1.

Under the action of mutual gravitational attraction two particles of equal mass (m) go round a circle of
radius R. The speed of each particle is :
Gm
Gm
(A)
(B)
4R
2R
(C)

Gm
R

(D)

Gm
3R

2.

A particle is thrown vertically upwards with velocity 30 m/s. The distance covered by the particle in 9th
sec (g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 185 m
(B) 355 m
(C) zero
(D) 125 m

3.

A stone is dropped into a well of 80 m deep. The sound of splash is heard 4.20 sec after the stone is
dropped. The velocity of sound in air (g = 10m/s2)
(A) 200 m/s
(B) 400 m/s
(C) 600 m/s
(D) 1200 m/s

4.

In the circuit diagram shown in figure the equivalent resistance

between A and B :
6R
13R
(A)
(B)
13
6
(C) 13 R
(D) 6 R

R
R

R
R

R
R

R
A

5.

Which of the following represent unit of power ?

(A) Newton meter/sec2
(C) Pascal m2 Ampere

(B) Volt Coulomb

(D) Voltage Current

6.

An object be placed in front of a convex lens of focal length 0.4 m. What distance should an object be
placed, so that the image is thrice the size of the object :
(A) 0.267 m
(B) 0.0267 m
(C) 2.67 m
(D) 26.7 m

7.

Work function of lithium is 2.5 eV. The maximum wavelengths of light that can cause photo electric
effect in lithium is :
(A) 487 nm
(B) 497 nm
(C) 500 nm
(D) 400 nm

8.

The light reflected by a plane mirror may form a real image :

(A) If the rays incident on the mirror are diverging
(B) If the rays incident on the mirror are converging
(C) If the object is placed very close to the mirror
(D) Under no circumstances

9.

The resistance of a metallic conductor increase with temperature due to :

(A) change in carries density.
(B) change in the dimensions of the conductor.
(C) increase in the number of collisions among the carries.
(D) increase in the rate of collisions between the carries and the vibrating atoms of the conductor.

10.

A block of mass 10 kg accelerates uniformly from rest to a speed of 2 m/s in 20 sec. The average
power developed in time interval from t = 0 to t = 20 s is :
(A) 10 W
(B) 1 W
(C) 20 W
(D) 2 W

11.

A wire carrying a current I is shaped as shown. Section AB is a quarter circle of

radius r. The magnetic field at C is directed.
(A) along the bisector of the angle ACB, away from AB
(B) along the bisector of the angle ACB, towards AB
(C) perpendicular to the plane of the paper, directed into the paper

(D) at an angle
to the plane of the paper.
4

12.

13.

14.

A 400 kg mass is placed on a rough inclined plane of angle 30. The greatest

1
forces acting parallel to the plane to keep the mass in equilibrium

(A) 1960 N
(B) 3920 N
(C) zero
(D) 980 N

Two particles are separated at a horizontal distance as shown in the

figure. Both are projected along the same line with different initial
speeds. The horizontal distance between them become zero when
time is :
3u
2x
(A)
(B)
x
u
x
x
(C)
(D)
2u
u

400 kg

30
u
u 3

30

60
x

The string and string are massless as shown in the figure. The tension (T) in the string is :
(A) m1 m2 m3 g
(B) m1 m2 k1g
(C) m2 m3 g

k1

(D) k 2 m2 m3 g

m1
T
m2
k2
m3

15.

Identify which of the following belong to the same group ?

Element
Atomic Number
X
2
Y
10
Z
5
(A) XZ
(B) XY
(C) YZ
(D) None of these

16.

In the given below set of elements one element does not belong to the set. Select this element.
27
13 A

24
12 B

(A) ABD
(C) ABC

23
11 C

22
10 D

(B) ADC
(D) BCD

17.

Identify whether the given below reaction represent redox reactions or not ?
CuSO4 aq BaCl2 aq CuCl2 aq BaSO 4 s
(A) Oxidation only
(C) Both (A) and (B)

18.

(B) Reduction only

(D) None

In electrolysis, one Na ions picks up one electron to give a Na atom. Therefore, how many electrons
are picked up by 23 grams of Na+ ions ?
(A) 1.09 1012 electrons

(B) 6.022 1022 electrons

(C) 6.022 1023 electrons

(D) 1.96 1019 electrons

19.

How many grams of neon will have the same number of atoms as 4 grams of calcium ?
(Atomic masses : Ne 20, Ca 40)
(A) 2 g (Ne) is equal to 4g of (Ca)
(B) 4 g (Ne) is equal to 6 g of (Ca)
(C) 5 g (Ne) is equal to 10 g of (Ca)
(D) 1.g (Ne) is equal to 3g of (Ca)

20.

Calculate the ratio of molecules present in 4.4 g of CO2 and 1.6 g of SO2.
(C = 12; O = 16; S = 32)
(A) 1 : 8
(B) 4 : 1
(C) 3 : 2
(D) 2 : 5

21.

Let us consider the reaction Zn Zn2 2e produces 0.76 volts of electricity, while the reaction
Cu Cu2 2e requires a supply of 0.34 volts of it to occur. What will be the total electricity
produced in this reaction ?
(A) 1.10 volt
(B) 0.85 volt
(C) 0.40 volt
(D) 0.90 volt

22.

Identify the correct arrangement of CO2 , NO2 and SO2 in order of their increasing volatility.
(A) SO2 CO2 NO2
(C) NO2 SO2 CO2

(B) NO2 CO2 SO2

(D) None of these

23.

The first ionization potential in electron volts of N and O atoms are respectively given by :
(A) 14.6 and 13.6
(B) 13.6 and 14.6
(C) 13.62 and 13.6
(D) 14.6 and 14.6

24.

Identify the correct arrangement in order of their increasing size :

Cl , S2 _ , Ca2 , Ar

25.

26.

(A) Ar Cl S2 Ca2

(B) Ca2 Ar Cl S2

(C) Ca2 Cl S2 Ar

(D) Ar S2 Cl Ca2

An aqueous solution of Na2CO3 will be :

(A) Acidic
(C) Neutral

(B) Alkaline
(D) None of these

Which of the following is a metal ?

7
3X

3
1Y

(A) Only X
(C) Only Z
27.

10
9 Z

(B) Only Y
(D) Y and Z

An organic compound A of molecular formula C2H6 O on oxidation gives an acid B with the same
number of carbon atoms in the molecules as A. Compound A is often used for sterilization of skin by
doctors. Name the compound A and B :
(A) ethyl alcohol and formic acid
(B) dimethyl ether and ethanol
(C) ethyl alcohol and acetic acid
(D) ethyl alcohol and glycol.

28.

Identify the isomers represented by the molecular formula C2H6 O ?

(A) Ethanol and ethoxyethane
(B) Phenol and dimethyl ether
(C) Ethanol and dimethyl ether
(D) Propanol and dimethyl ether

29.

Hormone involved in discharge of pancreatic juice is :

(A) Gastrin
(B) Cholecystokinin
(C) Secretin
(D) Enterogastone

30.

Genotypically the pollen grains produced by an anther belong to :

(A) One type
(B) Two types
(C) Many types
(D) All the above

31.

In a fertilized ovule, n, 2n and 3n conditions occur respectively in :

(A) Antipodal, egg and endosperm
(B) Egg, nucellus and endosperm
(C) Endosperm, nucellus and egg
(D) Antipodals, synergids and integuments.

32.

Total number of meiotic division required for forming 200 zygotes/200 grains of wheat is :
(A) 200
(B) 150
(C) 250
(D) 100

33.

Eye develops from :

(A) Ectoderm
(C) Endoderm

(B) Mesoderm
(D) Both A and B

Where is protein digestion accomplished ?

(A) Stomach
(C) Rectum

(B) Ileum
(D) Duodenum

At high altitude, RBCs of human blood will :

(A) Increase in number
(C) Decrease in size

(B) Decrease in number

(D) Increase in size

34.

35.

36.

Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight causes reaction that produces :

(A) Fluorides
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Sulphur dioxide
(D) Ozone

37.

Binding of antigen to antibody is through :

(A) Electrostatic interactions
(C) Disulphide bridges

(B) Covalent bonds

(D) Amide formation

Genes are packed in bacterial chromosome by :

(A) Acid proteins
(C) Basic proteins

(B) Histones
(D) Actin

38.

39.

The stage at which cleavage or cytokinesis begins in animal cells is :

(A) Anaphase
(B) Telophase
(C) Go Phase
(D) Interphase

40.

If all the lenticels of stem are blocked, the first to die will be :
(A) Leaves
(B) Shoot tips
(C) Roots
(D) None of the above

41.

From a window p meters high above the ground in a street, the angles of elevation and depression of
the top and the foot of another house on the opposite side of the street are and respectively.
Height of the opposite house in meters = ?
(A) p.sin .cos
(B) p(1+ tan .cot )
2
2
(C) p.sin .cos
(D) p.tan .cot

42.

If sin + cos = m and sec + cosec = n, then :

(A) 2n m (n2 1)

(B) 2m n (m2 1)

(C) 2n m (m2 1)

(D) none of these

43.

Find the point on the X-axis that is equidistant from the points (2, 5) and (2, 3)
(A) (3, 0)
(B) ( 3, 0)
(C) (2, 0)
(D) ( 2, 0)

44.

Two concentric circles have their areas in the ratio 4 : 9. Radius of the inner circle is 7cm. Diameter of
the outer circle = ?
(A) 14cm
(B) 42cm
(C) 21cm
(D) 11cm

45.

Find the area of quadrilateral ABCD. A (2, 2), B (5, 1), C (2, 4) and D (1, 5)
(A) 23 sq. units
(B) 26 sq. units
(C) 30 sq. units
(D) 32 sq. units

46.

Find the sum of all natural numbers between 200 and 1502 that are exactly divisible by 3.
(A) 348123
(B) 362163
(C) 342243
(D) 369117

47.

Two concentric circles are of radii 10 cm and 8 cm. A chord of the larger circle touches the smaller
circle. Find the length of the chord.
(A) 16cm
(B) 12cm
(C) 18cm
(D) 14cm

48.

A two digit number is 4 times the sum of its digits and twice the product of its digits. Find the number.
(A) 16
(B) 24
(C) 36
(D) 48

49.

The mid points of sides AB, BC, CA of ABC are D (2, 1), E (1, 0) and F ( 1, 3) respectively.
Coordinates of B = ?
(A) (4, 2)
(B) (0, 4)
(C) ( 2, 2)
(D) (4, 3)

50.

Find the radius of circle whose perimeter and area are numerically equal.
(A) units
(B) 2 units
2
(C) /2 units
(D) units

51.

The radius and slant height of a cone are in the ratio 7 : 13 and its curved surface area is 286 cm2.
Radius = ?
(A) 14 cm
(B) 21 cm
(C) 7 cm
(D) 7/2 cm

52.

A metallic right circular cone 20cm high and whose vertical angle is 60 is cut into two parts at the
middle of its height by a plane parallel to its base. If the frustum so obtained be drawn into a wire of
diameter 1/16 cm, find the length of the wire.
(A) 7964.4m
(B) 7969.4m
(C) 7966.8m
(D) 9764.4m

53.

ABC is an isosceles right angled . A semi circle is drawn with BC as

diameter. AB = AC = 7cm. Area of shaded region = ?
(A) 16cm2
(B) 21cm2
2
(C) 14cm
(D) 7cm2

54.

The line through P (5, 3) intersects Y-axis at Q. What is the slope of the line ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
1
1
(C)
(D)
2
3

45

55.

What are the coordinates of Q in the above question.

(A) (0, 2)
(B) (0, 2)
(C) (0, 3)
(D) (0, 3)

56.

In the given fig. AB is the diameter of a circle with centre O.

BCD = 130 DAB = ?
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 50
(D) 65

57.

58.

In the above question DBA = ?

(A) 20
(C) 30

C
130

(B) 50
(D) 40

O is the centre of the circle and AB is a tangent at B. AB = 15cm

and AC = 7.5cm. Find the radius of the circle :
(A) 11.25cm
(B) 11.50cm
(C) 11.75cm
(D) 12cm

D
A

59.

In the above question AC x AD = ?

(A) AO2
(C) AB2/2

60.

What is the condition if one root of the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 is double the other ?
(A) b2 = 9ac/2
(B) b2 = 2ac
2
(C) b = 8ac
(D) b2 = ac

61.

How the liberty was portrayed by the artists during the French Revolution ?
(A) Red Cap
(B) Swastik
(C) Pair of weighing scles
(D) None of the above

62.

Which of the following nations was represented by Marianne, female allegory ?

(A) Germany
(B) Austria
(C) France
(D) England

63.

Which of the following rulers of France was force to flee in 1848 revolution ?
(A) Louis XVI
(B) Louis Philippe
(C) Louis XIV
(D) Napoleon

64.

When was the Vietnamese Communist Party (Vietnam Cong San Dang) formed by Ho Chi Minh ?
(A) 1929
(B) 1930
(C) 1931
(D) 1932

65.

Who was the president of congress session in December 1929 at Lahore ?

(A) Motilal Nehru
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Rajendra Prasad

(B) AB2
(D) 2AB2

66.

For the rich peasants the fight for Swaraj was a struggle against ?
(A) high prices of grains
(B) Low prices of grains
(C) high revenues
(D) None of the above

67.

In 1917 Gandhiji organized a Satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda district for :
(A) Remission of loans
(B) Remission of revenue
(C) Grant of loans
(D) Relaxation of revenue collection

68.

What is El Dorado in South America ?

(A) The place where Columbus landed
(C) A fabled city of gold

(B) A salve market

(D) A famous silver mining area

69.

Which one of the following is Nobel Prize winning writes who is a descendent of indentured labour
from India ?
(A) Salman Rushdie
(B) V.S.Naipaul
(C) Arundhati Roy
(D) Bob Marley

70.

During the colonial period which ports replaced Surat and Hoogly ports ?
(A) Bombay and Orissa
(B) Bombay and Calcutta
(C) Masulipatam and Calcutta
(D) None of the above

71.

Who developed the principle of Garden City ?

(A) Thomas Hardy
(C) Charles Booth

(B) Charles Dickens

(D) Ebenezer Howard

72.

Which of the following statements does not describe a Chawl ?

(A) They were multistoried structures
(B) Working class people lived here
(C) They are owned by the government
(D) They were in the native part of town

73.

Which one among the following is an ancient name of Tokyo ?

(A) Osaka
(B) Nagano
(C) Edo
(D) Gifu

74.

Which of the following novels inspired many kinds of freedom fighters ?

(A) Indulekha
(B) Sewasadan
(C) Pariksha-Guru
(D) Anandamath

75.

Resources which are found in a region but have not been utilized are called ?
(A) Developed resources
(B) Stock
(C) International Resource
(D) Potential resources

76.

Which of the following state is not rich in minerals ?

(A) Haryana
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Madhya Pradesh

77.

Which one of the following is an example of rare species ?

(A) Black buck
(B) Blue Sheep
(C) Hornbill
(D) Mithun

78.

Which one of the following tree is not considered a sacred tree in India ?
(A) Peepal
(B) Neem
(C) Banyan
(D) Mango

79.

Which of the following is a source of fresh water ?

(A) Precipitation
(B) Surface run off
(C) Groundwater
(D) All the above

80.

Which of the following river is not having any multi-purpose river project.
(A) Satluj Beas
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Narmada
(D) Yamuna

81.

Cultivation of coffee is confined to which of the following hills ?

(A) Nilgiri
(B) Aravali
(C) Shivalik
(D) None of the above

82.

What is the position of India in the production of oil seeds in the world ?
(A) Largest producer
(B) Second Largest producer
(C) Third largest producer
(D) None of the above

83.

Which of the following is not a quality of copper ?

(A) Malleable
(B) Ductile
(C) Good Conductor
(D) Bad Conductor

84.

Which country is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods ?
(A) India
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Pakistan
(D) China

85.

Which one of the following is a tidal port ?

(A) Kandla
(C) Marmagao

(B) Kochi
(D) Vishakhapatnam

When was the air transport nationalized ?

(A) 1953
(C) 1955

(B) 1954
(D) 1956

86.

87.

In which of the following states largest wind farm cluster is located ?

(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu

88.

Which of the following is an important plantation crop in Karnataka ?

(A) Tea
(B) Coffee
(C) Rubber
(D) Sugarcane

89.

Among the following countries to which one do Indian Tamils belong to :

(A) Belgium
(B) Germany
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) India

90.

When was the system of government in Belgium changed from unitary to federal government ?
(A) 1993
(B) 1994
(C) 1995
(D) 1996

91.

By whom was the Civil Rights Movements led in the USA.

(A) Martin Luther King Sr.
(B) Nelson Mandela
(C) Martin Luther King Jr.
(D) None of the above

92.

What is the worlds average percentage of women in parliaments ?

(A) 15.8%
(B) 17.8 %
(C) 16.8 %
(D) 18.8 %

93.

Which of the following movement is a specific issue movement ?

(A) Womens movement
(B) Environmental movement
(C) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(D) None of the above

94.

Which of the following countries has bi-party system ?

(A) U.S.A
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh

95.

Which of the following has prepared the Human Development Report ?

(A) UNO
(B) WHO
(C) IMF
(D) UNDP

96.

Which of the following sectors generate services rather than goods ?

(A) Primary
(B) Tertiary
(C) Secondary
(D) None of the above

97.

Which of the following is not a modern form of money ?

(A) Currency
(B) Deposits
(C) Draft
(D) None of the above

98.

In 2006 how many countries were members of the W70 ?

(A) 139
(B) 149
(C) 159
(D) 169

99.

When was Right to Information Act passed ?

(A) 2004
(C) 2006

100.

(B) 2005
(D) 2007

On which of the following products ISI mark is used ?

(A) Gas Stove
(B) Chocolate
(C) Fruit Juice
(D) Cold Drink

* * * * *

Answers
1.
10.
19.
28.
37.
46.
55.
64.
73.
82.
91.
100.

(A)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(D)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(A)

2.
11.
20.
29.
38.
47.
56.
65.
74.
83.
92.

(C)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(D)
(C)

3.
12.
21.
30.
39.
48.
57.
66.
75.
84.
93.

(B)
(B)
(A)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(D)
(C)
(D)
(A)
(C)

4.
13.
22.
31.
40.
49.
58.
67.
76.
85.
94.

(B)
(C)
(C)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(A)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(A)

5.
14.
23.
32.
41.
50.
59.
68.
77.
86.
95.

(D)
(C)
(A)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(B)
(C)
(C)
(A)
(D)

6.
15.
24.
33.
42.
51.
60.
69.
78.
87.
96.

(B)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(B)

7.
16.
25.
34.
43.
52.
61.
70.
79.
88.
97.

(B)
(C)
(B)
(B)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(C)

8.
17.
26.
35.
44.
53.
62.
71.
80.
89.
98.

(B)
(D)
(A)
(A)
(C)
(C)
(C)
(D)
(D)
(C)
(B)

9.
18.
27.
36.
45.
54.
63.
72.
81.
90.
99.

(D)
(C)
(B)
(D)
(B)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(A)
(A)
(B)