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1. Time duration for this test is 180 minutes. This test consists of 90 questions. The
maximum marks are 360.
2. There are three parts in the question paper, namely, Part A: Mathematics, Part B:
Physics and Part C: Chemistry. Each question is awarded 4 (four) marks for correct
response.
3. One-fourth (1/4) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each
question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for
an item in the answer sheet.
4. This test contains 90 Multiple Choice Questions with single correct answer. Each
Question has four choices (1), (2), (3) & (4), out of which Only One is Correct.
5. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and
marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per the instruction 3 above.
Part A – Mathematics
Solution
15
(r 1) 15Cr
r 1
15 15
r 15Cr 15Cr
r 1 r 1
15
15 14
r Cr 1 (215 1)
r 1 r
= 15 × 214 – 215 + 1
= 13 × 214 + 1
x3 3 x 2 x 9
Question 2: Evaluate: ( x2 1)( x2 3) dx.
1
(1) ln x2 3 3tan 1 x c (2) ln x 2 3 tan 1 x c
2
1
(3) ln x 2 3 3tan 1 x c (4) ln x2 3 tan 1 x c
2
Solution
x3 3x 2 x 9
I
( x 2 1)( x 2 3)
x3 x 3( x 2 3)
( x 2 1)( x 2 3) ( x 2 1)( x 2 3)
x( x 2 1) 3
( x 1)( x 3)
2 2
x 1
2
x 3
2 2
x 3 x 1
and
x
I1 dx
x 3
2
Substituting x2 + 3 = t, we get
2x dx = dt
Therefore,
1 dt
2 t
I1
1
ln t c
2
1
ln x 2 3 c
2
and
3
I2 dx
x 1
2
= 3 tan–1 x + c
Therefore,
I I1 I 2
1
ln x 2 3 3tan 1 x c
2
Question 3: For any ordered pairs (a, b) and (c, d) of real numbers, define a relation, denoted by ‘R’, as
follows: (a, b) R (c, d) if a < c or b > d. Then, R is
Solution
1. (3, 5) R (3, 5) is not related; therefore, R is not reflexive because the expressions 3 < 3 and 5 > 5
are false.
2. (3, 5) R (15, 1) is true; however, (15, 1) R (3, 5) is not true. Therefore, R is not symmetric.
3. (3, 2) R (5, 10), where 3 < 5; and (5, 10) R (2, 9), where 10 > 9.
This implies that (3, 2) R (2, 9) is false because the expressions 3 < 2 and 2 > 9 are false.
Therefore, R is not transitive.
Question 4:
(1) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is a correct explanation for Statement 1.
(2) Statement 1 is True; Statement 2 is True; Statement 2 is not a correct explanation for Statement 1.
Solution
p q p q pq q p ( p q) ( q p )
T T F F T T T
T F F T F T T
F T T F T F T
F F T T T T T
n 1
x sin , x0
Question 5: Let f ( x) x
0 , x0
such that f(x) is continuous at x = 0; f ' (0) is real and finite; and lim f ( x) does not exist. This holds true
x 0
for which of the following values of n?
(3) 2 (4) 3
Solution
1 1
lim(0 h)n sin lim(0 h)n sin 0
h0 0 h h0 0h
f (0 h) f (0)
f (0 ) lim
h 0 h
hn sin(1 / h) 0
lim
h 0 h
1
lim hn 1 sin
h 0 h
n 1 1 or 2
Let us consider
1
f ( x) x n sin
x
Therefore,
1 1
f ( x) nx n 1 sin ( x)n 2 cos
x x
1
lim f ( x) lim f ( x) if n – 2 = 0. That is, if n = 2 lim cos does not exist.
x 0 x 0 x 0 x
Using the intersection of the values of n in Equations (1), (2) and (3), we get the value of n = 2.
If we draw y x and y x in xy-plane and if we raise the line y x by one unit in the positive z-
direction, we get y x; z 1.
(1) y 0 x R (2) y 0 x R
Solution
We know that
2 sin x cos x 2
When x , we have
4
sin x cos x 2
When x , we have
4
y 2 1 0
Now, at x , we have
4
sin x cos x 2
Question 8: Find the radius of the circle escribed to the triangle ABC (shown in the figure below) on the
side BC if NAB 30; BAC 30 ; AB AC 5.
(10 2 5 3 5) (10 2 5 2 1)
(3) (2 3) (4) ( 3 1)
2 2 2 3
Solution
Since we need to compute the radius of an escribed circle, we would be needing the lengths of all the
sides of the given triangle ABC.
For finding the length of side BC, let us draw a line AD which is the bisector of angle BAC, as shown in
the figure below.
Therefore,
BD BD 3 1
sin15 and sin15
AB 5 2 2
Therefore,
5( 3 1)
BD 5sin15
2 2
Therefore,
5( 3 1)
BC
2
A
r1 = s tan
2
AB BC CA A
tan
2 2
5( 3 1)
5 5
2 (tan15)
2
Solution
D = b2 – 4ac = 1− 4 = −3 = Negative
Therefore,
g ( x) 0 x
Let us also consider that
f(x) = x2 – x + 1
D = b2 – 4ac = 1− 4 = −3 = Negative
Therefore,
x2 x 1 0 x
dy
If 0 , we have
dx
x( x2 x 1)( x2 x 1) 0
or x > 0 or x ≥ 0 .
Solution
Concept: If a chord passes through centre of the ellipse, then the mid-point is the centre itself.
x2 y2
The centre of the ellipse 1 is (0, 0), where a, b .
a2 b2
( x 1)2 ( y 3)2
The centre of ellipse 1 is (1, 3).
9 4
Correct Option: (4)
1
Question 11: In a binomial distribution with 10 trials and probability of success , what is the standard
3
deviation of the distribution in each trial?
10 20
(1) (2)
3 9
20 20
(3) (4)
3 3
Solution
1
For the binomial distribution with n = 10 and p , we have the variance as follows:
3
1 2 20
npq = 10
3 3 9
Standard deviation is
20
Variance
3
Question 12: Consider a parabola y 2 16 x. P is a point on the parabola, M is the foot of the perpendicular
drawn from P onto the directrix and S is the focus. If SPM is equilateral, then the focal radius SP is equal to
(1) 16 (2) 8
(3) 8 3 (4) 4
We have
y 2 4(4) x; a 4
and P(4t 2 ,8t ) is any point on parabola. The equation of directrix is x = –4 and ym 8t . It is given that
SP PM MS
(SP)2 ( PM )2 ( MS )2
(4t 2 4)2 (8t )2 (4t 2 4)2 (4 4) 2 ( ym 0) 2
(4t 2 4)2 (8t )2 82 ym2 82 (8t )2
Now,
(4t 2 4)2 82
4t 2 4 8 or 4t 2 4 8
t 2 3 or 1 rejected ( t 2 Negative)
Therefore,
SP2 82 (8t )2 82 (1 t 2 ) 82 (4)
SP 16
18 10 3 18 10 3
(1) (2)
243 243
18 10 3 10 18 3
(3) (4)
243 243
Solution
We have
dx
J
x4 x2 3
1
Substituting x , x > 0, t > 0, we get
t
dt
dx
t2
dt / t 2 t 3dt
(since t 2 t , t 0)
(1 / t )( 1 3t / t )
4 2
1 3t 2
1
Note: x . Therefore,
t
3 1/3
f ( x) dx g (t ) dt
1 1
Using u 1 3t 2 , we have
4/3
h(u )du
4
5 5 3
Question 14: The orthocentre of the triangle with vertices (5, 0), (0, 0), , is
2 2
5 5
(1) (2, 3) (2) ,
2 2 3
5 5 5 5
, ,
(3) 6 2 3 (4) 2 3
Solution
The given triangle is equilateral. Therefore, the orthocentre of the triangle is same as centroid of the
triangle. Thus, the orthocenter, that is, the centroid is given by
5 0 (5 / 2) 0 0 (5 3 / 2) 5 5
, ,
3 3 2 2 3
Solution
x2 y 2 8x 8 y 32 y x 0
x2 y 2 x(8 ) y(8 ) 32 0 (1)
Now,
OA DC 4 2
6 2
DE 3 2 (given)
2
Therefore,
R2 (3 2)2 (4 2)2
2
50 2 100 10
2
Substituting 10 in Eq. (1), we get
x2 y 2 2 x 18 y 32 0
Question 16: If the letters of the word ASSASSINATION are arranged at random, the probability that no
two ‘S’ occur together is
42 9!4!
(1) (2)
143 13!
21 10! 4!
(3) (4) 1
143 13!
Solution
13!
4! 3! 2! 2!
9!
For no two ‘S’ occur together, let us first arrange AAAIINNTO that can be done in ways which
3! 2! 2!
would create 10 gaps:
_ A_ A_ A_ I _ I _ N _ N _T _O_
On these 10 gaps, four S can be put in 10C4 ways. We need to select four places out of ten to put S. Since
in each gap we put only one S; so these remain separate even if other gaps remain empty. Hence,
9! 10!
Favourable cases
3! 2! 2! 4! 6!
(3) 9 (4) 5
Solution
Then,
2 2 2
)
2 2
a b c a b c 2(a b a c b c ) (
= 1 + 4 + 4 + 2(0) = 9
abc 3
Question 18: A potato is put in a 200°C oven and heats up at a rate proportional to the temperature
difference between the object and its surroundings. The potato is at 20°C when it is put in the oven. After
30 min, the temperature of the potato is 120°C. Then, the constant of proportionality K is (time is in min)
ln(3 / 2) ln (9 / 4)
(1) (2)
15 60
3 log10 (3 / 2)
(3) 4ln (4)
2 15
Solution
dT
K (T 200), K 0
dt
dT
where t is time in minutes, T is the present temperature and is the rate of increase in temperature with
dt
time. Therefore, solving by variable separable method, we get
ln 80 ln180 K (30)
ln180 ln 80 ln (9 / 4) ln (3 / 2)2 2ln (3 / 2)
K
30 30 30 30
3
Therefore, K ln 15 , where time is in min.
2
Correct Option: (1)
Solution
Now, R3 → R3 – R2 is
x2 (cos x tan x)
Hence,
f ( x)
tan x cos x
x2
and thus
f ( x)
lim 1
x 0 x2
Question 20: The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and the variance is 6.8. Find the median of the
data.
(1) 5 (2) 6
(3) 7 (4)8
Solution
a b 8 5 10
6
5
ab 7
Therefore,
a 2 b2 64 25 100
36 6.8
5
a2 b2 25
a 3, b 4 or a 4, b 3
(1) exactly three real values of λ (2) exactly two real values of λ
(3) exactly one real value of λ (4) infinitely many real values of λ
1 1
1 2 0
1 2
1 1
1 1 3 0
1 1 1
Also R3 → R3 + R2 gives
1 1
1 1 3 0
0 0 4
4 – – – 1 0
1
2
Question 22: If and are the complex cube roots of unity and z be such that |z| = 4 and |z + 1| is
maximum, then the area of triangle formed by G, and (where G is the centroid of triangle formed by
z, and ) is
3 3 3
(1) (2)
4 2
3 3 3
(3) (4)
4 2
Solution
We know that | z| = 4 represents a point z on a circle with radius 4 and centre at the origin (0, 0). The
distance of any point z from (–1, 0) on argand diagram is
| z + 1| = | z – (–1)|
z = 4 + 0i = 4
G = Centroid of a triangle formed by ω, and (4, 0), which implies that G ≡ (1, 0).
1 1 3 3 1
(Base)(Height) 1
2 2 2 2 2
3 3
4
5
Question 23: The minimum value of the expression 2 x 22 x 1 , x is
2x
Solution
5 1 1 1 1 1
2 x 22 x 1 2 x 22 x 22 x x
x
x
x
2 x
2 2 2 2 2x
1/8
2 x 22 x 1 (5 / 2 x ) x 1
2 (22 x )2 x 5 1
8 (2 )
5
2 x 22 x 1 8
2x
(3) lim x x 2 x3 xn 0
x 0
n
n
22
(4) | | 0, where [·] is greatest integer function and | · | represents modulus function.
7
Solution
1 1
For option (1): If y ( x)1/4 , then lim 2
lim is wrong. Therefore, the answer would
x 0 x x 0 x
definitely depend on how x and y are related.
Hence, option (1) is incorrect.
Question 25: The number of solutions of the equation x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 = 101, where xi’s are odd
natural numbers, is
105 52
(1) C4 (2) C5
52 50
(3) C4 (4) C4
Solution
x1 x2 x3 x4 x5 101
2 y1 1 2 y2 1 2 y3 1 2 y4 1 2 y5 1 101
y1 y2 y3 y4 y5 48
4851
yi ≥ 0. Therefore, the number of solutions is C51 52C4 .
n r 1
Note: The formula is Cr 1 . It is the same as number of ways to divide 48 identical objects into five
places.
Solution
We have
( xy)( x y)( x2 y 2 ) 0
Question 27: Suppose f and g are two differentiable functions with the values as listed in the following
table:
(1) 5π – 26 (2) 5π – 14
Solution
We have
ln (e f ( x) ) f ( x) x : f ( x) .
and
Note
sin 4 sin[ (4 )]
sin(4 )
sin( 4)
and 4 ,
2 2
Question 28: Find the Cartesian equation of the straight line passing through 2i j 3k and 4i 3 j k.
x3 z 3 x2 z 3
(1) y 1 (2) y 1
2 2 3 2
Solution
The vector equation of the straight line passing through a 2i j 3k and b 4i 3 j k is
p (1 r )a rb, r
That is
p (1 r )(2i j 3k ) r (4i 3 j 3k )
p (2 2r 4r )i (1 r 3r ) j (3 3r r )k
p (2 6r )i (1 2r ) j (3 4r )k , r
It implies
x 2 6r ; y 1 2r ; z 3 4r
x2 y 1 z 3
r
6 2 4
x2 y 1 z 3
r
3 1 2
Solution
We have the equation ax2 + bx + c = 0 has two roots α and β such that α < –3 and β > 2.
a( a b c) 0
a b c 0and a b c 0
a( a b c) 0
x
Question 30: If f ( x) min x 2 , sin , ( x 2 )2 , the area bounded by the curve
2
y f ( x), x-axis, x 0 and x 2 is given by
x
(Note: x1 is the point of intersection of the curves x2 and sin ; x2 is the point of intersection of the curves
2
x
sin and ( x 2 )2 )
2
x1 x 2
x x
2
2 ( x 2 ) dx sin 2 dx
2 2
(1) sin dx x dx
0 x1 x2
x1 x 2
x 5
2
x1 x2 2
x 3
x dx sin 2 dx ( x 2 ) dx , where x1 , and x2 , 2
2 2
(3)
0 x1 x2 3 2 2
x1 x2 2
x 2
x dx sin 2 dx ( x 2 ) dx , where x1 , and x2 ( , 2 )
2 2
(4)
0 x1 x2 2 3
At x 1, y x2 1 , we have
x 1
y sin sin 1
2 2
Thus, x1 1 .
2
3.14
At x , y x 2
1 , we have
3 3
1
y sin 1
6 2
Thus, x1 . Therefore, x1 0, because at (0, 2π), the graph intersects at 0 and x1 only. Similarly,
3 3
x2 2 , 2 by symmetry about x = π.
3
x1 x2
Note: At x x1 , we have ( x1 )2 sin ; At x x2 , we have ( x2 2 ) sin 2 .
2
2
Question 1: An RLC series circuit is driven by a sinusoidal emf with angular frequency . If is
increased without changing the amplitude of the emf, the current amplitude increases. If the inductance is
L, the capacitance is C and the resistance R, it implies that
1 1
(1) L (2) L
C C
(3) L R (4) L R
Solution
V0
I0
Z
V0
R ( X L X C )2
2
Since I 0 increases when is increased while keeping V0 the same, it implies that the impedance Z
decreases. This means that X L X C decreases as is increased. But, an increase in will cause
inductive reactance X L ( L) to increase and capacitive reactance X C ( 1/ C ) to decrease. We,
therefore, conclude that X C X L .
1
Hence, L .
C
Question 2: A thin movable plate is separated from two fixed plates P1 and P2 by two highly viscous
liquids of coefficients of viscosity 1 and 2 as shown in the figure below, where 2 = 9 1. Area of
contact of movable plate with each fluid is the same. If the distance between two fixed plates is h, then the
distance h1 of movable plate from upper plate such that movable plate can be moved with a constant
velocity by applying a minimum force on it is (Assume only linear velocity distribution in each liquid.)
h h
(3) (4)
6 3
Solution
v v
F 1 2 A
1h ( h h1 )
v v
1 91 A
h1 (h h1 )
1 9
Av1
h1 (h h1 )
dF
0
dh1
dF 1 9
Av1 2 2
0
dh1 h1 (h h1 )
9 1
2
(h h1 ) 2
h1
3 1
(h h1 ) h1
3h1 h h1
h
h1
4
1.1 0.69
(1) (2)
0.34 3
(3) (4)
Solution
N A (t ) N A (0)e t
N B (t ) N B (0)e2t 3N A (0)e2t
When NA = NB at time t = T,
1 3e T
ln 3 1.1
T
A B
Each resistor has resistance R , battery has emf E and internal resistance r . Assuming r R, rank the
circuits in order of the total power dissipated, from the greatest to least.
(1) D, C, B, A (2) D, B, C, A
(3) C, B, D, A (4) C, D, B, A
Solution
E2
PA
3R r
E2
PB
Rr
E2
PC
2 R (r / 2)
E2
PD
( R / 3) r
Since r R , we have
E2 E2 E2 E2
> > >
( R / 3) r R r 2 R (r / 2) 3R r
y
3 kg
2 kg 4 kg
x
O
11 3 3
(1) (2)
3 3 11
1 3
(3) (4)
3 1
Solution
Assuming O at origin,
1/2
1 1
2
3
OC m and AC 12 m
2 2 2
1
2(0)+ 3 + 4(1)
m x m2 x2 m3 x3 2 11
xcm = 1 1 = = m
m1 m2 m3 2 + 3+ 4 18
ycm =
m1 y1 m2 y 2 m3 y 3
=
=
2(0)+ 3 3 2 + 4(0) 3 3
m
m1 m2 m3 2+3+4 18
xcm 11
y cm 3 3
Question 6: A satellite is in circular Earth orbit at an altitude of 200 km above Earth’s surface. At that
height, the acceleration due to gravity is 9.20ms2 . If the radius of the Earth is 6.4 106 m , what is the
orbital speed of the satellite?
(1) 43.4 ms1 (2) 7.79 kms 1
Solution
Let m be the mass of the satellite and h be the height of satellite above the surface of Earth. The
gravitational force acting on satellite provides the centripetal force, therefore
Fgravitation Fcentripetal
mv 2
mg
( R h)
v g ( R h)
9.20(6.4 106 200 103 )
7792 ms 1
7.79 kms 1
Question 7: The following question consists of two statements, 1 and 2. Of the four choices given, choose
the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement 1: Two balls A and B, moving towards each other, undergo head-on collision and bounce back
from each other. After the collision, each ball’s velocity is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to
what it was before. The total momentum of the two-ball system is zero.
Statement 2: The momentum of a system is conserved in the absence of any external force.
But, m1v1 m2 v2 is the total momentum of the system before collision. Thus, Statement 1 is true.
Solution
The radius of the circle at a latitude of 60o = R sin 30o = R/2 = 867 km
2 ( R / 2)
2 2 Rh
n
R
n
2 2h
1734000
2 2 50
207
Question 9: For a glass prism, the index of refraction for visible light ranges from 1.524 at the blue end
of the spectrum to 1.509 at the red end. What is the dispersive power of the prism, assuming that the
refractive index for yellow light is the mean of the two given indices?
If nV, nR and nY represent refractive indices of violet, red and yellow light respectively then the dispersive
power can be calculated as
nV nR
nY 1
1.524 1.509
1.524 1.509
1
2
0.015
0.516
0.029
Question 10: A solid spherical region of radius R having a spherical cavity with diameter R, as shown in
the figure given below, has a total charge Q. The electric field at a point P is
2Q 1 1 8Q 1 1
(1) 2 (2) 2
7 0 x 2 2 x R 21 0 2 2 x R
2 2
x
8Q 1 1 2Q 1 1
(3) 2 (4) 2
7 0 x 2 2 x R 21 0 2 2 x R
2 2
x
Solution
4 0 x
2
3
R 1 1
3 0 x 2 R
2
8 x
2
R3 1 1
2 (2)
3 0 x 2 2 x R
2
R3 1 1
E 2
3 0 x 2 2 x R
2
6Q R 3 1 1
7 R 3 3 0 x 2 2 2 x R 2
2Q 1 1
2
7 0 2 2 x R
2
x
Question 11: A parallel plate capacitor is charged completely and then disconnected from the battery. If
the separation between the plates is reduced by 50% and the space between the plates is filled with a
dielectric slab of dielectric constant 10, then the potential difference between the plates
Solution
0 A
C
d
where A is the area of the plates and d is the separation between the plates.
If the separation between the plates is reduced by 50% and the space between the plates is filled with a
dielectric slab of dielectric constant 10, the new capacitance becomes
Question 12: The current in a solenoid is decreased to one-half of its original value. Which one of the
following statements is true concerning the self-inductance of the solenoid?
Solution
0 N 2 A
L
l
where N is the number of turns, A is the cross-sectional area, and l is the length of the solenoid.
We see from this relation that the inductance is independent of the current. Thus, the self-inductance does
not change when the current is decreased.
Question 13: Two small balls of the same mass, having equal charge q, are suspended by two insulating
strings of equal length L from the same hook in an elevator. The elevator is falling freely. The tension in
the string at equilibrium with respect to frame attached with elevator will be
2
1 q2 1 q2
(1) (2) m2 g 2 2
4 0 4 L2 4 0 4 L
2
1 q2
mg
2
2
(3) mg (4)
4 0 L
Solution
In case of freely falling elevator,the effect of gravity is cancelled by the pseudo force (w.r.t. the
elevator) therefore, the angle made by string with each other is 180º and the tension in the string at
equilibrium is
1 q2 1 q2
F
4 0 (2 L) 2 4 0 4 L2
Question 14: A helicopter is lifting a 2100 kg jeep. The steel suspension cable is 48 m long and has a
radius of 5.0 103 m. Find the amount the cable is stretched when the jeep is hoisted up with an
acceleration of 1.5ms 2 . (Given that: Y 2.0 1011 Nm2 )
Solution
T m( g a)
T m( g a)
A r2
So,
m( g a). L
L
r 2Y
(2100 kg)(9.8 1.5)(ms 2 )(48m)
(5.0 103 m) 2 (2.0 1011 Nm 2 )
7.3 102 m
Question 15: Neglecting air resistance, a 1.0kg projectile has an escape velocity of about 11 kms 1 at the
surface of the Earth. The corresponding escape velocity for a 2.0 kg projectile is
Solution
Escape velocity of the projectile at the surface of the Earth is given by
2GM e
vesc (1)
Re
From Eq. (1) we conclude that escape velocity is independent of the projectile’s mass, so escape velocity
for a 2.0 kg projectile is also 11 kms 1 .
Question 16: A can is filled with liquid up to 97% of its capacity. The temperature of the can and liquid
is 0.0 o C . The material from which the can is made has a coefficient of linear expansion of
2.8 105 ( o C)1 . At a temperature of 100.0 o C , the liquid inside the can expands to fill it to the brim.
The coefficient of volume expansion of the liquid is
If V is the volume of the can at 0.0 o C , then the increase in its volume at 100.0 o C is
The initial volume of the liquid is 0.97V. The change in volume of the liquid is
At 100.0 o C , both can and liquid have the same volume. Thus
0.03 300
97
0.03 300 2.8 105
97
3.96 10 ( C) 1
4 o
Question 17: The reflection of perpendicularly incident white light by a soap film in air has an
interference maximum at 600 nm and a minimum at 450 nm , with no minimum in between. If refractive
index n 1.33 for the film, the film thickness is
Solution
Let t be the thickness of the film. For constructive interference, ray 1 and ray 2 should be in phase, that is,
path difference should be an integral multiple of wavelength. Path difference is 2t due to travelling in the
medium and film / 2 due to reflection at a boundary. Let it be m times the wavelength. Wavelength will
be reduced by a factor of refractive index n. Therefore,
1
2t film m film
2
2m 1
t film
4
2m 1 600
(1)
4 n
1 1
2t film m film
2 2
m
t film
2
m 450
(3)
2 n
450
t
n
450
1.33
338 nm
Solution
Here two NAND gates are being used as input for another NAND gate. Truth table for this would be
Question 19: The magnetic field due to current distribution at any point is given by B Ar kˆ , where
r is the position vector of the point, and A is a constant. The net current through a circle of radius R , in
the x–y plane and centered at the origin is given by
AR 2 2 AR
(1) (2)
0 0
4 AR 3 2 AR 2
(3) (4)
30 0
Let us consider the given circle as an Amperian loop – it lies in the x–y plane, with center at the origin,
and has a radius of R .
Now, the magnetic field at any point on this loop will be B AR kˆ , and will have a direction tangential
to the circle (at the circumference).
B.dl B(2 R) .
Applying Ampere’s law, we get
B.dl I0
B (2 R ) 0 I
B (2 R )
I
0
( AR )(2 R)
0
2 AR 2
0
Question 20: An ideal gas with pressure P, volume V, and temperature T is expanded isothermally to a
volume 2V and pressure P1. If the same gas is expanded adiabatically to a volume 2V, the final pressure is
P2. If the ratio of the specific heats for the gas is 1.67, then the ratio P2/P1 is nearly
Solution
1 1 PV
PV 2 2
P1 (2V ) PV
P
P1 (1)
2
P2
(1 / 2) 1
P1
1
5/3 1
2
22/3
41/3
Question 21: Two bodies P and Q move along the same straight line. Both start at x 0 at time t 0 .
Their velocities are plotted over the same time interval as shown below in figure.
What information does this graph provide about whether P and Q collide?
Solution
Both P and Q start together from the same point. Hence, their displacements will be equal to the areas
under their respective v t graphs. From the given graphs it is clear that in the interval 0 t t0 , the area
under Q is greater than that under P. So, Q’s displacement is greater than that of P. Hence, P and Q will
not collide in the interval 0 t t0 .
Solution
If nA and nB represents the number of moles of gas A and B respectively. For a constant volume process,
work done W 0 . Thus, Q U . Since Q is same for both the gases, hence the change in internal
energy is same for both. So,
U A U B
QA QB
nA CA TA nBCB TB
TA nBCB
TB nA CA
Since the heat capacity of A is greater than that of B, nACA nBCB . Hence, the temperature of B
increases by a greater extent than it does for A, that is, TA TB .
Question 23: A converging lens of focal length 20 cm is placed in contact with a diverging lens of focal
length 30 cm . The focal length of this combination is
(1) 60 cm (2) 25 cm
Solution
1 1
P1 D
f1 0.20
1 1
P2 D
f 2 0.30
1
f 0.60 m = 60 cm
D
Question 24: If the work function for a certain metal is 1.8 eV, what is the stopping potential for
electrons ejected from the metal when light of wavelength 400 nm shines on the metal?
Solution
Photon energy
hc
E
(6.63 1034 )(3 108 )
400 109
4.97 1019 J
Work function
1.8eV
1.8(1.6 1019 C)(1V)
2.88 1019 J
K max E
(4.97 2.88) 1019 J
2.09 1019 J
K max
V0
e
2.09 1019 J
1.6 1019 C
1.306 V 1.31V
Question 25: A particle is performing SHM about mean position O as shown in the figure given below.
Its amplitude is 5 m and time period of oscillation is 4 s. The minimum time taken by the particle to move
from point A to B is nearly
4m
3m
O A B
Solution
x A sin t
x
sin t
A
x
t sin 1
A
Substituting values given in the question, we have
3
t1 sin 1 37 37 rad (1)
5 180
4
and t2 sin 1 53 53 rad (2)
5 180
Subtracting Eq. (1) and Eq. (2), we get
Question 26: A tuning fork of frequency 600 Hz is moving towards a reflecting wall with a speed of
30 ms–1. The velocity of sound in air is 330 ms–1. The observer is between the source and the wall and is
also moving towards the wall. The beat frequency heard by the observer is 4 Hz. Now if the tuning fork is
replaced with a new tuning fork of unknown frequency, the beat frequency heard by the observer
becomes 3 Hz. The frequency of the new tuning fork is
Solution
The surface between the top and bottom blocks is rough such that there is no slipping between the two
blocks. A 30N horizontal force is applied to the bottom block. What is the frictional force between the
two blocks?
(1) 10 N (2) 20 N
(3) 25 N (4) 30 N
Solution
30
a 2ms 2
(10 5)
If the frictional force is f , then it is the only force acting on the upper block.
f ma (5kg)(2ms2 ) 10 N
Question 28: If the velocity of light c, Planck’s constant h and time t are taken as basis of fundamental
units, then the dimension of force will change to
Solution
and c [ LT 1 ]
Let the force be expressed in terms of fundamental units as
F = ha cb td
Taking dimensions on both sides, we get
[MLT–2] = [ML2T–1]a [LT–1]b [T]d = [M a L2a+b T–a-b+d] (1)
Comparing both sides of Eq. (1), we get
a=1 (2)
2a + b = 1 (3)
and –a–b+d=–2 (4)
Substituting Eq. (2) in Eq. (3), we get
2+b=1
b = –1 (5)
Substituting Eq. (2) and Eq. (5) in Eq. (4), we get
– 1 – (–1) + d = – 2
d=–2 (6)
Hence force can be expressed as
F = h c–1 t–2
Question 29: In Davisson–Germer experiment, the correct relation between angle of diffraction and
glancing angle is
(1) 900 (2) 900
2 2
(3) (4)
2
Solution
Question 30: A uniform density rigid L-shaped thin frame POQ (hinged at O) of mass 21 kg is
undergoing planar motion as shown in the figure given below. The arrows show the velocities at the
terminal points P and Q. The kinetic energy of the frame at this instant is
Solution
Intersection point of perpendiculars to velocities of any two points would be the point from where
instantaneous axis of rotation (IAR) passes. Hence IAR passes through O. Let be the angular velocity
of the frame, then velocity at point Q can be expressed as
vQ OQ
8 4
2 rad/s
M OP M OQ
3 3
I IAR 9 12
3 3
27 64
91 kgm 2
1
K I IAR 2
2
1
91 22
2
182 J
Part C – Chemistry
Question 1: The alkali metals can be easily detected by flame test because they have
(1) low ionization enthalpy. (2) high conductance.
(3) low density. (4) low electron gain enthalpy.
Solution
Because of low ionization enthalpy, the alkali metals can be easily detected by flame test. When any salt
of the metal is heated in a Bunsen burner flame, the heat excites one of the orbital electrons to higher
energy level. When this electron falls back to its original energy level, it gives out the extra energy
absorbed. For alkali metals, this energy falls in the visible light range.
Correct Option: (1)
Question 2: In which of the following pairs, the two species are not isostructural?
(1) PCl 4 and SiCl4 (2) BF4 and SF4 (3) SF6 and AlF63 (4) CO2 and NO2
Solution
(1) Tetrahedral, tetrahedral
Question 4: Which of the following relationship is not correct regarding their atomic radius?
(1) Ag ≈ Au (2) Pd > Ni (3) W >> Mo (4) La > Y
Solution
Due to lanthanoid contraction, the radius of elements of first transition series is less than that of radius of
corresponding second transition series elements but that of third transition series elements is nearly same
as the second transition series, that is
Radius First transition series. < Radius Second transition series and Radius Second transition series. ≈ Radius Third transition series
The exception to this behavior is observed in case of Sc < Y < La. Lanthanoid contraction is not observed
in case of La because 4f14 is not present in its electronic configuration. Hence,
Option (1) is correct: rAg = 1.34 Å and rAu = 1.34 Å.
Option (2) is correct: rPd = 1.28 Å and rNi = 1.15 Å.
Option (3) is incorrect: rW = 1.30 Å and rMo = 1.29 Å, that is, both are almost the same.
Option (4) is correct: rLa = 1.69 Å and rY = 1.62 Å.
Correct Option: (3)
Question 7: Which of the following statements is incorrect for the reaction given below?
ArCHO HCHO
conc NaOH
(1) The reaction involves hydride transfer from one aldehyde to another.
(2) ArCHO is reduced in the reaction, which results in the major products.
(3) Aldol addition product is not possible for the given reactants.
(4) One of the major products of the reaction is ethanol.
Solution
Since both aldehydes lack alpha hydrogen, aldol condensation is not possible. In this case, Cannizzaro’s
reaction will take place. Two aldehydes without alpha hydrogens will give crossed Cannizzaro’s products.
However, HCHO transfers hydride more easily as compared to ArCHO, so the major products of the
reaction are ArCH2OH and HCOONa.
ArCHO HCHO
ArCH2OH HCOONa
conc NaOH
Correct Option: (4)
Quick Tip: In crossed Cannizzaro reaction, HCHO always gets oxidized and ArCHO always gets
reduced.
Question 8: In the test for halogens, sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated nitric acid to
(1) increase the solubility of silver halides formed.
(2) increase the precipitation of silver halides formed.
(3) supplement the concentration of nitrate ions.
Question 11: Which of following statements is not true about o-, m-, and p-nitrophenol?
(1) Boiling point of o-nitrophenol is lower than p-nitrophenol.
(2) Nitration of phenol with concentrated nitric acid gives p-nitrophenol as the major product.
(3) p-nitrophenol is a stronger acid than o-nitrophenol.
(4) m-nitrophenol is the weakest acid among them.
Solution
The acidic strength order: p-nitrophenol > o-nitrophenol > m-nitrophenol.
Due to intramolecular hydrogen bonding in o-nitrophenol, its boiling point is less than p-nitrophenol.
Nitration of phenol with concentrated nitric acid leads to formation of 2,4,6-trinitrophenol, commonly
known as picric acid.
Correct Option: (2)
Question 12: The correct order of the boiling point of comparable molecular weight of acid and its
derivatives is
(1) Primary amides > carboxylic acids > nitriles > esters
(2) Carboxylic acids > primary amides > nitriles > esters
(3) Carboxylic acids > nitriles > primary amides > esters
(4) Primary amides > carboxylic acids > esters > nitriles
Solution
Boiling point of primary amides is the maximum due to dipole–dipole interactions and intermolecular
hydrogen bonding.
Carboxylic acids also have strong hydrogen bonding due to which they form dimers and their boiling
points are higher than that of corresponding nitriles and esters but lower than primary amides.
Nitriles show strong dipole–dipole interactions, so, their boiling points are more than esters but lower
than acids.
Question 13: Which of the following alkyl halides forms a substitution product in an S N1 reaction that is
the same as the substitution product formed in an S N2 reaction?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Solution
In SN2 reaction, back side attack of nucleophile takes place and the whole reaction occurs in a single step.
SN1 reaction occurs in two steps in which carbocation is produced as intermediate.
So, rearrangement can take place in SN1 reaction which will change the skeleton of the compound, and
hence a product with different skeleton will be obtained.
In the compound given in option (4), its carbocation will not rearrange. Therefore, both S N2 and SN1
products will be the same in this case.
Correct Option: (4)
Quick Tip: Both SN1 and SN2 mechanisms produce the same compound if stereochemistry is ignored.
However, different products can be obtained if the intermediate rearranges. So, we need to form
carbocation by removing the leaving group and check whether this carbocation can rearrange.
Rearrangement will produce different compounds.
Question 14: Which of the following polymer does not contain hydrogen bonding?
(1) Nylon-6,6 (2) Polyurethanes (3) Kevlar (4) Dacron
Solution
Fibres are long-chain polymers in which chains are linked by strong intermolecular forces. The
intermolecular forces are in general strong hydrogen bonds, dipole–dipole and van der Waals forces.
The polymers given in options are fibres, but Dacron is a polyester which contains strong dipole–dipole
linkages instead of hydrogen bonding.
Correct Option: (4)
Question 15: Arrange the following carbon acids in the increasing order of their pKa values?
Since compound (IV) contains –NO2 group which is most electron withdrawing through – M effect and –
I effect, its presence makes the compound (IV) most acidic. Compound (III) contains –COOEt group and
is least electron withdrawing. The –OEt group shows mesomeric effect (+M) and inductive effect (–I) but
+M effect is more dominant than – I effect. In the case of compound (I) and compound (II), group -
COCH3 and –CHO are more electron withdrawing than –COOEt. Therefore acidic order is IV > II > I >
III. Since pKa = log Ka, so increasing order is IV < II < I < III.
Correct Option: (1)
Question 17: Which of the following is best resonance structure for azide ion, N3 ?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
Solution
Nitrogen belongs to the second period, so the valence shell can have 8 electrons only. Therefore, the
structure given in option (3) is not possible as nitrogen cannot form five bonds.
The formal charges for the structures are
1 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 3
:N N N: :N N N:2 :N N N: :N 2 N N:2
Out of the other structures, Option (1) species has sufficient bonds, that is, the octet of every atom is
complete. Also, it has the least formal charge, so it is the best Lewis structure.
Correct Option: (1)
Question 18: What volume of wet methane (saturated with water vapour) would you have to collect at
29C and 1 atm pressure to be sure that the sample contains 244 ml of dry methane at 950 torr. [Given
that vapour pressure of water at 29C = 30 torr.]
(1) 317.5 ml (2) 187.5 ml (3) 305 ml (4) 244 ml
Solution
pV 950 244
The moles of methane gas required is n mol
RT RT
Same number of moles of methane should be present in wet methane, which is saturated with water
vapour. So, wet methane contains water vapour and the partial pressure of water vapour in it should be
equal to the vapour pressure of water for given conditions.
Therefore, partial pressure of methane in wet methane = 760 30 = 730 torr. Thus,
nRT 950 244 RT
V 317.5 ml
pCH4 RT 730
Correct Option: (1)
Quick Tip: Options (2) and (4) can be neglected easily since
pmix > pdry methane > pwet methane
Question 19: Silver cyanide, AgCN is one of the important salts used in the extraction of silver metal. It
is sparingly soluble in water and its solubility is approximately 2 106 mol/l at 25C. If the dissociation
constant of HCN at 25C is 5 1010, what is the solubility product of AgCN at this temperature?
(1) 3.6 1013 (2) 4 1012 (3) 3.24 1014 (4) 3.6 1012
Solution
The reaction is
AgCN(s) Ag (aq) CN (aq)
Since CN comes from weak acid, so its hydrolysis will take place, therefore
CN (aq) H 2 O HCN(aq) OH (aq)
At equilibrium 2 106 (1 h) 2 106 h 2 106 h (where h is the degree of hydrolysis)
K w [HCN][OH ] (2 106 h)2
Kh
Ka [CN ] (2 106 )(1 h)
1014 2 106 h2
or 10
2 105
5 10 (1 h)
h2
or 10 h2 10h 10 0 h 0.91
(1 h)
Therefore, [CN ] 2 106 (1 0.91) 1.8 107 mol/l
and Ksp [Ag ][CN ] 2 106 1.8 107 3.6 1013
Correct Option: (1)
Question 20: Which of the following statements is not correct about the Freundlich adsorption
isotherm?
(1) At low pressure, the amount of adsorbate depends linearly on pressure.
(2) At high pressure, the amount of adsorbate is independent of pressure.
(3) The slope of log(x/m) vs. log(p) may vary from zero to one.
Question 21: Which of the following solutions will show positive deviation from ideal behaviour?
(1) C2H5OH + H2O (2) CH3COCH3 + CHCl3
(3) H2O + HCl (4) H2O + HNO3
Solution
Positive deviation is shown by the solutions in which interactions between the molecules of its
components (solute and solvent) are reduced. It causes increase in vapour pressure and it is greater than
the value calculated by using Raoult’s law.
In pure water, molecules are held by strong intermolecular force known as hydrogen bonding. But, it is
reduced when ethanol molecule comes in between two molecules of water. So, the solution will show
positive deviation.
Correct Option: (1)
Question 22: Which of the following electron transitions in hydrogen atom will produce photon with
maximum wavelength?
(1) n = 5 to n = 1 (2) n = 4 to n = 2 (3) n = 6 to n = 4 (4) n = 6 to n = 5
Solution
The energy of photon is calculated as the energy difference of the orbits,
Ephoton En2 En1 E
hc hc
Hence, Ephoton E
E
So, emitted photon’s wavelength is inversely proportional to the energy difference of energy levels. Since
1 1
E 2 2 , moving away from nucleus the gap between successive energy levels is suppressed. So
n2 n1
for the transition from highest energy level to lower energy level will produce lowest energy photon.
For n = 6 to n = 5, transition is taking place from the highest energy level, n = 6 to just lower energy level,
n = 5. As the energy difference is minimum, so the wavelength of emitted photon will be maximum.
Correct Option: (4)
Question 23: At 460C, the reaction, SO2 (g) NO2 (g) NO(g) SO3 (g); has KC = 85. A reaction
flask at 460C contains these gases at the following concentrations: [SO 2] = 0.0025 M, [NO2] = 0.0035
M, [NO] = 0.025 M and [SO3] = 0.04 M.
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Reaction is proceeding towards forward direction.
(2) Reaction is proceeding towards reverse direction.
(3) Equilibrium would be affected on addition of inert gas at constant pressure.
(4) The value of Kp is greater than KC.
Solution
The reaction quotient is given by
Question 24: 100 g of 0.1 M Ca(OH)2 aqueous solution of density 1.5 g/cm3 is mixed with 100 g of 0.1
M H2SO4 of density 1.1 g/cm3. Which of the following statements is not correct about the final mixture?
(1) Final solution is neutral with [H+] 107 M.
(2) The final calcium ion concentration, [Ca 2+] 0.04 M.
(3) The final sulphate ion concentration, [SO24 ] 0.06 M
(4) Ca(OH)2 is the limiting reagent in the reaction.
Solution
Ca(OH)2 H2SO4 CaSO4 2H2O
Mass
Moles of Ca(OH) 2 taken Molarity Volume Molarity
density
100
0.1× mmol 6.66 mmol
1.5
100
Similarly, moles of H 2SO4 taken 0.1 mmol 9.09 mmol
1.1
Therefore, Ca(OH)2 is the limiting reagent and it cannot neutralize the acid completely. As the mmol of
H2SO4 > mmol of Ca(OH)2, so the resulting mixture is acidic.
Question 25: Which of the following contains the maximum number of atoms?
(1) 16 g of oxygen atoms (2) 16 g of methane gas
(3) 48 g of ozone (4) All contain the same number of atoms
Solution
Question 26: A solid is formed with three types of atoms A, B and C. A forms fcc lattice, while B atoms
occupy all tetrahedral voids and C atoms occupy half of the octahedral voids. The formula of the solid is
(1) A2B4C (2) A2B2C (3) AB2C2 (4) AB2C
Solution
1 1
The atoms of A per unit cell 8 6 4
8 2
The atoms of B per unit cell = 2 4 8
1
The atoms of C per unit cell = 4 2
2
Therefore formula is A4 B8C2 A2 B4C
Correct Option: (1)
Question 27: The standard enthalpy of formation of carbon disulphide, CS 2(g), is 115.3 kJ/mol. Given
that H f (S) 277 kJ/mol and H f (C) 716.7 kJ/mol , where H fo is the standard heat of formation of
o o
the gaseous atoms from the elements in their standard state. Using the data, calculate the bond enthalpy of
C=S.
(1) 577.7 kJ/ mol (2) 1155.4 kJ/mol (3) 878.4 kJ/mol (4) 439.2 kJ/mol
Solution
The chemical equation for formation of CS2 can be written as
C(s) 2S(s) S C S(g); Hfo (CS2 (g)) 115.3 kJ/mol
It implies that
Hfo (CS2 (g)) Hfo (C) 2 Hfo (S) 2 H bond
o
(C=S)
Therefore,
115.3 716.7 2 277 2 H bond
o
(C S)
H bond
o
(C S) 577.7 kJ/mol
Question 28: The decomposition of N 2O5 follows the reaction; 2N2O5 (g) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) and it is a
first order reaction. The reaction was allowed to take place in a closed vessel. After 30 minutes, the total
Question 29: For the reaction NiO2 (s) Cl (aq) H (aq) Cl2 (g) Ni 2 (aq) H2O , the standard cell
potential is 0.32 V. The value of Go will be
(1) 61.8 kJ (2) 61.8 kJ (3) 30.9 kJ (4) 123.6 kJ
Solution
The balanced chemical equation: NiO2 (s) 2Cl (aq) 4H (aq) Cl2 (g) Ni 2 (aq) 2H2O
We know that Go nFE o ; where n implies number of electrons involved in the reaction, and F is
96500 C/mol. Since NiO 2 is converting from Ni4+ to Ni2+, two electrons are involved per molecule of
NiO2.
6.18 104
Therefore, G o 2 mol 96500 C/mol 0.32 V 61.8 kJ; (C V J)
1000
Correct Option: (1)
Question 30: Calculate the osmotic pressure of a solution obtained by mixing 100 ml of 3.4% solution
(w/V) of urea (mol. wt. 60) and 100 ml of 1.6% solution (w/V) of cane sugar (mol. wt. 342) at 20C.
(1) 14.73 atm (2) 13.61 atm (3) 7.38 atm (4) 6.82 atm
Solution
w
For urea, the osmotic pressure is 1V1 n1 RT1 1 RT1
M1
w
For sugar, the osmotic pressure is 2V2 n2 RT2 2 RT2
M2
Since, 100 ml of urea solution are mixed with 100 mL of cane-sugar solution, and thus, the total volume
becomes 200 ml in which 3.4 g urea and 1.6 g sugar is present
200 3.4
1 0.0821 293 1 6.82 atm (where R = 0.0821 l atm/mol-K)
1000 60
200 1.6
and 2 0.0821 293 2 0.56 atm
1000 342