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Chapter 1 --fundamentals Of Testing


1.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following statements about 'Quality' is CORRECT ?


Quality is fitness for use.
Quality is measured at looking at the attributes of the product.
Quality is based on good manufacturing processes , and meeting defined requirements.
All of the above.

2.
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the impact on the cost of defects as we move across the SDLC ?
Increases
Decreases
Can't be determined
Remains stagnent

3.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is NOT the objective of testing?


Determine that the software products satisfy specific requirements.
Make the software BUG FREE !
Detect Defects
Gaining confidence in and providing information about the level of quality.

4.
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the process of analyzing and removing causes of failures in the software ?
Bebugging
Failure
Validation
Debugging

5.
Which of the following is TRUE about Error Seeding?
A.
It is similar to debugging.
B.
A flaw in the component/system that can cause the component/system to fail to perform its
required function
C.
The process of intentionally adding known defects to those already in the component/system .
D.
A human action that produces an incorrect result.
6.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the problems below BEST characterizes a result of software failure ?


Regulatory compliance
Lack of methodology
Damaged Reputation
Inadequate training

7.
Which factors contribute to humans making mistakes that can lead to faulty
software ?
I. Aggressive timeline
II. Complicated code
III.Rapid technological changes
IV.Adequate resources.
A.
I , II , III are True ; IV is Untrue
B.
II , IV are True ; I , III are Untrue
C.
I , IV are True ; II , III are Untrue
D.
I , II , IV are True ; III is Un true
8.
Which strategies can help improve the quality of the software?
a. Preventing change requests

b. Establishing defect metrics.


c. Doing rigorous testing.
d. Allocating schedule contingencies.
A.
B.
C.
D.

b, d are correct ; a,c are incorrect


a, d are correct ; b, c are incorrect
b , c are correct ; a, d are incorrect
a,b,c are correct ; d is incorrect

9.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is NOT a Testing principle ?


Testing can prove that there are no defects.
Testing activities should start as early as possible in the SDLC.
Testing is done diffrently in different contexts.
Testing everything is not feasible except in trivial cases.

10.
What are the activities in the fundamental test process placed in correct order ?
A.
planning and control ; implementation and execution ; analysis and design ; test closure
activities; evaluating exit criteria and reporting
B.
planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation ; execution ; test closure
activities
C.
planning and control ; analysis and design ; implementation and execution ; evaluating exit
criteria and reporting; test closure activities
D.
planning and control ; analysis and design ; evaluating exit criteria ; implementation ; test
closure activities
11.
In which of the following test process we make sure that we understand the goals
and objectives of the customers ?
A.
Implementation and execution
B.
Test planning and control
C.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
D.
Analysis and design
12.
Which of the folllowing is NOT the goal and objective of the Test implementation and
analysis test process?
A.
Develope and prioritize the test cases.
B.
Create test suites form tes cases.
C.
Identify test conditions
D.
Compare actual results with the expected results.
13.
What are the levels of indepedence sequenced from the lowest to the highest level ?
A.
Tests by another person within the same team ; Tests by the person who wrote the item under
test; Tests by the person from a different organizational group.
B.
Tests by the person who wrote the item under test; Tests by the person from a different
organizational group; Tests by another person within the same team.
C.
Tests by the person who wrote the item under test; Tests by another person within the same
team; Tests by the person from a different organizational group.
D.
None of the above.
14.
What principles do "avoiding author bias" and "communicating problems
constructively" represent?
A.
Experienced-based testing and interoperability testing
B.
Criticism avoidance and effective relationships.
C.
Independent testing and good interpersonal skills.
D.
Preventive testing and good interpersonal skills
15.

Which of the following is the MAJOR task when evaluating the exit criteria ?

A.
B.
C.
D.

Initiate corrective actions


Measure and analyze the results of reviews and testing.
Develop and prioritize the test cases
Write test summary report

16.
A.
B.
C.
D.

What principle is BEST described when test designs are written by a third party?
Integration Testing
Independent testing
Interoperability testing
Exploratory testing

17.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is correct? Debugging is:


Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix.
Testing that a previously reported bug has been corrected.
Testing whether the software performs correctly.
Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code, and checking the fix is correct.

18.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which statement is MOST true?


A technique that finds defects will always find defects.
All software is tested in the same way.
A technique that has found no defects is not useful.
Different testing is needed depending upon the application.

19.
Which list of levels of tester independence is in correct order, starting with the most
independent first?
A.
Tests designed by the author; tests designed by another member of the development team;
tests designed by someone from a different company.
B.
Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed
by the author; tests designed by someone from a different company.
C.
Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a
different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development
team.
D.
Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed
by someone from a different company; tests designed by a author.
20.
Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it?
i) Try to understand what other person feels.
ii)Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals.
iii) Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa.
iv) Emphasize the common goal of better quality.
v) Each discussion is a battle to be won.
A.
B.
C.
D.

ii, iii, iv aid ; i, v hinder


i, ii, iii aid; iv, v hinder
iii, iv, v aid; i,ii hinder
i, iii, iv aid; ii, v hinder

21.
The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order.
Which of the options gives three different parts in correct order?
A.
Implementation and execution; planning and control; analysis and design
B.
Analysis and design; evaluating exit criteria and reporting; test closure activities
C.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting; implementation and execution; analysis and design
D.
Evaluating exit criteria and reporting; test closure activities; analysis and design
22.
A.

When is testing complete?


When time and budget are exhausted.

B.
C.
D.

When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release.
When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding.
When every data combination is exercised correctly.

23.
Which pair of definitions is correct?
A.
Regression testing is checking that the reported defect has been fixed; confirmation testing is
testing that there are no additional problems in previously tested software.
B.
Regression testing is checking there are no additional problems in previously tested software;
confirmation testing enables developers to isolate the problem.
C.
Regression testing involves running all tests that have been run before; confirmation testing
runs new tests.
D.
Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in previously tested
software, confirmation testing is demonstrating that the reported defect has been fixed.
24.
Ensuring that the test design starts during the requirements definition phase is
important to enable which of the following test objectives?
A.
Finishing the project on time.
B.
Gaining confidence in the system.
C.
Preventing defects in the system.
D.
Finding defects through dynamic testing.
25.
Which option is part of the implementation and execution area of the fundamental
test process?
A.
Developing the tests.
B.
Comparing actual and expected results.
C.
Writing a test summary report.
D.
Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases.
26. Which bug causes a failure?
a) Software
b) Configuration
c) Documentation
d) Requirements
27. The deviation from the requirements which is visible to end-users is
a) Error
b) Fault
c) Mistake
d) Failure
28. Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portabl
29. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to tes

30. Enough testing has been performed when:


a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users wont find any serious fault
31. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the
latest
test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are costlier to find in the early development phases but the most cheap to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to
fix
then
32. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesnt work.
d) To prove that the software is correct
33. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life
cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project
34. A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect resul
35. The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults
36. Faults found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
37. What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release

b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release


c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
38. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to
fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
39. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the systems weaknesses
40. Which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix

16. Pick the best definition of quality


a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
17. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity
18. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the draft versions of software requirements are available
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
19. How much testing is enough?
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer

c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

ISTQB sample questions Chapter 1

1.Test granularity refers to:


A. The impact of a bug on the system under test.
B. A quality improvement idea common in software
development.
C. Any way of determining the expected result for a
test case.
D. The fineness or coarseness of a test's focus.
D. The fineness or coarseness of a test's focus.

2.The prime benefit of testing is that it results in


improved defects
a. True
b. False
b. False

3.A bug report is a:


A. A & B
B. A technical document that describes the various
symptoms or failure modes associated with a single
bug.
C. A collection of independent, reusable test cases.
D. A deliverable that details the strategic approach to a
testing effort
B. A technical document that describes the various symptoms or failure
modes associated with a single bug.

4.A software error can be described as:


A. A mismatch between the program and its
specification.
B. Any ill-advised, substandard, or temporary fix

applied to an urgent problem in the (often misguided)


belief that doing so will keep a project moving forward.
C. A description of the relationship between two or
more variables or set members in which the value of
one does not influence the values of others.
D. The process in which developers determine the root
cause of a bug and identify possible fixes.
A. A mismatch between the program and its specification.

5.Select a reason that does not agree with the fact that
complete testing is impossible:
A. The user interface issues (and thus the design
issues) are too complex to completely test.
B. Limited financial resources.
C. The domain of possible inputs is too large to test .
D. There are too many possible paths through the
program to test.
B. Limited financial resources.

6.Testing looks for situations in which a product fails to


meet the developers expectations in specific areas.
a. True
b. False
b. False

7.Select a reason that does not support the idea of using


separate test plans for test subprojects that are distinct
in one or more ways:
A. Different objectives
B. Different audiences
C. Different time periods
D. Different methodologies
E. Different resources

E. Different resources

8.The testing effort begins with


A. B & C
B. A & B
C. Test planning
D. Test execution
E. Test case design
B. A & B

9.Testing during the design stage involves:


A. Acceptance or qualification testing
B. Reading drafts of the planning documents
C. Examining the design documents
d. None of the above
C. Examining the design documents

10. A well-designed test system promotes:


A. Accountability
B. Actions
C. Principles
D. Resources
A. Accountability

11. When testing operating systems or applications,


the first step of testing a new build should consist of :
A. A & B
B. Updating requirements
C. Notifying test lead
D. Testing the upgrade/installation procedures
D. Testing the upgrade/installation procedures

12. The general rule of test execution is that you must


always create a test procedure that will force the

program to use the data youve entered and to prove


that it is using your data correctly.
a. True
b. False
a. True

13. Which is not a goal of writing effective Problem/Bug


reports?
A. Write a report that is complete, easy to understand,
and non-antagonistic
B. Explain how to reproduce the problem
C. Illustrate how to fix the problem
D. Analyze the error so you can describe it in a
minimum number of steps
C. Illustrate how to fix the problem

14. Which of the following displays an exit criterion for


the test team?
A. The Development teams have unit-tested all
features and bug fixes scheduled for release.
B. The test team has executed the entire planned tests
against the application under test.
C. All software released to the test team is
accompanied by release notes
D. Twice-weekly bug review meetings (under the
Change Control Board) occur until System Test Phase
Exit to manage the open bug backlog and bug closure
times.
B. The test team has executed the entire planned tests against the
application under test.

15. The daily closure period refers to:


A. The average number of days between the opening of

a bug and its resolution for all bugs closed on the same
day.
B. The amount of bugs opened over a 24 hour period
C. The average for all closed bugs, including the
current day and all previous days
d. None of the Above
A. The average number of days between the opening of a bug and its
resolution for all bugs closed on the same day.

16. Integrity testing involves:


A. The final phase of testing prior to deployment
B. Performance testing
C. The testing of pseudo code
D. Alpha testing
A. The final phase of testing prior to deployment

17. Testing literature reflects and promotes a strongly


held belief that product reliability will not be better if
testing is done by a fully independent test agency.
a. True
b. False
b. False

18. Select the item(s) that are general testing


principles:
a. Testing shows a presence of defects
b. Exhaustive testing is impossible
c. Automation tools can be a great strategy
d. Absence-of-errors fallacy
o a. Testing shows a presence of defects
o b. Exhaustive testing is impossible
o d. Absence-of-errors fallacy

19. Which is not a major task of test implementation


and execution:
A. Verifying that the test environment has been set up
correctly
B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording
the identities and versions of the software under test,
test tools and testware.
C. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test
data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing
test harness and writing automated test scripts.
D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified
in test planning.
D. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.

20. Select the item(s) that compose test objectives:


a. Finding defects
b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and
providing information
c. Preventing defects
d. Utilization of testware
o a. Finding defects
o b. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing
information
o c. Preventing defects

21. A bug or defect is:


A. the result of a failure, which may lead to an error
B. a run-time problem experienced by a user
C. a mistake made by a person
D. the result of an error or mistake;
D. the result of an error or mistake;

22. The effect of testing is to:


A. show there are no problems remaining?
B.give an indication of the software quality;
C. increase software quality;
D. enable those responsible for software failures to be
identified;
B. give an indication of the software quality;

23. What is retesting?


A. Running a previously failed test against new
software/data/documents to see if the problem is
solved.
B. A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new
errors have been introduced.
C. Running the same test again in the same
circumstances to reproduce the problem.
D. Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the
test phase have been met.
A. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents
to see if the problem is solved.

24. Debugging is:


A. Checking that no unintended consequences have
occurred as a result of a fix.
B. Checking that a previously reported defect has been
corrected.
C. Testing/checking whether the software performs
correctly.
D. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code
and checking the fix is correct.
D. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the
fix is correct.

(a. is a brief definition of testing. b. is restesting, and d. is regression


testiong.)

25. Which of the following are aids to good


communication, and which hinder it?
i. Try to understand how the other person feels.
ii. Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon
individuals.
iii. Confirm the other person has understood what you
have said and vice versa.
iv. Emphasise the common goal of better quality.
v. Each discussion is a battle to be won.
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv) aid, (i) and (v) hinder.
B. (iii), (iv) and (v) aid, (i) and (ii) hinder.
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) aid, (iv) and (v) hinder.
D. (i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder.
D. (i), (iii) and (iv) aid, (ii) and (v) hinder.

26. Which option is part of the implementation and


execution area of the fundamental test process?
A. Analysing lessons learnt for future releases.
B. Comparing actual and expected results.
C. Developing the tests.
D. Writing a test summary.
B. Comparing actual and expected results.
(a. is part of Analysis and design, c. is part of 'evaluating exit criteria and
reporting', and d. is part of 'Test closure activities')

27. The five parts of the fundamental test process


have a broad chronological order. Which of the options
gives three different parts in the correct order?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure
activities, analysis and design.

B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and


reporting, test closure activities.
C. Implementation and execution, planning and control,
analysis and design.
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting,
implementation and execution, analysis and design.
B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure
activities.

28. Which pair of definitions is correct?


A. Regression testing is checking that there are no
additional problems in previously tested software,
retesting is demonstrating that the reported defect has
been fixed.
B. Regression testing is checking there are no
additional problems in previously tested software;
retesting enables developers to isolate the problem.
C. Regression testing is checking that the reported
defect has been fixed; retesting is testing that there
are no additional problems in previously tested
software.
D. Regression testing involves running all tests that
have been run before; retesting runs new tests.
A. Regression testing is checking that there are no additional problems in
previously tested software, retesting is demonstrating that the reported
defect has been fixed.

29. Which statement is most true?


A. A technique that has found no defects is not useful.
B. All software is tested in the same way.
C. Different testing is needed depending upon the
application.
D. A technique that finds defects will always find
defects.

C. Different testing is needed depending upon the application.

30. When is testing complete?


A. When every data combination has been exercised
successfully.
B. When there is enough information for sponsors to
make an informed decision about release.
C. When time and budget are exhausted.
D. When there are no remaining high priority defects
outstanding.
B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed
decision about release.
(Sometimes time and money does signify the end of testing, but it is
really complete when everything that was set out in advance has been
achieved)

31. Which list of levels of tester independence is in the


correct order, starting with the most independent first?
A. Tests designed by someone from a different
department within the company; tests designed by
someone from a different company; tests designed by
the author.
B. Tests designed by someone from a different
department within the company; tests designed by the
author; tests designed by someone from a different
company.
C. Tests designed by the author; tests designed by
another member of the development team; tests
designed by someone from a different company.
D. Tests designed by someone from a different
company; tests designed by someone from a different
department within the company; tests designed by
another member of the development team.

D. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed


by someone from a different department within the company; tests
designed by another member of the development team.

32. The following statements relate to activities that


are part of the fundamental test process.
i. Evaluating the testability of requirements.
ii. Repeating testing activities after changes.
iii. Designing the test environment set-up.
iv. Developing and prioritising test cases.
v. Verifying the environment is set up correctly.
Which statement below is TRUE?
A. (i) and (iv) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii)
and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
B. (i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv)
and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
C. (i) and (ii) are part of analysis and design, (iii), (iv)
and (v) are part of test implementation and execution.
D. (i) and (v) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iii)
and (iv) are part of test implementation and execution.
B. (i) and (iii) are part of analysis and design, (ii), (iv) and (v) are part of
test implementation and execution.

33. Which statement correctly describes


the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics?
A. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the
wider public interest in their
actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall
advance the integrity and reputation of their industry
consistent with the public interest.
B. Public: Certified software testers shall advance the
integrity and reputation of the profession consistent
with the public interest. Profession: Certified software
testers shall consider the wider public interest in their
actions.

C. Public: Certified software testers shall act in the best


interests of their client and employer (being consistent
with the wider public interest). Profession: Certified
software testers shall advance the integrity and
reputation of their industry consistent with the public
interest.
D. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the
wider public interest in their
actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall
participate in lifelong learning regarding the practice of
their profession and shall promote an ethical approach
to the practice of their profession.
A. Public: Certified software testers shall consider the wider public interest
in their actions. Profession: Certified software testers shall advance the
integrity and reputation of their industry consistent with the public
interest.
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Question Excerpt
1. Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the test life cycle?

A
Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.
.
B
Test principles only affect test execution activities.
.
C
Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.
.
D
Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.
.
2. A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under test. While the test manager understands that this is a good
defect-detection percentage for her test team and industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team
misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures which have occurred have generally been low impact,
which of the following testing principles is most likely to help the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be
missed?
A
Absence-of-errors fallacy
.
B
Exhaustive testing is impossible
.
C
Defect clustering
.
D
Pesticide paradox
.

3. Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between testers and developers?

A
Understanding what managers value about testing.
.
B
Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.
.
C
Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.
.
D
Promoting better quality software whenever possible.
.

4. According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word "bug" is synomous with which of the following words?

A
Incident
.
B.Defect
C
Mistake
.
D.Error

5. According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?

A
Negative feedback to the tester.
.
B
Negative consequences that will occur.
.
C
Negative consequences that could occur
.
D
Negative consequences for the test object.
.
6. A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill-paying process. They now plan to run an acceptance test again the package
prior to putting it into production. Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?
A
To build confidence in the application
.
B
To detect bugs in the application
.
C.To gather evidence for a lawsuit
D
To train the users
.

7. Ensuring that a test design start during the requirements definition phase is important to enable which of the following test objectives?

A
Preventing defects in the system.
.
B
Finding defects through dynamic testing.
.
C
Gaining confidence in the system.
.
D
Finishing the project on time.
.

8. According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

A
To verify the success of corrective actions.
.
B
To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
.
C
To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
.
D
To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.
.

Questions
Q1 Though activities in the Fundamental test process may overlap or
occur concurrently, identify the logical sequential process.
(i) Test Implementation and Execution
(ii) Test Closure activities
(iii) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
(iv) Test Planning and Control
(v) Test Analysis and Design
(A) iv - v - iii - ii - i
(C) iv - v - i - iii - ii

(B) v - i - iii - ii - iv
(D) v - ii - iii - i - iv

Correc
t Ans
Correc
t
Ans :C

Correc
t
Ans :A

Q3 What is the USUAL sequence for performing the following activities


during the Fundamental Test Process?
a. Analyze the test basis documents.
b. Define the expected results.
c. Create the test execution schedule.
d. Establish the traceability of the test conditions
(A) d, a, c, b
(C) a, b, c, d

Correc
t
Ans :B

(B) a, d, b, c
(D) a, b, d, c

Q4 Which of the following activities would NORMALLY be undertaken


during test planning?
a. Scheduling test analysis and design.
b. Designing Test Conditions.
c. Monitoring test progress.
d. Identifying the objectives of testing.
e. Evaluating test tools.
f. Selecting test metrics for monitoring and control.

Correc
t
Ans :B

(A) b, c and d (B) a, d and f


(C) a, d and e (D) b, c and f
Correc
t
Ans :C
Q6 What should be taken into account to determine when to stop testing? Correc
I. Technical risk
t
II. Business risk
Ans :D
III Project constraints
IV Product documentation
(A) I and II are true. III and N are false (B) III is true, I, II, and IV are
false
(C) I, II, and IV are true; III is false (D) I, II, and III are true, IV is false.

Correc
t
Ans :B

Correc
t
Ans :D
Q9 Which of the following is true?
Correc
(A) Component testing should be black box, system testing should be
t
white box. (B) If u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very Ans :B
confident about the quality of software.
(C) The fewer bugs you find, the better your testing was (D) The more
tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
Correc
t
Ans :C
Correc
t
Ans :A
Q12 Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
(A) 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not (B) 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5
is not
(C) 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not (D) All of them are valid
reasons for failure.

Correc
t
Ans :D

Correc
t
Ans :C
Correc
t
Ans :B
Q15 Which of the following statements describes a key principle of
software testing?

Correc
t
Ans :B

(A) Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the


quality of software products.
(B) For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input
and output combinations.
(C) Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support,
feasible for all software.
(D) The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of
defects in software products.
Correc
t
Ans :D

Correc
t
Ans :D
Correc
t
Ans :C
Correc
t
Ans :A

Correc
t
Ans :A

Questions

Q22 Which activities form part of test planning?


i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall
approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment .
v) Writing test conditions.

Correc
t Ans
Correct
Ans :A

Correct
Ans :B

(A) i, ii &iv are true, iii & v are false. (B) . ii & iii are true, i, iv& v are false.
(C) . iv& v are true, i, ii & iii are false. (D) i, ii & iii are true iv& v are false.
Correct
Ans :B

Correct
Ans :C

Correct
Ans :D

Correct
Ans :A

Correct
Ans :D

Correct
Ans :C

Correct
Ans :B

Correct
Ans :D

Correct
Ans :D

Correct
Ans :D

Correct
Ans :A

Correct
Ans :A

Correct
Ans :A

Correct
Ans :D

Correct
Ans :B

Correct
Ans :B

Q39 Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major
Correct
tasks?
Ans :A
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test
procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated
test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
(A) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false (B) i,iv are true and ii is false
(C) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false (D) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false

Correct
Ans :C

xams of Chapter I
Cc bn c th tham kho ton b cu hi y istqb questions
Question 1 A company recently purchased a commercial off-the-shelf application to automate their bill-paying
process. They now plan to run an acceptance test against the package prior to putting it into production.
Which of the following is their most likely reason for testing?

a. To build confidence in the application.

b. To detect bugs in the application.

c. To gather evidence for a lawsuit.

d. To train the users.


Question 2 According to the ISTQB Glossary, the word bug is synonymous with which of the following
words?

a. Incident

b. Defect

c. Mistake

d. Error
Question 3 According to the ISTQB Glossary, a risk relates to which of the following?

a. Negative feedback to the tester.

b. Negative consequences that will occur.

c. Negative consequences that could occur.

d. Negative consequences for the test object.

Question 4 Ensuring that test design starts during the requirements definition phase is important to enable
which of the following test objectives?

a. Preventing defects in the system.

b. Finding defects through dynamic testing.

c. Gaining confidence in the system.

d. Finishing the project on time.


Question 5 A test team consistently finds between 90% and 95% of the defects present in the system under
test. While the test manager understands that this is a good defect-detection percentage for her test team and
industry, senior management and executives remain disappointed in the test group, saying that the test team
misses too many bugs. Given that the users are generally happy with the system and that the failures which
have occurred have generally been low impact, which of the following testing principles is most likely to help
the test manager explain to these managers and executives why some defects are likely to be missed?

a. Exhaustive testing is impossible

b. Defect clustering

c. Pesticide paradox

d. Absence-of-errors fallacy
Question 6 According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

a. To verify the success of corrective actions.

b. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.

c. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.

d. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.


Question 7 Which of the following is most important to promote and maintain good relationships between
testers and developers?

a. Understanding what managers value about testing.

b. Explaining test results in a neutral fashion.

c. Identifying potential customer work-arounds for bugs.

d. Promoting better quality software whenever possible.


Question 8 Which of the statements below is the best assessment of how the test principles apply across the
test life cycle?

a. Test principles only affect the preparation for testing.

b. Test principles only affect test execution activities.

c. Test principles affect the early test activities such as review.

d. Test principles affect activities throughout the test life cycle.

his simulator contains following questions:

================================================
Q1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except:
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan
Q2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase?
a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test cases
Q3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
A. deviations from standards,
B.requirement defects,
C.design defects,
D.insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
E.All of the above.
Q4. Load Testing Tools
a) reduces the time spent by the testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above
Q5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective
A.identifying defects.
B. fixing defects.
C. 1 and 2
D. None
Q6. Defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.
Q7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
Q8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF statement, and you got to the statement with a test that passed

through the FALSE branch.


B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's flow of control.
C. Both A and B
D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
Q9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review?
a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager
Q10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing?
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
Q11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web sites
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above
Q12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously?
a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand howrequirements might change so that alternate test plans and strategiescan be worked
out in advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into theproject, while moving more difficult new requirements into futureversions of the
application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
Q13. The selection of test cases for regression testing
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above
Q14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.
Q15. What do you mean by Having to say NO
a. No, the problem is not with testers
b. No, the software is not ready for production
c. Both a & b
d. none of the above
Q16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These include:
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparingto do the rest of the project's work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project,because they expect a low rate of bug finding, so the low rate
achieved doesn'talarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to notreport bugs.
D. All of the above
Q17. Operations testing is:
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
Q18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as
a. functional automation tools
b. performance testing tools
c. configuration management tools

d. none of the above.


Q19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for somemanagers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required,because every task takes time that could be spent on other high
importance tasks.
D. All of the above.
Q20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process
a) Assess development plan and status
b) Develop the test plan
c) Test software design
d) Test software requirement
Q21. In the MASPAR case study:
A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code.
B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage butmissed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system.
C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almostevery input value to find its two special-case failures.
D. All of the above.
Q22. Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program
Q23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
Q24. Security falls under
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
Q25. Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in theprogram.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
Q26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having theeffects of that change show up in some test?
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations

Answers:

1 - C, 2 - D, 3 - E, 4 - D, 5 - A, 6 - A, 7 - C, 8 - C, 9 - A,

10 - A,
11 - D, 12 - C
,
,
,
,
,
,

13 - D
14 - A
15 - B, 16 - D
17 - E
18 - C
19 - D

, 20 - C
,
21 - C, 22 - B
, 23 - A
, 24 - A
, 25 - D
, 26 - E