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MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Cellular organelles and viruses are generally measured in
A) nanometers.
B) millimeters.
C) micrometers.
D) centimeters.
E) decimeters.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Units of Measurement
5) If you were trying to visualize flagella without staining, which microscope would you use?
A) phase-contrast
B) dark-field
C) fluorescent
D) confocal
E) bright-field
Answer: A
7) All of the following are associated with different types of phase microscopes EXCEPT
A) a dark-field stop.
B) a phase plate.
C) Nomarski microscopes.
D) unstained specimens.
E) prisms.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Microscopy
8) The microscope preferred for viewing living specimens is the ________ microscope.
A) bright-field
B) phase-contrast
C) scanning electron
D) scanning tunneling
E) transmission electron
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Microscopy
E) bright-field.
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Microscopy
11) Which of the following microscopes produces the highest resolution images?
A) dark-field
B) differential interference
C) scanning electron
D) fluorescent
E) atomic force
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Microscopy
12) If a microbiology lab technician left the safranin out of the Gram stain procedure, what would be the result?
A) All cells would be purple.
B) Gram-positive cells would be purple, and Gram-negative cells would be colorless.
C) All cells would be pink.
D) Gram-positive cells would be pink, and Gram-negative cells would be purple.
E) Gram-positive cells would be colorless, and Gram-negative cells would be pink.
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
13) All of the following are common to both the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain EXCEPT
A) primary stain.
B) counterstain.
C) a decolorizing agent.
D) a mordant.
E) a decolorizing agent and a counterstain.
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Staining
14) A patient suffering from tuberculosis could be diagnosed by use of the ________ stain.
A) Gram
B) endospore
C) acid-fast
D) flagellar
E) capsule
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
15) Which of the following staining procedures use(s) heat to drive the stain in?
A) endospore stain
B) acid-fast stain
C) capsule stain
D) Gram stain
E) both acid-fast and endospore stains
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
17) All of the following are components of electron microscopy stains EXCEPT
A) eosin.
B) tungsten.
C) lead.
D) uranium.
E) osmium.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
20) The taxonomic scheme proposed by Whittaker added the kingdom(s) ________ to Linnaeus' taxonomy.
A) Animalia
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi and Protista
D) Plantae
E) Fungi, Protista, and Prokaryotae
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
22) Carl Woese proposed the concept of the domain based on differences of which of the following cellular
molecules?
A) transfer RNA
B) membrane lipids
C) ribosomal RNA
D) DNA
E) proteins
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
23) Which of the following classification methods relies on the morphology of organisms?
A) phage typing
B) physical characteristics
C) biochemical tests
D) analysis of nucleic acids
E) serological tests
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
24) A cell's G + C ratio is associated with which of the following classification methods?
A) phage typing
B) biochemical tests
C) physical characteristics
D) analysis of nucleic acids
E) serological tests
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
26) Why have some microbiologists proposed using ribosomal RNA as the basis for defining bacterial species?
A) Ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genetic sequences present in all prokaryotes.
B) The "interbreeding population" criterion does not apply to bacteria.
C) Ribosomal RNA is the basis for domain assignment.
D) Bacteria vary too little in their physical and biochemical traits.
E) Bacteria are not interbreeding populations, and ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genes present in
all prokaryotes.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
28) A virologist wants to observe the surface features of virus particles she is studying. Which of the following
microscopes would NOT be useful for her observations?
A) differential interference contrast
B) scanning tunneling
C) scanning electron
D) transmission electron
E) atomic force
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Microscopy
29) A structure that appears in a transmission electron micrograph but is NOT actually present in the specimen
is known as a(n)
A) antigen.
B) biofilm.
C) artifact.
D) refraction.
E) mordant.
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Microscopy
30) Which of the following statements about transmission electron microscopy is FALSE?
A) Thin segments must be used.
B) Electrons are the source of illumination.
C) Glass lenses are used.
D) The sample is placed in a vacuum.
E) Stains can be applied to improve contrast.
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Microscopy
32) All of the following are associated with smear preparation EXCEPT
A) agglutination of the specimen.
B) spreading the specimen onto a slide.
C) fixation using heat.
D) killing the microbes in the specimen.
E) fixation using methanol or formalin.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
33) The Gram stain works because of differences in the ________ of bacteria.
A) genetic characteristics
B) cell walls
C) cell membranes
D) antigens
E) capsules
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Staining
35) Why are modern light microscopes better than the ones Leeuwenhoek used?
A) Modern microscopes have a fivefold better resolution.
B) Modern microscopes are compound instead of simple.
C) Modern microscopes have lenses with smaller numerical apertures.
D) Modern lenses are made of prisms.
E) Modern microscopes are compound and have fivefold better resolution.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Microscopy
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the Gram stain reagent with its description:
A) Primary stain
B) Counterstain
C) Decolorizing agent
D) Mordant
36) Iodine
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
37) Safranin
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
38) Ethanol-acetone
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
C) Flagellar stain
D) Endospore stain
E) Electron microscopy stain
40) Osmium tetraoxide
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Staining
41) Eosin
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Staining
42) Pararosanaline
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Staining
46) Bacteria
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Units of Measurement
48) Tick
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Units of Measurement
49) Virus
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Units of Measurement
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
50) A resolution of 1 m would be better than a resolution of 0.5 m.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Microscopy
51) Bacterial cells are so similar to each other that physical characteristics cannot be used in identifying
organisms.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
52) The three domains proposed by Carl Woese are the Archaea, the Eukarya, and the Monera.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
53) Robert Whittaker proposed the system of binomial nomenclature that we use today.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
54) The Gram stain can be used to distinguish bacteria based on the structure of their cell walls.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Staining
55) Members of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium can be identified using the endospore stain.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
56) Acid-fast cells such as Mycobacterium lose the color of the primary stain in the presence of hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Staining
57) Three-dimensional images of specimens can be obtained using scanning electron microscopes.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Microscopy
58) Light rays that are in phase reinforce each other and produce a brighter image.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Microscopy
59) Light rays that pass through the edge of a curved lens will be refracted more than those that pass through the
center.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Microscopy
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
60) A(n) ________ microscope has a single ocular lens.
Answer: monocular
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Microscopy
61) A(n) ________ molecule is one that absorbs invisible radiation and emits visible light.
Answer: fluorescent
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Microscopy
62) The total magnification using a 10 ocular and a 100 objective would be ________.
Answer: 1000
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Microscopy
63) A(n) ________ is a substance that binds to a dye and makes it less soluble.
Answer: mordant
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Staining
64) Coating a specimen with a heavy metal is a step in preparing it for ________ microscopy.
Answer: electron
65) A serological test that involves the clumping of antigen and antibody is the ________ test.
Answer: agglutination
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
67) Carl Woese and his colleagues proposed the ________, a taxon that replaces the kingdom.
Answer: domain
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
68) A ________ is a guide that directs the user through a step-by-step process to identify a microbe.
Answer: dichotomous key
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
69) Bacterial viruses that can be used to help classify different groups of bacteria are called ________.
Answer: bacteriophages
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
70) The limit of resolution of the unaided human eye is about ________.
Answer: 200 m (0.2 mm)
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Microscopy
71) An integral part of serological testing is the use of a solution called ________ that contains antibodies.
Answer: antiserum
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
72) In a compound microscope, the lens that directs light through the specimen is the ________ lens.
Answer: condenser
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Microscopy
73) ________ is the process of immobilizing organisms on a glass slide through the application of either heat or
chemicals.
Answer: Fixation
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Staining
74) A staining procedure that uses a single basic dye is called a(n) ________ stain.
Answer: simple
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Staining
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
75) Discuss the ways in which light rays can be manipulated to increase resolution and/or contrast.
Answer: Light rays can be manipulated to increase the resolution and contrast of a specimen in a variety of
ways. In bright-field microscopes, immersion oil is used to capture light rays that would otherwise be
refracted and lost; the result is an increase in the resolution of the image. Dark-field microscopes
purposely scatter light rays in such a way as to improve the contrast of the specimen. Phase-contrast
microscopes alter the wavelengths of light rays by making them in and out of phase with each other,
thereby increasing contrast. Finally, fluorescent microscopes use UV light, which produces increased
resolution because of its shorter wavelength, and the fluorescent dyes that are used emit a variety of
colors, increasing contrast.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Microscopy
76) Compare and contrast the light microscope with the electron microscope.
Answer: Both the light microscope and the electron microscope depend on the wavelength of radiation to
achieve the resolution necessary to see fine details of specimens. Light microscopes use light rays,
which, because of their relatively long wavelengths, limit the magnification of these microscopes to
2000 or less. Electron beams, by contrast, have such a short wavelength that the resolution is greatly
increased, to the point that magnification of 100,000 or more is possible. Both microscopes are
capable of modulating and focusing their radiation sources in such a way as to increase the quality of
the magnification; however, in a light microscope the light rays are focused using glass lenses,
whereas in an electron microscope the electron beam is focused with magnetic fields. Because of their
higher levels of magnification and extreme resolving power, electron microscopes are capable of
revealing the finest details of the cell's ultrastructure, even molecules and atoms; light microscopes are
capable of revealing only the larger cellular structures, such as organelles.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Microscopy
77) You are a scientist studying the highly specific interactions of bacteriophages with their host cells when they
first encounter the cell. Discuss what microscope(s) and preparation procedures you might use for this study.
Answer: A scanning electron microscope can produce three-dimensional images of the physical contact
between bacteriophage and host, providing information on what portions of the bacteriophage are in
contact with what structures of the cell. A mixture of bacterial cells and bacteriophages is dried onto
the surface of the sample holder and coated with metal to prepare it for the scanning electron
microscope.
A transmission electron microscope may provide information about structures and interactions
obscured by the intact bacteriophage. Samples are dried, embedded in plastic, sliced into thin (100 nm)
sections, and stained with heavy metals (osmium, tungsten, etc.) to increase contrast.
Scanning tunneling or atomic force microscopy of separate preparations of bacteriophages and
bacterial cells can provide detail about the structures on each that interact when the bacteriophage is
in contact with the surface of the cell. The preparation of specimens for atomic force microscopy is
minimal, as the material does not need to be dried, sectioned, or stained.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Microscopy
78) Compare and contrast the three domains identified by Woese: Eukarya, Bacteria, and Archaea.
Answer: With respect to cell type, organisms in Eukarya have eukaryotic cells and the characteristics that go
with this cell type, such as a nucleus and membrane-bounded organelles. Bacteria and Archaea both
have prokaryotic cells lacking nuclei and membrane-bounded organelles. All three have different
rRNA sequences found in the small subunit of their ribosomes that are characteristic for the domain,
which is an important tool for categorizing organisms. All three have cell membranes; however, they
differ in the lipids found in the cell membrane. Eukarya belong to one of four Whittaker system
kingdoms: Plantae, Animalia, Protista, or Fungi. Archaea have only three kingdoms, and Bacteria have
over fifty.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
79) List and explain five types of techniques that can be used to identify unknown microorganisms.
Answer: There are five major types of identification techniques used in the microbiology lab. One method is
simply observation and classification of the physical characteristics of an organism, which includes
both cellular morphology and colony morphology. A second method is the use of biochemical tests,
such as fermentation of carbohydrates or production of metabolic by-products, to place microbes in
different groups. A third type of identification technique is serological testing, in which antibodies are
used to detect particular antigens on the surfaces of different microbes in an effort to distinguish
closely related species or strains of microbes. Phage typing is the fourth technique, which is the use of
bacteriophages to infect bacterial cells; because bacteriophages are highly specific in their infection of
cells, the patterns of infected and uninfected cells can be used to differentiate bacterial strains and
species. A fifth method involves analyzing the genetic material of microbes, such as the percentage of
G and C bases in a cell's DNA, to demonstrate possible relationships between species.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms
Chapter 6.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) In microbiology, the term growth usually refers to which of the following?
A) an increase in a microbe's size
B) an increase in the number of microbial cells
C) an increase in the amount of ATP produced
D) an increase in the number and size of microbial cells
E) an increase in the number and size of microbial cells and the amount of ATP produced
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
2) A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a
A) photoheterotroph.
B) lithoautotroph.
C) photoautotroph.
D) chemoheterotroph.
E) chemoautotroph.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
4) An aquatic microbe that can grow only at the surface of the water is probably which of the following?
A) a phototroph
B) a heterotroph
C) a chemotroph
D) a lithotroph
E) an anaerobe
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Growth Requirements
6) All of the following are used to protect organisms from the toxic by-products of oxygen EXCEPT
A) carotenoids.
B) superoxide dismutase.
C) peroxidase.
D) protease.
E) catalase.
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
7) A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n)
A) obligate aerobe.
B) facultative anaerobe.
C) aerotolerant anaerobe.
D) microaerophile.
E) obligate anaerobe.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Growth Requirements
9) All of the following are examples of growth factors used by microbes EXCEPT
A) heme.
B) selenium.
C) NADH.
D) vitamins.
E) amino acids.
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
10) At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism,
A) proteins are permanently denatured.
B) membranes become too fluid for proper function.
C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken.
12) The term barophile refers to which of the following growth requirements?
A) hydrostatic pressure
B) temperature
C) nitrogen source
D) pH
E) osmotic pressure
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
13) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to contaminate a jar of pickles?
A) a neutrophile
B) a thermophile
C) an acidophile
D) an obligate anaerobe
E) a mesophile
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
14) Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are
A) obligate aerobes.
B) facultative anaerobes.
C) aerotolerant anaerobes.
D) obligate anaerobes.
E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
15) A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media?
A) transport media
B) reducing media
C) enriched media
D) differential media
E) selective media
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Culturing Microorganisms
17) Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant. Which of the
following refers to the process she should use?
A) lyophilization
B) binary fission
C) quorum sensing
D) enrichment culture
E) nitrogen fixation
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Culturing Microorganisms
18) A microbiologist inoculates a growth medium with 100 bacterial cells/ml. If the generation time of the species
is 1 hour, how long will it be before the culture contains more than 10,000 cells/ml?
A) 24 hours
B) 7 hours
C) 2 hours
D) 3 hours
E) 10 hours
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
19) An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells
in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture
conditions are most likely to be successful?
A) culturing on blood agar plates
B) inoculation of EMB plates
C) incubation in a candle jar
D) inoculation of cell cultures
E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth
Answer: D
20) Which of the following measurement techniques would be useful to quantify a species of bacteria that is
difficult to culture?
A) membrane filtration
B) viable plate counts
C) MPN
D) microscopic counts
E) metabolic activity
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
24) A device that removes wastes and adds fresh medium to bacterial cultures in order to prolong the log phase
of a culture is called a(n)
A) Coulter counter.
B) cytometer.
C) spectrophotometer.
D) pellicle.
E) chemostat.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
25) A specimen of urine is determined to contain 30 bacterial cells per microliter. How many cells would be
present in a milliliter?
A) 3
B) 300
C) 30,000
D) 3,000
E) 30 million
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
26) Which of the following is NOT a direct method for measuring the number of microbes in a sample?
A) viable plate counts
B) turbidity
C) Coulter counter
D) MPN
E) membrane filtration
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
27) During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs?
A) lag phase
B) log phase
C) stationary phase
D) death phase
E) the susceptibility is the same for all phases
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
28) The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods is an application of which of the following
concepts?
A) nitrogen fixation
B) osmotic pressure
C) pH
D) hydrostatic pressure
E) quorum sensing
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
30) The method of obtaining isolated cultures that utilizes surface area to dilute specimens is called
A) the pour-plate technique.
B) serial dilution.
C) the streak-plate technique.
D) transport media.
E) enrichment culturing.
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
31) ________ are complex communities of various types of microbes that adhere to surfaces.
A) Aggregates
B) Colonies
C) Isolates
D) Biofilms
E) Media
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
33) All of the following ingredients might be found in complex media EXCEPT
A) hydrogen peroxide.
B) yeast extract.
C) blood.
D) soy extract.
E) milk proteins.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
34) Sodium thioglycollate is associated with which of the following types of media?
A) transport media
B) differential media
C) complex media
D) reducing media
E) selective media
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Culturing Microorganisms
35) Which of the following quantification techniques can distinguish living cells from dead cells in a culture?
A) microscopic counts
B) dry weight
C) metabolic activity
D) a Coulter counter
E) turbidity
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the statements with the appropriate phase of the bacterial growth curve:
A) Lag phase
B) Log phase
C) Death phase
D) Stationary phase
36) New cells are being produced at the same rate as other cells are dying
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
37) Cells are dying faster than new cells are being produced
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
42) Capnophile
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
43) Barophile
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
44) Microaerophile
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
45) Acidophile
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
46) Obligate anaerobes have enzymes such as superoxide dismutase to protect them from the damaging effects
of oxygen.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
Answer:
True
False
48) Thermoduric mesophiles are often responsible for spoilage of improperly canned foods.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
50) The only effective way to store bacterial cultures for short periods of time is to arrest their metabolism by
freezing.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Culturing Microorganisms
51) Quorum sensing is a process by which bacteria respond to the density of other bacteria in their environment.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
53) Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Culturing Microorganisms
54) A selective medium can be formulated either by including inhibitory chemical substances or by leaving out a
single crucial nutrient.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Culturing Microorganisms
55) In spectrophotometry, 40% light transmission is the same thing as 60% absorbance of light.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
56) The conversion of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called ________.
Answer: nitrogen fixation
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
57) ________ are organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy.
Answer: Chemoheterotrophs
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
58) The ________ radical is formed during the incomplete reduction of O2 during electron transport in aerobes.
Answer: superoxide
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
59) The ________ growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate.
Answer: optimum
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
60) Bacteria that thrive at human body temperatures are classified as ________.
Answer: mesophiles
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth Requirements
62) Cells that are exposed to hypertonic environments will exhibit ________.
Answer: crenation
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth Requirements
64) A(n) ________ is composed of cells that arise from a single colony.
Answer: pure culture
65) ________ is a gelling agent derived from algae that is useful for creating solid growth media.
Answer: Agar
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Culturing Microorganisms
66) A sample placed into fresh medium is typically initially in the ________ phase of microbial growth.
Answer: lag
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
67) A(n) ________ plots the number of organisms in a growing population over time.
Answer: growth curve
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
68) ________ is a method of counting cells that have been stained or tagged with fluorescent dyes.
Answer: Flow cytometry
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
70) A(n) ________ can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture.
Answer: spectrophotometer
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
71) Explain how aerobic organisms tolerate the presence of oxygen in their metabolic pathways despite its toxic
properties.
Answer: Oxygen is toxic to organisms only because of the highly reactive alternative forms of the molecule.
These forms of oxygen can accumulate in cells and damage them by oxidizing key cellular molecules
and structures. To tolerate the presence of oxygen (to allow aerobic cellular respiration to take place),
cells must have ways of converting these toxic forms of oxygen to less harmful molecules. Cells use a
variety of enzymes to accomplish this. These enzymes are superoxide dismutase (for elimination of the
superoxide radical) and catalase and peroxidase (for the removal of hydrogen peroxide from cells). By
continuous use of these enzymes, aerobic cells can use oxygen in their metabolism without suffering
too many of the adverse effects of oxygen. Likewise, one major reason obligate anaerobes cannot
tolerate any oxygen in their environment is the absence or reduced activity of such enzymes in those
cells.
Bloom's Rank: Application
72) Explain how temperature and pH levels can influence microbial infections in the human body.
Answer: All microbes have particular ranges of temperature and pH within which they exist. When the
temperature or pH of their environment falls outside this range, their growth is inhibited, and they
may even die as a result of the adverse conditions. Therefore, only those microbes whose pH and
temperature requirements match those conditions found in the human body will be able to grow and
reproduce there. For example, because the temperature of the human body is 37C, only mesophiles
can reproduce there. In addition, the pH of most tissues and fluids in the body is 6.57.5, which
matches the pH requirements of neutrophiles. Therefore, it is not surprising that most human
pathogens are mesophiles and neutrophiles. However, this is not always the case. Some microbes have
adapted to environments that would otherwise be extremely hostile to most microbes. A good
example is the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which is able to live in the extremely acidic conditions of
the stomach by secreting substances that help to neutralize the acid. The result is an infection that can
lead to stomach ulcers.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Growth Requirements
73) Compare and contrast the streak-plate method of isolation with the pour-plate method of isolation.
Answer: The streak-plate and the pour-plate methods of bacterial isolation are both used to produce pure
cultures of bacteria from specimens. Both techniques involve the use of agar-based growth media
contained in Petri plates. Additionally, both techniques involve the use of dilutions as a means of
isolating single cells or groups of cells that then grow into isolated colonies. However, there are
several significant differences between the two techniques. The main difference is the way in which
the specimen is diluted. In the streak-plate method, the specimen is diluted by use of an inoculating
loop that spreads organisms over the surface of the agar. Thus, colonies appear only on the agar
surface. In the pour-plate method, however, dilutions of the specimen are made in tubes of broth and
then each dilution is added to melted agar, which is then poured into Petri dishes. Thus, microbes are
mixed throughout the agar, and colonies will appear both in and on the medium.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Culturing Microorganisms
74) Genetic methods of detecting microorganisms reveal that the number of bacterial species in nature exceeds
previous estimates by several orders of magnitude. In the human mouth, for example, it is estimated that
500700 microbial species are normally present. Explain why previous estimates were low.
Answer: Previous estimates of microbial diversity were largely based on the ability to detect microbes in
samples handled in a typical laboratory setting. In most cases, laboratory conditions represent a
narrow range of growth parameters, including temperature range, oxygen and other gas levels, and
spectrum of nutrients. Even in cases where attempts are made to simulate the normal conditions for
microbes (e.g., providing a high-pressure environment for organisms collected from hyperbaric
environment), microorganisms must frequently tolerate fluctuations in the growth environment or
even exposure to extremely adverse conditions for short periods of time. Organisms that are intolerant
of significant fluctuation in their environmental requirements do not survive transport to the lab to be
measured or cultured. As a consequence, only the relatively few microbes that are versatile in their
nutrient requirements and can tolerate fluctuations in their growth environment have been observed
or isolated in the laboratory. This, in turn, resulted in misleadingly low estimates of microbial
diversity.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
75) Explain the similarities and differences between direct and indirect methods of measuring microbial growth,
and give examples of each.
Answer: Direct methods of measuring microbial growth involve quantifying the number of microbes in a
specimen through actual counting of cells in a microscope or cytometer or counting the numbers of
colonies produced from the plating of a specimen. The advantage of these techniques lies in their
usefulness for counting very large and very small populations of bacteria. Indirect methods, by
contrast, seek to quantify cells by measuring some characteristic related to the number of cells present.
For example, spectrophotometry measures the amount of light transmitted through a culture; the less
light that is transmitted, the more cells are present. The amount of light transmitted gives an
approximation of the number of cells present. Indirect methods are useful for quantifying microbes,
such as filamentous microbes, that are hard to count directly. Both direct and indirect methods seek to
arrive at an approximation of the actual number of cells present. Because that number is changing
even during the measurement process, neither technique can give an exact number of cells.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Growth of Microbial Populations
Chapter 7.
Microbial Genetics
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) All of the following are associated with nucleic acid structure EXCEPT
A) ribose.
B) hydrogen bonds.
C) uracil.
D) ionic bonds.
E) phosphate.
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
4) Which of the following types of plasmids allows a bacterial cell to kill its competitors?
A) virulence factors
B) fertility factors
C) bacteriocin factors
D) resistance factors
E) cryptic plasmids
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
7) DNA helicases
A) break hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleotides.
B) synthesize short DNA molecules important for the function of DNA polymerase.
C) seal gaps between DNA fragments.
D) proofread DNA molecules.
E) assist in recognition of promoters during transcription.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
10) Which of the following is a characteristic shared by DNA and RNA polymerases?
A) efficiency of proofreading
B) type of nucleotides used
C) direction of polymerization
D) speed
E) dependence on helicase
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Gene Function
12) A codon is a particular combination of three nucleotides. Therefore, there are ________ possible
combinations of the nucleotides A, C, G, and T.
A) 16
B) 4
C) 12
D) 64
E) 32
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Gene Function
13) The AUG codon functions in coding for the amino acid methionine and as a
A) termination signal.
B) start signal.
C) "wobble" codon.
D) marker for introns.
E) recognition site for RNA polymerase.
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Gene Function
14) Which of the following must be removed from a eukaryotic mRNA molecule before it can be translated?
A) promoter
B) exon
C) intron
D) anticodon
E) codon
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Gene Function
15) A charged tRNA first enters the ribosomal ________ site and then moves into the ________ site.
A) A, E
B) P, A
C) P, E
D) A, P
E) E, A
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Gene Function
19) The proofreading function of DNA polymerase III results in an error rate of ________ during DNA
replication.
A) 1 error in 1,000 bases
B) 1 error in 100,000 bases
C) 1 error in 1 million bases
D) 1 error in 10 million bases
E) 1 error in 10 billion bases
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
20) Which of the following processes is involved in the "central dogma" of genetics?
A) translation
B) transcription
C) DNA replication
D) transcription and translation
E) DNA replication and translation
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Gene Function
23) If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a
A) silent mutation.
B) nonsense mutation.
C) frameshift mutation.
D) gross mutation.
E) missense mutation.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mutations of Genes
26) Which of the following is a DNA repair enzyme activated by visible light?
A) transposase
B) DNA photolyase
C) bacteriocin
D) DNA ligase
E) primase
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mutations of Genes
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Genetic Recombination and Transfer
31) Another term for the palindromic sequence found at the ends of transposons is a(n)
A) complex transposon.
B) bacteriophage.
C) insertion sequence.
D) inverted repeat.
E) transposase.
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Genetic Recombination and Transfer
32) Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotic genomes but NOT eukaryotic genomes?
A) histones
B) circular chromosomes
C) linear chromosomes
D) enclosed in a nuclear membrane
E) typically consist of a few to several chromosomes
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
D) RNA primer.
E) the leading strand.
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
35) Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the lac operon?
A) an inducer
B) a repressor protein
C) an iRNA
D) glucose
E) cyclic AMP
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Gene Function
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the term with the appropriate genetic process:
A) Transcription
B) DNA replication
C) Translation
36) Promoter
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Gene Function
37) Codon
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Gene Function
38) Origin
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
41) tRNA
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Gene Function
42) fMet
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Gene Function
44) Semiconservative
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
45) P site
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Gene Function
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
46) Prokaryotic cells are diploid.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
47) Prokaryotes have one type of DNA polymerase, which is different from that of eukaryotes.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
49) Most bacteria have a natural ability to take up DNA from their environment.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Genetic Recombination and Transfer
50) The structure of DNA explains both its ability to encode genetic information and the way in which it is
copied during cell reproduction.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
51) DNA, which is negatively charged, wraps around positively charged histones as part of the packaging of
eukaryotic chromosomes.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
52) Bidirectional replication means that each strand of a DNA molecule is replicated in the opposite direction
from the other.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
54) In generalized transduction, viruses carry random DNA sequences from one cell to another.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Genetic Recombination and Transfer
55) DNA polymerase III participates in the dark repair mechanism of DNA mutation repair.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mutations of Genes
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
56) A(n) ________ is a specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein or an RNA molecule.
Answer: gene
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
59) A(n) ________ is a mutant organism that has different nutritional requirements from the original wild-type
organism.
Answer: auxotroph
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mutations of Genes
60) The enzyme that removes supercoils generated during DNA replication is ________.
Answer: topoisomerase
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
61) 5-bromouracil mimics the chemical structure of thymine, making it a(n) ________.
Answer: nucleotide analog
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mutations of Genes
62) A mutation that changes the reading frame of a gene is called a ________ mutation.
Answer: frameshift
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mutations of Genes
63) The ________ of a transfer RNA molecule is complementary to a codon in a messenger RNA molecule.
Answer: anticodon
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Gene Function
64) Transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially bind to the ribosome at the ________.
Answer: A site
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Gene Function
65) dATP and dCTP are examples of ________, the building blocks of DNA molecules.
Answer: triphosphate deoxyribonucleotides
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
66) A(n) ________ is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit.
Answer: operon
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Gene Function
67) The ________ is the DNA strand that is synthesized continuously during DNA replication.
Answer: leading strand
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The Structure and Replication of Genomes
69) RNA polymerase initiates transcription by recognizing specific nucleotide sequences called ________.
Answer: promoters
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Gene Function
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
71) Describe the basic similarities and differences between DNA replication and transcription.
Answer: DNA replication and transcription are similar processes in that they both involve the production of
molecules of nucleic acids using a preexisting template. Therefore, they both involve the
polymerization of nucleotides to create long chains, as well as the utilization of complementary
base-pairing rules to create the nucleotide sequence of the new molecule based on the sequence of the
template. Additionally, these chains of nucleotides are synthesized in the same direction, 5' to 3',
regardless of the type of nucleic acid being produced.
However, there are a number of differences between these two processes as well. The product of DNA
replication is an exact, complete DNA copy of an entire DNA molecule that will be passed on to the
offspring of the cell producing it. The product of transcription is an RNA copy of a limited region (a
gene) of a DNA molecule. Furthermore, this RNA molecule may not be an exact copy of the gene,
because transcription is more prone to errors than DNA replication. The RNA molecules produced
during transcription are used within the cell that produces them to provide information for the
synthesis of proteins during translation.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Gene Function
72) Describe the various types of nucleic acids that are typically found in cells.
Answer: All cells possess one or more DNA molecules that serve as the genetic blueprint of the cell; these
molecules are generally referred to as chromosomes. Prokaryotic chromosomes differ from eukaryotic
chromosomes in their number and physical shape. Eukaryotic chromosomes tend to be more complex
in their organization, involving specialized packaging proteins called histones. Eukaryotic cells also
tend to contain more chromosomes than prokaryotes, which have no more than two chromosomes. In
addition, all cells contain additional nucleic acid in the form of various types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA,
primer RNA, siRNA, RNAi, and rRNA), which are used to assist in the cell's genetic processes.
Most cells contain other types of nucleic acid, such as plasmids or the DNA found in organelles such
as mitochondria and chloroplasts. Plasmids are a common form of prokaryotic DNA and confer a
variety of special abilities to the cell, depending on the specific genes carried by the plasmid. Some
eukaryotic cells may also contain plasmids. The DNA of eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplasts is
used to partially control the activities of these organelles in conjunction with genes found in the cell's
nucleus.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Gene Function
73) Discuss some of the consequences of the significant differences in transcription between prokaryotes and
eukaryotes.
Answer: The eukaryotic transcript is extensively modified after transcription and must be transported out of
the nucleus before it is translated. Prokaryotic transcripts are not extensively modified before
translation, and translation can be initiated before transcription is completed. One result of these
differences is that regulated protein products are produced more promptly in prokaryotes than in
eukaryotes, allowing prokaryotes to respond to environmental change much more quickly.
Eukaryotes have multiple RNA polymerases for transcription and a larger variety of transcription
initiation factors. As a consequence, gene regulation is potentially more complex in eukaryotes than in
prokaryotes.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Gene Function
74) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.
Answer: Both the lactose and the tryptophan operons have certain features in common. They both contain a set
of genes dedicated to a common purpose (such as the catabolism of lactose by the genes of the lactose
operon) and regulatory elements such as a promoter and an operator. Each of these operons makes
use of a repressor protein, which binds to the operator region and alters the activity of the operon.
However, the lactose operon is classified as an inducible operon, which means it requires an inducer
(lactose itself) in order to be activated. In the absence of the inducer, the repressor protein shuts down
the operon. In contrast, the tryptophan operon is a repressible operon, which requires a corepressor
(tryptophan itself) in order to activate the repressor and shut down the operon. In the absence of the
corepressor and repressor, the operon is fully functional. In both types of operons, the molecule either
catabolized (in the case of lactose) or synthesized (in the case of tryptophan) is an important
component of the regulation of the operon. In this way, the cell maintains precise control over these
genetic pathways and does not spend time and energy making enzymes that are not needed. For
example, making enzymes to catabolize lactose when no lactose is present would waste energy and
metabolites.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Gene Function
75) A point mutation can be completely harmless, or it can result in the death of a cell or organism. Explain why
these types of mutations can have such varying effects.
Answer: A point mutation is a single base change in the nucleotide sequence of a cell's genome. The effects of a
point mutation can depend on its location. Point mutations in noncoding regions of the genome are
usually harmless. Even in coding regions, point mutations can be harmless if they result in silent
mutations. Silent mutations preserve the sense of the amino acid code because of the concept of
"wobble," in which two codons can code for the same amino acid by varying only at the third base of
the codon. If the point mutation has occurred at this third base, then the amino acid sequence of the
protein will remain unchanged. Point mutations occurring at the first or second base of the codon are
almost always much more serious because they change the codon to a completely different amino
acid. This type of point mutation is known as a missense mutation. (The only exception to this occurs
when the new amino acid is chemically similar to the previous amino acid, in which case the missense
mutation usually causes little or no change in the overall structure or function of the protein.) Finally,
one of the most serious types of point mutations is a nonsense mutation in which the codon has been
changed to a stop codon. These types of mutations result in the abnormal termination of a protein
sequence. In all such cases, if the protein affected by the mutation is an enzyme or some other vital
protein required for proper cellular function, then the cell and/or organism may die as a result of these
relatively simple mutations.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Mutations of Genes
Chapter 10.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) A large percentage of antibiotics and semisynthetic drugs are produced by members of the genus
A) Cephalosporium.
B) Penicillium.
C) Bacillus.
D) Mycobacterium.
E) Streptomyces.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: The History of Antimicrobial Agents
2) An antimicrobial that inhibits cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?
A) Cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.
B) Cells cannot attach to their hosts.
C) Ribosomes lose their function.
D) The sterols in the cell wall become nonfunctional.
E) The replication of cells, including cancer cells, slows down.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
5) Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain arabinogalactan-mycolic acid?
A) vancomycin
B) penicillin
C) methicillin
D) isoniazid
E) bacitracin
Answer: D
7) Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis?
A) the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit
B) interference with alanine-alanine bridges
C) the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit
D) movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next
E) the tRNA docking site
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
11) Which of the following statements about the zone of inhibition is FALSE?
A) It is measured as a diameter.
B) The larger the zone, the more resistant the organism is.
C) It is a clearing zone with no growth.
D) It is a result of diffusion of the drug out of the paper disk.
E) It is measured after incubation.
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
12) Which of the following groups of drugs can become incorporated into the bones and teeth of a fetus?
A) beta-lactams
B) aminoglycosides
C) quinolones
D) tetracyclines
E) sulfonamides
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
13) Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota?
A) anaphylactic shock
B) black hairy tongue
C) pseudomembranous colitis
D) thrush
E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
14) Which of the following statements concerning development of antibiotic resistance is FALSE?
A) It is often mediated by R-plasmids.
B) Resistant cells are normally in the minority in a bacterial population.
C) Resistant cells grow more efficiently and quickly than susceptible cells.
D) New resistance genes can be gained through transformation, transduction, or conjugation.
E) Resistance can occur through mutation of existing bacterial genes.
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs
16) Probiotics
A) involve microbial antagonism.
B) are an alternative to the use of chemotherapy.
C) involve the use of extracts from microorganisms.
D) is a term for resistance to antibiotics.
E) are an alternative to the use of chemotherapy involving microbial antagonism.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs
17) Most drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by
A) preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits.
B) blocking the secretion of cell wall molecules from the cytoplasm.
C) preventing the formation of alanine-alanine bridges.
D) disrupting the formation of the mycolic acid layer of the cell wall.
E) preventing the formation of -lactamases.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
20) Sulfonamides
22) Which of the following drugs inhibits nucleic acid synthesis specifically in prokaryotes?
A) quinolones
B) actinomycin
C) rifampin
D) tetracycline
E) 5-fluorocytosine
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
23) The cooperative activity of drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and clavulanic acid,
a -lactamase inhibitor, is known as
A) cross resistance.
B) antimetabolism.
C) synergism.
D) selective toxicity.
E) chemotherapy.
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs
24) Alterations in the structure of which of the following are an important aspect of Gram-negative bacterial
resistance to antimicrobial drugs?
A) plasmids
B) porins
C) mitochondria
D) cytoplasmic membrane
E) ribosomes
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
28) Antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are
A) aminoglycosides.
B) antisense nucleic acids.
C) macrolides.
D) beta-lactams.
E) nucleic acid analogs.
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
30) Which of the following is NOT a criterion by which all antimicrobial agents can be evaluated?
A) their spectrum of action
B) their efficacy
C) their activity against cell walls
D) their route of administration
E) their safety
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
31) Which of the following interferes with cell wall synthesis by blocking alanine bridge formation?
A) beta-lactams
B) cycloserine
C) bacitracin
D) vancomycin
E) both cycloserine and vancomycin
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
33) Which of the following is a measurement associated with the broth dilution test?
A) the zone of inhibition
B) lack of turbidity
C) cell lysis
D) lack of turbidity and zone of inhibition
E) presence of turbidity and cell lysis
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
34) Infection of the ________ would be the hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs.
A) heart
B) kidneys
C) liver
D) brain
E) colon
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
35) Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the following microbes?
A) Mycobacterium
B) Candida albicans
C) Clostridium difficile
D) both Mycobacterium and Clostridium difficile
E) Candida albicans, Mycobacterium, and Clostridium difficile
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the drug with its mode of action:
A) Disruption of cytoplasmic membranes
B) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C) Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
D) Inhibition of metabolic pathways
E) Inhibition of protein synthesis
36) Quinolones
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
37) Amphotericin B
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
38) Vancomycin
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
39) Tetracyclines
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
40) Trimethoprim
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
41) Erythromycin
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
42) Methicillin
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
43) Ribavirin
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
44) Polymyxin
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
45) Sulfonamides
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
46) Paul Erhlich coined the term antibiotics for the "magic bullet" antimicrobials he pursued.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: The History of Antimicrobial Agents
47) Antisense nucleic acids are designed to have no side effects against humans.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
49) Because all cells engage in protein synthesis, there are few antimicrobial drugs that selectively inhibit this
process.
Answer:
True
False
50) Many antimicrobial drugs that affect the cytoplasmic membrane are used only externally because they can be
toxic to humans.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
51) Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of
the cell.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs
52) The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria enables many antimicrobial drugs to enter the cell more
easily.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
53) If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test, the concentration of the drug was bactericidal.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
54) Brain and spinal cord infections are difficult to treat because most antimicrobial drugs cannot diffuse out of
the blood into these organs.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
55) Organs that are commonly affected by drug toxicity include the kidneys and the liver.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
56) Any drug that acts against a disease is called a(n) ________ agent.
Answer: chemotherapeutic
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: The History of Antimicrobial Agents
57) ________ means that a given antimicrobial agent is more toxic to a pathogen than to the host being treated.
Answer: Selective toxicity
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
58) Antimicrobial agents that mimic the chemical structure of DNA building blocks are called ________.
Answer: nucleotide analogs
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
60) ________ are serious secondary infections that result from the killing of the normal microbiota.
Answer: Superinfections
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
61) Competition between beneficial microbes and potential pathogens is called ________.
Answer: microbial antagonism
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
62) A(n) ________ concentration of a drug is one at which microbes survive but are not able to grow and
reproduce.
Answer: bacteriostatic
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
63) Extrachromosomal pieces of DNA called ________ promote horizontal transfer of genes among bacteria and
contribute to the spread of antimicrobial resistance.
Answer: R-plasmids
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs
64) Some bacteria develop resistance to groups of drugs because the drugs are all structurally similar to each
other; this is a phenomenon known as ________.
Answer: cross resistance
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs
65) ________ drugs are semisynthetic drugs developed to combat resistance against an existing drug.
Answer: Second-generation
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
66) Drugs that slow down bacterial growth would be ________ to penicillin.
Answer: antagonistic
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs
67) External infections can be treated by ________ administration, in which a drug is applied directly to the site
of infection.
Answer: topical
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
68) The abbreviation ________ stands for the smallest amount of a drug that will inhibit the growth and
reproduction of a pathogen.
Answer: MIC
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
69) Antiviral medications frequently block unique ________ to prevent production of new virus.
Answer: enzymes
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
71) Why can microbial resistance to antibiotics and other drugs be considered a primarily genetic phenomenon?
Answer: Microbial resistance is considered a genetic phenomenon because there are two major ways that
bacteria acquire resistance: through mutations of chromosomal genes or through acquisition of new
genes carried on R-plasmids. In both cases, the cell gains the ability to resist the activity of a particular
drug through the modified structure or activity of proteins that are coded for by the genes in question.
For example, some of these altered proteins can be cytoplasmic membrane proteins or porin proteins
that no longer allow a drug such as penicillin to enter the cell. Also, some of the proteins coded for by
these genes may be enzymes of various sorts that serve to inactivate a particular drug, such as the
inactivation of beta-lactam antibiotics by -lactamases.
Furthermore, these altered genes and proteins are then heritable by the offspring of the cell that
acquired the resistance, leading quickly to entire populations of bacteria or other microbes that are
resistant to a drug. When selective pressure is then brought to bear (through the administration of a
particular drug) on a population that contains both susceptible and resistant cells, the result is that the
susceptible cells die off, leaving the resistant cells to grow and flourish.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs
72) Discuss the cellular factors that might make a drug's spectrum of action narrow rather than broad.
Answer: When a drug is labeled "narrow-spectrum," meaning that it has activity against only a limited number
of microbes, generally the reason is that many microbes possess some form of natural resistance
against the drug. For example, many drugs work better against Gram-positive organisms than
Gram-negative ones because Gram-negative cells possess an outer membrane that does not allow
these drugs to enter the cell as readily as they enter Gram-positive cells. Other cellular factors that can
have an effect on the spectrum of action of a particular drug include the presence of R-plasmids in the
cell that carries resistance genes, the presence of altered cytoplasmic membrane or cell wall proteins
that prevent the passage of some types of drugs, and alterations in a cell's metabolic pathways, which
can make the cell more resistant to certain types of drugs.
Other antimicrobials have a narrow spectrum of action because they target a metabolic or structural
feature unique to a single pathogen or small group of pathogens. One example of this type of
narrow-spectrum antimicrobial is antisense RNA, which complements a specific nucleotide sequence
that may be present in only one pathogen.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
74) Examine the diffusion susceptibility plate results shown in Figure 10.9. Propose an explanation for the
appearance of the zone around the AM/10 disk, and discuss the implications for therapeutic use of this
antibiotic for the pathogen tested.
Answer: The ring of colonies within the outermost limit of the zone of inhibition indicates that there are some
cells in the population that are less susceptible to the antibiotic than the rest. If this antibiotic were
used to treat an infection with this population, the growth of bacteria with some resistance would be
promoted at the expense of the more susceptible cells, potentially giving rise to a new variant that is
fully resistant. If this were to occur in a patient being treated, the antibiotic therapy would fail, putting
the patient's health at risk. Therefore drug AM would be a poor choice, perhaps the poorest choice, for
chemotherapy against this bacterial species.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs
75) Explain why many antibiotics are effective only against cells that are actively growing and reproducing.
Answer: When cells are not actively growing and reproducing, they are not synthesizing many of their
component molecules or structures. Because many antimicrobial drugs inhibit the synthesis of
structures such as the cell wall or interfere with various metabolic pathways, cells that are not actively
doing one or both of these activities will be naturally more resistant to these drugs. For example, as
bacterial cells age or become dormant, they cease to synthesize molecules such as peptidoglycan;
therefore, drugs such as penicillin, which act by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis, have no effect on
these cells. Additionally, as cells age, they may modify or cease certain metabolic pathways. Drugs
that target these pathways will thus lose their effect.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action
Chapter 12.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The fusion of two gametes produces a
A) zygote.
B) schizont.
C) chromatid.
D) centromere.
E) merozoite.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms
3) Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during ________ of mitosis.
A) telophase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) interphase
E) prophase
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms
10) Which of the following is a protozoan stage that allows for transmission of intestinal parasites from one host
to another?
A) cyst
B) merozoite
C) schizont
D) foraminifera
E) kinetoplast
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Protozoa
12) The ________ is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism.
A) hyphae
B) sporangium
C) mycelium
D) pseudoplasmodium
E) conidiophore
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Fungi
B) algae
C) protozoa
D) both algae and protozoa
E) both fungi and algae
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Algae
16) Conjugation is a reproductive process associated with which of the following types of protozoa?
A) ciliates
B) amoebae
C) dinoflagellates
D) kinetoplastids
E) parabasalids
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Protozoa
17) Which of the following types of protozoa contributes to limestone formation in their fossilized state?
A) foraminiferans
B) euglenozoa
C) diplomonads
D) ciliates
E) amoebae
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Protozoa
19) Which of the following is a cell type associated with sexual reproduction in fungi?
A) sporangiospore
B) dikaryon
C) haustoria
D) pneumocyst
E) mycorrhiza
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Fungi
20) The first eukaryote to have its entire genome sequenced was the fungus
A) Neurospora.
B) Candida albicans.
C) Saccharomyces.
D) Cryptococcus.
E) Rhizopus.
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Fungi
22) Which of the following is a dinoflagellate whose toxin causes possible estuary-associated syndrome (PEAS)?
A) Gymnodinium
B) Gonyaulax
C) Balantidium
D) Toxoplasma
E) Pfiesteria
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Protozoa
25) Most of the fungi that spoil food belong to the division
A) Basidiomycota.
B) Deuteromycetes.
C) Zygomycota.
D) Ascomycota.
E) Rhodophyta.
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Fungi
26) Lichens are composed of a symbiosis of fungi and which of the following?
A) green algae
B) cyanobacteria
C) euglenoids
D) cyanobacteria or green algae
E) euglenoids or dinoflagellates
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Fungi
28) The division Basidiomycota includes which of the following types of fungi?
A) truffles
B) mushrooms
C) baker's yeast
D) bread mold
E) ringworm
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungi
29) The roots of vascular plants form associations with fungi called ________, which allow them to absorb water
and dissolved minerals from the soil.
A) hyphae
B) mycoses
C) mycorrhizae
D) lichens
E) thalli
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungi
30) Which of the following protozoan genera helps termites digest wood?
A) Trichonympha
B) Nosema
C) Trichomonas
D) Pfiesteria
E) Naegleria
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Protozoa
31) In a cell that has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present at the beginning
of mitosis?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
D) 4
E) 2
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms
33) Which of the following would be virtually indistinguishable under the microscope?
A) early anaphase and late anaphase
B) early metaphase and early anaphase
C) early prophase and early metaphase
D) late anaphase and early telophase
E) late metaphase and early telophase
Answer: D
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms
34) When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, which of the following is produced?
A) merozoites
B) chromatids
C) cysts
D) macronuclei
E) coenocytes
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match each description with the appropriate phase of mitosis:
A) Anaphase
B) Telophase
C) Metaphase
D) Prophase
35) Chromatids move toward opposite poles
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms
41) Deuteromycetes
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungi
42) Ciliates
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Protozoa
43) Ascomycetes
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungi
44) Kelps
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Algae
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
45) Haploid genomes contain two sets of chromosomes.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms
47) Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Protozoa
48) Ciliates often have two kinds of nuclei that have different functions.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Protozoa
50) Algae can have different types of photosynthetic pigments that allow them to photosynthesize at various
depths in water.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Algae
52) Unlike the term fungi, the terms algae and protozoa are not accepted taxa.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Algae
53) Myxamoebae act like protozoan amoebae only in the absence of water.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Protozoa
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
55) The fever and chills associated with malaria are due to the release of uninucleate daughter cells of
Plasmodium called ________.
Answer: merozoites
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms
57) Some protozoa protect themselves from the adverse effects of osmosis by the use of ________ to pump out
excess water.
Answer: contractile vacuoles
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
58) ________ are protozoa that move and feed by the use of pseudopodia.
Answer: Amoebae
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Protozoa
59) The ________ are protozoa that produce cell walls composed of silica.
Answer: Radiolaria
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Protozoa
60) ________ are the asexual reproductive spores produced at the tips of hyphae.
Answer: Conidiospores
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungi
61) Fungi and insects both use the nitrogenous polysaccharide ________ as a protective molecule in their outer
surfaces.
Answer: chitin
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Fungi
62) Organisms such as fungi that absorb nutrients from dead organisms are called ________.
Answer: saprobes
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungi
63) ________ are modified hyphae that allow fungi to derive nutrients from other living organisms.
Answer: Haustoria
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Fungi
65) Lichens spread to new areas by the use of multicellular fragments called ________.
Answer: soredia
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Fungi
66) Multicellular algae often reproduce sexually by means of haploid and diploid individuals in a process called
________.
67) Microbiologists interested in parasitism study the multicellular ________ as well as single-celled protozoa.
Answer: parasitic worms
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors
68) The two halves of a diatom's cell wall, called ________, fit together like a Petri dish.
Answer: frustules
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Algae
69) Ticks, lice, and mosquitoes often serve as ________ by carrying and transmitting pathogenic microbes.
Answer: vectors
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
70) Compare and contrast slime molds and water molds.
Answer: Both the slime molds and the water molds are saprobes, and neither of them are fungi, as the names
would suggest. In spite of the similarity of names, however, these organisms are more different than
they are similar.
Slime molds are classified among the protozoa (Amoebozoa). They are phagocytic saprobes without
cell walls and occur in two forms: plasmodial and cellular.
The plasmodial coenocytic slime molds are diploid under normal conditions, but under adverse
conditions they produce haploid spores that can germinate to produce a unicellular form (myxamoeba)
that uses flagella or pseudopodia for motility, depending on conditions. Two compatible myxamoebae
fuse to form a new diploid, which, in turn, becomes a new coenocytic plasmodium.
The cellular slime molds are haploid. Under ideal conditions, the cellular slime molds live as
single-celled organisms (myxamoebae). When food becomes scarce, the myxamoebae congregate and
cooperate to form a sporangium, and some individuals then become spores. No diploidy or meiosis is
involved.
The water molds are classified with the algae (Stramenophila), but they do not carry out
photosynthesis. They are diploid saprobes with cell walls of cellulose. Their spores are motile by
means of two flagella, which are structurally different. Some water molds are plant pathogens.
Bloom's Rank: Analysis
Section Title: Water Molds
instances of pathogenicity. However, this is not due solely to their nutritional requirements; like the
fungi, protozoa are largely chemoheterotrophic. Protozoa are often pathogenic because they need
moist, protected habitats because they lack a cell wall. Living in the tissues of a host allows protozoa to
meet this requirement.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Fungi
74) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.
Answer: Algae and fungi are useful both in the biosphere in general and to humans in particular. Because algae
are photosynthetic, they are major contributors to the Earth's oxygen supply; in fact, one group of
algae (the diatoms) is the Earth's major source of oxygen, simply because of their vast numbers. Algae
are also a foundation of the biosphere's food chain in their role as plankton. Algae are a source of
chemicals, such as agar and alginic acid, that can be used as thickening agents and emulsifiers in
industrial products.
Similarly, fungi are useful on two levels. In nature, they serve as recyclers of organic molecules and
help plants retrieve water and nutrients from the soil. For humans, fungi play an enormous role in the
food industry (in the manufacture of cheeses, bread, alcoholic beverages, and other items) and in
medicine (in the production of antibiotics and other drugs). Fungi have also been instrumental tools in
genetic research.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Algae
Chapter 22.
Pathogenic Fungi
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogenic fungus in humans?
A) Blastomyces dermatitidis
B) Coccidioides immitis
C) Candida albicans
D) Histoplasma capsulatum
E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
2) Opportunistic fungi
A) have two physiological and structural forms.
B) are normal microbiota for many individuals.
C) have special proteins for colonizing the body.
D) are carefully tracked by epidemiologists.
E) have the same geographical distribution as pathogenic fungi.
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
5) Which of the following techniques reveal(s) the presence of fungal cells in tissues?
A) Gram staining
B) KOH treatment
C) Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining
D) Gram staining combined with KOH treatment
E) KOH treatment and Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining
Answer: E
9) Ocular histoplasmosis is
A) a type I hypersensitivity immune reaction.
B) a cytotoxic immune cell reaction.
C) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
D) an autoimmune disease.
E) an example of contact dermatitis.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi
11) A young woman is experiencing fever, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and a cough that occasionally brings
up mucus containing blood. She reports having visited family in rural New Mexico over the Labor Day
weekend. A GMS-stained sample from her lungs shows the presence of large spherules. Which of the
following is the most likely infecting agent?
A) Coccidioides immitis
B) Blastomyces dermatitidis
C) Histoplasma capsulatum
D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis
E) Trichophyton rubrum
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi
13) An avid gardener in eastern North America begins to have a fever and cough. A sample from her lungs
contains yeast cells. She may be infected with
A) Amanita phalloides.
B) Blastomyces dermatitidis.
C) Claviceps purpurea.
D) Mucor.
E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.
Answer: B
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi
15) Which of the following fungal infections was rare prior to the AIDS epidemic?
A) pulmonary cryptococcosis
B) cutaneous candidiasis
C) hypersensitivity aspergillosis
D) mycetomas
E) Pneumocystis pneumonia
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi
17) An immunocompromised patient has a severe nasal infection that has blocked his ability to breathe through
his nose. A sample taken from the nose is treated with KOH and is found to contain large hyphae with very
few septa. Which of the following diseases may the patient have?
A) candidiasis
B) blastomycosis
C) cryptococcosis
D) mycetoma
E) zygomycosis
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses
22) White patches on the surface of the tongue and the oral mucosa accompanied by inflammation and swelling
are signs consistent with
A) aspergillosis.
B) cryptococcosis.
C) coccidioidomycosis.
D) sporotrichosis.
E) thrush.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi
23) Which of the following fungal infections may progress to infection of the brain?
A) Coccidioides immitis
B) Cryptococcus neoformans
C) Mucor
D) Coccidioides immitis and Cryptococcus neoformans
E) Coccidioides immitis, Cryptococcus neoformans, and Mucor
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi
24) A tumor-like infection that produces an oily fluid containing fungal granules is known as a
A) mycetoma.
B) sclerotic body.
C) spherule.
D) thallus.
E) yeast sore.
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses
25) A sample of the tissue from an inflamed, pus-filled area on the lower leg is treated with KOH and stained
with GMS. Under the microscope golden brown spheres are visible. What disease are these observations
consistent with?
A) pityriasis
B) fungemia
C) chromoblastomycosis
D) mycetoma
E) sporotrichosis
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses
26) Which of the following fungal infections can be contracted through thorn pricks or wood splinters?
A) Sporothrix schenckii
B) Cladophialophora bantiana
C) Malassezia furfur
D) Gyromitra esculenta
E) Aspergillus flavus
Answer: A
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses
31) Which of the following is a false morel that causes bloody diarrhea, convulsions, and death within two days?
A) Amanita phalloides
B) Aspergillus flavus
C) Gyromitra esculenta
D) Sporothrix schenckii
E) Mucor
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies
33) Which of the following statements is true of mycotoxicosis but NOT mycetismus?
A) The portal of entry is the mouth.
B) Mushrooms are ingested.
C) Organ damage can result.
D) It causes toxicosis.
E) The fungus is not present.
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
34) Psilocybin is a
A) toxin that causes bloody diarrhea.
B) toxin that causes kidney failure.
C) toxin that acts as a hallucinogen.
D) virulence factor produced by bacteria.
E) growth factor produced by mycoplasmas.
Answer: C
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Match the following:
A) Infection of the hair, nails, and skin
B) Produces a hallucinogenic toxin
C) Chromoblastomycosis
D) Mycetismus
E) Mycetoma
F) Patches of hyperpigmented and depigmented skin on the trunk and arms
G) Mycotoxin associated with liver cancer
H) Sporotrichosis
I) Produces a toxin that is used to treat migraine headaches
J) Pulmonary infection following close contact with birds
36) Rose-gardener's disease
Answer: H
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses
37) Aflatoxins
Answer: G
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies
39) Cryptococcosis
Answer: J
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi
40) Pseudallescheria
Answer: E
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses
41) Pityriasis
Answer: F
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses
TRUE/FALSE. Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
46) Griseofulvin is an effective antifungal with no serious side effects.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
47) Dermatophytes, which live on the surface of the skin, are always pathogenic.
Answer:
True
False
48) Fungi that cause systemic mycoses are uniformly acquired by ingesting contaminated food.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi
49) The seriousness of Coccidioides infection can be attributed to the formation and rupture of spherules.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi
50) In endemic regions of the United States, close to 90% of the population test positive for Histoplasma
capsulatum.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi
51) Hypersensitivity to aspergillosis is due to the formation of ball-like fungal hyphae in the cavities produced
by previous tuberculosis.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi
52) Histoplasma and Coccidioides produce filtrates on the lungs that can be seen on X-ray images.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi
53) Very few cases of cryptococcal infections are caused by the variant Cryptococcus neoformans.
Answer:
True
False
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
Correct answers may contain more than one word.
56) Most fungi exist as ________ and function as the major decomposers of organic material.
Answer: saprobes
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
58) Diagnosis of fungi may require culturing them at different temperatures to demonstrate their ________
growth characteristics.
Answer: dimorphic
Bloom's Rank: Knowledge
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
59) ________ dissolves keratin and cellular material in skin scrapings, leaving only the fungal cells for
examination.
Answer: Potassium hydroxide
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
60) Fungal cells can be stained black in tissue sections by using ________ stain.
Answer: Gomori methenamine silver
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
63) The antifungal agent ________ interferes with microtubule formation and chromosome separation.
Answer: griseofulvin
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
64) The presence of ________ in a sample from the lungs is diagnostic for coccidioidomycosis.
Answer: spherules
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi
68) ________ can be diagnosed when clusters of budding yeast and branching pseudohyphae are present along
with correlated symptoms.
Answer: Candidiasis
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi
69) Opportunistic infection with ________ may develop into a series of nodular, pus-filled lesions on a limb.
Answer: Sporothrix schenckii
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
71) Why are mycoses among the most difficult diseases to treat?
Answer: There are two main reasons it is so difficult to treat mycoses. First, fungi possess the biochemical
ability to resist killing by T lymphocytes during cell-mediated immune responses, making them
resistant to the body's defenses. Second, fungi are eukaryotic cells and are very similar to human cells,
so most antifungal agents are also toxic to human cells.
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
72) Why are most fungal infections not diagnosed by the indirect fluorescent antibody techniques?
Answer: Because most fungi are so prevalent in the environment, and because many are part of the normal
microbiota of the human body, demonstration of antibodies to specific fungi does not necessarily
indicate a current infection; it may also indicate a simple exposure.
Bloom's Rank: Comprehension
Section Title: An Overview of Medical Mycology
74) A man has difficulty breathing and a cough and is running a fever. He is an avid bird-watcher who recently
visited a rookery where thousands of birds build their nests and raise their young. What fungal infection(s)
might he have contracted? What diagnostic tests would confirm the diagnosis? What treatment might be
prescribed?
Answer: The man may have histoplasmosis, caused by Histoplasma capsulatum, or cryptococcosis, caused by
Cryptococcus neoformans. Both of these fungi are saprobes that grow in bird droppings. Inhaled spores
germinate in the lungs and give rise to parasitic forms of the fungi.
H. capsulatum is a dimorphic true pathogen, and fungus from lung samples will revert to the hyphal
form when grown at laboratory temperatures. Amphotericin B is the treatment of choice.
C. neoformans is a monomorphic yeast with a thick capsule. The presence of spherical yeast cells with
thick capsules in tissue samples indicates infection with C. neoformans and can be confirmed by
detecting C. neoformans antigens in the samples or serum. Treatment of cryptococcosis is usually a
combination of amphotericin B and 5-fluorocytosine administered for several weeks.
Bloom's Rank: Application
Section Title: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi