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D. Trimethoprim
36.The only agent in the 2nd generation cephalosporins which can produce
sufficient CSF level:
A. Cephalexin
C. Cefprom
B. Cefoperazone
D. Cefuroxime***
37.Toxicity that is more pronounced with doxorubicin than with other
agents include this potentially irreversible cumulative, dose related :
A. cardio toxicity***
C. neurotoxicity
B. nephrotoxicity
D. pulmotoxicity
38.An estrogen receptor antagonist which is useful for post-menopausal
breast cancer is:
A. megastrol
C. flutamide
B. tamoxifen ***
D. leuprolide
39.The major site of alkylation within DNA of alkylating agents is the
____ position of guanine:
A. N1
C. N5
B. N 3
D. N7***
40.TRUE regarding vincristine, EXCEPT
A. a spindle poison
B. useful in acute leukemia in children
C. arrest mitotic cycle
D. causes marked bone marrow suppression***
41.This plant alkaloid is popularly used in ovarian and advanced breast
cancer; comes
from Western yew and is a mitotic spindle poison:
A. etoposide
C. Paclitaxel***
B. vincristine
D. vinblastine
42. Androgens, estrogens and adrenorecortical hormones all can
produce:
A. Cardio toxicity
C. bone marrow suppression
B. fluid retention
***
D. nausea and vomiting
43.This antileprosy drug is useful for both multibacillary and
paucibacillary type; may cause hemolysis n G6PD deficient patient:
A. clofazimine
C. Sulfones***
B. Rifampin
D. Ofloxaci
44.An adverse effect of sulfonamides in newborns due displacement of
bilirubin from binding sites on albumin:
A. Photosensitivity
C. Hemolytic anemia
B. Crystalluria
D. Kernicterus***
54. You have prescribed atorvastatin to Mr. Park for his hyperlipedemia.
You should advise him to take the drug:
A. first thing in the morning
C. after breakfast
B. last thing before going to bed*** D. any time of the day
55.Atorvastatin causes the following effects EXCEPT:
A. decrease hepatic cholesterol synthesis
B. increase synthesis of LDL receptors
C. decrease clearance of LDL***
D. decrease concentration of LDL cholesterol in plasma
56.Drugs that can be used for the prevention of malaria in travelers,
EXCEPT:
A. Chloroquine
C. mefloquine
B. quinine***
D. doxycyline
57.This is an effective luminal amebecidal agent but is not active against
tissue trophozoite:
A. emetine HCl
C. chloroquine
B. metronidazole
D. diloxanide furoate***
58.This is a broad-spectrum oral antihelminthis which is the drug of
choice for the treatment of hydatid disease and cysticercosis:
A. Mebendazole
C. thiabendazole
B. albendazole***
D. metronidazole
59.Which of the following antimalarial drugs causes a dose-dependent
toxic state that includes: flushed and sweaty skin, dizziness, nausea,
diarrhea, tinnitus, blurred vision, and impaired hearing?
A. Amodiaquine
C. pyrimethamine
B. Primaquine
D. quinine***
60. Antihypertensive agent of choice in a patient with diabetes mellitus
and protenuria:
A. beta blocker
C. diuretics
B. ACE inhibitors***
D. calcium channel blockers
61. OF the insulin secretagogues, this is least that cause hypoglycemia
as its adverse effect:
A. nateglinide***
C. glifizide
B. miglitide
D. glibenclamide
62. A short acting insulin that can be given intravenously:
A. insulin lispro
C. insulin ultralente
B. regular insulin***
D. insulin glargine
73. This drug has a very high affinity for the phosphorus atom in
parathion and is often used to treat insecticide toxicity:
A. Tubocurarine
C. scopolamine
B. Trimethaphan
D. pralidoxime***
74. Important characteristics of non-depolarizing blocking agents:
A. It is reversible by anticholinesterase drugs***
B. Produces initial fasciculation and often postoperative muscle pain
C. It is hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterase and is normally very
short-acting
D. All of the above
75. This IV anesthetic is moderately rapid in its onset and recovery;
causes cardiovascular stimulation and increased cerebral blood flow.
Emergence reactions impair recovery:
A. Etomadate
C. midazolam
B. ketamine ***
D. propolol
76. This inhalational anesthetics has a low blood: gas partition
coefficient but is not used for induction of anesthesia because of its
pungency, it causes patient to hold their breath?
A. sevoflurane
C. Halothane
B. Isoflurane
D. Desflurane***
77. Most serious toxic reactions to local anesthetics are due to:
A. convulsions from excessive blood levels ***
B. conversion of hemoglobin to methemoglobin
C. its direct effect on the cardiac muscles
D. its toxicity to nerve muscles
78.This is not an action of morphine:
A. analgesic effect due to stimulation of mu receptors
B. Sedations and euphoria due to the stimulation of mu receptors
C. antitussive effects due to depression o the medullary cough center
D. decrease in circular muscle tone***
79. The clinical use of disulfiram depends on its ability to inhibit this
enzyme:
A. adenylyl cyclase
B. cytochrome P450
C. alcohol dehydrogenase
D. aldehyde dehydrogenase***
80. This vasoactive peptide dilates arterioles, contracts veins, intestinal,
and bronchial smooth muscle, causes diuresis, and is a transmitter in
sensory pain neurons:
A. endothelins
C. substance P***
B. bradykinin
D. vasoactive intestinal peptide
REVIEW QUESTIONS
DEPARTMENT OF
PHARMACOLOGY
FATIMA COLLEGE OF MEDICINE
OUR LADY OF FATIMA UNIVERSITY
VALENZUELA CITY