Directions (questions 1 to 5): Read the following information and answer the questions given

below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members standing in a row (not necessarily in the same
order) facing north.
(ii) C and B have as many members between them as G and C have between them.
(iii) D, who is 3rd from the extreme left, is 3rd to the left of E.
(iv) A and D are neighbors and F and C are neighbors.

1. Which of the following statements may be false?

(a) A is the 3rd to the left of F
(b) D is 3rd to the left of E
(c) F is 3rd the right of A
(d) B is 3rd to the left of C
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

2. Which of the following statements is true?

(a) C and E are neighbors
(b) E is to the immediate left of F
(c) C is to the immediate left of D
(d) A is to the immediate left of D
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

3. Who is at the extreme right?

(a) Data inadequate
(b) G
(c) B
(d) E
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

4. Which of the following given two pairs of neighbors?

(a) A, C and D, C
(b) A, B and E, G
(c) D, C and E, F
(d) C, F and C, E
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

5. What is the position of F?

(a) Immediate to the right of E.
(b) Third to the left of G
(c) Immediate to the left of C
(d) 5th to the right of B
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

6. Four of the following five groups of letters are alike in some way while one is different.
Find out which one is different.
(a) ISLOJ
(b) LUOQM
(c) AKDGB
(d) FPILG
(e) NXQTO
Ans (b)

7. In the sequence given below the sum of the two digits which immediately precede the
digit ‘4′ exceeds the sum of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 4 and sum
of the two digits which immediately follow the digit 6 exceeds the sum of the two digits
which immediately precede the digit 6. How many such 4’s and 6’s together are
there?
54462635642843766483
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

8. Below are given six three-digit numbers. The digits comprise of numeric and letters. The
letter indicates its serial order in the English alphabet. What will be the middle digit of the
4th number when the numbers are arranged in the descending order after interchanging
numeric in each number without altering the place of letter in the number?
19F, 2H9, 98B, D76, 7A6, 61E
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 6
(d) 7
(e) None of these
Ans (e)

Directions (Q.9 & 10): In a code language any letter which is immediately after or before a
vowel in the English alphabet is substituted by that vowel and any vowel i.e. A, E, I, O and U is
substituted by the letter immediately following that vowel in the English alphabet.

9. How can the word FEVERISH be written in that code language?

(a) EDVDRJSI
(b) EFUFRHSI
(c) EFUFRJSI
(d) EDUFRJSI
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

10. How can the word CONFEDERATION be written in that code language?
(a) CPOGFEDRBUTPO
(b) CPOEFEFRBUJPO
(c) CNOEFEFRBUHNO
(d) CONFFDERATION
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

11. If each of the vowels i.e. A, E, I, O, & U along with the 3rd letter to its right in the
alphabet are taken out and arranged one after the other in the same order followed by the
remaining letters of the alphabet, which of the following will be 5th to the left of the 19th
letter from the left in the new arrangement? A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X
YZ
(a) G
(b) H
(c) J
(d) W
(e) none of these
Ans (a)

12. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SPONTANEOUS which have number of
letters between them in the word one less than the number of letters between them in
English alphabet?
(a) five
(b) one
(c) four
(d) Two
(e) Three
Ans (a)

13. Four of the following five have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one
does not belong to the group?
(a) BROTHER : DORVEHT
(b) ENGLISH : GGNNSIJ
(c) ANOTHER : CONVEHT
(d) BETWEEN : DTEZEEP
(e) HUSBAND : JSUDNAF
Ans (d)

14. Which pair of the letters in the word BEAUTIFUL has the same relationship between its
letters with respect to their position in the English alphabet as the pair EA in that word has
between its letters?
(a) IB
(b) LF
(c) IE
(d) FL
(e) TL
Ans (c)

15. Which of the following relates to FLOWER in the same way as RTERBN relates to
SECTOR?
(a) RWLGPF
(b) EOFKUQ
(c) EOFMXS
(d) RWLEPD
(e) RWLEND
Ans (e)

16. If arranged properly which one of the following is not a river in India.
(a) ANUMAY
(b) IHSOK
(c) TABROC
(d) ADAMRAN
(e)None of these
Ans (c) It is CORBAT. It is a National Park

17. If the following words are arranged in a natural sequence, which word would be the
first.
(a) Night
(b) Negative
(c) Neighbour
(d) Near
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

18. In an office having 55 employees men out number the women by 15. How many women
are working in that office.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 40
(d) 50
(e) None of these
Ans (b)

19. Reaching a place of appointment on Friday I found that I was two days earlier than the
scheduled day. If I had reached on the following Wednesday how many days late would I
have been.
(a) one day
(b) two days
(c) three days
(d) four days
(e) None of these
Ans (c)

20. Reena traveled from point A to a distance of 10 feet east at point B. She then turned
right and walked 3 feet. Again she turned right and walked 14 feet. How far is she from the
starting point.
(a) 4 feet
(b) 5 feet
(c) 24 feet
(d) 25 feet
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

Directions (Questions 21 to 25):- One of the words given in the alternatives cannot be formed
by using the letters given in the question. Find out that word.

21. ENCOURAGE
(a) ANGER
(b) GREEN
(c) USAGE
(d) COURAGE
(d) None of these
Ans (c) There is no alphabet ‘S’ in the question

22. CONCENTRATE
(a) CENTRE
(b) CONCERN
(c) TREAT
(d) REASON
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

23. INTRANSIGENT
(a) STAIN
(b) TRAIN
(c) RESIGN
(d) TRACE
(e) None of these
Ans (d)

24. MAGNETIC
(a) MENACE
(b) GAIN
(c) NAME
(d) GAME
(e) None of these
Ans (a)

25. ENTHUSIASM
(a) MITE
(b) ASSIST
(c) ATHENS
(d) SENT
(e) None of these
Ans (b)
1. Though his view is correct his behavior was impertinent
(a) healthy
(b) respectful
(c) inadequate
(d) smooth
(e) impressive
Ans (b)

2. The commission took two years to sift through the massive collection of documents.
(a) meager
(b) heavy
(c) light
(d) short
(e) ugly
Ans (c)

3. The Minister’s speech precipitated the matter.

(a) aggravate
(b) create
(c) defer
(d) push
(e) pull
Ans (c)

4. The chairman rebuked the accounts officer.

(a) received
(b) awarded
(c) invited
(d) strengthened
(e) praised
Ans (b)

5. The manager is quite tactful and handles the workers union very effectively.
(a) disciplined
(b) naive
(c) strict
(d) loose
(e) relaxed
Ans (b)

Direction (Questions 6 to 10): Pick out the word synonymous with the one in the sentence
given below.

6. After the dismal show the caption resigned his job.

(a) poor
(b) sorrowful
(c) minimum
(d) short
(e) miser
Ans (a)

7. The boy gave a graphic account of the theft.

(a) picture
(b) drawing
(c) vivid
(d) broad
(e) vague
Ans (c)

8. The soldier displayed exceptional courage and saved the members of his platoon.
(a) avoidable
(b) unusual
(c) strange
(d) abnormal
(e) new
Ans (b)

9. The police officer found that the documents recovered were fabricated.
(a) prepared
(b) forged
(c) genuine
(d) historical
(e) constricted
Ans (b)

10. In spite of their efforts, they could not make much headway.
(a) progress
(b) thinking
(c) efforts
(d) starts
(e) results
Ans (a)

Fill up to blanks in the following Questions from 11 to 18 picking out from the choices.
11. Mahesh _____ me coming to his table, he smiled and ___ me a chair
(a) looked, gave
(b) welcomed, took
(c) saw, offered
(d) found, signaled
(e) met, sat
Ans (c)

12. The counter Clerk was very busy and ____ not pay any ___ to Sohan’s request.
(a) did, attention
(b) had, cash
(c) could, respect
(d) can, help
(e) Certainly, acceptance
Ans (a)

13. We are ___ to have him ____ here to make this function a great success
(a) happy, arrive
(b) wonderful, again
(c) sure, come
(d) pleased, over
(e) proud, leave
Ans (d)

14. Satyam ___ another feather ___ his cap by his performance in one day match.
(a) created, by
(b) took, in
(c) captured, from
(d) kept, in
(e) added, to
Ans (e)

15. The state Govt. staff ___ threatened to launch an indefinite strike from next month to
___ their demands.
(a) have, press
(b) did, get
(c) were, meet
(d) nearly, fulfill
(e) has, press
Ans (a)

16. The speech ___ with subtle threats has resulted in ___ tension.
(a) full, escalating
(b) started, reduced
(c) followed, continuous
(d) replete, increased
(e) forced, dissolving
Ans (d)

17. By long queues and bad weather the voters__ their way to the polling stations ___ a
lot.
(a) undaunted, made
(b) making, suffered
(c) encouraged, prepared
(d) going, dropped
(e) satisfied, turned
Ans (b)

18. The CM ____ the house that ____ action would be taken against all those involved in
corruption.
(a) instructed, preventive
(b) called, stick
(c) assured, stringent
(d) reiterated, strictly
(e) informed, constructive
Ans (c)

Direction (Questions 19 to 25):In each of the following questions , a part of sentence is given
with underline. Below each sentence, four choices numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) are given which
can substitute the part of the sentence printed with underline. Find out the choice which can
correctly substitute that part of the sentence. The number of that choice is the answer. If
‘No correction needed’ is your answer, the choice is (e).

19. He has received no other message than an urgent telegram asking him to rush village
soon.
(a) asked him to rush his village
(b) asking him to have to his village
(c) asking him to rush to his village
(d) asking him rushing at his village
(e) No correction required
Ans (a)

20. We must take it granted that Anju will not come for today’s function.
(a) take it for granted
(b) taking it granted
(c) took it as granted
(d) have it granted
(e) Non correction required
Ans (a)

21. I earnestly believes that you will visit our relatives during your trip to Mumbai.
(a) had hardly believe that
(b) sincerely believe
(c) certainly believing that
(d) could not believe
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)

22. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been ready by 7.30 pm so that we can reach
the station in time
(a) were
(b) must be
(c) are
(d) should have
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)

23. Binita unnecessarily picked up a quarrel with Sanjay and left the party.
(a) has picked up
(b) picked on
(c) picked
(d) picking up
(e) No correction required
Ans (e)

24. Raja has the guts to rise from the occasion and come out successfully.
(a) in rising from
(b) to raise with
(c) to rise against
(d) to rise to
(e) No correction required
Ans (d)

25. I need not offer any explanation, my behaviour is speaking itself.

(a) will speak to itself
(b) speaks for itself
(c) has been speaking
(d) speaks about itself
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)

Direction (Question 1 to 5): Mark the part of the sentence which has an error. If there is no
error, mark ‘e’.

1. Prashant could reached by now if he had gone by taxi.

(a) could reach
(b) reached
(c) should reach
(d) could have reached
(e) No correction required.
Ans (d)
2. Last year the Club has received a large donation.
(a) had received
(b) has to receive
(c) has to receive
(d) receives
(e) No correction required
Ans (a)

3. Sangita has managed to complete the work I gave her.

(a) would have managed
(b) has management
(c) had to manage
(d) has to manage
(e) No correction required.
Ans (e)

4. Venkat tries to make me change my mind but I was firm.

(a) tried
(b) trying
(c) would try
(d) had been tried
(e) No correction required
Ans (a)

5. Naveen has left when I reached his home.

(a) has to leave
(b) had left
(c) had leave
(d) leaves
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)

Direction (Question 6 to 15):Pick out the most effective words from the given words to fill in
the blank to make the sentence complete.

6. Although I was doubtful, my mother was …. that I would pass.

(a) firm
(b) uncertain
(c) decided
(d) sure
(e) believed
Ans (d)

7. Satosh is …. strong to be beaten by the other wrestlers.

(a) as
(b) much
(c) so
(d) more
(e) too
Ans (e)

8. They ….. no attention to what people say about them.

(a) keep
(b) listen
(c) pay
(d) take
(e) mind
Ans (c)

9. Mukesh is not happy with his present job …. the salary is very low.
(a) although
(b) even if
(c) in spite of
(d) their
(e) as
Ans (e)

10. Neelam is intending to accompany them on …. next trip abroad

(a) her
(b) their’s
(c) our
(d) their
(e) its
Ans (d)

11. Rashmi has been suffering ….. fever for the last three days.
(a) in
(b) from
(c) for
(d) with
(e) against
Ans (b)

12. Simmi got scared when the beggar stared …. her.
(a) over
(b) on
(c) about
(d) at
(e) to

13. When I saw him in torn clothes, I was ….. by surprise.

(a) taken
(b) took
(c) takes
(d) taking
(e) take
Ans (a)

14. The Cat was …. by a speeding truck.

(a) run over
(b) crossed over
(c) killed over
(d) went over
(e) moved over
Ans (a)

1. Though his view is correct his behavior was impertinent

(a) healthy
(b) respectful
(c) inadequate
(d) smooth
(e) impressive
Ans (b)

2. The commission took two years to sift through the massive collection of documents.
(a) meager
(b) heavy
(c) light
(d) short
(e) ugly
Ans (c)
3. The Minister’s speech precipitated the matter.
(a) aggravate
(b) create
(c) defer
(d) push
(e) pull
Ans (c)

4. The chairman rebuked the accounts officer.

(a) received
(b) awarded
(c) invited
(d) strengthened
(e) praised
Ans (b)

5. The manager is quite tactful and handles the workers union very effectively.
(a) disciplined
(b) naive
(c) strict
(d) loose
(e) relaxed
Ans (b)

Instructios (Questions 6-12 ): Pick out the word synonymous with the one in the sentence
given below.
6. After the dismal show the caption resigned his job.
(a) poor (b) sorrowful
(c) minimum
(d) short
(e) miser
Ans (a)

7. The boy gave a graphic account of the theft.

(a) picture
(b) drawing
(c) vivid
(d) broad
(e) vague
Ans (c)

8. The soldier displayed exceptional courage and saved the members of his platoon.
(a) avoidable
(b) unusual
(c) strange
(d) abnormal
(e) new
Ans (b)

9. The police officer found that the documents recovered were fabricated.
(a) prepared
(b) forged
(c) genuine
(d) historical
(e) constricted
Ans (b)

10. In spite of their efforts, they could not make much headway.
(a) progress
(b) thinking
(c) efforts
(d) starts
(e) results
Ans (a)

Instructios (Questions 11-18 ):Fill up to blanks in the following Questions picking out from the
choices.
11. Mahesh _____ me coming to his table, he smiled and ___ me a chair
(a) looked, gave
(b) welcomed, took
(c) saw, offered
(d) found, signaled
(e) met, sat
Ans (c)

12. The counter Clerk was very busy and ____ not pay any ___ to Sohan’s request.
(a) did, attention
(b) had, cash
(c) could, respect
(d) can, help
(e) Certainly, acceptance
Ans (a)

13. We are ___ to have him ____ here to make this function a great success
(a) happy, arrive
(b) wonderful, again
(c) sure, come
(d) pleased, over
(e) proud, leave
Ans (d)

14. Sachin ___ another feather ___ his cap by his performance in one day match.
(a) created, by (b) took, in (c) captured, from
(d) kept, in (e) added, to
Ans (e)

15. The state govt staff ___ threatened to launch an indefinite strike from next month to ___
their demands.
(a) have, press (b) did, get
(c) were, meet
(d) nearly, fulfill
(e) has, press
Ans (a)

16. The speech ___ with subtle threats has resulted in ___ tension.
(a) full, escalating
(b) started, reduced
(c) followed, continuous
(d) replete, increased
(e) forced, dissolving
Ans (d)

17. By long queues and bad weather the voters__ their way to the polling stations ___ a lot.
(a) undaunted, made
(b) making, suffered
(c) encouraged, prepared
(d) going, dropped
(e) satisfied, turned
Ans (b)

18. The CM ____ the house that ____ action would be taken against all those involved in
corruption.
(a) instructed, preventive
(b) called, stick
(c) assured, stringent
(d) reiterated, strictly
(e) informed, constructive
Ans (c)

Instructios (Questions 18-24 ) : In each of the following questions a part of sentence is given
with underline. Below each sentence, four choices numbered (a), (b), (c), (d) are given which
can substitute the part of the sentence printed with underline. Find out the choice which can
correctly substitute that part of the sentence. The number of that choice is the answer. If
‘No correction needed’ is your answer, the choice is (e).
18. He has received no other message than an urgent telegram asking him to rush village soon.
(a) asked him to rush his village
(b) asking him to have to his village
(c) asking him to rush to his village
(d) asking him rushing at his village
(e) No correction required
Ans (a)

19. We must take it granted that Madhu will not come for today’s function.
(a) take it for granted
(b) taking it granted
(c) took it as granted
(d) have it granted
(e) Non correction required
Ans (a)

20. I earnestly believes that you will visit our relatives during your trip to Bombay.
(a) had hardly believe that
(b) sincerely believe
(c) certainly believing that
(d) could not believe
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)

21. The train will leave at 8.30 pm, we have been ready by 7.30 pm so that we can reach the
station in time
(a) were
(b) must be
(c) are
(d) should have
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)

22. Maria unnecessarily picked up a quarrel with Ram and left the party.
(a) has picked up
(b) picked on
(c) picked
(d) picking up
(e) No correction required
Ans (e)

23. Anand has the guts to rise from the occasion and come out successfully.
(a) in rising from
(b) to raise with
(c) to rise against
(d) to rise to
(e) No correction required
Ans (d)

24. I need not offer any explanation, my behaviour is speaking itself.

(a) will speak to itself
(b) speaks for itself
(c) has been speaking
(d) speaks about itself
(e) No correction required
Ans (b)

25.Pick out the most effective words from the given words to fill in the blank to make the
sentence complete.
Although I was doubtful, my mother was …. that I would pass.
(a) firm
(b) uncertain
(c) decided
(d) sure
(e) believed
Ans (d)

Directions (Q 1-5): The following sentences contain errors in grammar, usage,

diction (choice of words) or idioms and spellings. No sentence, however, contains
more than one error. Each sentence has been broken up into four parts sequentially
(1, 2, 3, 4). Choose the part that has the mistake and mark your answer.

1. We have no objection (1)/ to him participating in the debate (2)/ provided he cares
(3)/ to observe the rules formulated by the expert committee (4).

2. There is the idea of competition, natural selection and the survival (1)/ of the fittest
which purpose to explain (2)/ the natural and automatic process (3)/ of evolution and
development (4).

3. In spite of their pressing into service several fire-fighters (1)/ they found it difficult
(2)/ to put off (3)/ the fire which was spreading fast to the neighbouring buildings (4).

4. Rabindranath Tagore, the great Indian poet, born (1)/at a time (2)/ when there was a
confluence (3)/of three revolutionary movement (4).
5. The assistant engineer was advised to give (1)/the building contract to whomever
(2)/ he believed (3)/ had a strong sense of responsibility (4).

Directions (Q 6 – 8): Out of the given choices marked 1-4, select the best substitute
for the leading sentence. Mark the correct choice as the answer.

6. One who is determined to take exact full vengeance for wrongs done to him:

1. vindictive

2. vengeful

3. Inductor

4. Candice

7. Custom of having many wives:

1. Homogamy

2. Polygamy

3. Matrogamy

4. Monogamy

8. A person who has no money to pay off his debts:

1. Insolvent

2. Beggar

3. Debtor

4. Creditor

Directions (Q 9-10): Give the correct antonyms of the following words out of the
given choices below the leading word.

9. AUTONOMY:

1. Independent

2. Independence

3. Dependence
4. Proudy

10. ONEROUS:

1. Tough

2. Difficult

3. Easy

4. Complicated

Directions (Q 11-15): Find out the correct choice no. as the answer after changing
the given sentences from Active voice to passive voice and vice versa.

11. A song will be sung by him.

1. He will be sing a song

2. He would sing a song

3. He will sing a song

4. He shall sing a song

12. They had already tried this plan.

1. This plan had already tried by them.

2. This plan had already being tried by him.

3. This plan had been already tried by them

4. This plan had already been tried by them

13. Can you please her?

1. Can she pleased by you?

2. Could she pleased by you?

3. Can she pleased by you?

4. Can she be pleased by you?

14. The child is not cutting teeth.

1. Teeth are not being cutting by the child

2. Teeth are not being cut by child

3. Teeth are not cut by the child

4. Teeth are not cutting by child

15. She was not paying the taxes.

1. The taxes not paid by her

2. The taxes are not being paid by her

3. The taxes were not being paid by her

4. The taxes is not being paid by her

Directions (Q 16-20): The questions that follow the passages are based on the text of
the passages. Point out the correct answers.

Liberty is not a personal affair only, but a social contract. It is an accommodation of

interests. In matters which do not touch anybody else’s liberty of course, I may be as free
as I like. If I choose to go down the Strand in a dressing-gown, with long hair and bare
feet, who shall say me nay? You have liberty to laugh at me, but I have liberty to be
indifferent to you. And if I have a fancy for dyeing my hair, or waxing my moustache
(which heaven forbid), or wearing a tall hat, a frock coat and sandals, or going to bed late
or getting up early, I shall follow my fancy and ask no man’s permission. I shall not
inquire of you whether I may eat mustard with my mutton. I may like mustard with my
mutton. And you will not ask me whether you may follow this religion or that, whether
you may marry the dark lady or the fair lady, whether you may prefer long fellow to
Wordsworth, or champagne to coca cola.

16. ‘Not a personal affair’ means ______

1. not enjoyed in person.

2. not having individual affairs.

3. not concerned with individuals.

4. None of these

17. “Accommodation of interests” means

1. a place for living of interests

2. adjustment of individual interests

3. adjustment of personal ends

4. None of these

18. “Indifferent to” can be replaced by ______

1. having no interest in.

2. unconcerned about.

3. not worried about.

4. None of these

19. The word ‘fancy’ has been used twice in the passage. It means:

1. liking; liking

2. Imagination; Imaginative

3. liking; whim

4. None of these

20. ‘Inquire of you’ means ______

1. Inquire from you

2. Inquire about you

3. Inquire into your views

4. None of these

Directions (Q 21-25): Fill in the blanks with suitable propositions/words given

below.

21. She was debarred ______ appearing in the exam.

1. for

2. of
3. from

4. None of these

22. His views did not coincide ______ those of his wife.

1. to

2. on

3. for

4. with

23. If you had come earlier, we ______ to see the movie.

1. would go

2. would be going

3. will have gone

4. would have gone

24. He lives ______ Andheri ______ Bombay.

1. in, in

2. at, at

3. in, at

4. at, in

25. I am astonished ______ her way of talking.

1. at

2. with

3. on

4. upon

Directions (Q 26-28): In each of the following questions an idiomatic expression,

followed by the possible meanings numbers 1 to 5 is given. From the given choices,
find the choice number which gives the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression
and mark the choice number as your answer.

26. To smell a rat

1. to see sings of plague epidemic

2. to get bad smell of a dead rat

3. to suspect foul dealing

4. to be in a bad mood

27. To have an axe to grind

1. a private end to serve

2. to fail to arouse interest

3. to have no result

4. to work for both sides

28. To eke out

1. To earn a living

2. To rush out

3. To finish oil

4. To go out of the way

Directions (Q 29-30): In the following sentences idioms/proverbs have been used,

followed by their meaning in choice number 1 to 5. Mark the correct choice number
as answer.

29. I raked my brains to solve this difficult problem.

1. I read number of books

2. I consulted several people

3. I used my common-sense

4. I subjected my mind to hard thinking

30 He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high hand.

1. sympathetically

2. kindly

3. democratically

4. oppressively

Directions (Q 31-33): Mark the correct choice number which is the meaning
(synonym) of the leading word.

31 Garnish:

1. to adorn

2. to worship

3. to garland

4. to excuse

32. Abhor:

1. repentance

2. love

3. hate

4. persistent

33. Panacea:

1. A universal agreement

2. A universal truth

3. A universal phenomenon

4. A universal medicine

Directions (Q 34-35): In each of the sentences given below a word has been
underlined and four choices marked 1 to 4 have been given. Choose the correct
word which is opposite word underlined in the sentence. Mark the choice number as
your answer.

34. His unscrupulous pursuit of wealth finally landed him in prison.

1. Conscientious

2. Dedicated

3. Single-minded

4. Superfluous

35. Let us not aggravate the sufferings of the poor.

1. Advocate

2. Appreciate

3. Alleviate

4. Abbreviate

Directions (Q 36-40): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has
been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each,
five words are suggested, one which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the
appropriate word and mark the choice number as your answer.

Smoking is the biggest preventable ______ (186) ______ to mankind. Many serious
______ (187) ______ including lung cancer, bronchitis and heat attack are ______ (188)
______ to smoking habits. Smoking in any form whether cigarette, cigar, pipe, bidi or
tobacco chewing has been ______ (189) ______ as a major ______ (190) ______ factor
for heart attack.

36.

1. measure

2. tragedy

3. menace

4. solace

37.
1. debacles

2. diseases

3. practices

4. injuries

38.

1. caused

2. directed

3. averse

4. traced

39.

1. developed

2. explained

3. attributed

4. identified

40.

1. important

2. critical

3. risk

4. ailing

Directions (Q 41-42): Each of the following words is spelt in four different ways.
One of them is correctly spelt. Pick out the correctly spelt word and mark on the
OMR sheet.

41.

1. Leutinant
2. Lieutenant

3. Lieutinent

4. Lieutanant

42.

1. Charactar

2. Cheracter

3. Character

4. Characatar

Directions (Q 43-45): Mark the correct choice after changing the Narration of the
leading sentence.

43. The mother said to the teacher, “Do not punish my son.”

1. The mother told the teacher not to punished her son.

2. The mother requested the teacher that her son might not be punished.

3. The mother requested the teacher that not to punish her son.

4. The mother requested the teacher not to punish her son.

44. The Judge asked the prisoner if he has any thing to say.

1. The Judge said to the prisoner, “Have you any thing to say?”

2. The Judge said to the prisoner, “If you have anything to say?”

3. The Judge said to the prisoner, “You had anything to say?”

4. The Judge said to the prisoner, Have you anything to be said?”

45. She advised me not to trust him.

1. She said to me, “Not to trust you.”

2. She said to me, “Not to Trust him.”

3. She said to me, “Do not be trust by him.”

4. She said to me, “Do not trust him.”

Directions (Q 46-50): The questions that follow the passages are based on the text of
the passage. Point out the correct answers.

The third thing we must do is not to be content with mere political democracy. We must
make our political democracy a social democracy as well. Political democracy cannot last
unless there lies at the base of it social democracy. What does social democracy mean? it
means a way of life which recognizes liberty, equality and fraternity as the principles of
life. These principles of liberty, equality and fraternity are not to be treated as separate
items in Trinity. They form a union of Trinity in the sense that to divorce one from the
other is to defeat the very purpose of democracy. Liberty cannot be divorced from
equality, equality be divorced from liberty. Nor can liberty and equality be divorced from
fraternity. Without equality, liberty would produce the supremacy of the few over the
many. Equality, without liberty, would kill individual initiative. Without fraternity,
liberty and equality would not become a natural course of things. It would require a
constable to enforce them.

46. The ‘third thing’ which the author wants us to do is ______

1. Not to be complacent with political democracy

2. Not to be happy with political democracy

3. Not to be dissatisfied with political democracy

4. None of these

47. Political democracy will end if ______

1. There is no social democracy

2. There is social democracy

3. There is political democracy

4. None of these

48. Social democracy means ______

1. Liberty, equality and fraternity

2. A way of life

3. Political democracy
4. None of these

49. The principles of liberty, equality and fraternity can be treated as ______

1. Separate

2. Unified

3. One

4. None of these

50. Liberty without equality would result in ______

1. Dictatorship

2. Supremacy of some

3. Tyranny of many

4. None of these

English vocabulary – opposite words

Each key word is followed by five suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is opposite in
meaning to the key word.

1) Quaint

a) peculiar
b) ordinary
c) curious
d) strange
e) silly

2. Queer

a) strange
b) careless
c) shorten
d) surprising
e) ordinary

3. Querulous

a) unhappy
b) discontented
c) contented
d) angry
e) gloomy

4. Questionable
a) dubious
b) challengeable
c) certain
d) persistent
e) effective

5. Quiet

a) noisy
b) motionless
c) tranquility
d) senseless
e) serious

6. Quit

a) leave
b) start
c) abandon
d) withdraw
e) recover

7. Quixotic

a) imaginary
b) fantastic
c) romantic
d) practical
e) foolish

8. Quote

a) extract
b) adduce
c) reveal
d) restrain
e) contradict

9. Radiant

a) dim
b) splendid
c) beaming
d) industrial
e) restive

10. Radical

a) thorough
b) uncompromising
c) basic
d) insane
e) superficial

11. Rational

a) practical
b) pragmatic
c) reasonable
d) insane
e) wild

12. Reckless

a) indifferent
b) careful
c) careless
d) arrogant
e) angry

13. Recreation

a) diversion
b) pastime
c) leisure
d) boredom
e) happiness

14. Refrain

a) resist
b) continue
c) resist
d) withhold
e) stop

15. Remission

a) forgiveness
b) blame
c) assessment
d) repetition
e) abatement

16. Riddle

a) problem
b) puzzle
c) mystery
d) enigma
e) clue

17. Rigid
a) Strong
b) lax
c) authoritative
d) abandon
e) incomplete

18. Robust

a) strong
b) sound
c) feeble
d) volatile
e) inadequate

19. Ruthless

a) merciless
b) merciful
c) beautiful
d) magnificent
e) majestic

20. Sadistic

a) kind hearted
b) happy
c) unhappy
d) fortunate
e) quaint

21. Salvage

a) remove
b) burn
c) help
d) lose
e) confuse

22. Scold

a) praise
b) criticize
c) encourage
d) pacify
e) appease

23. Scurrilous

a) ribald
b) decent
c) abusive
d) mitigated
e) inaccurate

24. Severe

a) relentless
b) intense
c) lenient
d) unadorned
e) austere

25. Sham

a) genuine
b) simulated
c) automatic
d) fake
e) duplicate

Answers

1. ordinary
2. ordinary
3. contented
4. certain
5. noisy
6. start
7. practical
8. contradict
9. dim
10. superficial
11. insane
12. careful
13. boredom
14. continue
15. blame
16. clue
17. lax
18. feeble
19. merciful
20. kind hearted
21. lose
22. praise
23. decent
24. lenient
25. genuine
1. Which of the following is NOT a necessary characteristic of computer fluency?
A. Understanding the capabilities and limitations of computers
B. Being able to write computer programs
C. Becoming comfortable with the use of computers
D. Understanding the legal, ethical, and societal implications of computing
Answer: B
2. According to the U.S. Department of Labor, approximately ____________ % of
American workers used computers on the job as of 2001.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 50
D. 70
Answer: C
3. Retail employees typically use ____________ terminals to process sales transactions.
A. sales processing
B. transaction point
C. automatic teller
D. point of sale
Answer: D
4. The process of ____________ involves automated study of consumer buying patterns
in order to support marketing, inventory replenishment, and pricing decisions.
A. transaction processing
B. data mining
C. simulation
D. information processing
Answer: B
5. The engineering discipline that involves construction of molecularly-sized computing
devices is called:
A. nanotechnology.
B. molecular processing.
C. silicon grafting.
D. nanoscience.
Answer: A
6. The prefix that stands for “billionth” is:
A. giga.
B. tera.
C. nano.
D. peta.
Answer: C
7. A small biomedical device currently on the market that can be implanted underneath
the skin for identification purposes is called the:
A. Identitron.
B. Verichip.
C. Digicard.
D. Nanoguard.
Answer: B
8. The four main functions of a computer are:
A. input, processing, output, and storage.
B. learning, thinking, intelligence, and virtuosity.
C. data, information, bits, and bytes.
D. hardware, software, modeling, and operations.
Answer: A
9. The primary purpose of a computer is to process _____________ and convert it into
information.
A. electricity
B. data
C. raw material
D. a bit
Answer: B
10. Bit refers to a:
A. computer language.
B. CPU instruction.
C. 0 or 1 value.
D. digital representation of an alphabetic character.
Answer: C
11. There are ____________ bits in a byte.
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
Answer: D
12. In computer language, each letter, number, and an array of special characters consists
of:
A. 8 kilobytes.
B. 8 bytes.
C. a bit.
D. 8 bits.
Answer: D
13. Which of the following is the correct sequence of smallest to largest unit of storage
size?
A. megabyte ? terabyte ? gigabyte ? kilobyte ? petabyte
B. kilobyte ? megabyte ? gigabyte ? terabyte ? petabyte
C. kilobyte ? megabyte ? gigabyte ? petabyte ? terabyte
D. kilobyte ? megabyte ? petabyte ? terabyte ? gigabyte
Answer: B
14. The prefix kilo refers to approximately:
A. one thousand.
B. one million.
C. one hundred.
D. one billion.
Answer: A
15. Computers work in:
A. machine linguistics.
B. binary language.
C. HTML code.
D. bit language.
Answer: B
16. The metal or plastic case that houses the physical components of a computer together
is called the:
A. central processing unit.
B. storage device.
C. motherboard.
D. system unit.
Answer: D
17. The “brains” of the computer which executes the instructions, is called the:
A. CPU.
B. RAM.
C. motherboard.
D. system unit.
Answer: A
18. Instructions and data that are about to be processed by the CPU are located in:
A. a CD-ROM.
B. RAM.
C. the hard disk.
D. the motherboard.
Answer: B
19. The circuitry that includes the CPU and memory chips is located on the:
A. system unit.
B. operating system.
C. motherboard.
D. computer platform.
Answer: C
20. All of the following are considered to be storage devices EXCEPT a:
A. floppy disk.
B. CPU.
C. CD.
D. hard disk drive.
Answer: B
21. What is the correct association between a hardware component and a computer
function?
A. Monitor ? input
B. Mouse ? input
C. CPU ? storage
D. Hard disk ? processing
Answer: B
22. The main difference between application and system software is that:
A. application software is composed of program instructions but system software is not.
B. application software is stored in memory whereas system software is only in the CPU.
C. system software is unnecessary whereas application software must be present on the
computer.
D. system software manages hardware whereas application software performs user tasks.
Answer: D
23. A document created in a word processing program or a budget created in a
spreadsheet are both examples of documents created in:
A. application software.
B. system software.
C. an operating system.
D. a Windows platform.
Answer: A
24. Which of the following is an example of system software?
A. Word processor
B. Operating system
C. Management information system
D. Spreadsheet
Answer: B
25. The term that refers to computers that provide resources to other computers in a
network is:
A. server.
B. mainframe.
C. platform.
D. resource provider.
Answer: A
26. If a large business is going to use a single computer to execute many programs for
hundreds (possibly thousands) of users at the same time, performing relatively simple
operations and transactions, the type of computer will probably be a(n):
A. supercomputer.
B. PC.
C. mainframe.
D. ISP.
Answer: C
27. A scientific institution performing intensive mathematical operations for a complex
model that requires extremely powerful computing capabilities will most likely use a(n):
A. supercomputer.
B. PC.
C. mainframe.
D. ISP.
Answer: A
28. The standard computer keyboard is configured using the ____________ layout.
A. Dvorak
B. QWERTY
C. control
D. dot-matrix
Answer: B
29. The most commonly used keys in the Dvorak keyboard layout are located in the:
A. far right area of the keyboard.
B. top row.
C. middle row.
D. function key area.
Answer: C
30. On computers using Microsoft Windows XP, holding the Windows key down and
pressing the letter E will:
A. start Windows Explorer.
B. display the Start menu.
C. execute Microsoft Windows.
D. run Windows Help.
Answer: A
31. The insert, caps lock, and num lock keys are all examples of ____________ keys.
A. control
B. function
C. toggle
D. shortcut
Answer: C
32. The copy, cut, and paste features use keyboard shortcuts with the ____________ key
and a keyboard letter.
A. Shift
B. Windows
C. Alt
D. Ctrl
Answer: D
33. RF keyboards differ from infrared keyboards in that they:
A. must be closer to the computer.
B. are connected to the computer via the USB port.
C. do not need to be pointed at the computer.
D. are used primarily on laptops or PDAs.
Answer: C
34. The traditional mouse requires a mouse pad to provide friction for its:
A. touchpad.
B. tracker.
C. optical sensor.
D. rollerball.
Answer: D

35. The standard input device for a PDA is a:

A. stylus.
B. touch pad.
C. keyboard.
D. trackball mouse.
Answer: A
36. The flicker effect of a cathode ray tube is controlled by its:
A. resolution.
B. refresh rate.
C. dot pitch.
D. data transfer rate.
Answer: B
37. A monitor with high dot pitch will have:
A. a relatively large number of pixels.
B. a high number of possible colors in its display.
C. wide gaps between pixels.
D. relatively fast recharging of the pixels’ illumination.
Answer: C : CRT Monitors Difficulty: Hard
38. The larger the number of pixels of a computer monitor, the higher its:
A. resolution.
B. refresh rate.
C. dot pitch.
D. data transfer rate.
Answer: A
39. The maximum complete electron scans of current CRT monitors is ____________
times per second.
A. 25
B. 50
C. 75
D. 100
Answer: C
40. Electron beam scanning is a characteristic of:
A. laser printers.
B. flat panel monitors.
C. cathode ray tubes.
D. liquid crystal display.
Answer: C
41. The type of output device that utilizes a fluorescent panel for generating light waves
is a(n):
A. CRT monitor.
B. inkjet printer.
C. laser printer.
D. LCD monitor.
Answer: D
42. The main advantage of active matrix over passive matrix technology is that active
matrix panels:
A. have higher screen resolution.
B. can selectively recharge individual pixels.
C. cost less than passive matrix panels.
D. require less power consumption than passive matrix panels.
Answer: B
43. The following are all advantages of LCD over CRT monitors EXCEPT:
A. wider viewing area relative to size of the monitor.
B. less likely to cause eyestrain.
C. more friendly to the environment.
D. wider viewing angle.
Answer: D
44. The fastest and quietest type of printer is a(n):
A. dot-matrix printer.
B. inkjet printer.
C. laser printer.
D. plotter.
Answer: C
45. The type of large printer that can most accurately produce images requiring precise,
continuous lines is a(n):
A. plotter.
B. inkjet printer.
C. laser printer.
D. dot-matrix printer.
Answer: A
46. Which of the following printers is characterized by melting wax-based ink onto
ordinary paper?
A. Dot-matrix
B. Inkjet
C. Laser
D. Thermal
Answer: D
47. A laser printer works by:
A. removing static electrical charge from a metal drum.
B. utilizing drop-on-demand technology.
C. striking the paper with hammer-like keys.
D. a process called direct-thermal printing.
Answer: A
48. The principle advantage of adding memory to a printer is to increase:
A. resolution.
B. print speed.
C. number of colors in output.
D. dpi.
Answer: B
49. The resolution of a printer is measured in terms of:
A. pixel density.
B. dot pitch.
C. hertz.
D. dpi.
Answer: D
50. The box that contains the central electronic components of a computer as well as its
power source and main storage devices is called the:
A. CPU.
B. motherboard.
C. system unit.
D. module.

English vocabulary – opposite words

Each key word is followed by five suggested meanings. Choose the word or phrase which is
opposite in meaning to the key word.

1) Quaint

a) peculiar
b) ordinary
c) curious
d) strange
e) silly

2. Queer

a) strange
b) careless
c) shorten
d) surprising
e) ordinary

3. Querulous

a) unhappy
b) discontented
c) contented
d) angry
e) gloomy

4. Questionable

a) dubious
b) challengeable
c) certain
d) persistent
e) effective

5. Quiet

a) noisy
b) motionless
c) tranquility
d) senseless
e) serious

6. Quit

a) leave
b) start
c) abandon
d) withdraw
e) recover

7. Quixotic

a) imaginary
b) fantastic
c) romantic
d) practical
e) foolish

8. Quote

a) extract
b) adduce
c) reveal
d) restrain
e) contradict

9. Radiant

a) dim
b) splendid
c) beaming
d) industrial
e) restive

10. Radical

a) thorough
b) uncompromising
c) basic
d) insane
e) superficial

11. Rational

a) practical
b) pragmatic
c) reasonable
d) insane
e) wild

12. Reckless

a) indifferent
b) careful
c) careless
d) arrogant
e) angry
13. Recreation

a) diversion
b) pastime
c) leisure
d) boredom
e) happiness

14. Refrain

a) resist
b) continue
c) resist
d) withhold
e) stop

15. Remission

a) forgiveness
b) blame
c) assessment
d) repetition
e) abatement

16. Riddle

a) problem
b) puzzle
c) mystery
d) enigma
e) clue

17. Rigid
a) Strong
b) lax
c) authoritative
d) abandon
e) incomplete

18. Robust

a) strong
b) sound
c) feeble
d) volatile
e) inadequate

19. Ruthless

a) merciless
b) merciful
c) beautiful
d) magnificent
e) majestic

20. Sadistic

a) kind hearted
b) happy
c) unhappy
d) fortunate
e) quaint
21. Salvage

a) remove
b) burn
c) help
d) lose
e) confuse

22. Scold

a) praise
b) criticize
c) encourage
d) pacify
e) appease

23. Scurrilous

a) ribald
b) decent
c) abusive
d) mitigated
e) inaccurate

24. Severe

a) relentless
b) intense
c) lenient
d) unadorned
e) austere

25. Sham

a) genuine
b) simulated
c) automatic
d) fake
e) duplicate

Answers

1. ordinary
2. ordinary
3. contented
4. certain
5. noisy
6. start
7. practical
8. contradict
9. dim
10. superficial
11. insane
12. careful
13. boredom
14. continue
15. blame
16. clue
17. lax
18. feeble
 19. merciful
20. kind hearted
21. lose
22. praise
23. decent
24. lenient
25. genuine

sbi bank po solved paper of 27-04-2008

Posted on May 10, 2008. Filed under: bank po solved paper | Tags: sbi bank clerk 2008,
SBI BANK P.O. |

FREE MORE QUESTION OF SBI CLERK AND PO ON :

http://indiaknow.blogspot.com

1. As per the reports in the newspapers what has been the average growth of GDP during
10th plan period (2002-2007) ?
(A) 9 %
(B) 9.3 %
(C) 8 %
(D) 8.7 %
(E) 7.6 %
Ans (E)
2. Which of the following is/are not part(s) of the Union Budget 2008-09 presented in the
Lok Sbha in February 2008 ?
(1) Defence allocation is increased by 10% to reach more than Rs. 1,00,000 crore.
(2) National Rural Guarantee Act is extended to all the rural districts.
(3) Debt Waiver Scheme launched to help all farmers irrespective of their land holdings.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 & 2
(D) Only 3
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
3. Which of the following States has been declared 2008 as the “Year of Education” ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Bihar
(C) Gujarat
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
4. Who amongst the following is selected as the “Banker of the year 2007″ by the
Business Standard ?
(A) M.V.Kamath
(B) K.C.Chakrabarty
(C) Anil Khandelwal
(D) O.P.Bhatt
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
5. Which of the following is /are not the constituent sector(s) of the Gross Domestic
Product (GDP) of India ?
(1) Agriculture & allied activities
(2) Foreign Exchange Reserve
(3) Industry
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1,2 & 3
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2
Ans (E)
6.What is “H5N1″ a term , which was very much in news recently ?
(A) It is a category of Visa provided by the USA fOR STUDENTS.
(B) It is the name of the virus which cause Bird flu
(C) It is the code name of India’s space Mission 2010.
(D) It was the name of the military operation launched by Sri Lanka against LTTE.
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
7. Which of the following State Govts. launched a Rs. 40,000 crore “Ganga Expressway
Project” ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) West Bengal
(E) Uttar Pradesh
Ans (E)
8. Which of the following countries is going to elects its first 47 member parliament for
the first time in the history of the country ?
(A) Butan
(B) Pakistan
(C) Myanmar
(D) Nepal
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
9. “World Day for Water” was observed on which of the following days ?
(A) 22nd January
(B) 22nd February
(C) 22nd March
(D) 22nd April
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
10. sunita Williams is the recipient of which of the following awards given away recently
?
(A) Woman of the year 2007
(B) Padma Bhushan
(C) Shanti Swarup Bhatnagar Award
(D) Pravasi India Award 2007
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
11. The Fifth National Winter Games were organized in -
(A) Jaipur
(B) Gulmarg
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Chennai
(E) Delhi
Ans (B)
12. Who amongst the following won the Men’s single title of Australian Open Tennis
2008 ?
(A) Novak Djokovic
(B) Jo-Wilfried Tsonga
(C) Jonathan Erlich
(D) Andy Ram
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
13. Which of the following films won the best Film Award in 65th Golden Globe Awards
ceremony ?
(A) Away from her
(B) Atonement
(C) No Country for Old Men
(D) I’m Not there
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
14. Rahul Banerjee won which of the following Natioanl Senior Champioship held in
January 2008 ?
(A) Badminton
(B) Chess
(C) Archery
(D) Golf
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
15. Who amongst the following is the author of the novel “Without Dreams” ?
(A) Shahbano Bilgrami
(B) Saeed Mirza
(C) Javed Akhtar
(D) Shabana Azmi
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
16. The —— of a system includes the programs or instructions.
(A) Hardware
(B) Icon
(C) Information
(D) Software
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
17.The copy command saves to-
(A) The Desktop
(B) The Clipboard
(C) Microsoft Word
(D) Paste
(E) None of these
Ans (B)