the body, when exposed to air, will be reduced to skeleton in:
Answer: 5-6 months.

22.

A dead body when buried in a well-drained soil and when embalmed, it will take ________ before
an adult dead body will be reduced to skeleton.
Answer: 10 years

23.

What is referred to a method by placing the dead body in the grave?

Answer: Burial

24.

It is a form mummification wherein the forces of nature such as sunlight, warm climate or hot
dry soil influences the dead body.
Answer: Natural mummification

25.

What method of preserving the dead body for a certain period of time by the removal of the body
fluid before decomposition set in.
Answer: Embalming

26.

This is refers to a lividity when the discoloration is due to the blood pooled in the most
dependent areas of the body?
Answer: Hypostatic Lividity

27.

It is a method of judicial death wherein a poisonous substance is administered to the convict

to produce death?
Answer: Death by lethal injection

28.

This refers to the discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends to pool in the
blood vessels at the most dependent portion of the body and appears 20-30 minutes after death?
Answer: Post mortem lividity (livor mortis)

29.

Post mortem lividity (livor mortis) is completed within:

Answer: 12 hours.

30.

What body temperature is considered as a sign of death?

Answer: 15 F to 20 F

31.

What is the rate of growth of hair?

Answer: 0.4mm to 0.5mm per day

32.

It is a disputable presumption that a person not heard, seen or absent for ______ is dead.
Answer: 7 years

33.

This refers to the raising or disinterring of the dead body or remains from the grave.
Answer: Burial

34.

The dead body is subjected to autopsy by the physician and the findings will be presented to
court as evidence to:
Answer: Prove or disprove that a crime or foul play had been done to the victim

35.

What are the importances of Post-mortem Lividity?

Answer: (1) Sign of death, (2) Approximates the time of death, (3) Determines the position
of the body after death, and (4) May indicate the cause or manner of death

36.

This refers to an instance wherein a person suffering from a person hopeless incurable disease,
ailment or condition will be placed to death to lessen his sufferings.
Answer: Euthanasia or Mercy killing

37.

This refers to death which occurs unexpected and outside of will due to misadventure.
Answer: accidental death

38.

Operation is only for a living, while autopsy is done to the:

Answer: Dead body

P a g e | 41
39.

What refers to the death that occurs due to a disease or ailment in the body?
Answer: Natural death

40.

What is referred to the death due to injuries by some forms of outside force wherein the
physical injuries inflicted is the proximate cause of death?
Answer: Violent death

41.

Method of judicial death wherein the death convict is placed in front of firing squad and a
volley of fire from the gun kill the victim.
Answer: death by musketry:

42.

It is a post-mortem examination of the body after death.

Answer: autopsy or necropsy

43.

What is the purpose of autopsy or necropsy?

Answer: Determine the cause of death through the findings in the body.

44.

What is funeral?
Answer: it is the procession of the dead body followed by the grieving relatives, friends
and other persons to the place of burial in accordance with the religion, customs or
traditions.

45.

This refers to the sum total of all activities in which the physical integrity and biological
properties are maintained.
Answer: Life

46.

A method of executing death penalty by placing death convict in a closed one-way mirror
compartment and then a poisonous gas will kill the convict inside the compartment
Answer: death by gas chamber

47.

This refers to the burning of the dead body into ashes.

Answer: Cremation

48.

What is the other term of autopsy?

Answer: Necropsy

49.

What is the approximate number of days of a dead person, if the abdomen is distended with
gases, trunk blooded, hair and nails loosened from attachment, and maggots are seen?
Answer: 3 days or 72 hours

50.

When the temperature of the deads body suddenly rises due to rapid and early putrefactive
changes or some internal changes, it is undergoing
Answer: post-mortem caloricity

51.

A drop of blood which falls from a moving object or person is elongated and the splashes are
found to be concentrated around one end of the stain. As a general rule, the splashes and the
extension of the drop of blood indicates
Answer: Direction movement

52.

What is the cause of death due to a sudden and fatal cessation of the action of the hearth with
circulation included?
Answer: syncope

53.

What is refers to a condition in which the supply of oxygen to the blood or to the tissues has
been reduced below normal working level?
Answer: asphyxia

54.

Refers to the state of unconsciousness with insensibility of the pupil and conjunctive, and
inability to swallow, resulting from the arrest of the function of the brain?
Answer: Coma

55.

What is orthothanasia?
Answer: there is orthothanasia when an incurably ill person is allowed to die a natural
death without the application of any operative or treatment procedure.

56.

The human body without food loses ____ of its weight daily and a loss of 40% of the weight
results to death.
Answer: 1/24th

57.

What is length of survival of a human body without food and water?

Answer: cannot survive more than 10 days.

58.

What is the length of survival of a human body if there is water but without food?
Answer: 50 to 60 days

P a g e | 42
MEDICO-LEGAL ASPECTS OF PHYSICAL INJURY
59.

What is injury?
Answer: specific impairment of the body structure or function caused by an outside force or
agent.

60.

What is wound?
Answer: wound is a break or solution in the continuity of the skin or tissues of the body.

61.

What kind of wound when inflected to the body is immediately followed by death or is so serious
that it will endanger the life of the victim?
Answer: mortal wound

62.

What are examples of mortal wounds which affect the vital organs?
Answer: (1) brain, (2) spinal cord,(3) heart, (4) lungs, (5) liver, (6) kidney, (7) big
blood vessels.

63.

Wound which when inflicted to the body is not immediately followed by death.
Answer: non-mortal wound.

64.

What wound produced by blunt instrument?

Answer: lacerated wound

65.

What wound is produced by sharp-edge instrument?

Answer: incised wound

66.

What wound is produced by sharp pointed instrument?

Answer: punctured wound

67.

What wound is produced by a sharp-edge and sharp-pointed instrument?

Answer: stab wound

68.

What physical injury which is found at the site of the application of force.
Answer: coup injury

69.

What physical injury is found not at the site but opposite the site of the application of
force?
Answer: Contre coup injury

70.

What physical injury which is found at the site and also opposite the site of the application
of force?
Answer: Coup contre coup injury

71.

It is the physical injury which is found not at the site or opposite the site of the
application of force but in some areas offering the least resistance to the forced applied.
Answer: locus minoris resistencia

72.

What wound which involves the outer layer of the skin?

Answer: superficial wound

73.

It is a condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts of the body which produces
mechanical disruption of cell structure.
Answer: frostbite

74.

An exposure to freezing temperature characterized by cold stiffening, muscle cramps, necrosis

and gangrene of the muscles in the foot
Answer: trench foot.
What kind of burn if the body comes into contact with a moving object?
Answer: friction burn

75.
76.

It is the burn which involves the superficial layer of the skin or tissues characterized by the
redress and pain.
Answer: first degree burn (1 Burn)

77.

A form of strangulation wherein the assailant uses the arm or forearm legs or thigh in
compressing the neck of the victim.
Answer: mugging

78.

It is asphyxia by suffocation wherein there is a closure of the mouth or nose by solid objects
such as the hands, pillows or by hard surface externally.
Answer: smothering

P a g e | 43
79.

It is the obstruction of the respiratory tract by foreign bodies which may be a bolus food,
blood, false teeth or any hard material. It is usually accidental.
Answer: choking

80.

A form of traumatic crush asphyxia wherein the victim is murdered by kneeling or sitting on the
chest and with hands, the nostrils and mouth are closed. Afterwards, the cadaver is sold to
medical school to do scientific studies.
Answer: burking

81.

It is a deprivation of food and or water which is necessary for the maintenance of life and
health.
Answer: starvation or inanition

82.

Stoppage of respiration, or asphyxia due to such stoppage.

Answer: suffocation

83.

What is emphysema?
Answer: abnormal presence of air or gas in the body tissue.

SEXUAL OFFENSE AND DEVIATION

84.

What is homosexual?
Answer: a person who is sexually attracted to the same sex.

85.

What is refers to the rupture or laceration of the hymen in woman due to sexual intercourse?
Answer: defloration

86.

Refers to a condition of a woman who have not experience sexual intercourse or whose genital
organs had not been altered by coitus.
Answer: virginity

87.

What is blood?
Answer: circulating tissue of the body

88.

The red color of the blood is due to the presence of _________ in the red blood corpuscles.
Answer: hemoglobin

89.

What test is used to determine whether the blood is of human origin or not.
Answer: precipitin test

90.

When the wounded body part is the heart, the wound is ______.
Answer: mortal wounds

91.

About ______ of blood is plasma and about 90% of the plasma is water.
Answer: 65%

92.

What is the normal quantity of seminal fluid in a single ejaculation?

Answer: 1.5 to 3.5 cc

93.

What is the composition of blackpowder for firearms ammunition?

Answer: mixture of charcoal (15%), sulphur and potassium (10%), or sodium nitrate (75%)

94.

What wound is inflected when the muzzle of the gun is held directly against the body at the
time of discharge?
Answer: Contact wound

95.

What are the indications of contact wound?

Answer: (1) fabric is badly torn,(2) blackened area surrounding the bullet hole, (3)
singeing of the fibers at the entrance, (4) presence of partially burned powder residue
around the entrance hole

96.

What is produced when the gun is held from about 2 inches to a maximum of 8 inches?
Answer: smudging

97.

If the gun is held at a slightly greater distance but within the range of the powder blast
which was estimated to be about 36 inches, what is produced?
Answer: tattooing
-oOo-

P a g e | 44

2014 Reviewer in
CRIMINALISTICS

Criminalistics
is the
forensic
science of
analyzing
and
interpreting
evidence
sciences. Forensic science pertains to all sciences applied to legal problems.

using

the natural

- application of scientific techniques in collecting and analyzing physical evidence in criminal

cases.

Hans Gross - (1847-1915) An Austrian criminalist who in 1891 first used the term criminalistics.
Father of forensic publications. Wrote the book on applying all the different science disciplines
to the field of criminal investigation.

Sir
Arthur
Conan
Doyle sci-fi
author
in
late
1800.
Popularized
detection methods through his fictional character "Sherlocke Holmes".

Mathiew Orfila - (1787-1853) father of toxicology. Wrote about the detection

effects on animals.

scientific

crime

of poisons and their

Alphonse Bertillon - (1853-1914) father of anthropometry. Developed a system to distinguish one

individual person from another based on certain body requirements.

Francis Galton - (1822-1911) father of fingerprinting. Developed fingerprinting as a way to

uniquely identify individuals.

Leone Lattes - (1887-1954) father of blood stain identification. He developed a procedure for
determining the blood type (A,B,AB or O) of a dried stain.
Calvin Goddard - 1891-1955) father of ballistics. Developed the technique to examine bullets using
a comparison microscope to determine whether or not a particular gun fired the bullets.

Albert Osborn - (1858-1946) father of document examination. His work led to the acceptance of
documents as scientific evidence by the courts.

Walter McCrone - (1916-1915) father of microscopic forensics. he

microscopic techniques to examine evidence in countless court cases.

developed

and

applied

his

Edmond Locard - (1877-1966) father of the crime lab. In 1910, he started the first crime lab in an
attic of a police station. Founded the institute of criminalistics in France. His most important
contribution was the "Locards Exchange Principle".

Locard Exchange Principle

P a g e | 45
1.
2.
3.

Every contact leaves a trace

Every criminal can be connected to a crime by particles carried from the crime scene
When a criminal comes in contact with an object or person, a cross transfer of evidence
occurs.

J. Edgar Hoover - father of the FBI. Director of the FBI during the 1930s. His leadership spanned
48 years and 8 presidential administration. Organized a national laboratory to offer forensic
services to all law enforcement agencies in the US.

Goals of Forensic Science - to determine the cause, location, and time of death.
Forensic photography - sometimes referred to as police photography, forensic imaging or crime
scene photography. - is the art of producing an accurate reproduction f a crime scene or an
accident using photography for the benefit of a court or to aid in an investigation.
Photography
- is the art, science and practice of creating durable images by recording light. The word
photography was derived from the Greek word "phos" - light and "graphe" - drawing.
Photograph - is an image created by light falling on a light-sensitive surface usually photographic
film or electronic imager.
Sir John Herschel - made the word photography known to the world in a lecture before the royal
society of London on 1839.
Camera - is a device that records and stores images.
History of camera

Mo Ti - 5th century BC Chinese philosopher who noted that a pin hole can form an inverted
and focused image when light passes through the hole and into a dark area. He is the first
recorded person to have exploited this phenomenon to trace the inverted image to create a
picture.

Aristotle - in 4th century BC, descrybed observing a partial solar eclipse in 330 BC by
seeing the image of the sun projected through the small spaces between the leaves of the
tree.

Ibn Al-Haytham (Alhazen) - an Egyptian scientist who wrote about observing a solar eclipse
through a pin hole and he described how a sharper image could be produced by making the
opening of the pin hole smaller.

Roger Bacon - English philosopher and Franciscan friar who in his study of optics, included
a discussion of the physiology of eyesight, the anatomy of the eyes and brain and
considered light, distance, position, size, direct vision, reflected vision and refraction,
mirrors and lenses.

Johannes Kepler - a German mathematician and astronomer who applied the actual name
of camera obscura and later added a lens and made the apparatus transportable in the form
of a tent.

Robert Boyle a British scientist

portable camera in the 1660.

who,

with

his

assistant Robert

Hooke developed

P a g e | 46

Johann Zahn - in 1685, built the first camera obscura that was small enough for practical
use as a portable drawing aid because the only way to preserve the images produced by the
camera was to manually trace them.

Joseph Nicephore Niepce - was a french inventor who is noted for producing the first known
photographs in 1825 by using a sliding wooden box camera made by Charles and Vincent
Chevalier in Paris.

1920 - the electronic video camera tube was invented, starting a line of development that
eventually resulted in digital cameras which largely supplanted film cameras after the turn
of the 21st century.

William Henry Fox Talbot - a British inventor and pioneer of photography. He was the
inventor of calo type process, the precursor to most photographic processes of the 19th and
20th century.

Lumiere Brothers process.

Kodachrome - the first modern integral tripack color film, was introduced by Kodak in 1935.
It captured the three basic color components in a multi layer emulsion.

introduced

the

autochrome,

the

first

commercially

successful

color

Camera obscura - obscura means dark or darkened chamber room, is an optical device that projects an
image of its surroundings on a screen. It is used in drawing and for entertainment and was one of
the inventions that led to photography. The camera obscura is the forerunner to the photographic
camera.

Basic Modern Camera Parts

Lens - the light enters through the lens, this is where photo process begins.

View Finder - is what the photographer looks through to compose and in many cases to focus
the picture.

Body - the basic most part of a camera. It is the box that holds the film and the camera
controls.

Shutter Release - is a button found on many cameras used to take the picture.

Aperture - is a hole or an opening thorough which light travels. The aperture affects the
image 'sex posture by changing the diameter of the lens opening which control the amount of
light reaching the image sensor.

Image Sensor - converts the optical image to an electronic signal.

Memory Card - stores all the image information.

LCD Screen - typically replaced the view finder.

Flash - provide extra light during dim, low light situations.

P a g e | 47
-

User Control
Exposure - total amount of light allowed to fall
process
the
of
Film

Speed -

is

the

measure

of

on the photographic medium during the

taking
photograph.

photographic

films

sensitivity

to

light.

Shutter Cycle - is the process of the shutter opening, closing and resetting to where it is
ready to open again.
Shutter - is a device that allows light to pass for a determined period of time for the
purpose of exposing photographic film or light sensitive electronic sensor to light to
capture a permanent image of a scene.
Red Eye Effect - is the common appearance of red pupils in color photographs of eyes. It
occurs when using a photographic flash very close to the camera lens in ambient low light.
Photographic Emulsion - is a light sensitive colloid such as gelatin, coated into a
substance. In silver gelatin photography, the emulsion consists of silver halide crystals
suspended in gelatin and the substance may be glass, plastic film, paper or fabric.

Fingerprint - is an impression left by the friction ridge of a human finger.

Friction ridge - is a raised portion of the epidermis on the fingers and toes, the palm of the hand
or the sole of the foot, consisting of one or more connected ridge units of the friction ridge
skin.These are sometimes known as "epidermal ridges"
Dermatoglyphics - scientific study of fingerprints.
Type of Prints
1. Exemplar - "known prints" - fingerprints deliberately collected from a subject.
2. Latent - means chance or accidental impression left by the friction ridge skin on a surface
regardless of whether it is visible or invisible at the time of deposition. Although the word
latent means hidden or invisible in modern usage for forensic science.
3.Patent - chance friction ridge impressions which are obvious to the human eye
been caused by the transfer of foreign material from a finger into a surface

and which have

4. Plastic Print - is a friction ridge impression left in a material that retains the shape of the
ridge detail.
5. Electronic Recording - example, a man selling stolen watches sending images of them on a mobile
phone and those images included parts of his hands in enough detail for police to be able to
identify fingerprint patterns.
Notes:
Plantar - refers to feet and toes.
Palmar - refers to finger and palm.
Personalities

who

significantly

contributed

to

the

science

of

fingerprint.

1.

Jan Evangelista Purkinje (1787 - 1869) - a czech physiologist and professor of anatomy at
the university of Breslau, published a thesis in 1823 discussing 9 fingerprint patterns but
he did not mention any possibility of using fingerprint to identify people.

2.

Georg Von Meisner (1829 - 1905) - German anatomist who studied friction ridges.

3.

Sir William James Herschel - initiated fingerprinting in India. In 1877 at Hoogly near
Calcutta, he instituted the use of fingerprints on contracts and deeds to prevent the then

P a g e | 48
rampant repudiation of signatures and he registered government pensioners fingerprint to
prevent the collection of money by relatives after a pensioners death.

4.

Henry Faulds - a Scottish surgeon who in 1880, in a Tokyo hospital, published his first
paper on the subject in the scientific journal nature. He took up the study of "skin
furrows" after noticing finger marks on specimens of prehistoric pottery.

5.

Juan Vucetich - an Argentine chief of police who created the first method of recording the
fingerprint of individuals on file, associating this these fingerprints
to the
anthropometric system of Alphonse Bertillon.

6.

Alphonse Bertillon - created in 1879 a system to identify individuals by anthropometric

photographs and associated quantitative descriptions.

7.

Edward Richard Henry - UK home secretary who conducted an inquiry into identification of
criminals by measurements and fingerprints. The Henry Classification System of classifying
fingerprint was named after him.

8.

Azizul Hague and Hem Chandra Bose - Indian fingerprint expert who have been credited with
the primary development of a fingerprint classification system eventually named after their
supervisor Sir Edward Richard Henry.

9.

Henry P. de Forrest - used fingerprinting in the New York civil service in 1902 and by
1906. Pioneered U.S. fingerprinting.

10.

Nehemiah Grew -(1641 - 1712) - in 1684, this English physician, botanist and microscopist
published the first scientific paper to describe the ridge structure of the skin covering
the fingers and palms.

11.

Marcelo Malphigi - an anatomy professor at the university of Bologna, noted in his treatise
in 1686, ridges, spirals and loops in fingerprints, A layer of skin was named after him
"malphigi layer" which is approximately 1.8 mm thick.

12.

Mark Twain - in his memoir life on the Mississippi 1883, it mentioned a melodramatic
account of a murder in which the killer was identified by a thumbprint. Twain's novel
Pudd'n head Wilson published in 1893 includes a court room drama that turns on fingerprint
identification.

Fingerprint Sensor - is an electronic device used to capture a digital image of the fingerprint
pattern. The captured image is called a live scan.
Biometrics (Biometric Authentication) - refers to the identification of humans by their
characteristics or traits.

P a g e | 49
Latent Print - (known as dactyloscopy or hand print identification) - is the process of comparing
two instances of friction ridge skin impressions from human fingers, palm of the hand, or even toes
to determine whether these impressions could have come from the same individual.
The Most Popular Ten Print Classification System.
-

Roscher System - developed in Germany. Implemented in Germany and Japan.

Juan Vucetich System - developed in Argentina. Implemented through out South America.
Henry Classification System - developed in India. Implemented in most English speaking
countries.

In the Henry System of Classification. There are 3 basic fingerprint patterns.

1. Loop - constitute 60% to 65% of all fingerprint.
Kinds of Loop
1)ulnar Loop
2)radial Loop
2. Whorl - constitute 30% to 35% of all fingerprints.
Kinds of Whorl
1)plain Whorl
2)accidental Whorl
3)double Loop whorl
4)central Pocket Loop Whorl.
3. Arch - constitute 5% of all fingerprints.

Kinds of Arch
1)plain Arch
2)tented Arch

The Basic Fundamentals of Fingerprints are:

1. Permanence - fingerprints never change.
2. Individuality - no two fingerprints are alike.
Characteristics of a Ridge (minutia Features)
1. Ridge Ending - the end of a ridge.
2. Bifurcation - the Y-shaped split of one ridge into

two.

3. Dot - is a very short ridge that looks like a dot.

When is fingerprint
development.

ridges

formed? ans.

formed

during

the

third

to

fourth

month

of fetal

Automated Fingerprint Identification System (AFIS) - is the process of automatically matching one
of many unknown fingerprints against a database of known and unknown prints.
What is a Loop? ans. the ridges enter from one side of the finger, form a curve and then exit on
that same side.

P a g e | 50

What is a whorl? ans. ridges form circularly around a central point on the finger.
What is an Arch? ans. the ridges enter from one side of the finger, rise in the center forming an
arch
and
then
exit
the
other
side
of
the
finger.
What does a Minutiae Include?
It includes the following:

Ridge Ending - the abrupt end of a ridge.

Ridge Bifurcation - a single ridge that divides in to two ridges.

Short Ridge or Independent Ridge - a ridge that commences, travels a short distance and
then ends.

Island - a single small ridge inside a short ridge or ridge ending that is not connected
to all the ridges.
-

Ridge Enclosure - a single ridge that bifurcates and reunites shortly afterward to continue
as a single ridge.
Spur - a bifurcation with a short ridge branching off a longer ridge.
Crossover or Bridge - a short ridge that runs between two parallel ridges.
Delta - a Y-shape ridge meeting.
Core - A U-turn in the ridge pattern.

Forensic Anthropology identification.

forensic

discipline

that

studies

human

skeletal

remains

for

Forensic Odontology - study of dental features to identify a victim when the body is
otherwise unidentifiable.

Forensic ballistics
- is the science of analyzing firearms usage in crimes. It involves analysis of bullets and
bullets impact to determine information of use to a court or other part of legal system. Separately
from the ballistics information, firearm and tool mark examinations also involves analyzing
firearm, ammunition and tool mark evidence in order to established whether a certain firearm or
tool was used in the commission of crime.
Ballistics -(ballein "to throw") - is the science of mechanics that deals with the flight, behavior
and effects of projectiles especially bullet, gravity bombs, rockets or the like.
Ballistic missile - is a missile, only guided during the relative brief initial powered phase of
flight whose course is subsequently governed by the laws of classical mechanics.
Flight - is the process by which an object moves through an atmosphere by generating aerodynamic
lift, propulsive thrust, aerostatically using buoyancy or by ballistic movement without any direct
solid mechanical support from the ground.
Firearms identification - the identification of fired bullets, cartridge cases or other ammunition
components as having been fired from a specific firearm.
Rifling - is the process of making helical grooves in the barrel of a gun or firearm which imparts
a spin to a projectile around its long axis. This spin stabilize the projectile, improving
its stability
and
accuracy.
Projectile -

is

any

object

projected

into

space

by

the

exertion

of

force.

Trajectory - is the path that a moving object follows through space as a function of time.
Firearm - is a weapon that launches one or many projectiles at high velocity through confined
burning of a propellant.

P a g e | 51

Ballistic fingerprinting - involves analyzing firearm, ammunition and tool mark evidence in order
to establish whether a certain firearm or tool was used in the commission of a crime.
Gun ballistic - is the work of projectile from the time of shooting to the time of impact with the
target.
Four categories of gun ballistics
1.
2.
3.
4.

Internal/interior ballistic - the study of the processes originally accelerating the

projectile. example - the passage of a bullet through the barrel of a rifle.
Transition/intermediate ballistic - the study of the projectiles behavior when it leaves
the barrel and the pressure behind the projectile is equalized.
External/exterior ballistic - the study of the passage of the projectile through a medium,
most commonly the earths atmosphere.
Terminal ballistic - is the study of the interaction of a projectile with its target.

Colonel Calvin Hooker Goddard - father of forensic ballistic.

Some Factors to be Considered in designing a Firearm

1.

reliability of firing

2.

accuracy of projectile

3.

force of projectile

4.

speed of firing

Characteristics of a Muzzle Loader Firearm

1.

powder and bullet loaded from top of the barrel

2.

smooth bore with a round lead ball.

3.

limited range and accuracy

Accuracy is Increased
1.

by longer bore or length of metal tube

2.

putting spiral grooves in the bore (riffling)

Breech loading firearm - is a firearm in which the cartridge or shell is inserted or loaded
into a chamber integral to the rear portion of a barrel.
Sir Hiram Maxim - an American inventor of the machine gun or the maxim gun.
Richard Gatling - inventor of the Gatling gun, a machine gun with a six barrel capable of
firing 200 rounds per minute at the earliest stages of development.
Gatling Gun - a hand driven, crank operated multi barrel machine gun.

P a g e | 52
note: velocities of bullets are increased with the use of a jacket of a metal such as
copper or copper alloys that covers a lead core and allow the bullet to glide down the
barrel more easily than exposed lead. Such bullets are less likely to fragment on impact
and are more likely to traverse through a target while imparting less energy.
Fouling - deposits of unburned powder residue in the bore of a gun.
What is the indispensable tool of the firearm examiner? comparison microscope.

Firearms Terminology

Action - the part of the firearm that loads, fires, and ejects a cartridge. Includes lever
action, pump action, bolt action, and semi-automatic. The
first three are found in
weapons that fire a single shot.

Firearms that can shoot multiple rounds "repeaters" include all these types of actions but
only the semi-automatic does not require manual operation between rounds. A truly automatic
action is found on a machine gun.

Barrel - the metal tube through which the bullet is fired.

Black Powder - the old form of gun powder invented over a thousand years ago and consisting
of nitrate charcoal, and sulfur.

Bore - the inside of the barrel.

Breech - the end of the barrel attach to the action

Bullets - is a projectile propelled by firearm, sling, airgun. They are shaped or composed
differently for a variety of purposes.

round nose - the end of the bullet is blunted

hollow point - there is a central cavity in the bullet nose not covered by a metal jacket
that creates expansion when a target is struck, creating more damage

action 4 - hollow point projectile made of non fragmenting brass with radiopaque plastic
tip

hydra-Shock - hollow point projectile with soft deformable anterior and hard posterior
core.

Jacketed - the soft lead is surrounded by another metal, usually copper, that allows the
bullet to penetrate a target more easily.

wad-cutter - the front of the bullet is flattened.

semi-wad-cutter - intermediate between round nose and wad-cutter.

Butt or Buttstock - the portion of the gun which is held or shouldered.

Caliber - the diameter of the bore measured fromland to land , usually expressed in
hundredths of an inch (.22 cal) or in millimeters (9mm).

Cartridge - also
called
a
round
packages
the
bullet, propellant and primer into a single unit within a containing metallic case that is
precisely made to fit within the firing chamber of a firearm.

Parts of a cartridge

P a g e | 53
1.
2.
3.
4.

Bullet
case/shell
powder
primer

Centerfire - the cartridge contains the primer in the center of the base where it can be
struck by firing pin of the action.
Chamber - the portion of the action that holds the cartridge ready for firing.
Choke - a constriction of a shotgun bore at the muzzle that determines the pattern of the
fired shot.
Double Action - Pulling the trigger both cocks the hammer and fires the gun.

Double Barrel - two barrels side by side or one

Gauge - refers to the diameter of the barrel on a shotgun in terms of the number of lead
balls the size of the bore it would take to weigh one pound (10 gauge,12 gauge etc) "410"
gauge
really
refer to
caliber,
but
it
is
worded
as
such
to
refer
to
a
shotgun.

Hammer - a metal rod or plate that typically drives a firing pin to strike the cartridge
primer to detonate the powder

Ignition - the way in which powder is ignited. Old muzzle loading weapons used flintlock
or percussion caps. Modern guns use primers that are rimfire or centerfire.

Lands and Grooves - lands are the metal inside the barrel left after the spiral grooves are
cut to produce the rifling.

Magazine - this is a device for storing cartridges in a repeating firearm for loading into
the chamber.

Magnum - for rifles and handguns, an improved version of a standard cartridge which uses
the same caliber and bullets, but has more powder, giving the fired bullet more energy.
For shotgun loads, magnum shells have more powder and may have increased length with more
shot pellets.

Muzzle - the end of the barrel out of which the

Pistol - synonym for a handgun that does not have a revolving cylinder.

Powder - modern gun cartridges use smokeless powder that is relatively stable, of uniform
quality, and leaves little residue when ignited. For centuries black powder was used and
was quite volatile (ignited at low temperature or shock),was composed of irregularly sized
grains, and left a heavy residue after ignition ,requiring frequent cleaning of bore

Primer - a
cartridge.

volatile

substance

that

ignites

on top of the other usually on a shotgun.

bullet comes.

when

struck

to

detonate

the

powder

in

Polygraph
-

popularly referred to as lie detector. - measures and records several psychological indices
such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration and skin conductivity while the subject is asked
an sanswers a series of questions

literally means "many writings"

is derived from two Greek words "Poly"-which means many and "Graphos"- which means writing.
blood pressure
- is the pressure exerted by circulating blood upon the walls of blood vessels and is one
of the principal vital signs.

P a g e | 54

pulse - represents the tactile arterial palpitation of the heartbeat by trained fingertips.
It can also be measured by listening to the heart directly using a stethoscope.
respiration - the transport of oxygen from the outside air to thecells within tissues and
the transport of carbon dioxide in the opposite direction.
skin conductivity - also known as Galvanic sin response - is a method of measuring the
electrical conductance of the skin which varies with its moisture level.
ohmmeter - is an electrical instrument that measures electrical resistance, the opposition
to an electric current.
galvanometer - an instrument for detecting and measuring electric current.
stimuli - is applied to sensory receptor, it influences a reflex via stimulus transduction.

Personalities who contributed to the development of the polygraph machine.

Cesare Lombroso - he invented in 1895 a device to measure changers in blood pressure for
police case.
John Augustus Larson - a medical student at the University of California at Berkeley,
invented the polygraph in 1921.The device record both blood pressure and galvanic skin
response. Further work on this device was done by Leonarde Keeler.
Leonarde Keeler - was the co-inventor of the polygraph. He developed the so called cardiopneumo psychogram capable of detecting deception and worked on to produce the modern
polygraph.
William Marston - an american who used blood pressure to examine german prisoners of war.
John Reid - In 1948, developed a device which recorded muscular activity accompanying
changes in blood pressure. He claimed greater accuracy could be obtained by making the
recordings simultaneously with standard blood pressure, pulse, and respiration recordings.

Two types of present day polygraph instrumentation

1.
2.

analog
computerized - most polygraph examiners now used this.

Types of Questions in a Polygraph Test

1. Control Question - preliminary information question

2. Irrelevant Question

3. Relevant Question
In a polygraph test, the types of questions
alternates, the test is passed if the
physiological responses during the probable lie control questions are larger than those during the
relevant question.

Lie

Detection -

is

the

practice

of

determining

whether

someone

is

lying.

Three Basic Approaches To The Polygraph Test

1.

The Control Question Test (CQT) - this test compares the physiological response to
relevant questions about the crime with the response to questions relating to possible
prior misdeeds.
This test is often used to determine whether certain criminal suspects
should be prosecuted or classified as uninvolved in the crime.

P a g e | 55
2.

The Directed Lie Test (DLT) - this test tries to detect lying by comparing physiological
responses when the subject is told to deliberately lie to responses when they tell the
truth.

3.

The Guilty Knowledge Test (GKT) - this test

compares physiological responses to multiple
choice type questions about the crime, one choice of which contains information only
the crime
investigators and
the
criminal
would
know
about.

4.
3 Phases Of A Polygraph Examination\
5.

Pre-Test
Phase
the
examiner
discusses
with
the
subject the test issue, review the test questions that will be ask during the test and
assess the subjects emotional and physiological suitability to undergo the polygraph test

6.

Testing Phase - subjects physiological responses are recorded as the subject answers a set
of questions reviewed earlier

7.
8.

Post Test Phase - examiner reviews test data obtained and interprets the polygraph chart.
Conclusions That A Polygraph Examiner May Reach
1. Subject is telling the truth
2. Subject is not telling the truth
3. The result is inconclusive
* A polygraph test normally lasts between one and a half hours to two and a half hours.
* Polygraph test result in the philippines is not
admissible in evidence as proof of the guilt of an accused.
* Polygraph test is voluntary.
* The accuracy of polygraph test is about 90% provided the examiner is competent and the
polygraph machine is in good working condition.
* Polygraph is an investigative tool.
* The principle behind a lie detection test is that when the subject hears a questions
which he or she
intends to lie, the brain interprets and triggers
automatic and
uncontrollable physiological changes captured by the polygraph.
Who Uses The Polygraph
1. Law Enforcement Agencies
2. Legal Community
3. Private Sector
Kinds of Errors in a Polygraph Test
1. False Positive - occurs when a truthful examinee
is reported as being deceptive.
2. False Negative - when a deceptive examinee is
reported as truthful.
Causes of Polygraph Errors
1. Failure of examiner to properly prepare the
examinee for the examination.
2. Misreading of the physiological data on the
polygraph charts.
3. Defective polygraph machine.
Reactions - changes in blood pressure, pulse rate,
breathing and sweat

P a g e | 56

Forensic medicine
Forensic medicine - the science that deals with the application of medical knowledge to legal
question.
Clinical Forensic Medicine - involves an application of clinical methods for the administration of
justice.
Paulus Zacchias - father of legal medicine as well as father of forensic psychiatry.
Medical Ethics - deals with the moral principles which should guide members of the medical
profession in their dealings with each other, their patients and the state.
Medical Etiquette - deals with the conventional laws of courtesy observed between members of
the medical profession.A doctor should behave with his colleagues as he would have them behave with
himself.
Hippocrates - father of medicine, discussed lethality of wounds and formulated medical ethics.
Forensic Pathology - deals with the study and application of the effects of violence or
unnatural disease in its various forms in or on thehuman body, in determining the cause and manner
of death in case of violence, suspicious, unexplained, unexpected, sudden, and medically unattended
death.
Pathology - is the precise study and diagnosis of disease.
Pathologist - a medical doctor who conducts an autopsy.
Autopsy - post mortem examination of a corpse.
Other names of an autopsy
1.
2.
3.
4.

post-mortem examination
necropsy -particularly as to non human body
autopsia cadavarem
obduction

Objectives of Autopsy
1. To find out the time of death.
2. To find out the cause of death.
3. To find out the manner of death, whether
accidental, suicidal or homicidal.
4. To establish the identity of the body.
5. In new born infants, to determine live birth or
viability.
Exhumation - is the digging out of an already buried body from the grave.
Disease - is an abnormal condition affecting the body of an organism.
Cadaver - also called corpse, is a dead human body.
Carcass - dead body of an animal.
Injury - is damage to a biological organism which can be classified on various bases.
wound - is a type of injury in which the skin is torn, cut, or punctured or where blunt force
trauma causes a contusion.
Classification of wound
1.
2.

open wound - is a break in the skin's surface resulting in external bleeding.

closed wound - the skin is not broken open and remains intact.

P a g e | 57
Classification//Categories of open wounds
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.

incised wound - caused by a clean, sharp edged object such as a knife, razor or a glass
splinter.
laceration - irregular tear like wound caused by some blunt trauma.
abrasion - (grazes) - superficial wound in which the top most layer of the skin is scraped
off. Are often caused by a sliding fall
into a rough surface.
puncture wound - caused by an object puncturing the skin such as nail.
penetration wound - caused by an object such as a knife entering and coming out from the
skin.
gunshot wound - caused by a bullet or similar projectile driving into or through the body.
There may be two wounds, one at the site of entry and one at the site of exit generally
referred to as through and through.

Classification/Categories of closed wound

1.
2.

contusions - commonly known as bruises, caused by a blunt force trauma that damages tissue
under the skin.
hematoma - called blood tumor, caused by damage to a blood vessel that in turn causes blood
to collect under the skin.

Crush injury - caused

by a great or extreme amount of force applied over a long period of time.

Ante Mortem - before death.

Post Mortem - scientific term for after death.
Cadaver tag - an identification tag attached to the cadaver containing tag number, name if
identified, date/time and place of recovery, date/time of incident, gender, other pertinent
information and name of the investigator.
In articulo mortis - at the point of death.
Rigor mortis - stiffening of the body after death.
lividity - process through which the body's blodd supply will stop moving after the heart has
stopped pumping it around the inside of the deceased.
Necrophagus - this type of organism feeds directly on decomposing tissue.
37 degrees celsius or 98 degrees fahrenheit - average body temperature.
4 Categories of Death
1.
2.
3.
4.

natural causes
homicide/killing
accidental death
suicide

Vital signs -are measures of various physiological statistics often taken by health professionals
in order to assess the most basic body functions.
1.
2.
3.
4.

body temperature
pulse rate/heart rate
blood pressure
respiratory rate

Death - cessation of all biological functions that sustains a living organism.

P a g e | 58
Causes of death
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

old age
predation - biological interaction where a predator (organism that is hunting) feeds on its
prey (the organism that is attacked).
malnutrition
disease
accidents
injury

Signs of death
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

cessation of breathing
cardiac arrest - no pulse
livor mortis - settling of the blood in the lower dependents of the body.
algor mortis - reduction in body temperature following death.
rigor mortis - the limbs of the corpse become stiff and difficult to move.
decomposition - reduction into simple form of matter accompanied by strong unpleasant odor.

Cadaveric Spasm - sudden rigidity of the muscle immediately after death. A rare form of muscular
stiffening that occurs at the moment of death,persists into the period of rigor mortis and can be
mistaken for rigor mortis.
Other Names of cadaveric Spasm
1. Instantaneous rigor
2. Cataleptic rigidity
3. Instantaneous rigidity
4. Death grip
5. Post Morten spasm
When does the stiffness of death begin to disappear? after 36 hours.
What is the rate of temperature change to a body after death? after one hour, body temperature
drops 1 to 1 1/2 degrees per hour.
Dying Declaration - is a testimony that would normally barred as hearsay but may nonetheless be
admitted as evidence in certain kinds of cases because it constituted the last words of a dying
person.
Nemo Morituros Praesumitur Mentiri - a dying person is not presumed to lie.
Zombie - an animated corpse brought back to life by mystical means such as witchcraft.
Coffin Birth - (post Morten fetal extrusion) - is the expulsion of a non viable fetus though the
vaginal opening of the decomposing body of a pregnant woman as a result of the increasing pressure
of the intra abdominal gases.
Code of Hammurabi - King of Babylon (4000 to 3000 BC) is the oldest known medico legal code.
Bologna, Italy - where the first medico-legal autopsy was done.
Bartolomeo de Varignana - conducted the first medico-legal autopsy in Italy in 1302.
Fortunato Fedele - an Italian physician who in 1602 published the first book on forensic medicine.
Inquest - is the legal or judicial inquiry to ascertain a matter of fact.
Euthanasia - (mercy killing) - it means producing painless death of a person suffering from
hopelessly incurable and painful disease. It is not allowed by law in the Philippines.
Malingering/Shamming - means conscious, planned feigning or pretending disease for the sake of
gain.
The Rule of Haase - is used to estimate age of fetus.The length of the fetus in cm. divided by
five, is the duration of pregnancy in months.
Forensic Entomology - is the use of insects and their arthropod relatives that inhabit decomposing
remains to aid in legal investigations.
What are the 5 stages of insect development?
1. Eggs

P a g e | 59
2.
3.
4.
5.

Larvae
Prepupae
Pupae
Adult fly

Residence

time -

The body farm Tennessee.

this
used

defines

for

how

entomological

long

an

insect

experiment.

This

colony
place

has
exists

been
at

the

at

corpse.

University

of

Forensic chemistry
- is the application of chemistry to criminal investigation. Focuses on the chemical analysis of
substances connected to a crime.
Forensic Science - is the use of science and technology to enforce civil and criminal laws.
Blood - a specialized body fluid that circulates in the arteries and veins of vertebrate animals,
carrying oxygen to and carbon dioxide from the tissues.
Semen - the male reproductive fluid containing spermatozoa in suspension.
Moulage - is the art of applying mock injuries for the purpose of training emergency response teams
and other medical and military personnel.
Methods of Identifying Unknown Substance

Gas Chromatograph-Mass Spectrometer - useful method for the simultaneous separation,

identification and quantization of one or more
individual components of an unknown
substance or mixture.
Spectroscopy - is the study of the interaction between matter and radiated energy.
Spectrophotometer - instrument used to aide in the identification of compound.
Gas Chromatograph - a chemical analyzer and instrument for separating chemicals in a
complex sample.
Mass Spectrometry - is the analytical technique that measures the mass to charge ratio of
charged particles. It is used for determining masses of particles.
Amino Acid - the building blocks of protein coded by triplets of bases of DNA blue print.
Ammonia - a colorless gaseous alkaline compound that is very soluble in water, has
characteristics of pungent odor, is lighter than air and is formed as a result of
the decomposition of most nitrogenous organic material such as tissue from dead bodies.
Anemia - any condition in which the number of red blood cells, the amount of hemoglobin and
the volume of packed red blood cells per 100 ml of blood are less than normal. It may
result from increased destruction of red cells, excessive blood loss or decreased
production of red cells.
Aplasia - failure of an organ or tissue to develop normally.
Autolysis - the destruction of cells after death due to lack of ability to metabolize
oxygen needed by enzymes for cell activity.
Hair - any of the fine threadlike strands growing from the skin of humans, mammals, and
some other animals.

What are the 3 stages of hair growth?

1. Anagen phase - the growth

at which the hair remains in
anagen phase, the faster and
stage at any given time. The

phase. It begins in the papilla and can last up to 8 years. The span
this stage is determined by genetics. The longer the hair stays in the
longer it will grow. About 85% of the hairs on ones head are in this
hair has a follicular tag. The root bulb is flamed shaped.

2. Catagen Phase - also known as the transitional phase, allows the follicle to renew itself.
During this time which last about 2 week, the hair follicle shrinks due to disintegration and the
papilla detaches and rests, cutting the hair strand off from its nourishing blood supply while hair
is not growing during this phase. The length of the terminal fibers increase when the follicle
pushes them upward. The root is elongated.

Telogen phase - or resting phase,the hair and follicle remain dormant anywhere from 1 to 4
months,10% to 15% of the hairs in one's head are in these phase in any given time. The

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anagen phase

begins again when this phase is complete. The root

is club shaped.

Shedding - the process of normal hair loss.

Alopecia - a hair loss disease that causes the hair to spontaneously fall out. It is mainly
characterized by bald patches on the scalp or other parts of the body and can ultimately
cause baldness across the entire body.
Medulla - inner most layer of the hair shaft.
From which part of the body are most often used for hair comparison? Either head or pubic.
How to determine the likely race of the person from which a hair originated?
1. Caucasian - evenly distributed, fine pigmentation
Wavy with round cross section.
2. Mongoloid - Continuous medullation.
3. Negroid - dense, uneven pigmentation.
Rate of speed of hair growth - 1.25 cm or .05 inches per month or about 6 inches or 15 cm.
per year.
What aspect of the hair is the criminalist interested in matching?
1. matching color
2. Length
3. Diameter
4. presence or absence of medulla
5. distribution, shape, and color intensity of the pigment granules in the cortex.
What types of evidence found at the crime scene are most likely to provide evidence?

Forcible removed hair is most likely to provide useful DNA evidence because they often bear
follicular tags that are sources of nuclear DNA.
Hair from different parts of the body varies significantly in its physical characteristics.

Forensic Toxicology - deals with the medical and legal aspects of the harmful effects of chemicals
on human beings.
Forensic - comes from the Latin word "forensis" meaning forum.
Toxicology
from the Greek word toxicos - "poisonous" and "logos".
it is the study of the symptoms, mechanisms and treatments and detection of poisoning.
Poison - a substance that when introduced into or absorbed by a living organism causes
death or injury.
Toxin - an antigenic poison or venom of plant or animal origin especially one produced by
or derived from micro organisms and causing disease when present at low concentration in
the
body.
- poisonous substance produced during the metabolism and growth of certain micro
organism and some higher plant and animal species.
Venom - poisonous fluid secreted by animals and typically injected into prey by biting or
stinging or other sharp body feature.
Acute Poisoning - is exposure to poison on one occasion or during a short period of time.
Chronic Poisoning - is long term repeated or continuous exposure to a poison where symptoms
do not occur immediately or after each exposure.
Antidote - a medicine taken or given to counter act a particular poison.- a substance which
can counteract poisoning.
Mathieu Orfila - is considered to be the modern father of toxicology, having given the
subject its first formal treatment in 1813 in his "traite des poisons" also called
toxicologie generali.
Dioscorides - a Greek physician in the court of Roman emperor Nero, made the first attempt

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to classify plants according to their toxic and therapeutic effect.
Jean Stas - a belgian analytical chemist who in 1850 gave the evidence that the Belgian
count Hypolite Visart de Bocarme killed his brother in law by poisoning with nicotine.
Celsus - a roman physician from the first century, considered the father of toxicology. He
is credited with the toxicology maxim "all things are poison and nothing is without poison.
This is often condensed to "the dose makes the poison" or in latin "sola dosis facit
venenum".
Paracelsus - "Theophrastus Phillipus Aureleus Bombastus von Hohenheim (1493-1541) - believe
that his studies were above and beyond the work of celsus.
LD50 - is the dose required to kill half the members of a tested population after a
specified test duration.
Dose - a quantity of medicine or drug taken or recommended to be taken at a particular
time.
Overdose - the ingestion or application of a drug or other substance in quantities greater
than are recommended.
Carcinogen - any substance capable of causing cancer in living tissue.
Corrosive substance - is one that will destroy or irreversibly damage another surface or
substance with which it comes into contact.

Congratulation
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