1.

When assessing a patient with a fracture of the neck of the femur the nurse would expect
to find:
a. Abduction with external rotation
b. Adduction with internal rotation
c. Lengthening of the affected extremity with internal rotation
d. Shortening of the affected extremity with external rotation
2. Intramedullary nailing is used in the treatment of
a. Fracture of the neck of the femur
b. Fracture of the shaft of the femur
c. Intertrochanteric fracture of the femur
d. Slipped epiphysis of the femur
3. To prevent a hip flexion contracture following an amputation of a lower limb the nurse
should teach the patient to
a. Lie on the abdomen 30 minutes four times daily
b. Perform quadriceps muscle setting exercises twice daily
c. Sit in a chair for 3 minutes three times daily
d. Turn from side to side every 2 hours
4. When there is disaster involving a number of people which of the following group of
people will need priority care? Those with:
a. Closed fractures of major bones
b. Partial thickness burns of 10% of the body
c. Severe lacerations involving open fractures of major bones
d. Significant penetrating or perforating abdominal wounds
5. When changing a patients post operative dressing, the nurse is careful not to introduce
microorganisms into the wound. This is an example of:
a. Concurrent asepsis
b. Medical asepsis

c. Surgical asepsis
d. Wound asepsis

6. An effective first aid treatment for an alkali burns is to flush it with water and then with
a. A dilute base
b. An antibiotic solution

c. A salt solution
d. A weak acid

7. A skin graft that is taken from another portion of a patients own body is called
a. A homograft
b. An allograft

c. An autograft
d. A xenograft

8. A patient who is to receive radiation for breast cancer says to the nurse, my family sail I
will get radiation burns. The best response by the nurse would be
a. a localized skin reaction usually occurs
b. daily application of an emollient will prevent the burns

c. have they had experience with this type of radiation

d. it will be no worse than being in a hair dryer
9. The immediate post-operative nursing care for a patient who has had a colostomy
performed should include:
a. Keeping the stoma and skin around the stoma clean and dry
b. Limiting fluid intake for several days
c. Teaching the patient how to change the colostomy bag
d. Withholding all fluids for 72 hours
10. As part of preparation for sigmoidoscopy the nurse should
a. Administer an enema the morningof the test
b. Explain to the patient that he will swallow a white substance
c. Provide container for the collection of a stool specimen
d. Withhold all fluids and foods for 24 hrs before the test
11. Antibiotic therapy is given to patients with gastric ulcer to
a. Augment the immune response
b. Potentiate the effect of antacids
c. Reduce HCL secretion
d. Treat helicobacter pylori infection
12. A disease that occurs when a clostridium organism enters wound and produces toxins
causing crepitus is
a. Anthrax
b. Botulism

c. Gas gangrene
d. Tetanus

13. A patient been put on IV solution of 0.45% sodium chloride. This solution regarding
human blood is
a. Hypotonic
b. Hypertonic

c. Isometric
d. Isotonic

14. When a patient is on gastric lavage or has history of prolonged vomiting, the nurse should
assess him for
a. Acidosis
b. Alkalosis
c. Loss of osmotic pressure of the blood
d. Loss of oxygen from the blood
15. A patient is on IV fluids. If IV infiltrates into the tissue the nurse should first
a. Apply warmth to the part
b. Attempt to flush the tube
c. Discontinue the infusion
d. Elevate the IV site
16. Prolonged bed rest after surgery promotes haemostasis which may result in deep vein
thrombosis resulting in

a. Cerebral embolism
b. Coronary occlusion
c. Dry gangrene of the limb
d. Pulmonary embolism
17. While convalescing from abdominal surgery patient develops thrombophlebitis. The sign
that would indicate this complication to the nurse is
a. Intermittent claudication
b. Localized warmth and tenderness of the leg
c. Pitting edema of the lower extremities
d. Severe pain on extension of an extremity
18. In the immediate post-operative period following splenectomy the nurse shd specifically
observe the patient for
a. Haemorrhage and abdominal distension
b. Intestinal obstruction and bleeding
c. Peritonitis and pulmonary complications
d. Shock and infection
19. Most peptic ulcers occurring in the stomach are in the
a. Body of the stomach
b. Cardiac portion
c. Oesophageal junction
d. Pyloric portion
20. Following a sub-total gastrectomy for cancer of the stomac the patient develops a
dumping syndrome which is refers to
a. Build up of faeces and gas within the large intestines
b. Nausea due to a full stomach
c. Rapid passage of osmotic fluid into the jejunum
d. Reflux of intestinal contents into the oesophagus
21. When occurring for a patient with a naso-gastric tube attached to suction, the nurse shd
a. Allow the patient to have sips of water unless nauseated
b. Irrigate the tube with normal saline
c. Use sterile technique when irrigating the tube
d. Withdraw the tube quickly when decompression is terminated
22. A serious danger to which a patient with intestinal obstruction is exposed to because of
intestinal suction is excessive loss of
a. Energy carbohydrates
b. Protein enzymes
c. Vitamins and minerals
d. Water and electrolytes
23. Following a gastrectomy, a patient way develop pernicious anaemia because
a. Chief cells in the stomach promote the secretion of the extrinsic factor
b. The haemopoitic factor is secreted in the stomach
c. The parietal cells of the stomach is not available to secrete the intrinsic factor
d. Vitamin B12 is only absorbed in the stomach
24. A patient who has had a splenectomy would be expected to complain of

a. Excessively moist respiration

b. Pain on expiration
c. Pain on inspiration
d. Shortness of breath
25. After cholecystectomy, the patients diet would be
a. High in fat and carbohydrate to meet energy demands
b. High in protein and calories to promote wound healing
c. Low in fat to avoid painful contraction in the wound area
d. Low in protein and carbohydrate to help patient lose weight
26. Appendicitis is associated with
a. Eating foods with coarse seeds
b. Infection of the bowel
c. Interference of blood circulation to the appendix
d. Poor dietary habits
27. An intussusception can be explained as
a. A loop of bowels causing obstruction
b. A protrusion of an organ through the wall that contains it
c. Linking of a bowel onto itself
d. Telescoping of a proximal loop of bowel into a distal loop
28. A patient has extensive carcinoma of the descending portion of the colon with metastasis
to the lymph nodes. The operations to be perform will probably be
a. Cecostomy
b. Colectomy

c. Colostomy
d. Ileostomy

29. The primary goal of rehabilitation of a patient with a new colostomy involves the
patients
a. Awareness of available community resources
b. Knowledge of the necessary dietary modifications
c. Mastery of techniques of colostomy
d. Readiness to accept an altered body function
30. When teaching a patient with permanent colostomy, the nurse should discuss the
a. Bland low residue diet regimen
b. Importance of limiting activity
c. Need for special clothing
d. Periodic dilatation of the stoma
31. When preparing a patient for ligation of haemorrhoids, the nurse should instruct the
patient to eat
a. Bland diet
b. Clear liquid diet

c. High-protein diet
d. Low-residue diet

32. A patient with haemorrhoids asks the nurse what caused the condition. The nurse should
explain that it generally results from

a. Constipation
b. Eating spicy foods

c. Hypertension
d. Poor bowel habit

e.
33. Immediately following a thyroidectomy the patient should be monitored for:
a. Decreased blood pressure
b. Signs of respiratory obstruction
c. Signs of restlessness
d. Urinary retention
34. To evaluate possible laryngeal nerve injury following a thyroidectomy on an hourly basis
the nurse should
a. Ask the patient to speak
b. Ask the patient to swallow
c. Let the patient hum a familiar tune
d. Swab the patients throat to test gag reflex
35. Immediately following a thyroidectomy the patient should be monitored for
a. Decreased blood pressure
b. Signs of respiratory obstruction
c. Signs of restlessness
d. Urinary retention
36. When the thyroidectomy patient is brought back to the ward from the recovery unit the
nurse should immediately
a. Inspect the incision
b. Instruct the patient not to speak
c. Keep the patient in supine position for 24 hours
d. Place a tracheostomy set at the bedside
37. Following abdominal surgery a patient complains of severe pain. The first action by the
nurse should be
a. Administer the ordered analgesics
b. Determine the characteristics of the pain
c. Monitor the vital signs
d. Reposition the patient
38. A patient with glaucoma should be advised to
a. Have corrective lens prescriptions checked every 3 months
b. Keep an extra supply of eye medication on hand
c. Take laxatives daily
d. Use eye washes on regular basis
39. A patient has cataract surgery the nurse should
a. Advise the patient to refrain from vigorous brushing of teeth and hair
b. Encourage eye exercises to strengthen to ocular musculature
c. Instruct the patient to avoid driving for 2 weeks
d. Teach the patient coughing and deep breathing
40. Soon after being admitted with head injury the patients temperature rises to 39oC. This is
suggestive of injury to the

a. Hypothalamus
b. Pons varolii

c. Temporal lobe
d. Thalamus

41. When caring for a patient who has a possible skull fracture as a result of RTA the nurse
should
a. Check for haemorrhaging from the oral cavity
b. Elevate the footing of the bed if patient develops signs of shock
c. Observe the patient for signs of brain injury
d. Observe for symptoms of decrease intracranial pressure and temperature
42. Of the following combination of symptoms the most indicative of increased intracranial
pressure is
a. Rapid weak pulse, fall in BP, low temperature
b. Slow bounding pulse, fall in BP, low temperature
c. Slow bounding pulse, rising BP, elevated temperature
d. Weak rapid pulse, normal BP, intermittent fever
43. A patient with a spinal cord injury has paraplegia, one major early problem will be
a. Bladder control
b. Nutritional intake
c. Quadriceps setting
d. Use of aids for ambulation
44. Following a spinal cord injury a patient should be encouraged to drink fluids primarily to
prevent
a. Fluid and electrolyte imbalance
b. Dehydration
c. Non-protein nitrogen
d. Prostate-specific antigen
45. Benign prostate hypertrophy
a. Causes an elevated acid phosphatase
b. Is a congenital abnormality
c. Normally becomes a malignant
d. Predisposes to hydronephrosis
46. With cancer of the prostate it is possible to follow the cause of the disease by monitoring
the serum level of
a. Blood urea nitrogen
b. Creatinine
c. Non-protein nitrogen
d. Prostate-specific antigen
47. When a patient with urethral catheter in situ complains of discomfort in the bladder and
urethra, the nurse should
a. Check the patency of the catheter
b. Irrigate the catheter with the prescribed solution
c. Milk the tubing gently
d. Notify the doctor

48. A patient with cancer of the prostate request urinal at frequent intervals but voids very
small amounts. This is most likely caused by:
a. Dysuria
b. Oedema of the urethra

c. Retention of urine
d. Suppression of urine

49. A patient who has just had a suprapubic prostatectomy returns from the recovery ward
and accidentally pulls out the urethral catheter. The nurse should
a. Check for bleeding by irrigating the suprapubic tube
b. Notify the doctor immediately
c. Re-insert a new catheter
d. Take no immediate action once the suprapubic tube is draining
50. When irrigating an indwelling catheter the nurse should
a. Aspirate immediately to ensure return flow
b. Instill the fluid under high pressure
c. Obtain and use sterile equipment
d. Warm the solution to body temperature
51. When a gall stone lodges in the common bile duct the color of the patients stool becomes
a. Blackish
b. Brownish

c. Clayish
d. Greenish

52. Which of these drugs is administered when a patient develops tetany after subtotal
thyroidectomy
a. Calcium glucose
b. Echothiophate iodine
c. Sodium bicarbonate
d. Sodium phosphate
53. According to Wallaces rule of nine the percentage of burnt area involving the anterior
trunk, the two arms and neck is
a. 27
b. 36

c. 37
d. 46

54. Manifestation of cancer of the cervix that will bring the patient ot the hospital is
a. Bloody spotting after intercourse
b. Foul smelling discharge
c. Heaviness in the abdomen
d. Pressure symptoms on the bladder
55. A patient with an arm cast who complains of pain should be examined after the following
except
a. Assess patients arm for pressure sores
b. Assess the fingers for color
c. Determine the exact site of pain
d. When prescribed analgesic was given
56. The best adjustment behavior of a lady who had mastectomy done is to
a. Ask for analgesics when needed
b. Avoid postoperative booklets
c. Participate in the care of the surgical drain
d. Refuse to look at the wound
57. Which of the following parameters should be of concern to the nurse who is to assess a
patient post-operatively?
a. Blood pressure of 100/70 mm/Hg
b. Serous drainage on the surgical dressing
c. Temperature of 37,4oC
d. Urinary output of 20 mls in an hour
58. Which part of the theatre is referred to as the operating field?
a. Inside the theatre where all equipment are placed
b. The mayos table with the instruments arranged on it
c. The patient lying on the table, draped and ready to be operated on
d. The use of sterile dressing and adhesives
59. What would be your immediate intervention when a patients tracheostomy tube
dislodges?
a. Explain to the patient that it sometimes occurs
b. Go and look for another tube
c. Inform the doctor for appropriate action
d. Insert a tube and give oxygen
60. In a probable ruptured ectopic pregnancy which assessment will the nurse monitor:
a. Abdominal distension
b. Haemoglobin and haematocrit
c. Pulse rate
d. Uterine cramping
61.