Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1.Diagnosis of Pregnancy.
***) Signs and symptoms of pregnancy in the 1st trimester include all of the
following, except:
A. Nausea
B. Quickening
C. Frequency of micturition
D. Soreness of breast
E. Hegar's sign
Answer: B* Quickening
***) Which of the following hormones is produced by trophoblast:
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Prolactin
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin
E. Oxytocin
Answer: D* Human chorionic gonadotropin
***) Positive pregnancy test in the urine depends on the presence of:
A. Human chorionic gonadotropin
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Calcium
E. Cortisol
Answer: A* Human chorionic gonadotropin
***) A suspicion of pregnancy at 3 wks GA may be confirmed by one of the
following:
A. History of morning sickness and nausea
B. Vaginal examination
C. Abdominal examination
D. Immunological pregnancy test (hCG)
E. Breast examination
Answer: D* Immunological pregnancy test (hCG)
***) Which of the following hormones decreases after the first trimester of
pregnancy:
A. Progesterone
B. Prolactin
***) Breast tissue of 2mm nodule is normal for which gestational age:
A. 28 weeks
B. 36 weeks
C. 40 weeks
D. 42 weeks
E. 44 weeks
Answer: A* 28 weeks
E. 1000 mg of iron
Answer: A*20 mg of iron
***) All of the following are ideal routine blood tests carried out at first visit to
an antenatal clinic, except:
A. Blood grouping and rhesus
B. Hemoglobin
C. Serological tests for syphilis
D. Rubella antibodies
E. Renal functional tests
Answer: E* Renal functional tests
***) All of the following are restriction on coitus during pregnancy, except:
A. Threatened abortion
B. History of premature labor
C. History of post partum hemorrhage
D. History of ante partum hemorrhage
E. When membranes are ruptured
Answer: C* History of post partum hemorrhage
***) Abdominal palpation in the latter half of pregnancy reveals all of the
following, except:
A. The fundal height
B. The lie of the fetus
C. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion
D. The presentation of the fetal cephalic or breech
E. Whether the presenting part in engaged or not
Answer: C* Cephalo-pelvic disproportion
***) At 16 weeks of pregnancy, the uterine fundus is felt at:
A. Just above the pubic margin
B. At the level of umbilicus
C. Midway between umbilicus and pubic margin
D. 2 cm above the pubis
E. 2 cm above the umbilicus
Answer: C* Midway between umbilicus and pubic margin
***) At 14 weeks pregnancy a uterus may felt large for dates because of the
following, except:
A. Wrong dates
B. Uterine fibroid
C. Full bladder
D. Polyhydramnios
E. Multiple pregnancy
Answer: C* Full bladder
***) A large for date uterus may be due to all of the following conditions,
except:
A. Multiple pregnancy
B. Hydatidiform mole
C. Oligohydramnios
D. Uterine fibroid with pregnancy
E. Error in dates
Answer: C* Oligohydramnios
***) Causes of large for date pregnancies are the following, except:
A. Multiple pregnancy
B. Polyhydramnios
C. Hydatiform mole
D. Intrauterine fetal death
E. Diabetes with pregnancy
Answer: D* Intrauterine fetal death
***) The following factors may lead to wrong dates of delivery, except:
A. An irregular cycle
B. Regular cycles but in excess of 28 days (35-42 days)
C. Regular cycles of 28 days
D. Patient's poor memory
E. Breast feeding
Answer: C* Regular cycles of 28 days
***) To reduce the risk of recurrence of neural tube defects in a woman
planning to get pregnancy, she should be advised to take:
A. Iron tablets 20 mg/day
B. Calcium tablets 1 gm/day
C. Vitamin E 200 mg/day
D. Vitamin B complex
E. Folic acid tablets 4 mg/day
Answer: E* Folic acid tablets 4 mg/day
***) Counseling of a pregnant woman during antenatal care should include
advice and education on all of the following except one:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Smoking
Alcohol abuse
Drug abuse
Avoiding infection
Water consumption
2.Prenatal Screening.
***) The most sensitive prognostic test in Rh-disease of pregnancy is:
A. Antibody titer
B. Past history
C. Spectrophotometric examination of the amniotic fluid
D. Urinary bilirubin level
E. Fetal movements
Answer: C* Spectrophotometric examination of the amniotic fluid
***) Indication of anti-D administration to Rh-negative mothers married to
Rh-positive husbands includes all the following except:
A. Following abortion
B. Following delivery of Rh-negative baby
C. At 28 weeks of gestation
D. Following ectopic pregnancy
E. Following amniocentesis
Answer: B* Following delivery of Rh-negative baby
***) All of the following are indications for anti-D-gamma-globulin
administration, except:
A. Abortion caused by blighted ovum
B. Abortion secondary to cervical incompetence
C. After amniocentesis
D. After attacks of ante partum hemorrhage
E. To Rh-negative unsensitized mother giving birth to Rh-positive fetus
Prenatal Diagnosis.
***) The following information may be obtained from aspiration of amniotic
fluid in the 2nd and 3rd trimester of pregnancy, except:
A. Cytogenetics
B. Fetal maturity
C. Detection of neural tube defect by measurement of alpha fetoprotein
D. Polydactyly
E. Rhesus disease
Answer: D* Polydactyly
***) Amniotic fluid is used to check up all of the following, except:
A. Chromosome analysis
B. Neural tube defects
C. Lung maturity of the fetus
D. Fetal hemoglobin
E. Inborn metabolic disease
Answer: E* Inborn metabolic disease
***) All of the following are causes of iron deficiency anemia during
pregnancy, except:
Inadequate iron in the diet
Excessive blood loss
Infrequent pregnancies
Abnormal demand as in multiple pregnancy
Mal absorption
Answer: C* Infrequent pregnancies
***) Effects of iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy include all of the
following, except:
Increased plasma volume
Increased cardiac output
Decreased peripheral resistance
Oxygen dissociation curve shifted to the left
Heart failure may occur in severe cases
Answer: D* Oxygen dissociation curve shifted to the left
Hypoxia
Answer: C* Folic acid deficiency
***) All of the following are associated with complications in pregnant patient
with diabetes mellitus, except:
Maternal ketoacidosis
Intrauterine fetal death
Trichomonas infection
Polyhydramnios
Pre-eclamptic toxemia
Answer: C* Trichomonas infection
***) Indications of glucose tolerance test during pregnancy include all
following, except:
Family history of diabetes
Renal glucosuria
Unexplained stillbirth
Polyhydramnios
Delivery of 4.5 kg baby
Answer: B* Renal glucosuria
***) In a pregnant patient with history of diabetes in both parents, the
probability of abnormal glucose metabolism is:
10%
25%
50%
75%
100%
Answer: C*50%
***) Which one of the following contributes to good control of diabetes in
pregnancy:
300 mg carbohydrate per day diet
Good control of protein intake
Oral hypoglycemic drugs in mild cases
Twice daily mixture of short and medium acting insulin
Bed rest in the last 3 months of pregnancy
Answer: D* Twice daily mixture of short and medium acting insulin
***) In diabetes with pregnancy, there is an increased incidence of:
Traumatic delivery
Maternal death
Maternal head trauma
Normoglycemia
Delivery at home
Hypertension.
***) Pre-existing raised blood pressure before pregnancy or in early
pregnancy may be due to the following, except:
Pre-eclampsia
Essential hypertension
Renal artery stenosis
Pheochromocytoma
Coarctation of aorta
Answer: A* Pre-eclampsia
***) Concerning pregnancy induced hypertension, all the following are true
except:
Common in women with diabetes mellitus
Treatment includes furosemide (Lasix)
Albuminuria is due to this condition
Delivery usually cure this condition
Will recur in 30% of cases in subsequent pregnancies
Answer: B* Treatment includes furosemide (Lasix)
***) Concerning gestational hypertension, all the following are true except:
The blood pressure rises all through pregnancy
The blood pressure decreases few days after delivery
The hypertension is not necessarily to be associated with proteinuria
The pregnancy should not exceed more than 40 weeks
The blood pressure rises in the third trimester
Answer: A* The blood pressure rises all through pregnancy
***) One of the following statements regarding pregnancy induced
hypertension is true:
Can be relieved by use of diuretics
Post partum pregnancy induced hypertension is the most dangerous
Relief of pregnancy induced hypertension is achieved by anti-tetanus toxoid
Death of the fetus is usually followed by complete improvement
Fetus is usually large for date
Answer: B* Post partum pregnancy induced hypertension is the most
dangerous
***) All of the following conditions are more likely to be associated with preeclampsia, except:
Multiparity
Multiple pregnancy
Chronic kidney disease
Diabetes mellitus
Vesicular mole
Answer: A* Multiparity
***) The following conditions are associated with high frequency of preeclampsia, except:
Diabetes
Multiple pregnancy
Polyhydramnios
Hydatiform mole
Placenta previa
Answer: C* Polyhydramnios
***) The following statements regarding ante partum pre-eclampsia toxemia
are true, except:
Treatment with diuretics is of great value
Primary treatment with diazoxide is contraindicated
Plasma uric acid level is elevated
Materno-placental blood flow falls to less than 50%
There is increased incidence of PET in future pregnancies
Answer: A* Treatment with diuretics is of great value
***) The following about a patient developing proteinuric hypertension (preeclampsia) in pregnancy are true, except:
Serum uric acid concentration increases
The plasma volume decreases
Placental function tests values decrease
Hb concentration increases
Creatinine clearance increases
Answer: E* Creatinine clearance increases
***) One of the following is a grave sign of severe pre-eclampsia:
A PCV (Packed cell volume) of 55%
BP 160/100 mm HG
Proteinuria of 2 g/24h
Deep tendon reflex with 3+/4+
Edema of lower limbs up to the knees
Answer: B* Polyhydramnios
***) In a case of pre-eclamptic toxemia at 40 weeks, the best management
is:
Induction of labor
Cesarean section
Give methyldopa only
Give diuretics (Lasix) only
Give hydralazine only
Answer: A* Induction of labor
***) The most worrisome sign or symptom of serious pathology in late
pregnancy is:
Swollen ankles
Constipation
Visual changes
Nocturia
Heartburn
Answer: C* Visual changes
Systolic murmur
Diastolic murmur
Atrial fibrillation
Cardiac enlargement
Palpation of a thrill
Answer: A* Systolic murmur
***) The following are factors which may lead to heart failure in patient with
heart disease in pregnancy, except:
Tachycardia
Emotional upset
Physical exercise
A systolic murmur
Lower limbs edema
Answer: D* A systolic murmur
***) In a pregnant patient with mitral stenosis, all the following are true
except:
To have labor induced at 38 weeks
Sit upright in labor
Could be considered for mitral valvotomy during pregnancy
Should not be given ergometrine (oxytocin) in the third stage of labor
Should have elective forceps delivery unless spontaneous delivery is very
rapid
Answer: A* To have labor induced at 38 weeks
***) Pregnancy is contraindicated in all of the following conditions except:
Uncorrected atrial septal defect
Marfan's syndrome
Uncompensated cardiac failure
Eisenmenger's syndrome
Severe mitral stenosis
Answer: A* Uncorrected atrial septal defect
Jaundice in Pregnancy.
***) The following may cause jaundice during pregnancy, except:
Acute fatty atrophy of the liver
Viral hepatitis
Severe pre-eclampsia
Chlorpromazine
Erythromycin
Answer: D* Chlorpromazine
Klebsiella
E.Coli
Proteus
Shigella
Answer: C* E.Coli
***) The following encourage pyelitis in pregnancy, except:
Urinary stasis
Abnormalities of the renal tract
Constipation
Dehydration
Diabetes mellitus
Answer: D* Dehydration
***) Management of acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy includes all of the
following, except:
Admission to the hospital
IV fluids
Antibiotics
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) following delivery
Induction of labor
Answer: E* Induction of labor
***) Pregnant patients with chronic renal disease have an increased of all of
the following, except:
Pre-eclampsia
Abortion
Stillbirth
Intrauterine growth retardation
Postmaturity
Answer: E* Postmaturity
***) All of the following may cause proteinuria during pregnancy, except:
A result of contamination
Urinary tract infection
Pre-eclampsia
Cardiac disease in pregnancy
Varicose veins in pregnancy
Answer: E* Varicose veins in pregnancy
***) All of the following complications of urinary tract may occur during
pregnancy, except:
Asymptomatic bacteriuria
Ureteric colic
Lower urinary tract infection is uncommon
Hematuria due to varicose veins in the bladder (hemangioma)
Acute urine retention
Answer: C* Lower urinary tract infection is uncommon
***) Urinary estriol during pregnancy is mainly derived from:
Fetal kidneys
Maternal kidneys
Fetal adrenals
Maternal adrenals
Maternal liver
Answer: C* Fetal adrenals
***) An appropriate choice of antibiotics therapy for urinary tract infection in
15 weeks pregnant is:
Doxycycline
Tetracycline
Ciprofloxacin
Nitrofurantoin
Metronidazole
Answer: D* Nitrofurantoin
Infections in Pregnancy.
***) Treponema pallidum is the cause for one of the following venereal
diseases:
Chancroid
Condyloma acuminata
Lymphogranuloma venerum
Syphilis
Granuloma inguinalis
Answer: D* Syphilis
***) Transplacental transmission occurs in which of the following:
Shigella
Syphilis
Diphtheria
Typhoid
Cholera
Answer: B* Syphilis
***) All of the following statements concerning congenital rubella infection
are true, except:
Most congenital infection occur during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy
Congenital infection includes congenital cataract, patent ductus arteriosus
and congenital deafness
If contracted during the last trimester it will lead to intrauterine growth
retardation
Gamma globulin given to the mother offers protection against fetal damage
Congenital infection can lead to fetal death or prematurity
Answer: D* Gamma globulin given to the mother offers protection against
fetal damage
***) The effects of rubella on the fetus include the following, except:
Blindness
Deafness
Hutchinson teeth
Intrauterine growth retardation
Hepatosplenomegaly
Answer: C*Hutchinson teeth
***) One of the following viral diseases may cause cataract, deafness and
heart lesion of newborn:
Measles
Rubella
Coxsackie virus
Cytomegalic inclusion bodies
Herpes zoster
Answer: B* Rubella
***) In a patient exposed to rubella infection in early pregnancy the proper
management is:
To give rubella vaccine
To advise the patient to have immediate termination
To give immunoglobulin and assure the patient
To do rubella titre IgG, IgM and repeat after two weeks
To ignore patient's complaint
Answer: D* To do rubella titre IgG, IgM and repeat after two weeks
Septic abortion
Abruptio placenta (accidental hemorrhage)
Answer: B* Incomplete abortion
***) Disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by all of the
following, except:
Thrombocytopenia
High fibrinogen level
High levels of fibrinogen degradation products
Bleeding tendency
Low PO2
Answer: B* High fibrinogen level
***) Hypofibrinogenemia is characterized by:
A failure of blood to clot in vitro
Plasma fibrinogen of 500 mg percent
Decreased platelets count
Decreased leukocytes mobility
A decrease in erythrocytes
Answer: A* A failure of blood to clot in vitro
***) A major hazard of fetal demise after 20 weeks is:
Increase in human chorionic gonadotropin values
Systemic allergies
Bone marrow depression
Coagulopathy
Toxemia
Answer: D* Coagulopathy
Cystitis
Threatened abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
Mole pregnancy
Twisted ovarian cyst
Answer: D* Mole pregnancy
***) All of the following are the features of complication of grand multiparous woman, except:
Iron deficient anemia
Increased incidence of antepartum hemorrhage
Infertility
Ruptured uterus
Post partum hemorrhage
Answer: C* Infertility
***) The treatment of choice in a patient with a cystocele during pregnancy
is:
Anterior repair operation in the first trimester
Repair 2 weeks after delivery
Anterior repair operation in the second trimester
Immediate repair after delivery of the placenta
Re-evaluation six weeks after delivery
Answer: E* Re-evaluation six weeks after delivery
Spontaneous Abortions.
***) In inevitable abortion, all the following are true except:
The cervical os will be dilated
The pain is colicky in nature
The conceptual sac may be felt by pelvic examination
Usually there is no vaginal bleeding
The uterine size is compatible
Answer: D* Usually there is no vaginal bleeding
***) One of the following is true in a case of incomplete abortion:
The internal cervical os is closed
The fetal heart activity is heard
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) injections should be given
The vaginal bleeding is painless
Evacuation of the uterus is needed
Answer: E* Evacuation of the uterus is needed
***) A major hazard of missed abortion is:
Pulmonary embolism
Systemic allergies
Bone marrow depression
Coagulopathy
Toxemia
Answer: D* Coagulopathy
***) All of the following are signs of missed abortion, except:
Vaginal bleeding
Distorted gestational sac
Absence of fetal heart activity
Small for gestational age uterus
Absence of fetal movements
Answer: D* Abortion
***) Criteria for abortion due to cervical incompetence include all of the
following, except:
First trimester abortion
Water before blood
Short and minimal labor pains
Cervix admits number 8 hegar dilator
Barrel-shaped cervix by H.salpingogram
Answer: A* First trimester abortion
***) With cervical incompetence, all the following are true except:
May be congenital
It is associated with previous dilatation
It is associated with painless premature labor
It is diagnosed by follicular phase hysterography
It is common cause of second trimester abortion
Answer: D* It is diagnosed by follicular phase hysterography
***) If a patient who has threatened abortion did not abort, the risk of the
fetus being abnormal is:
The same as in patient without bleeding
Slightly increased
Moderately increased
Markedly increased
99 to 100%
Answer: B* Slightly increased
***) A 23 year old lady G1P0, 6 weeks pregnant has developed bleeding over
the past 2 days. Which of the following is the likely cause of her bleeding:
Hydatidiform mole
Abruption placenta
Ectopic pregnancy
Abortion
Uterine rapture
Answer: D* Abortion
***) Therapy for threatened abortion should include:
Progesterone injection
Dilatation and curettage
Prolonged bed rest
Restricted activity
Prostaglandins suppositories
Answer: D* Restricted activity
***) Extrusion of an abortus from the fimbriated end of the tube is called:
Spontaneous abortion
Delivery
Tubal abortion
Decidual cast
Aria-Stella phenomenon
Answer: C* Tubal abortion
***) A 26 year old woman whose last menstrual period was 2.5 months ago
develops bleeding, uterine cramps, and passes tissues per vagina. Two hours
later she is still bleeding heavily, the most likely diagnosis is:
Twin pregnancy
Threatened abortion
Inevitable abortion
Premature labor
Incomplete abortion
Answer: E* Incomplete abortion
***) A 24 year old woman, 10 weeks pregnant presented with vaginal
bleeding, lower abdominal pain and temperature 39.5 degrees and a history
of introducing sharp object per vagina for self abortion. The most likely
diagnosis is:
Choriocarcinoma
Hydatidiform mole
Pelvic inflammatory disease
Septic abortion
Twisted ovarian cyst
Answer: D* Septic abortion
***) Definitive initial therapy in septic abortion is:
Curettage after antibiotics
Hysterectomy
Bed rest and antibiotics
Hysterotomy
Outpatient antibiotics
Answer: A* Curettage after antibiotics
Sepsis
Perforation of the uterus
Inversion of the uterus
Choriocarcinoma
Answer: D* Inversion of the uterus
***) Hydatiform mole (vesicular mole) is usually treated by:
Hysterectomy
Prostaglandin induction
Syntocinon induction
Methotrexate
Suction-evacuation of the uterus
Answer: E* Suction-evacuation of the uterus
Ectopic Pregnancy.
***) Regarding ectopic pregnancy all of the following statements are true,
except:
It is a pregnancy that implants outside the uterus
The most common site of implantation is the abdominal cavity
It may occur in the cervix
Previous infection is a major cause
There is an increase incidence among IUCD users
Answer: B* The most common site of implantation is the abdominal cavity
***) In ectopic pregnancy, all the following are true except:
Pain usually proceeds bleeding
Shoulder pain is an important symptom
The isthmus of the tube is the commonest site of implantation
Is often not diagnosed by os
The incidence is greater in women with IUCD
Answer: C* The isthmus of the tube is the commonest site of implantation
***) The commonest site for tubal ectopic pregnancy is:
Fimbria
Ampulla
Isthmus
Intramural
Paratubal
Answer: B* Ampulla
Answer: B* Pain
***) Vaginal bleeding in ectopic pregnancy is due to:
Rupture of the fallopian tube
Rupture of the uterus
Vaginal laceration
Peritoneal hemorrhage
Hormone withdrawal
Answer: E* Hormone withdrawal
***) The following features suggest a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, except:
Amenorrhea of 6-10 weeks
Acute abdomen
Enlarged uterus
Decidual tissue at curettage
Vaginal bleeding
Answer: C* Enlarged uterus
***) Regarding ectopic pregnancy, all the following are true except:
Amenorrhea
Vaginal bleeding
Abdominal pain
Elevated hCG
Endometrium has always secretory changes
Answer: D* Elevated hCG
***) All true about ectopic pregnancy, except:
Attacks of abdominal sharp stabbing pain
Fainting attacks
Vaginal bleeding
Period of amenorrhea
Pregnancy test is always positive
Answer: A* Attacks of abdominal sharp stabbing pain
***) Signs of ruptures ectopic pregnancy include the following, except:
Rebound tenderness in the abdomen
Heavy vaginal bleeding
Cervical excitation on vaginal examination
Localized tenderness in the pelvis
Tachycardia
Answer: B* Heavy vaginal bleeding
Placenta OB26-OB29.
The Placenta.
***) Where does fertilization take place:
In the ovary
In the fimbrial end of the fallopian tube
In the ampullary region of the fallopian tube
In the uterus
In the isthmic region of tube
Answer: C* In the ampullary region of the fallopian tube
***) Implantation of the blastocyte occurs after:
1-2 days
3-5 days
6-8-days
9-10 days
12-14 days
Answer: C* 6-8-days
Placenta Previa.
***) In placenta previa all of the following statements are true, except:
Causes painless vaginal bleeding
Vaginal examination is contraindicated
Is managed by caesarian section if covering the cervical os
Abruptio Placenta.
***) Concerning abruptio placenta, all the following are true except:
It is a premature separation of normally implanted placenta
The uterus is tender
In severe cases a central venous pressure line should be inserted
The vaginal bleeding is painless
The management of choice is termination of pregnancy
Answer: D* The vaginal bleeding is painless
***) Abruptio placenta can be secondary to all of the following, except:
Hypertensive disorders
Following delivery of first twin
In severe car accident
After rupture of membrane in oligohydramnios
External cephalic version
Answer: D* After rupture of membrane in oligohydramnios
***) In abruptio placenta, all of the following may occur, except:
Shock
Vaginal bleeding
Uterine tenderness
Convulsions
Fetal distress
Answer: C* Uterine tenderness
***) The most common complication of abruptio placenta is:
Hepatic failure
Heart failure
Post partum hemorrhage
Adrenal failure
Cerebral edema
Answer: C* Post partum hemorrhage
***) The following are complications of placental abruption, except:
Renal cortical necrosis
Eclampsia
Afibrinogenemia
DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulopathy)
Intrauterine growth retardation
Answer: B* Eclampsia
***) The most consistent factor predisposing to abruption placenta is:
Maternal hypertension
Trauma
Uterine decompression
Maternal parity
Maternal age
Answer: A* Maternal hypertension
***) Treatment for severe placental abruption at term with 3cm dilated cervix
is:
Heparin
Blood transfusion
Steroid therapy for fetal lung maturity
Tocolytic therapy
Urgent CS
Answer: E* Urgent CS
Placental Tumors.
***) Choriocarcinoma is a primary tumor of:
Decidua
Undifferentiated gonadal cells
Myometrium
Trophoblast
Ovaries
Answer: D* Trophoblast
***) Choriocarcinoma may result from all of the following, except:
Hydatidiform mole
Endometriosis
Term pregnancies
Ectopic pregnancies
Abortions
Answer: B* Endometriosis
***) The following are clinical features of choriocarcinoma, except:
Irregular vaginal bleeding after pregnancy
Metastases may present as lumps in the vagina
Choriocarcinoma is self-limited disease
May cause intraperitoneal hemorrhage
May cause amenorrhea
Answer: C* Choriocarcinoma is self-limited disease
***) Choriocarcinoma is treated by:
Surgery
Chemotherapy
Antibiotics
Hormones
Radiotherapy
Answer: B* Chemotherapy
Abortion
Abnormal presentation
Prolapsed cord
Lung maturity
Preterm delivery
Answer: D* Lung maturity
***) Multiple pregnancy is usually associated with increased incidence in all
the following except:
Ante partum hemorrhage
Anemia
Toxemia of pregnancy
Premature labor
Monilial genital infection
Answer: E* Monilial genital infection
***) The incidence of dizygotic twins is influenced by all of the following,
except:
Race
Maternal age
Parity
Paternal age
Heredity
Answer: D* Paternal age
***) In uniovular twins, all the following are true except:
The first fetus commonly presents by the breech
Anemia is common
There is only one placenta
Polyhydramnios is frequently present
Pregnancy induced hypertension is common
Answer: A* The first fetus commonly presents by the breech
***) Regarding monozygotic twins, all the following are true except:
They are always identical
They have only one placenta
They make up 1/3 of all twin pregnancies
They are usually separated from one another by amnion and chorion
They are more common if there is family history
Answer: D* They are usually separated from one another by amnion and
chorion
Macrosomia.
***) With fetal macrosomia all of the following complications are increased,
except:
Fetal asphyxia
Brachial plexus injury
Post partum hemorrhage
Cord prolapse
Neonatal hypoglycemia
Answer: D* Cord prolapse
Polyhydramnios.
***) All of the following may cause polyhydramnios, except:
Diabetes mellitus
Multiple pregnancy
Anencephalic fetus
Fetal renal atresia
Fetal esophageal atresia
Answer: D* Fetal renal atresia
***) Polyhydramnios could be associated with all of the following, except:
Renal agenesis
Esophageal atresia
Anencephaly
Duodenal atresia
Illeal atresia
Answer: A* Renal agenesis
Oligohydramnios.
***) All of the following anomalies are associated with severe maternal
oligohydramnios, except:
Potter's syndrome
Dysplastic kidneys
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Musculoskeletal abnormalities
Gastrointestinal tract obstructions
Answer: E* Gastrointestinal tract obstructions
***) All of the following are associated with oligohydramnios, except:
Renal agenesis
Esophageal atresia
Pulmonary hypoplasia
Urethral atresia
Amnion nodosum
Answer: B* Esophageal atresia
Diagonal conjugate
Obstetrical conjugate
Antero-posterior diameter of plane of midpelvis
Antero-posterior diameter of inferior straight
Answer: C* Obstetrical conjugate
***) In young women the most common type of pelvis is:
Anthropoid pelvis
Android pelvis
Platypelloid pelvis
Gynecoid pelvis
Rachitic pelvis
Answer: D* Gynecoid pelvis
***) The android pelvis characteristically has the following, except:
A narrow sacroischiatic notch
A parallel pelvic side walls
A narrow sub-pubic angle
A prominent ischial spines
A narrow outlet A-P diameter
Answer: B* A parallel pelvic side walls
Fetal Skull.
***) Regarding the head vertex, all the following are true except:
It is bounded in front by the anterior fontanel and the coronal sutures
It is the area between the 2 halves of the frontal and the 2 parietal bones
It is the area bounded behind by the posterior fontanel and the lambdoidal
suture
It is the area bounded laterally by lines passing through the parietal
eminences
It is felt in the majority of cases during vaginal examination
Answer: B* It is the area between the 2 halves of the frontal and the 2
parietal bones
***) The posterior fontanel is defined:
The area lies between the sagittal suture and the lambdoid suture
The area lies between the coronal and sagittal sutures
The area lies between the coronal and temporal sutures
The area lies between the anterior and lambdoid sutures
The area lies between the sagittal suture and biparietal bones
Answer: A* The area lies between the sagittal suture and the lambdoid
suture
***) The longest anterio-posterior diameter of the fetal head is:
Occipito-frontal diameter
Suboccipito-pregmatic diameter
Occipito-mental diameter
Submento-pregmatic diameter
Mento-vertical diameter
Answer: E*Mento-vertical diameter
***) In normal developing fetus at 36 weeks pregnancy, the most like
measurement of the BPD (biparietal diameter) of the head is:
9.5 cm
9 cm
12 cm
8.5 cm
8 cm
Answer: A* 9.5 cm
***) Regarding biparietal diameter, all the following are true except:
The biparietal diameter is the distance between the parietal eminences
The measurement is 9.5 cm
In vertex presentation it is the largest presenting diameter
It is measured by ultrasound scanning for the maturity of fetus
It has no relation to the engagement of the head in the pelvis
Answer: E* It has no relation to the engagement of the head in the pelvis
***) Engagement of the fetal head refers to the relationship between:
Biparietal diameter and ischial spines
Biparietal diameter and pelvic brim
Vertex and pelvic outlet
Vertex and ischial spine
Head and pelvic outlet
Answer: B* Biparietal diameter and pelvic brim
***) In primigravida at full-term in labor, the most common position of the
head is:
ROT (right occiput transverse)
LOT (left occiput transverse)
LOA (left occiput anterior)
ROA (right occiput anterior)
Prematurity
Hydrocephalus
Multiple pregnancy (twin gestation)
Answer: C* Prematurity
***) Breech presentation is associated with the following, except:
Prematurity
Polyhydramnios
Oligohydramnios
Hydrocephaly
Postmaturity
Answer: E* Postmaturity
***) Breech presentation diagnosed antenatally at 37 weeks gestation, is
best managed by:
Cesarean section
External cephalic version
X-ray maturity
Ultrasonography and observation
Oxytocin infusion of lower femoral epiphysis are seen by X-ray
Answer: B* External cephalic version
***) Non-engagement of the fetal head in the second stage of labor is due to
all of the following, except:
Mal position
Hydrocephaly
Contracted pelvis
Compound presentation
Anencephaly
Answer: E* Anencephaly
***) A high head at term could be due to the following except:
Wrong dates
Cephalopelvic disproportion
Placental abruption
An occipito-posterior position
Placenta previa
Answer: C* Placental abruption
***) In face presentation with head not engaged in mento-posterior position
the ideal treatment is:
Labor Stages.
***) All of the following are signs of placental separation in third stage of
labor, except:
Appearance of contraction ring
Uterus becomes globular, firm and ballotable
Sudden gush of blood
Rise of uterine fundus
Elongation of the cord
Answer: A* Appearance of contraction ring
***) The third stage of labor follows one of the following:
Rupture of the membranes
Full dilatation of the cervix
Obstetric Anesthesia.
***) All the following types of analgesia are used during first stage of labor,
except:
Pethidine
Epidural analgesia
Cervical block
Pudendal block analgesia
Inhalation analgesia
Answer: D* Pudendal block analgesia
***) All of the following are indications of epidural anesthesia, except:
Ante-partum hemorrhage
Heart disease
Pulmonary disorders
Premature delivery
Hypertension
Answer: B* Heart disease
Induction of Labor.
***) The following may be used safely to accelerate labor, except:
Intravenous oxytocin
Ergometrine
Prostaglandin
Rupture of membranes
Stimulation of the nipples
Answer: B* Ergometrine
Uterine Rupture.
***) The commonest predisposing factor of rupture of uterus is:
Previous CS
Use of syntocinon (Oxytocin) non properly
Forceps delivery
Internal cephalic version
Vacuum extraction
Answer: A* Previous CS
***) Uterine rupture may be associated with all of the following except:
Amniocentesis
Previous cesarean section
Myomectomy
Administration of oxytocin or prostaglandins
Difficult forceps delivery or intrauterine manipulation
Answer: A* Amniocentesis
***) The most constant early symptom in uterine rupture during labor is:
Hematuria
Hypotension
Pain
Vaginal bleeding
Cessation of contractions
Answer: C* Pain
***) The first sign of rupture uterus is:
Abdominal pain
Tender scan
Unexplained tachycardia
Fetal distress
Vaginal bleeding
Answer: A* Abdominal pain
***) The period of time from the end of delivery until the reproductive organs
have returned to normal is called:
Menopause
Puerperium
Perineum
Ante-partum
Intra-partum
Answer: B* Puerperium
***) Postpartum hemorrhage is diagnosed when blood loss exceeds:
100 cc
200 cc
300 cc
400 cc
500 cc
Answer: E* 500 cc
***) In postpartum hemorrhage the most common cause is:
Atonic uterus
Cervical tear
Uterine rupture
Retained placental tissue
Inversion of the uterus
Answer: A* Atonic uterus
***) Regarding post partum hemorrhage all of the following are predisposing
factors, except:
Multiple pregnancies
Polyhydramnios
Giving syntometrine with the delivery of anterior shoulder
Prolonged labor
Precipitated labor
Answer: C* Giving syntometrine with the delivery of anterior shoulder
***) Concerning postpartum hemorrhage, all the following are true except:
More common in twin pregnancy than single pregnancy
Less common in primigravida than multigravida
The commonest cause is laceration of the cervix
It may be caused by bleeding from non-placental site
The prevention is by active management of the third stage of labor
Answer: C* The commonest cause is laceration of the cervix
Postpartum Fever.
***) The commonest cause of maternal pyrexia in puerperium is:
Deep vein thrombosis
Endometritis
Engorged breasts
Subacute bacterial endocarditis
Urinary tract infection
Answer: B* Endometritis
***) The most common cause of post partum mastitis is one of the following:
Beta streptococci
E.Coli
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus fecalis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Answer: C* Staphylococcus aureus
***) All of the following are possible predisposing factors for puerperal sepsis,
except:
Prolonged rupture of membranes
Carrier of group A beta streptococci
Multiple vaginal examinations
Answer: B* Paracetamol
***) All of the following drugs are contraindicated in pregnancy, except:
Tetracycline
Iodides
Diphenylhydantoin (Epanutin)
Warfarin
Pyridoxine
Answer: E* Pyridoxine
***) One of the following drugs can be safe if used during pregnancy:
Warfarin
Septrin
Tetracycline
Erythromycin
Chloramphenicol
Answer: D* Erythromycin
***) Which of the following drugs given during pregnancy can give "Grey
Baby Syndrome":
Ampicillin
Chloramphenicol
Gentamycin
Tetracycline
Streptomycin
Answer: B* Chloramphenicol
***) Regarding drugs in pregnancy, all the following are true except:
Digitalis does not cross the placenta
Warfarin crosses the placenta
Heparin does not cross the placenta
Hydralazine causes relaxing vascular smooth muscle
Methotrexate crosses the placenta
Answer: A* Digitalis does not cross the placenta
***) Brown discoloration of the teeth can occur in infants exposed in uterus
to:
Penicillin
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
Gentamycin
Streptomycin
Answer: B* Tetracycline
Oxytocin.
***) All of the following are true regarding oxytocin, except:
Prolonged treatment can cause water intoxication
Can cause milk ejection
Single rapid IV injection can cause transient hypotension, tachycardia and
ECG changes
It is not effective when given orally
It can cause contraction of the lower uterine segments
Answer: E* It can cause contraction of the lower uterine segments
***) Regarding oxytocin, one of the following is true:
Immunizations.
***) The first immunoglobulin produced in any immune response is:
IgA
IgM
IgD
IgE
IgG
Answer: B* IgM
***) The only immunoglobulin can cross placenta:
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
IgD
Answer: C* IgG
***) All of the following vaccines are contraindicated during pregnancy,
except:
German measles
Tetanus
Mumps
Poliomyelitis
Hepatitis
Answer: B* Tetanus
***) All of the following vaccines can be given to the pregnant patient after
the second trimester, except:
Tetanus toxoid vaccine
Smallpox vaccine
Cholera vaccine
Vaccination against hepatitis B virus
Typhoid vaccine
Answer: B* Smallpox vaccine
***) Mumps in pregnancy is associated with:
Increase fetal wastage
Lymph reduction defect
Maternal pneumonia
No major complications
Congenital deafness
Answer: D* No major complications
???) Regarding immunization during pregnancy, which of the following
vaccines would be the safest to receive:
Mumps
Poliomyelitis
Rabies
Rubella
HIV
Answer: C* Poliomyelitis
Drugs.
***) All of the following drugs have effect on the uterine muscle, except:
Salbutamol
Cervidil
Isoxsuprine
Clomiphene citrate
Methergine
Answer: D* Clomiphene citrate
***) Regarding the actions of hydralazine, all the following are true except:
Increased renal blood flow
Increased cardiac output
Reflex tachycardia