Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1. When CG moves aft, what happens to the amount of available control deflection on
elevator?
a. Available control deflection increases
b. Available control deflection decreases
c. Does not get affected by CG movement
2. When the C.G. position is moved forward, the elevator deflection for a manoeuvre
with a load factor greater than 1 will be:
a) Unchanged
b) Smaller
c) Larger
d) Dependent on trim position
3. A cambered wing would achieve:
a. Lower CL at a higher AOA
b. Lower CL at a lower AOA
c. Higher CL at a lower AOA
4. Standard units of measurement for horizontal distance are:
a. Metre, Nautical mile, Kilometre
b. Metre, Statute mile, Nautical mile
c. Metre, feet, Nautical mile
5. Type of fog observed on a clear night, light winds is:
a. Advection fog
b. Radiation fog
c. Steam fog
6. Which of the following conditions are most favourable to the formation of mountain
waves?
a. Stable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across
the mountain ridge.
b. Unstable air at mountain top altitude and a wind at least 20 knots blowing across
the mountain ridge.
c. Either stable or unstable air at mountain top and a wind of at least 30 knots
blowing parallel to the mountain ridge.
d. Moist unstable air at mountain top and wind of less than 5 knots blowing across
the mountain ridge.
b) 3
c) 3, 4, 5, 6
d) 1
13.The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
a. Taxiing need not be confined to the taxiways
b. Glider flying is performed outside the landing area
c. Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only
d. This aerodrome is using parallel runways
14.Intruding Traffic Advisory is represented on the TCAS II by:
a. Full Yellow circle
b. Full Red square
c. Cyan hollow lozenges
15. The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound signal
or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around:
a. DON'T SINK repetitive only
b. WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
c. DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
d. DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a
second level
16. The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes:
a. Standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states,
signatory to the Chicago convention.
b. Aeronautical standards adopted by all states.
c. Proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.
d. Standards and recommended international practices for contracting member
states
17. The second freedom of the air is the:
a. Right to overfly without landing
b. Right to land for a technical stop
c. Right to ""Cabotage"" traffic, (trans-border traffic)
d. Right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board
between two states.
18. A red flare addressed to a flying aircraft means:
a. Dangerous airfield. Do not land
b. Come back and land
c. Not with standing any previous instructions, do not land for the time being.
19. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from
the rear on a line forming an angle of less than:
a. 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
b. 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
c. 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
d.. 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
20.Which of the following correctly lists special purpose codes that are to be used in
conjunction with Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR)?
a. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7600.
b. Distress 7700. Hijacking 7600. Communication failure 7500.
c. Distress 7500. Hijacking 7700. Communication failure 7600.
d. Distress 7600. Hijacking 7500. Communication failure 7700.
21.The tanks of a hydraulic system are pressurized:
a. In flight only.
b. By bleed air coming from the turbine-engine.
c. By the air conditioning system.
d. By an auxiliary system.
22.The pressurization of the cabin is controlled by:
a. The cabin inlet airflow.
b. The cabin outflow valve.
c. The engine's RPM.
d. The engine's bleed valves.
23.A bus-bar is:
a. The stator of a moving coil instrument.
b. A device permitting operation of two or more switches together.
c. A distribution point for electrical power.
d. A device which may only be used in DC circuits.
24.In the cabin, when the oxygen mask is pulled downwards, the passenger breathes:
a. Pure oxygen under pressure.
b. A mixture of oxygen and cabin air.
c. Pure oxygen at the ambient pressure.
d. Cabin air under pressure.
25.For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient
temperature will result in a:
a. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an decrease in air density
b. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
d. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to a increase in air density
26. After an aircraft has passed through a volcanic cloud which has blocked the total
pressure probe inlet of the airspeed indicator, the pilot begins a stabilized descent
and finds that the indicated airspeed :
a. Increases steadily
b. Increases abruptly towards VNE
c. Decreases steadily
d. Decreases abruptly towards zero
27. The reading of a Mach indicator is independent of:
a. The total pressure
b. The static pressure
c. The outside temperature
d. The differential pressure measurement
28. The operating principle of the vertical speed indicator (VSI) is based on the
measurement of the rate of change of:
a. Pitot pressure
b. Dynamic pressure
c. Static pressure
d. Total pressure
29. A pilot wishes to turn right on to a northerly heading with 20 bank at a latitude of
40 north. Using a direct reading compass, in order to achieve this he must stop the
turn on to an approximate heading of:
a. 330
b. 350
c. 030
d. 010
30.A flux valve senses the changes in orientation of the horizontal component of the
earth's magnetic field.
1- The flux valve is made of a pair of soft iron bars
2- The primary coils are fed A.C. voltage (usually 487.5 Hz)
3- The information can be used by a ""flux gate"" compass or a directional gyro
4- The flux gate valve casing is dependent on the aircraft three inertial axis
5- The accuracy on the value of the magnetic field indication is less than 0,5%
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?
a. 1, 3, 4, 5
b. 2, 3, 5
c. 3, 5
d. 1, 4, 5
31. For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which
the engine:
a. Will run without any external assistance.
b. Is designed to idle after starting.
c. Operates most efficiently in the cruise.
d. Will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.
32. A "hung start" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It
may be caused by:
a. The starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has
accelerated to the required rpm for ignition.
b. Compressor surging.
c. An attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently
by the starter.
d. Failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been
accelerated to the required rpm by the starter
33. In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is:
a. Independent of turbine rpm.
b. The same as turbine rpm
c. Greater than turbine rpm.
d. Less than turbine rpm.
34. For a constant Calibrated Airspeed (CAS) and a level flight, a fall in ambient
temperature will result in a:
a. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an decrease in air density
b. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to a decrease in air density
c. Higher True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
d. Lower True Airspeed (TAS) due to an increase in air density
35. Which one of the following is not affected by a tail wind?
a. The obstacle limited take-off mass.
b. The field limited take-off mass.
c. The climb limited take-off mass.
d. The take-off run.
36. What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator?
a. 11,000m
b. 8000m
c. 16,000m
d. 10km
37. From which of the following pieces of information can the stability of the
atmosphere be derived?
a. Dry adiabatic lapse rate
b. Surface temperature
c. Environmental lapse rate
d. Pressure at the surface
38. What is the technical term for an increase in temperature with altitude? a.
Inversion
b. Subsidence
c. Adiabatic
d. Advection
39. You are flying at FL 200. Outside air temperature is -40C, and the pressure at sea
level is 1033 hPa. What is the true altitude?
a. 19340 feet
b. 20660 feet
c. 21740 feet
d. 18260 feet
40.What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars on the
weather map are very close together?
a. Strong and parallel to the isobars.
b. Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.
c. Strong and flowing across the isobars
d. Moderate and parallel to the isobars
41. What is the highest latitude listed below at which the sun will reach an altitude of
90 above the horizon at some time during the year?
a. 0
b. 45
c. 66
d. 23
42. The duration of civil twilight is the time:
a. Agreed by the international aeronautical authorities which is 12 minutes
b. Between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 6 below the true horizon
c. Needed by the sun to move from the apparent height of 0 to the apparent height
of 6
d. Between sunset and when the centre of the sun is 12 below the true horizon
43. Fair weather cumulus often is an indication of
a. Turbulence at and below the cloud level
b. Poor visibility at surface
c. Smooth flying conditions below the cloud level
d. A high risk of thunderstorms
44. On a Lambert conformal conic chart the convergence of the meridians: a. Is zero
throughout the chart
b. Is the same as earth convergency at the parallel of origin
c. Varies as the secant of the latitude
d. Equals earth convergency at the standard parallels
45. Details about Instrument procedures can be found:
a. PANS ATM
b. Annexure 13
c. PANS OPS 8168
d. NOTAMS
58. The operation of the radio altimeter of a modern aircraft is based on:
a. Pulse modulation of the carrier wave.
b. Amplitude modulation of the carrier wave.
c. Frequency modulation of the carrier wave.
d. A combination of frequency modulation and pulse modulation.
59. Clear ice forms on an aircraft by the freezing of :
a. Large super-cooled water drops
b. Water vapour
c. Small super-cooled water drops
d. Snow
60. An aircraft flies the following rhumb line tracks and distances from position 0400'N
03000'W :600 NM South, then 600 NM East, then 600 NM North, then 600 NM
West. The final position of the aircraft is:
a. 0358'N 03002'W
b. 0400'N 03002'W
c. 0400'N 03000'W
d. 0400'N 02958'W
61. How is VMCA influenced by increasing pressure altitude?
a. VMCA decreases with increasing pressure altitude.
b. VMCA is not affected by pressure altitude.
c. VMCA increases with increasing pressure altitude. (AS PER QB)
d. VMCA increases with pressure altitude higher than 4000 ft.
62. Which of the following statements about the difference between Krueger flaps and
slats is correct?
a. Deploying a slat will form a slot, deploying a Krueger flap does not.
b. Deploying a Krueger flap will form a slot, deploying a slat does not.
c. Deploying a slat will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a Krueger flap does
not.
d. Deploying a Krueger flap will increase critical angle of attack, deploying a slat does
not.
63.When turning right from 330(C) to 040(C) in the northern hemisphere, the reading
of a direct reading magnetic compass will:
a. Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
b. Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will decrease the effect
c. Under-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
d. Over-indicate the turn and liquid swirl will increase the effect
64.An outside air temperature of -35C is measured while cruising at FL 200. What is the
temperature deviation from the ISA at this level?
a) 10C warmer than ISA.
b) 10C colder than ISA.
c) 5C warmer than ISA.
d) 5C colder than ISA.
65. An aircraft has two certified landing flaps positions, 25 and 35.If a pilot chooses 25
instead of 35, the aircraft will have:
a. An increased landing distance and better go-around performance
b. A reduced landing distance and better go-around performance
c. An increased landing distance and degraded go-around performanced. A reduced
landing distance and degraded go-around performance
66. Using compressor bleed air to power systems:
a. Increases aircraft performance
b. Has no influence on aircraft performance
c. Decreases aircraft performance
d. Is limited to the phases of take-off and landing
67. Which of these factors would increase the Take-off distance the most?
a. Low elevation in summer
b. Low elevation in winter
c. High elevation in summer
d. High elevation in winter
68. Airfield pressure is called:
a. QNH
b. QNE
c. QFE
d. QFF
69. On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:
1. AC generator over-voltage
2. AC generator under-voltage
3. Over-current
4. over- speed
5. Under-frequency
6. Undue vibration of AC generators
The combination of correct statements is:
a. 1, 2, 4, 6
b. 1, 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 5, 6
d. 2, 3,4,5,6
70. When a RADAR operator says the following to an aircraft: ""fly heading 030"", the
pilot must fly heading:
a. 030 true
b. 030 magnetic in still air conditions (thereby flying the magnetic track)
c. 030 magnetic
d. 030 true, in still air conditions (thereby flying the true track)
71. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates
from the track?
a. Adjust the heading of aircraft to regain track as soon as practicable
b. Inform the ATC unit immediately
c. If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
d. Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
72. How does TAS vary in a constant Mach climb in the troposphere?
a. TAS is constant.
b. TAS increases.
c. TAS decreases.
d. TAS is not related to Mach number.
73. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides to
use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :
a. By the MMO
b. initially by the VMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level
c. Initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
d. By the VMO in still air
80. True track= 358 Variation= 3E, Deviation =2W. Which FL do u select from the
following options?
a. F80
b. F75
c. F65
d. F90
81. In the case of parallel runways, each runway designation number shall be
supplemented:
a. By a letter - for example 2 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" - for 3 ""L"", ""C""
and ""R"".
b. By a number like ""0"" and ""01"" for 2 parallel runways.
c. By a letter for 2 parallel runways.
d. By a letter - for example 3 parallel runways ""L"" and ""R"" and the central has no
letter.
82. Condensation is:
a. Water changes to ice
b. Vapour changes to water
c. Water changes to vapour
d. Vapour changes to ice
83. The wind indicator for a weather observation receives the measured value from an
anemometer. Where is this instrument placed?
a. 1 m above the runway.
b. On a mast 8-10 m above the ground.
c. Close to the station about 2 m above the ground.
d. On the roof of the weather station.
84. In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent
for landing are made is called:
a. Arrival segment.
b. Initial approach segment.
c. Intermediate approach segment.
d. Final approach segment.
85. A Constant Speed Drive aims at ensuring
a. That the CSD remains at a constant RPM notwithstanding the generator RPM
b. That the starter-motor maintains a constant RPM notwithstanding the acceleration
of the engine.
c. That the electric generator produces a constant frequency.
d. Equal AC voltage from all generators.
92. The main reason that day and night, throughout the year, have different duration, is
due to the:
a. Earth's rotation
b. Inclination of the ecliptic to the equator
c. Relative speed of the sun along the ecliptic
d. Gravitational effect of the sun and moon on the speed of rotation of the earth.
93.On aerodromes aircraft taxying on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome shall give
way to:
a. Other converging aircraft
b. Other vehicles and pedestrians
c. Aircraft taking off or about to take off
d. All vehicles moving on the apron except the ""follow me"" vehicle
94.Following a stall the CP movement in (i) straight wing, (ii) swept wing:
a. (i) forward, (ii) aft
b. (i) aft, (ii) forward
c. (i) does not shift, (ii) forward
d. (i) aft, (ii) does not shift
95.Reduced take-off thrust
a. Can be used if the headwind component during take-off is at least 10kt
b. Can be used if the actual take-off mass is higher than the performance limited
take-off mass.
c. Is not recommended at very low temperatures (OAT).
d. Has the benefit of improving engine life.
96.In a turbo-jet, the purpose of the turbine is to ...
a. Drive the compressor by using part of the energy from the exhaust gases
b. Clear the burnt gases, the expansion of which provide the thrust
c. Compress the air in order to provide a better charge of the combustion chamber
d. Drive devices like pumps, regulator and generator.
104.
A little water evaporates from a 6 litre sugar solution containing 4% sugar,
what will be the % of sugar left? (Insufficient information)
a. 3.5%
b. 4%
c. 19/4%
d. 5%
105.
Two balls are in a gravitational field. If the mass of one ball is doubled, the
gravitational force between them:
a. Remains same
b. Doubled
c. Tripled
d. Quadrupled
106.
Average of 7, x, 10, 14, 16 is 8. What is the missing number? ( Not an exact
question)
Ans: 13
107.
S (distance) given by an equation, with respect to t(time). If a(acceleration) is
zero what will be the velocity of a body?
108.
a.
b.
c.
d.
109.
Two bodies start from a point, one heading west at 40 km/hr., other heading
north at 50 km/hr. respectively. What will be the rate of change of distance between
them at the end of 3 hours?
a. 41
b. 1041
c. 10
d. 41
110.
a.
b.
c.
d.
111.
a.
b.
c.
d.
AC is converted to DC by:
Transformer Rectifier Unit
Inverter
Transformer
APU
112.
a.
b.
c.
d.
113.
How would pendulum oscillations change with altitude?
a. Remain same
b. Increases
c. Decrease
114.
Hyperventilation is:
a. A decreased lung ventilation
b. A too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
c. An increased lung ventilation
d. A too high percentage of oxygen in the blood
115.
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above
12,000 ft.?
a. Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
b. Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
c. Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
d. Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions, slowing of the rate of
breathing
116.
A train crosses a platform in 20 seconds. To determine the velocity of the train
the following variables are required. (i) length of train, (ii) length of platform:
a. Only (ii)
b. Only (i)
c. Both (i) and (ii)
d. No values will yield in the result