Exam 1 To 5

Exam 1
1.
Which edition of Windows includes DirectAccess and BranchCache?

A.
Windows 7 Enterprise
B.
Windows 7 Professional
C.
Windows 7 Home Basic
D.
Windows 7 Home Premium
Answer: A
Windows 7 Enterprise is targeted for managed environments, mainly large enterprises. It includes all
features that Windows 7 offers, including BitLocker, BitLocker To Go, AppLocker, DirectAccess, and
BranchCache.
2.
How much memory does a 32-bit version of Windows 7 support?

A.
1 GB
B.
2 GB
C.
4 GB
D.
8 GB
Answer: C
A 32-bit version of Windows is based on a 32-bit address bus, which can use up to 4 GB of memory.
3.
Which of the following does NOT include Aero?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
Aero is not included in Windows 7 Home Basic or Windows 7 Starter.
4.
What is the minimum processor that you need to install Windows 7 Home Basic, 32 bit?
A.
800 MHz
B.
1 GHz
C.
1.2 GHz
D.
2.0 GHz
Answer: B
To install Windows 7 Home Basic, you need to have a 1 GHz processor. However, a faster
processor gives you better performance.
5.
What do you call a minimal 32-bit or 64-bit version of Windows 7 that you can use in a DVD to install
or repair the Windows operating system?
A.
Windows PE
B.
Windows Basic
C.
Windows Min
D.
Windows Bare
Answer: A
Windows PE is a minimum 32-bit or 64-bit operating system with limited services built on the
Windows 7 kernel. It can be used to install and repair Windows and can be useful if your system
does not boot.
6.
What tool is used to determine if your computer can run Windows 7?

A.
Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor
B.
Program Compatibility Troubleshooter
C.
Application Compatibility Toolkit
D.
Application Compatibility Manager
Answer: A
If you are not sure if your system is ready to run Windows 7, you can use the Windows 7 Upgrade
Advisor, which can be downloaded from the Microsoft website.
7.
Where do you find the previous operating system, user data, and programs if you install Windows 7
on a hard disk volume that contains an existing Windows installation?
A.
C:\Windows\Backup
B.
C:\Windows\System32\Archive
C.
C:\Windows.OLD
D.
C:\Windows.BAK
Answer: C
When you perform a clean installation of Windows 7 on a volume that contains an existing Windows
installation, assuming you did not reformat the volume, the previous operating system, user data,
and program files are saved to the Windows.OLD folder.
8.
If you cannot do an in-place upgrade, which of the following tools can assist you in migrating your
data files and settings from one Windows installation to another?
A.
Migration toolkit
B.
Windows PE
C.
Internet Explorer
D.
WET
Answer: D
Windows Easy Transfer (WET) and User State Migration Tool (USMT) can help you migrate data
files and settings between Windows installations.
9.
Windows 7 includes several tools to migrate user settings between Windows installations. Which of
these tools is a command-line tool that provides this functionality?
A.
USMT
B.
WET
C.
Windows Explorer
D.
Magic Migrate
Answer: A
While the Windows Easy Transfer program is a graphical program, the User State Migration Tool
(USMT) is a scriptable command-line tool that is highly customizable. Because it a scriptable
command-line tool, it is usually used to automate migration during large deployments of the
Windows 7 operating system.
10.
What can you use to automate the installation of Windows 7 using the Microsoft Windows 7 DVD?
A.
Create an answer file named autounattend.xml and copy it to a USB drive.
B.
Create an answer file called winnt.sif file and copy it to the USB drive.
C.
Create an answer file and copy it to the C:\ folder.
D.
Create an answer file and copy it to the system BIOS.
Answer: A
To perform an automated installation of Windows 7, the installation process automatically looks for
the autounattend.xml file on the DVD or USB drive.
11.
Which option used with the sysprep command restarts the computer in Windows Welcome mode,
enabling you to customize the Windows operating system, create user accounts, and name the
computer?
A.
/generalize
B.
/oobe
C.
/reboot
D.
/quiet
Answer: B
The /oobe option, short for out-of-box experience, restarts the computer in Windows Welcome
mode, which enables end users to customize the Windows operating system.
12.
What script do you use to create an image of a Windows 7 computer on multiple CDs?
A.
Span.cmd
B.
WinPE.cmd
C.
AIK.cmd
D.
Createspannedshares.cmd
Answer: D
If you have an older system that does not have DVD drives, but does have CD-ROM drives, you can
use the createspannedshares.cmd script to create spanned media, which then breaks the DVD into
multiple CDs. The createspannedshares.cmd is part of the Windows Automated Installation Kit
(AIK).
13.
What is the primary tool to manage and configure Windows 7?

A.
Registry Editor
B.
Windows Explorer
C.
Control panel
D.
Computer Management console
Answer: C
The primary program to configure Windows is the Control Panel. You can change the name of the
computer, modify user profiles, create users and groups, change the display settings, change the
power settings, and many other options.
14.
Where do you enable IIS in Windows 7?

A.
Registry Editor
B.
Windows Explorer
C.
Programs in the Control Panel
D.
Answer: C
You can enable and disable Windows features by clicking Programs in the Control Panel and then
clicking Turn Windows features on or off.
15.
What type of device enables you to connect it to Windows 7 and then automatically configure itself
for use?
A.
Free device
B.
Plug and play device
C.
PCI device
D.
Signed device
Answer: B
Plug and play refers to the capability of a computer system to automatically configure expansion
boards and other devices. You should be able to plug in a device and play with it without worrying
about setting DIP switches, jumpers, and other configuration elements.
16.
What tool do you use to disable a device?

A.
Windows Explorer
B.
Regedit
C.
Add/Remove Drivers
D.
Device Manager
Answer: D
To disable a driver, you open Device Manager. You can then either right-click the device to
disable it or open the properties of the device to disable it.
17.
What is a combination of pictures, colors, and sounds on your computer that describes your desktop
look and feel?
A.
Windows Scheme
B.
Windows Saturation
C.
Power schemes
D.
Theme
Answer: D
A theme is a collection of visual elements and sounds for your computer desktop.
18.
Where do you go to stop and disable a service?

A.
Accessories
B.
Administrative Tools
C.
System Tools
D.
System32 folder
Answer: B
Services are managed with the Services console, which is also part of the Computer Management
console. Both of these are found in the Administrative Tools.
19.
Where do you find the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security?

A.
B.
Registry Editor
C.
Program Manager
D.
File Manager
Answer: A
The Administrative Tools include the Computer Management console, Event Viewer, Local Security
Policy, services console, Task Scheduler, and Windows Firewall with Advanced Security.
20.
You have a new 5-GB hard drive. Which partitioning style do you have to use?
A.
MBR
B.
GPT
C.
EFI
D.
BIOS
Answer: B
MBR and GPT are the two partitioning styles used in Windows 7. If you have a disk larger than 2 TB,
you must use GPT
21.
You just connected a large USB drive. You try to make it a dynamic disk, but the option is not
available to you. What is the problem?
A.
You dont have the correct drive loaded.
B.
The drive is disabled.
C.
Dynamic disks are not supported on USB disks.
D.
The drive needs to be powered on.
Answer: C
Dynamic disks are supported on SCSI, IDE, Fiber Channel, and Serial Storage Architecture (SSA).
They are not supported on USB, Firewire/IEEE 1994, and removable disks.
22.
You want Windows 7 to implement RAID 1. What do you need to do?

A.
Enable Write caching on the first disk.
B.
Enable Write Caching on the second disk.
C.
Convert the basic disk to dynamic disks.
D.
Convert the dynamic disk to basic disks.
Answer: C
RAID 1, or disk mirroring, needs two disks. In addition, both disks must be dynamic disks.
23.
Where do you find the Disk Management console?

A.
Control Panel
B.
C.
Device Manager
D.
Regedit
Answer: B
The Disk Management console is an MMC console that is included in the Computer Management
console.
24.
Which of the following gives you the best read access performance?
A.
Simple disk
B.
Spanned disk
C.
Mirrored disk
D.
Stripped disk
Answer: D
Stripped volumes can improve the speed of access to the disk because data is spread across
multiple disks. However, it does not provide fault tolerance. If one disk fails, you lose the entire
volume.
25.
What is the default subnet mask for a host with the address of 220.67.34.87?
A.
255.0.0.0
B.
255.255.0.0
C.
255.255.255.0
D.
255.255.255.255
Answer: C
The 220.67.34.87 is a class C address. Therefore, the default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.
26.
How many bits is an IPv4 address?

A.
B.
16
C.
24
D.
32
Answer: D
An IPv4 address is 32 bits. To make it easier to work with, it is usually expressed in four 8-bit octets,
each octet ranging from 0 to 255 (an example is 172.24.4.23).
27.
What type of IPv6 address is used by hosts when communicating with neighboring hosts on the
same link?
A.
Global unicast addresses
B.
Link-Local addresses
C.
Unique local unicast addresses
D.
Multicast addresses
Answer: B
Link-Local addresses are used by hosts when communicating with neighboring hosts on the same
link. By using Link-Local addresses, you can have one network device communicate with another
network to figure out its surrounding without any configuring.
28.
What command is used to configure and monitor various network parameters on a computer running
Windows 7 including configuring IP addresses and default gateways?
A.
net
B.
netsh
C.
nslookup
D.
ipconfig
Answer: B
The netsh command can be used to configure and monitor various networking parameters including
configure IP addresses, default gateway, DNS servers, interfaces, routing protocols, and filters.
29.
What command is used to test network connectivity to another host?

A.
ipconfig
B.
ping
C.
nslookup
D.
netstat
Answer: B
The ping command uses the ICMP protocol to verify connections to a remote host.
30.
If you have a wireless access point configured to use Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) security
and you are using digital certificates, which option should you choose to connect to the wireless
access point?
A.
WPA2-Enterprise
B.
WPA2-Personal
C.
WPA-Enterprise
D.
WPA-Personal
Answer: A
WPA2 uses AES encryption. WPA-Enterprise uses digital certificates.
31.
When connecting to a wireless network, what is used to identify the wireless network?
A.
AES
B.
SSID
C.
TKIP
D.
Digital certificate
Answer: B
The SSID, short for service set identifier, is a unique identifier attached to the header or packet sent
over a wireless network.
32.
Which VPN does Windows 7 NOT support?

A.
PPTP
B.
IPSec with IPSec
C.
SSTP
D.
CISP
Answer: D
Windows 7 supports PPTP, LTP with IPSec, SSTP, and IKEv2. Therefore, it does not support CISP.
33.
When using authentication, which of the following authentication methods is the least secure?
A.
PAP
B.
CHAP
C.
MS-CHAPv2
D.
EAP-MS-CHAPv2
Answer: A
PAP is short for Password Authentication Protocol, which sends the password in plain text
(unencrypted).
34.
What defines the type of access granted to an object or object attribute?

A.
Permission
B.
Right
C.
Authentication key
D.
Fingerprints
Answer: A
A permission defines the type of access granted to an object or object attribute. An object can be a
file, folder, printer, or user account. An attribute might be a persons phone number or address in the
user account.
35.
What feature helps prevent unauthorized changes to a computer running Windows 7 by a program?
A.
UAC
B.
USB
C.
GMT
D.
ActiveX
Answer: A
User Account Control (UAC) is a feature that can help prevent unauthorized changes to your
computer.
36.
How do you enable auditing in Windows?

A.
Modify the boot.ini file.
B.
Open the System Properties through the Control Panel.
C.
Use the Users console in the Control Panel.
D.
Use group policies.
Answer: D
You can enable auditing in Windows using group policies including local policies.
37.
What is the minimum standard NTFS permission to change permissions of a file or folder?
A.
Full Control
B.
Modify
C.
Read
D.
Write
Answer: A
To change permissions and take ownership, you need to have the Full Control permission.
38.
When you move a file from a folder in the C drive to a folder in the D drive, which permissions does
the file retain?
A.
Permissions assigned to the source folder
B.
Permissions assigned to the target folder
C.
No permissions
D.
Full permissions to Everyone
Answer: B
When you move from one drive to another, the file retains permissions assigned to the target folder.
39.
You have several data folders on your computer running Windows 7. You would like to view them as
one folder while still keeping them separate. What should you do?
A.
Create a search connector.
B.
Create a library.
C.
Create an index.
D.
Create a local profile.
Answer: B
Libraries are virtual folders that link two or more folders so that they can be viewed as one.
40.
Which search tool is NOT a method for Windows 7 to search for files?
A.
The search box on the Start menu
B.
The search box located at the top of the open window
C.
The search box at the top of the library
D.
The search box in the desktop
Answer: D
Windows 7 has several ways to perform searches including the Start menu, open windows, and
libraries.
41.
What do you do to recover EFS encrypted files if the encryption key is lost or damaged?
A.
Right-click the file and click recover.
B.
Use an EFS Recovery Agent to update the encrypted file.
C.
Convert to BitLocker.
D.
Convert to BitLocker To Go.
Answer: B
A recovery certificate is a special Encrypting File System (EFS) certificate you can use to recover
encrypted files if your encryption key is lost or damaged. You need to create the recovery certificate,
install it, and then update previously encrypted files with the new recovery certificate.
42.
You have a shared folder on an NTFS volume. Which one of the following statements is true?
A.
A user who accesses the folder remotely has the same or more restrictive access
permissions than if she accesses the folder locally.
B.
A user who accesses the folder remotely has less restrictive access permissions
than if she accesses the folder locally.
C.
A user who accesses the folder remotely has the same access permissions than if
she accesses the folder locally.
D.
A user who accesses the folder remotely has more restrictive access permissions
Answer: A
When you access a computer remotely through the share, you include the share permissions and
NTFS permissions that can restrict access. When you access the local folder directly, only the NTFS
permissions apply. Therefore, they can have the same or more restrictive access if both are applied.
43.
Which of the following is NOT a share permission for a standard shared folder in Windows 7?
A.
Full Control
B.
Change
C.
Modify
D.
Read
Answer: C
The three share permissions are Full Control, Change, and Read.
44.
Which mode of BranchCache has the cache data reside on local clients at the remote site?
A.
Distributed Cache
B.
Hosted Cache
C.
Proxy Cache
D.
Link Cache
Answer: A
The BranchCache caches files on a remote site after it communicates with the central office so that
it the future it can use the cache to provide without going to the central office. Distributed Cache is
distributed across client computers in the branch.
45.
What permission do you have to give for a user to change the configuration of a printer?
A.
Allow Manage Printers
B.
Allow Manage Documents
C.
Allow Full Control for Documents
D.
Allow Modify for Printers
Answer: A
The Allow Manage Printers allows you to modify printer settings and configuration including the ACL.
46.
You add a printer directly to the network using a built-in Ethernet card. Now you want to load the
printer onto your computer. Which of the following is true?
A.
The printer is considered a local printer.
B.
The printer is considered a network printer.
C.
The printer needs to be moved so that it can be plugged directly into the Windows
computer.
D.
The printer needs to be assigned a name such as http://servername/printername.
Answer: A
When you connect to the network printer, you install the printer as a local printer and use the Create
a New Port Wizard to create a standard TCP/IP port.
47.
If you print a document and get garbled text, what is most likely the problem?
A.
The print spooler becomes unresponsive.
B.
The printer is not using the right ink-cartridge.
C.
The printer has not been calibrated.
D.
You are using the incorrect driver.
Answer: D
If you have the incorrect print driver, you get strange characters, garbled characters, or snippets of
program code.
48.
Which of the following is NOT a rule you can create with software restrictions?
A.
Hash
B.
Path
C.
Certificates
D.
Location
Answer: D
The four types of rules used with software restrictions include hash, certificate, path, and zone.
49.
Where do you configure an individual application to run as an administrator?
A.
Using local security policy
B.
The System Configuration Tool
C.
The Computer Management Tool
D.
The Application Compatibility Options under the application properties
Answer: D
If you right-click the executable and select properties, you can select the Compatibility tab to
configure what OS to run under, 256 colors, 640x480 resolution, and privilege level.
50.
You have a website that appears not to display properly. What can you do for the website to display
properly?
A.
Enable an accelerator.
B.
Enable a SmartScreen Filter.
C.
Enable Compatibility Mode.
D.
Enable a RSS feed.
Answer: C
Websites designed for earlier versions of Internet Explorer might not display correctly in the current
version. Often, you can improve how a website looks in Internet Explorer by using Compatibility
View.
51.
You have a website that is too hard to read because it is too small. What can you do?
A.
You need to decrease the screen resolution.
B.
You need to increase the screen resolution.
C.
You need to decrease the zoom level for the tab.
D.
You need to increase the zoom level for the tab.
Answer: D
When you have trouble seeing a website because its content is too small, you can use the zoom
feature.
52.
Which of the following do you NOT find in the Mobility Center?

A.
Volume
B.
Presentation Settings
C.
Display Settings
D.
External Display
Answer: C
The Mobility Center includes Volume, Battery Status, Wireless Network, External Display, Sync
Center, Presentation Settings, and Screen Rotation. Display Settings is not in the Mobility Center.
53.
You are ready to give a presentation using your computer running PowerPoint. What should do you
prepare your system for the presentation?
A.
Create a second hardware profile, reboot the computer, and load the second
hardware profile.
B.
Shut off your e-mail messengers, change your volume control, change your screen,
and disable the screen savers and sleep features.
C.
Create a second user profile and configure the profile for presentations and logins
as the user to give the presentation.
D.
Configure your Presentation Settings and turn on Presentation Settings.
Answer: D
The best way to give presentations is to configure Presentation Settings with the Mobility Center and
turn the Presentation Settings on when you are ready to give the presentation.
54.
Which version of Windows 7 does NOT support Remote Desktop Hosting?

A.
B.
C.
Windows 7 Ultimate
D.
Answer: A
You cannot use Remote Desktop Connections to connect to computers running Windows 7 Starter,
Windows 7 Home Basic, Windows 7 Home Premium, and you can only create outgoing connections
from these editions of Windows 7. Only Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise editions
support Remote Desktop Hosting.
55.
To connect to a computer using Windows Remote Desktop, what group do you need to be a
member of on the remote computer?
A.
Guests
B.
Power users
C.
Remote Desktop Users
D.
Power Users
Answer: C
All administrators are automatically given the necessary permission to use Windows Remote
Desktop. For other users, you must add them to the Remote Desktop Users group.
56.
Which technology is used to improve the performance of computers using a USB flash drive?
A.
ReadyBoost
B.
ReadyCache
C.
ReadyDrive
D.
ReadyUp
Answer: A
Windows ReadyBoost boosts system performance by using USB flash devices as additional sources
for caching.
57.
If you want to see if you are running out of physical memory, which counter should you use?
A.
CPU utilization
B.
Pages\sec
C.
Network utilization
D.
Interrupts\sec
Answer: B
To see how much paging takes place between RAM and the paging file, you use the pages\sec. A
high value indicates that you need to utilize paging more often, which means you are running out of
physical memory.
58.
In Windows 7, what can be used to quickly determine if your antivirus is up to date and if Windows is
patched?
A.
Event Viewer
B.
Action Center
C.
Reliability Monitor
D.
System Information
Answer: B
Action Center is a central place to view alerts and take actions that can help keep Windows running
smoothly.
59.
What tool can be used to thoroughly test memory?

A.
B.
System Information
C.
Memory Diagnostic Tool
D.
Safe Mode
Answer: C
Windows 7 has multiple diagnostic tools including a Memory Diagnostic Tool and Network
Diagnostic Tool.
60.
What should you do if you made changes to the video refresh rate on your computer and the display
does not work properly?
A.
Run the SysEdit tool.
B.
Reinstall Windows.
C.
Reboot the system with the emergency repair disk.
D.
Press the F8 key during the boot sequence, and select Last Known Good
Configuration.
Answer: D
If you load a driver and your machine does not boot properly, you can access the advanced boot
menu and try Last Known Good Configuration.
Exam 2
1.
Which edition of Windows 7 includes BitLocker To Go and AppLocker?

A.
Windows 7 Home Starter
B.
C.
Windows 7 Ultimate
D.
Answer: C
Windows 7 Ultimate has all the features that Windows 7 offers including BitLocker, BitLocker To Go,
AppLocker, DirectAccess, and BranchCache. Different from Windows Enterprise, Windows 7
Ultimate is not available for volume licensing.
2.
Which feature in Windows 7 enables you to quickly reveal hidden icons and gadgets?
A.
Aero Peek
B.
Aero Snap
C.
Aero Flip 3D
D.
Aero Shake
Answer: A
Aero Peek enables you to see through your open windows by making all them transparent so that
you can see your desktop, icons, and gadgets.
3.
What is the maximum number of applications that you can run concurrently with the Windows 7
Starter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
Windows 7 Start is specifically made for small-form factor PCs that only available for 32-bit platforms
and can support up to three concurrent programs.
4.
What is the minimum processor needed to install Windows 7 Starter edition?

A.
800 MHz
B.
1 GHz
C.
1.2 GHz
D.
2.0 GHz
Answer: A
To install Windows 7 Starter edition, you need to have an 800-MHz processor. However, a faster
processor will give you better performance.
5.
You have a machine with Windows XP Professional. How do you upgrade to Windows 7
Professional while keeping the application and user settings?
A.
Perform a clean installation of Windows 7.
B.
Perform a direct upgrade to Windows 7.
C.
Perform a clean installation of Windows Vista and then upgrade to Windows 7.
D.
Perform an upgrade to Windows Vista and then upgrade to Windows 7.
Answer: D
To keep your settings, you must perform an upgrade first to Windows Vista and then upgrade to
Windows 7.
6.
During the installation of Windows 7, where does Windows write the logs into which it records the
setup program and information related to problems encountered during setup?
A.
C:\Windows\Logs
B.
C:\
C.
C:\Windows
D.
C:\Windows\Panther
Answer: D
During setup, Windows produces log files located in the C:\Windows\Panther folder into which it
records setup program and information related to problems encountered during setup.
7.
What is the boot loader for Windows 7?

A.
ntldr
B.
bootmgr
C.
io.sys
D.
bcd
Answer: B
A boot loader is a file that contains necessary information that instructs the system how to boot or
start an operating system. The Windows XP boot loader file is ntldr, whereas the boot loader for
Windows Vista and 7 is bootmgr.
8.
What command would you use to start the Windows Easy Transfer program?
A.
wet.exe
B.
backup.exe
C.
migwiz.exe
D.
usmt.exe
Answer: C
Windows Easy Transfer (Migwiz.exe) is installed with Windows 7 and is located under the System
Tools under Accessories. It is also available on the Windows 7 DVD in the support\Migwiz directory.
9.
Which USMT command allows you to save user settings to a shared folder or USB device?
A.
migwiz.exe
B.
copyraw
C.
scanstate.exe
D.
loadstate.exe
Answer: C
The scanstate command is used to scan the source computer, collect files and settings, and create a
store. You then use loadstate.exe to copy the store to a target Windows installation.
10.
You have an offline Windows 7 image. How can you add an updated device driver to the image?
A.
Use imagex.exe
B.
Use pkmgr.exe
C.
Use sysprep.exe
D.
Use the DISM tool
Answer: D
Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is a command line tool that is used to service
and manage Windows images. Therefore, you would use DISM to update a device driver to the
image.
11.
Which option used with the sysprep command remove the computers security ID (SID), removes
any system restores, and deletes the event logs?
A.
/generalize
B.
/oobe
C.
/reboot
D.
/quiet
Answer: A
The /generalize option removes all unique system information for a Windows installation including
the security ID (SID).
12.
Which command would you configure Windows 7 to be the default operating system on a dual-boot
system that boots either Windows Vista or Windows 7?
A.
Use the bcdedit.exe command with the /default option.
B.
Use the bcdedit.exe command with the /vista option.
C.
Use the bcdedit.exe command with the /7 option.
D.
Modify the boot.ini file to boot Vista using a text editor.
Answer: A
BCDEdit is a command-line tool for managing the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) stores. The
/default option defines which operating system is the default boot operating system.
13.
Which applet in the Control Panel do you use to change the settings for the virtual memory?
A.
System
B.
Computer Management
C.
Hardware
D.
Device Manager
Answer: A
The System applet allows you to change computer names, manage user profiles, change virtual
memory settings, and change other system settings.
14.
Where do you uninstall a program that has been installed on a Windows 7 computer?
A.
Select System from the Control Panel.
B.
Select Programs from the Control Panel.
C.
Select Add/Remove Features from the Control Panel.
D.
Use the Computer Management console.
Answer: B
To uninstall a program, open the Control Panel and click Programs. You then have to drill down
further and click Programs and Features.
15.
Which Microsoft method ensures that you load only reliable drivers?
A.
Use Plug and Play drivers.
B.
Use PCI and AGP drivers.
C.
Use signed drivers.
D.
Use hibernate capable drivers.
Answer: C
To ensure reliable drivers, Microsoft implemented signed drivers starting with Windows 2000. A
signed driver is a device driver that includes a digital signature, which is an electronic security mark
that can indicate the publisher of the software and information that can show if a driver has been
altered.
16.
You just upgraded your sound card driver. Unfortunately, there is no sound. What should you do?
A.
Disable the device.
B.
Uninstall the device and try again.
C.
Roll back the driver.
D.
Update the device driver again.
Answer: C
Because the device driver did not work, you roll back the driver to the older driver that did give you
sound. You then try to find a newer driver than the one you had that works.
17.
What is the quickest way to modify display settings such as colors and themes?
A.
Right-click the Desktop, and then select Personalize
B.
Right-click the Desktop, and then select Properties.
C.
Right-click My Computer, and then click Properties.
D.
Open the Control Panel, and then click Display.
Answer: A
The quickest way to configure your display setting is to right-click the Desktop and select
Personalize. You can also quickly modify your screen resolution by right-clicking the Desktop and
selecting Screen Resolution.
18.
What is the central secure database in which Windows stores all hardware configuration information,
software configuration information, and system security policies?
A.
The Control Panel
B.
The Boot.INI file
C.
The registry
D.
The NTLDR store
Answer: C
The registry is a central, secure database that stores most of your Windows configuration. To
manage you registry manually, you use the Registry Editor (regedit.exe).
19.
Which of the following is not a good source to get device drivers?

A.
Using a peer-to-peer search engine
B.
Bundled with Windows 7
C.
Supplied with a device
D.
Updated with Windows Update
Answer: A
Drivers should come from reliable sources including being already bundled with Windows 7,
included with the device, and updated through Windows Updates or from the Manufacturers
website. You should not use peer-to-peer search engines.
20.
What is the largest disk you can use with the MBR partitioning style?
A.
1 TB
B.
2 TB
C.
4 TB
D.
8 TB
Answer: B
you must use GPT.
21.
How do you convert a dynamic disk back to a basic disk?

A.
Use the Disk Management console.
B.
Use the Diskpart command.
C.
Use the Device Management console.
D.
Delete the disks, and recreate the disk as a basic disk.
Answer: D
Converting a basic disk to a dynamic disk is a one-way process. The only way to convert a dynamic
disk back to a basic disk is to back up data, delete the old disk, and recreate it. Then restore the
data back to the new disk.
22.
How many primary partitions can you have on a disk with a MBR partitioning style?
A.
B.
C.
D.
16
Answer: B
A disk using the MBR partition style can have four primary partitions or three primary partitions and
one logical partition.
23.
Windows 7 does NOT support which of the following for software RAID using Windows?
A.
Simple volumes
B.
Spanned volume
C.
Mirrored volumes
D.
RAID-5 volumes
Answer: D
Windows Server 2008 supports RAID5, whereas Windows does not support RAID-5 software RAID
using Windows.
24.
What option would you use with the chkdsk command to fix problems that it finds?
A.
/f
B.
/x
C.
/c
D.
No option is required.
Answer: A
Without the /f option, chkdsk reports only the status of the drive and any problems that it finds.
Therefore, you need to use the /f if you want to fix any problems it finds.
25.
What address is considered the loopback address?

A.
192.168.1.1
B.
172.0.0.255
C.
127.0.0.1
D.
1.1.1.1
Answer: C
The loopback, which means it is assigned an address of 127.0.0.1.
26.

A.
24
B.
32
C.
64
D.
128
Answer: D
An IPv6 is 128 bits. To make it easier to work with, it is usually expressed in hexadecimal format.
Each hexadecimal digit is equivalent to 4 bits.
27.
What address is used by a local host when you need to forward packets to the host on a different
subnet?
A.
Network mask
B.
Default gateway
C.
NAT
D.
DNS
Answer: B
The default gateway is a device, usually a router, that connects the local network to other networks.
When you need to communicate with a host on another subnet, you forward all packets to the
default gateway.
28.
What command do you use to view your IPv4 interfaces on a computer running Windows 7?
A.
netsh interface ipv4 show interfaces
B.
netsh interface ipv4 set address name all
C.
netsh interface ipv4 add interface
D.
netsh interface ipv4 set address name source
Answer: A
To view your interfaces, you use the netsh command with the show interfaces option.
29.
What command helps you test name resolution?

A.
ipconfig
B.
netsh
C.
pathpig
D.
nslookup
Answer: D
The nslookup command displays information that you can use to diagnose your DNS infrastructure.
30.
If you have a wireless access point configured to use Advanced Encryption Standard security and
you are using pre-shared keys, which option should you choose to connect to the wireless access
point?
A.
WPA2-Enterprise
B.
WPA2-Personal
C.
WPA-Enterprise
D.
WPA-Personal
Answer: A
WPA2 uses AES encryption. Personal uses pre-shared keys.
31.
After you create a VPN, where do you find the VPN connection when you want to connect to your
place of work?
A.
Ease of Access
B.
Network and Sharing Center
C.
Mobile PC
D.
Parental Control
Answer: B
The Network and Sharing Center program is where you would to go to view all of your network
connections, including VPN connections.
32.
Which is the strongest form of authentication?

A.
PAP
B.
CHAP
C.
MS-CHAP
D.
MS-CHAPv2
Answer: D
MS-CHAP v2 provides two-way authentication (mutual authentication) and provides stronger
authentication than PAP, CHAP, and MS-CHAP.
33.
DirectAccess requires which protocol to operate?

A.
IPv4
B.
IPv6
C.
HTTPS
D.
PPTP
Answer: C
DirectAccess is a new feature of Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008 R2. It provides a secure,
always-on connection that requires little or no user interaction using IPv6 and IPSec.
34.
Which account is designed for users who need one-time or occasional access and is disabled by
default?
A.
administrator
B.
guest
C.
remoteuser
D.
poweruser
Answer: B
The guest account is designed for users who need one-time or occasional access. Although guests
have limited system privileges, you should be careful about using the account.
35.
Which UAC slider option dims the Desktop and causes other programs to pause while the UAC
dialog box displays?
A.
Always notify
B.
Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer.
C.
Notify me only when programs try to make changes to my computer.
D.
Never notify
Answer: A
The only option that dims the screen when a UAC prompt displays is Always notify.
36.
Which protocol is the main logon authentication method when logging on to a computer running
Windows 7 that is part of an Active Directory domain?
A.
Kerberos
B.
Windows NT LAN Manager
C.
Certificate mappings
D.
Password Authentication Protocol
Answer: A
Kerberos is the main logon authentication method used by clients and servers running Microsoft
Windows operating systems to authenticate both user accounts and computer accounts.
37.
What do you call permissions that are directly assigned to a file or folder?
A.
Explicit
B.
Inherited
C.
Blocked
D.
Primary
Answer: A
Explicit permissions are those granted directly to the folder or file.
38.
When you copy a file from a folder in the C drive to another folder in the C drive, which permissions
does the file retain?
A.
B.
C.
No permissions
D.
Answer: B
When you copy from one folder to another folder within the same drive, it will retain permissions
assigned to the target folder.
39.
Which folder does Windows 7 use to store offline folders?

A.
C:\Windows\System32\Offline
B.
C:\Windows\CSC
C.
C:\Windows\Winsxs
D.
C:\Windows\Logs
Answer: B
The CSC folder is where Windows stores offline files.
40.
What allows you to encrypt a single file on an NTFS volume?

A.
BitLocker
B.
BitLocker To Go
C.
EFS
D.
TPM
Answer: C
EFS is short for Encrypted File System, which is used to encrypt individual files.
41.
What do you use to encrypt removable data drives such as USB drives?
A.
BitLocker
B.
BitLocker To Go
C.
EFS
D.
Smart cards
Answer: B
BitLocker To Go extends the BitLocker protection to removable data drives to ensure that critical
data is protected when a USB drive is misplaced or stolen.
42.
You have two users who share a Windows 7 Business Edition. Both users are working on a
presentation for the annual stock report. You want to give both users access to the report without
giving access to the other users data files. What should you do?
A.
Give the appropriate NTFS permissions to each user's My Documents folder.
B.
Have the users log in with the same account.
C.
Instruct the users to store the report in the public folder.
D.
Instruct the users to log out and log in as the other user's report.
Answer: C
If you store the document in the public folder, both have access to it.
43.
You want to access the C drive remotely on a computer called PC1, but it has not been manually
shared. If you are an administrator, how can you access it?
A.
Access it through \\PC1\C.
B.
Access it through \\PC1\C$.
C.
Access it through \\PC1\CDrive.
D.
Access it through \\PC1\Drives\C.
Answer: B
Administrative shares are hidden shared folders that allow administrative personnel to connect to the
root directory of a drive. In this case, it is identified with the C$.
44.
Which mode of BranchCache has the cached data reside on a Windows Server 2008 R2 server?
A.
Distributed Cache
B.
Hosted Cache
C.
Proxy Cache
D.
Link Cache
Answer: B
When you use the hosted caching mode, cache resides on a Windows Server 2008 R2 computer
that is deployed in the branch office.
45.
Where do you find the logs of printer activity and printer errors?
A.
The System logs in the Event Viewer
B.
The Application logs in the Event Viewer
C.
The C:\Windows\Spooler\Logs folder
D.
The C:\Widnows\System32\Log folder
Answer: A
To look at spooler and printer activity, you can use the logs showing the Event Viewer, specifically
the System logs.
46.
What do you call a program designed to enable other programs to work with a particular printer
without concerning themselves with the specifics of the printers hardware and internal language.
A.
Print device
B.
Printer
C.
Spooler
D.
Print driver
Answer: D
A print driver is a program designed to enable other programs to work with a particular printer
without concerning themselves with the specifics of the printers hardware and internal language.
47.
What do you call small fixes that might allow applications to run under Windows 7?
A.
A permission package
B.
A SHIM
C.
The BOOT.INI file option
D.
Windows Defender
Answer: A
In new versions of Windows, Microsoft includes numerous SHIMs or minor fixes that are used to
improve compatibility with existing non-Microsoft software.
48.
When using AppLocker, what are the rules based on?

A.
File passwords
B.
NTFS permissions of file
C.
Size of the file
D.
Files digital signature
Answer: B
AppLocker is used to create rules based on the digital signature of an application. By using digital
signatures, you do not have to update the rule when a new version of the application is released.
49.
You have a website within your corporations local intranet. When a user accesses the website, he is
prompted for a username and password. How can you make the authentication occur automatically?
A.
Change the authentication for the website to anonymous.
B.
Add the web sites URL to the Local Intranet zone.
C.
Add the web sites URL to Trusted Sites zone.
D.
Change the credentials in the Credential Manager.
Answer: B
By adding the website to the Local Intranet zone, Internet Explorer will automatically try to use your
Windows username and password.
50.
What should you use to prevent an application from being installed when visiting a website?
A.
InPrivate Browsing
B.
Protected mode
C.
Enable Parental Control
D.
Enable Compatibility mode
Answer: B
Internet Explorers protected mode is a feature that makes it more difficult for malicious software to
be installed on your computer.
51.
You have a user who wants to save files from various websites. How can you make sure that the
websites dont modify the files she has already downloaded?
A.
Disable all ActiveX controls.
B.
Enable the Phishing filter.
C.
Change the security level for the Internet zone to High.
D.
Enable Protected mode option.
Answer: D
Protected mode helps protect you from websites that try to save files or install programs on your
computer.
52.
How do you turn off the hibernate function and remove the hiberfil.sys file?
A.
Run the powercgf hibernate off command.
B.
Delete the hiberfil.sys file from a command prompt with the del command.
C.
Open the Power settings within the Control Panel and uncheck Enable Hibernate
option.
D.
Run the Hibernate Off command.
Answer: A
To disable hibernate and remove the hiberfil.sys file, use the powercfg command.
53.
Which of the following shut down options enables you to save the contents of RAM into a file, shut
down the system, quickly boot the system, and continue with the same application that you had
open when you shut down the system?
A.
Sleep
B.
Hibernate
C.
Reduced power mode
D.
Deep sleep mode
Answer: B
When you hibernate your computer, the system state and the contents of the system memory are
saved to a file (hiberfil.sys) on the hard disk, and the computer is shut down.
54.
What task-based, command-line shell and scripting language is provided with Windows 7 to enable
you to control local and remote computers and their Microsoft network services?
A.
ActiveX
B.
PowerShell
C.
GPO
D.
Backscript
Answer: B
Windows PowerShell is a task-based, command-line shell and scripting language that helps IT
professionals and users control and automate the administration of the Windows operating system
and the applications that run on Windows.
55.
You are working in your office, you get an emergency call from a client. You need to stop work and
resume as quickly as possible when you get to the client site. You also want to be protected from
data loss if there is a power problem. What do you suggest?
A.
Ensure that the laptop workstations have Centrino hardware. You should configure
hybrid sleep on the laptop.
B.
Ensure that the users are administrators. You should configure hybrid sleep on the
laptop.
C.
Ensure that there is available disk space equivalent to the amount of RAM.
Configure sleep on the laptop workstations.
D.
Ensure you have enough free disk space equivalent to the amount of RAM.
Configure hibernate on the laptop.
Answer: C
When you perform hybrid sleep, it keeps the memory alive so that it can do a quick restart to where
you left off. IT also writes to the hard drive in case power is interrupted.
56.
What indicates that your processor is working too hard?

A.
A processor that is consistently above 25%
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
If the processor is at 80% all the time, you should upgrade your processor (use a faster processor or
add additional processors) or move some of the services or programs to other systems.
57.
What should be the maximum page rate used for Windows 7?

A.
Less than 5
B.
Less than 10
C.
Less than 20
D.
Less than 50
Answer: C
If the performance monitor shows no or little available memory, it has a high pages/sec (20 or
higher), or the paging file is high, you should increase the memory.
58.
What key do you need to press to enter Safe mode during boot up?
A.
F1
B.
F4
C.
F8
D.
F10
Answer: C
By pressing F8, you can enter the Advanced Startup menu and select Safe mode.
59.
What technology used on NTFS volumes automatically makes extra copies of data files?
A.
Shadow Copy
B.
IIS
C.
Windows Backup
D.
MSconfig
Answer: A
Shadow copies, when configured, automatically create backup copies of the data stored in data
folders on specific drive volumes at scheduled times. The drive volume must be formatted as NTFS.
Windows 7 utilizes Shadow copies to provide previous versions of files even if they have never been
backed up.
60.
What tool do you use to temporarily disable a service that starts during the boot process?
A.
Device Manager
B.
System Configuration
C.
Boot.ini tool
D.
Last Known Good Configuration option
Answer: B
The System Configuration tool is a diagnostic tool that can help you isolate startup programs and
services that prevent Windows from booting.
Exam 3
1.
Which of the following editions of Windows allow the computer to be added to a domain?
A.
Windows 7 Starter
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D
Windows 7 is a business-focused edition of Windows. It includes support to join a domain and group
policies, advanced network backup, Encrypted File System (EFS), and offline folders.
2.
Which feature in Windows 7 enables you to quickly resize open windows by dragging them to the
edges of your screen?
A.
Aero Peek
B.
Aero Snap
C.
Aero Flip 3D
D.
Aero Shake
Answer: B
Aero Snap, new to Windows 7, is a quick way to resize open windows by dragging them to the
edges of your screen.
3.
What is the maximum memory that Windows 7 Home Basic 32-bit can recognize?
A.
1 GB
B.
2 GB
C.
4 GB
D.
8 GB
Answer: C
Most 32-bit versions of Windows 7 can recognize up to 4 GB. The only version that is different is
Windows 7 Starter, which can recognize only up to 2 GB.
4.
What is the minimum amount of memory needed to install a 32-bit version of Windows 7 Ultimate
edition?
A.
512 MB
B.
1 GB
C.
2 GB
D.
4 GB
Answer: B
To install most versions of 32-bit versions of Windows 7 is 1 GB of RAM.
5.
What kind of upgrade can you perform from Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7
Professional?
A.
In-Place Upgrade
B.
Custom Install
C.
Replace Upgrade
D.
Enhanced Upgrade
Answer: B
Because you are not upgrading like editions, you have to use a custom install, which is not capable
of upgrading all application and user settings.
6.
After you install Windows 7, what should you do next to ensure that Windows is as secure and
stable as possible?
A.
Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.
B.
Check for any fixes, patches, or service packs from Windows Updates.
C.
Look at the installation logs.
D.
Run a check disk and a defrag on the hard drive.
Answer: B
After installation Windows, you should check to see if Microsoft has any fixes, patches, service
packs, and device drivers and apply them to the Windows systems.
7.
You configured your computer to dual-boot between Windows Vista and Windows 7. What do you
use to modify the boot configuration so that it will boot to Windows Vista by default?
A.
B.
Modify the bootmgr file to point to the volume with Windows Vista.
C.
Use the disk management tool within the Computer Management console.
D.
Use the bcdedit command.
Answer: D
To modify the boot configuration for Windows Vista and Windows 7 systems, you need to use the
bcdedit command to edit the hidden file that stores the boot configuration.
8.
When using USMT, which file is used to migrate application settings to computers running Windows
7?
A.
MigApp.xml
B.
MigUser.xml
C.
MigDocs.xml
D.
MigSet.xml
Answer: A
The User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a scriptable command-line tool that allows you to migrate
settings between Windows installations. The MigApp.xml file is used to migrate application settings
to computers running Windows 7.
9.
Which USMT command migrates the files and settings from the store to the destination Windows?
A.
migwiz.exe
B.
copyraw
C.
scanstate.exe
D.
loadstate.exe
Answer: D
store. You then use loadstate.exe to copy the store to a target Windows installation.
10.
Which tool can you use to create a bootable disk that is used to deploy Windows 7 on nonPXE
supporting client computers?
A.
Use Windows SIM.
B.
Use Windows AIK.
C.
Use DISM.
D.
Use scanstate.
Answer: B
To create bootable media to deploy Windows 7 on nonPXE supporting client computers, you need to
create a WinPE disk, which is done with Windows Automated Installation Kit (AIK).
11.
What format does Microsoft use to deploy Windows using a file-based imaging format ?
A.
.WIM
B.
.ISO
C.
.GHO
D.
.WDS
Answer: A
The Windows installation files can be distributed in a Windows Imaging Format (WIM) file. WIM is a
file-based imaging format that can be used for rapid installation of new computers.
12.
When using a virtual system such as Hyper-Vi, where is the disk for the virtual system stored?
A.
.VSV
B.
.AVHD
C.
.VHD
D.
.VMC
Answer: C
The virtual hard drive (.vhd) file stores guest operating system, applications, and data for the virtual
machine.
13.
What tool enables features that aid people with disabilities to use Windows 7?
A.
Accessibility applet
B.
Ease of Access Center
C.
D.
Ease of Use Tools
Answer: B
To configure accessibility options, use the Ease of Access Center.
14.
You have a corporate laptop. You take it home, and you would you like your children to use it when
you are not using it. You are having trouble finding Parental Control. What do you need to do?
A.
Download Parental Control from the Microsoft website and install it on your
machine.
B.
Enable Parental Control using Programs in the Control Panel.
C.
You need to add your children to the Administrators group.
D.
You cannot use Parental Control if your computer is part of a domain.
Answer: D
Parental Control is not available if your computer is part of a domain. In addition, Parental Control
applies only to standard user accounts, not administrators.
15.
What happens if you load a driver that does not have a valid digital signature on a 64-bit version of
Windows?
A.
It warns you that the driver is not properly signed.
B.
You need to add the driver to the unknown device in the Device Manager.
C.
You need to shut off check hardware service.
D.
You are not able to load the driver.
Answer: D
A driver that lacks a valid digital signature or that was altered after it was signed cant be installed on
x64-based versions of Windows Vista or Windows 7.
16.
How do you identify a device in the Device Manager that is having problems?
A.
There is a red X.
B.
There is an exclamation point.
C.
There is a down arrow.
D.
It is flashing.
Answer: B
A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field indicates that the device is in a problem state.
17.
Where do you extend your Windows desktop across a second monitor?

A.
Right-click the Desktop and choose Screen Resolution.
B.
Right-click the Desktop and choose Personalize.
C.
Open the Device Manager.
D.
Open the Computer Management console.
Answer: A
To extend your desktop, right-click the Desktop and choose Screen Resolution. Click the drop-down
list next to Multiple displays, and then click Extend these displays. Then click OK.
18.
Which of the following editions of Windows 7 does NOT support Windows Aero?
A.
Windows 7 Business
B.
C.
D.
Answer: D
Windows Aero is supported on Windows 7 Business, Windows Enterprise, Windows 7 Home
Premium, and Windows 7 Ultimate. It is not supported on Windows 7 Home Basic or Windows 7
Starter.
19.
How do you make Windows 7 open files with a tst filename extension to open with Internet Explorer?
A.
Open the Default Programs and select Set Association from the Control Panel.
B.
Right-click IExplore, and then select Properties.
C.
Modify the filename association using regedit.
D.
Modify the filename association with the local security policy.
Answer: A
When you want to change what programs open a particular type of data file, you should use the
Control Panels Default Program and select Set Association.
20.
Which of the following describes the boot volume?

A.
The volume that contains the Windows boot files
B.
The volume that contains the Windows operating system
C.
The Z drive
D.
The fastest drive
Answer: B
As strange as it sounds, the system volume contains the Windows boot files, whereas the boot
volumes contains the Windows operating system.
21.
What is the number of disks needed for RAID1?

A.
One
B.
Two
C.
Three
D.
Four
Answer: B
RAID1 is known as disk mirroring, which has one disk act as a duplicate of another disk. If one fails,
you can keep on working without any downtime. Therefore, you need to have two disks.
22.
How many partitions does a disk with the GPT partitioning style support?
A.
B.
16
C.
32
D.
128
Answer: D
GPT disks support volume sizes up to 18 exabytes (EB) or 18 billion gigabtyes and can store up to
128 partitions on each disk.
23.
Why do you need to keep your drives defragged?

A.
It keeps your drive from filling up.
B.
It keeps your drive clean from viruses.
C.
It keeps your drive optimized for better performance.
D.
It keeps your drive free from errors.
Answer: C
Disk defragmentation leads to slow disk performance because files are spread throughout a volume
in pieces instead of being grouped as one large piece.
24.
Which of the following is not true when considering extending a volume?

A.
You can extend partitions on basic disks.
B.
You can extend volumes on dynamic disks.
C.
You cannot extend system to boot volumes.
D.
You can only extend volumes if the volume is NTFS or raw (not formatted).
Answer: C
You can extend a system or boot volume if the drive has contiguous space and only if the disk is a
dynamic disk.
25.
For a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0, what is the CIDR notation?

A.
/8
B.
/16
C.
/24
D.
/32
Answer: C
Because the 255.255.255.0 translated to binary is 11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000, it means
24 bits are masked. Therefore, the CIDR notation is /24.
26.
What is the binary equivalent of 255.255.248.0?

A.
11111111.11111111.11000000.00000000
B.
11111111.11111111.11111100.00000000
C.
11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000
D.
11111111.11111111.11111000.00000000
Answer: D
If you translate 248, it is equivalent to 111110000. Therefore, the correct answer is
11111111.11111111.11111000.00000000.
27.
What is the primary method for name resolution on a TCP/IP network?

A.
DNS
B.
NAT
C.
Ping
D.
TCP
Answer: A
One way to translate host names to an IP address is to use the Domain Name System (DNS).
28.
Which command can you use to display your current IP address and subnet mask?
A.
Netstat
B.
Nslookup
C.
Ipconfig
D.
Ping
Answer: C
The ipconfig command displays current TCP/IP configuration.
29.
You have a host that has been assigned a 169.254.33.23 address. Unfortunately, the host cannot
connect to other hosts. What is the problem?
A.
It cannot connect to a DHCP server.
B.
It has not been assigned a default gateway.
C.
It does not have TCP/IP loaded.
D.
It has not been assigned a host name.
Answer: A
If your computer is set to accept a DHCP server and one does not respond, the computer uses
Automatic Private IP addressing, which generates an IP address in the form of 169.255.xxx.xxx and
the subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.
30.
If you have a wireless access point configured to use Temporary Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
security and you are using digital certificates, which option should you choose to connect to the
wireless access point?
A.
WPA2-Enterprise
B.
WPA2-Personal
C.
WPA-Enterprise
D.
WPA-Personal
Answer: A
WPA uses TKIP encryption. Enterprise uses digital certificates.
31.
What new connections introduced with Windows 7 provide always-on secure connections using
IPSec and IPv6 to your corporation while connected to the Internet?
A.
BitLocker
B.
DirectAccess
C.
Teredo
D.
ISATAP
Answer: B
DirectAccess is a new technology that establishes a secure bi-directional connection to access a
corporate network or resources.
32.
You just installed a new wireless router; however, you cannot discover other computers on the local
wireless network. What should you do?
A.
Configure the wired and wireless network adapters as a network bridge.
B.
Configure the network category settings of the wireless connection to public.
C.
Change the network category settings of the wireless connection to private.
D.
Disable the Windows firewall.
Answer: C
If the network category is set to public, the network discovery is disabled. Therefore, you need to
change it from public to private.
33.
What is the process used to confirm a users identity?

A.
Authentication
B.
Authorization
C.
Auditing
D.
Signing
Answer: A
Authentication is the process to confirm a users identity, which he uses to access a computer
system or network resource.
34.
Which type of Windows 7 user account should you assign to a user to do everyday tasks such as
checking e-mail or creating documents?
A.
Administrator
B.
Guest
C.
Standard
D.
Power user
Answer: C
Windows 7 supports two types of accounts, Standard and Administrator. The standard account is the
account to use for everyday computing.
35.
What feature tracks and records various security-related events so that you can detect intruders and
attempts to compromise the system?
A.
Auditing
B.
ACL
C.
Permissions
D.
Authentication
Answer: A
If you enable auditing, you can track and record various security-related events such as when
someone logs on the computer or tries to access a file or folder.
36.
What generates a message asking if you need to permission to continue when installing an
application?
A.
Windows firewall
B.
NTFS permissions
C.
UAC
D.
Internet Sharing
Answer: C
The User Account Control (UAC) is used to prevent unauthorized changes to the computer,
particularly by programs.
37.
What do you call the permission that is assigned to a folder, which flows to the subfolders and its
documents?
A.
Explicit
B.
Inherited
C.
Blocked
D.
Primary
Answer: B
When you set permissions to a folder (explicit permissions), the files and subfolders that exist in the
folder inherit these permissions.
38.
When you move a file from a folder on the C drive to another folder on the C drive, which
permissions does the file retain?
A.
B.
C.
No permissions
D.
Answer: A
When you copy from one folder to another folder on the same drive, the file retains permissions
assigned to the source folder.
39.
Where do you find 32-bit program files on a 64-bit version of Windows?

A.
C:\Program Files
B.
C:\Program Files (x86)
C.
C:\Windows
D.
C:\Windows\System32
Answer: B
The default program for x86 programs loaded on a 64-bit version of Windows is C:\Program Files
(x86).
40.
Which of the following is not a requirement for BitLocker?

A.
A computer with TPM
B.
A computer with only one large NTFS volume
C.
A computer that has a compatible BIOS with TPM
D.
A USB flash if your system does not have TPM
Answer: B
To use Bit Locker, you need to have two NTFS volumes, not one.
41.
You right-click a file to encrypt it, and you later decide to compress the file. A few days later, you
notice that the file is no longer encrypted. What is the problem?
A.
The file is encrypted for 24 hours only.
B.
The file was overwritten.
C.
You do not have permission to encrypt the file.
D.
You cannot have a file compressed and encrypted using NTFS at the same time.
Answer: D
Because you compressed the file using NTFS, the file was automatically decrypted.
42.
Where would you enable network discovery?

A.
Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
B.
Network and Sharing Center
C.
Registry Editor
D.
Answer: B
Link Layer Topology Discovery/network discovery queries each device that supports Plug and Play
extensions or Web services for devices to determine its capabilities and to determine the topology of
the network. To enable network discovery, you use the Network and Sharing Center.
43.
Which type of share is not displayed when browsing using Network Neighborhood?
A.
Public share
B.
Hidden share
C.
Administrative shares
D.
NTFS share
Answer: C
Different from regular shares, administrative shares do not show when a user browses the computer
resource using Network Neighborhood, My Network Place, or similar software.
44.
What is the minimum Share permission that enables you to read and execute files, create files and
subfolders, modify files, and change attributes?
A.
Full Control
B.
Change
C.
Write
D.
Read
Answer: B
The Change permission allows you to read files, create files and subfolders, modify files, change
attributes on files and subfolders, and delete files and subfolders.
45.
In Windows 7, the printer is considered _______________.

A.
The logical device that represents the printer device
B.
The physical printer device
C.
The network IP address located in DNS
D.
The print driver
Answer: A
The printer is the logical representation that points to the physical printer device.
46.
If you use TCP/IP Printer port, what is the default port?

A.
25
B.
80
C.
443
D.
9100
Answer: D
THE TCP/IP printer port uses host port 9100 to communicate.
47.
You have a customized project management application that was written for Windows XP.
Unfortunately, it does not run under Windows 7. What should you try first?
A.
Run the application in XP mode.
B.
Modify the privilege level for the application to run as a standard user.
C.
Run the MST transform on the application.
D.
Run the application under 256 colors.
Answer: A
You need to run the application in Windows XP mode because the enhanced security does not allow
the application to run.
48.
Which edition of Windows 7 does NOT include Windows XP mode?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Windows 7 Ultimate
Answer: C
To run Windows XP Mode, you need to run Windows 7 Professional, Enterprise, or the Ultimate
edition. You cannot run it on Windows 7 Home Premium.
49.
What can you use to prevent Internet Explorer from saving data while browsing the Internet?
A.
Use BranchCache.
B.
Use InPrivate Blocking.
C.
Turn on the user of cookies.
D.
Disable the save data option in the Internet zone.
Answer: B
InPrivate Browsing (new to IE 8) enables you to surf the Web without leaving a trail in Internet
Explorer.
50.
How do you reset Internet Explorer to its original settings?

A.
Reinstall Internet Explorer 8.0.
B.
Navigate to the Security tab in Internet Explorer, and click Reset all zones to the
default level.
C.
Navigate to the Advanced tab in Internet Explorer, and click Restore Advanced
settings.
D.
Navigate to the Advanced tab, and click Reset.
Answer: D
To reset Internet Explorer to its original settings, you have to open Internet Options, select the
Security tab, and click Restore.
51.
When a user clicks on a link on a webpage, nothing happens. What is most likely the problem?
A.
The link is disabled.
B.
The URL is not listed in the Trusted sites.
C.
The URL is not listed in the pop-up blockers Allowed sites list.
D.
The URL is not listed in the Allowed sites list on the Privacy tab.
Answer: B
When you click some links, the link is set to open a separate window. If you have a popup blocker
set up, the site might be blocked.
52.
What application do you use to manage your offline folder?

A.
System Configuration tool
B.
Offline folder console
C.
Sync Center
D.
Mobility Share tool
Answer: C
The Sync Center is a syncing technology that allows you to keep your PC to access files from other
PCs, Servers and other mobile devices such as Windows Mobile phones. To configure offline files,
open the Sync Center and click Manage offline files.
53.
Which tool do you use to view the Desktop of a remote user so that you can see the problem as she
tries to open a program?
A.
Remote Assistance
B.
Remote Desktop
C.
D.
System Information console
Answer: A
Remote Assistant allows you to view a users session on a computer running Windows 7 so that you
can work with the user to troubleshoot and fix the problem.
54.
What provides you a graphical user interface that allows you to run commands and write, edit, run,
test, and debug scripts?
A.
ISE
B.
GPO
C.
PSDebug
D.
PS-Run
Answer: A
Windows PowerShell Integrated Scripting Environment (ISE) is a graphical user interface that
enables you to run commands and write, edit, run, test, and debug scripts in the same window.
55.
After you close the lid on your Windows 7 laptop, you want to be able to start working as soon as
you start the computer. You also dont want to use battery power while the computer is shut off. What
should you do?
A.
Configure the computer to hibernate when the lid is closed.
B.
Configure the computer to sleep when the lid is closed.
C.
Configure the computer to shut down when the lid is closed.
D.
Configure the computer to go into standby when the lid is closed.
Answer: A
You should configure the computer to hibernate when the lid is closed.
56.
What measure tool does Windows 7 offer to help determine if your system can run a certain
applications or perform certain functions?
A.
WEI
B.
CPUIndex
C.
PagingGuide
D.
PerfMon
Answer: A
The Windows Experience Index measures the capability of your computers hardware and software
configuration and expresses this measurement as a number called a base score. A higher base
score generally means that your computer performs better and faster than a computer with a lower
base score, especially when performing more advanced and resource-intensive tasks.
57.
What can you use to quickly capture performance data of multiple performance counters and
configure alert activities based on the performance counters?
A.
Alert Counter
B.
Task Parameter
C.
Data Collector Set
D.
Windows Experience Index
Answer: C
An important feature in Performance Monitor is the Data Collector Set (DCS), which groups data
collectors into reusable elements. After a DCS is defined, you can schedule the collection of data
using the DCS or see it in real time.
58.
What tool do you need to disable several programs that automatically start up during boot up?
A.
B.
System Information
C.
Action Center
D.
BCDBoot
Answer: A
System Configuration is an advanced tool that can help identify problems that might prevent
Windows from starting correctly. You can start Windows with common services and startup programs
turned off and then turn them back on, one at a time.
59.
What program do you use to quickly restore your computers system files to an earlier point in time
without affecting your data?
A.
System Restore
B.
Shadow Copy
C.
System Image Backup
D.
Safe Mode
Answer: A
System Restore helps you restore your computers system files to an earlier point in time. Its a way
to undo system changes to your computer without affecting your personal files, such as e-mail,
documents, or photos.
60.
You just loaded a new application. Now your computer has become slow and sometimes causes
stop errors. Even after reinstalling the application, you still have the same problems. What can you
try next?
A.
Roll back the latest driver using Device Manager.
B.
Reboot the computer in safe mode.
C.
Press F8 during the boot sequence, and select Last Known Good configuration.
D.
Use the System Restore to a known good working restore point.
Answer: D
System Restore can reconfigure Windows back to its original settings before the problem occurred.
Exam 4
1.
Which of the following versions supports 16-bit applications?

A.
32-bit Windows 7
B.
64-bit Windows 7
C.
32-bit and 64-bit Windows 7
D.
None of the above
Answer: A
When using 64-bit Windows 7, you are not able to run 16-bit applications. Instead, you need to
install XP mode if you still need access to 16-bit applications.
2.
Which feature in Windows 7 enables you to flip through all open windows in a three-dimensional
stack?
A.
Aero Peek
B.
Aero Snap
C.
Aero Flip 3D
D.
Aero Shake
Answer: C
Windows Flip 3D enables you to flip through all open windows in a three-dimensional stack without
having to click the taskbar.
3.
Where do you place your gadgets?

A.
Task Bar
B.
The Desktop
C.
Notification Area
D.
Quick List
Answer: B
Different from Windows Vista, gadgets are placed on the Desktop.
4.
What is the minimum amount of memory needed to install a 64-bit version of Windows 7 Ultimate
edition?
A.
512 MB
B.
1 GB
C.
2 GB
D.
4 GB
Answer: C
To install most versions of 64-bit versions of Windows 7, you need 2 GB of RAM.
5.
What kind of upgrade can you perform from Windows Vista Home Premium to Windows 7 Home
Premium that maintains application and user settings?
A.
In-Place Upgrade
B.
Custom Install
C.
Replace Upgrade
D.
Enhanced Upgrade
Answer: A
Because you are upgrading like editions, you can use the in-place upgrade, which keeps user and
application settings.
6.
You work for a large corporation, and you just installed Windows. You try to check for
Windows updates, but you cannot access the Windows update website. What should you do?
A.
Be sure you are logged in as a domain administrator.
B.
Add yourself to the Windows Update local group.
C.
Activate Windows.
D.
Check your proxy settings in Internet Explorer.
Answer: D
If Windows update fails to get updates, you should check your proxy settings in Internet Explorer to
see if it can get through your proxy server or firewall.
7.
You have a Windows XP computer that you need to upgrade to Windows 7, but you are not sure if
the older video card is compatible with Windows 7. What should you do?
A.
Run the Windows 7 Program Compatibility Assistant tool.
B.
Run the Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor.
C.
Run Windows update.
D.
Open the device manager and update its drivers.
Answer: B
To see if your system is compatible with Windows 7, you need to run the Windows 7 Upgrade
Advisor.
8.
When using USMT, which file is used to migrate user folders, files, and file types to computers
running 7?
A.
MigApp.xml
B.
MigUser.xml
C.
MigDocs.xml
D.
MigSet.xml
Answer: B
The User State Migration Tool (USMT) is a scriptable command-line tool that enables you to migrate
settings between Windows installations. The MigUser.xml file is used to migrate user folders, files,
and file types to computers running Windows 7.
9.
When using USMT, which option should you use to include the EFS files and digital certificates?
A.
/key
B.
/nocompress
C.
/encrypt
D.
/efs:copyraw
Answer: D
The /efs:copyraw copies the files in the encrypted format. If you are running Windows Vista or
Windows 7 with the /efs:copyraw option, USMT will migrate EFS encrypted files and EFS
certificates.
10.
What do you use to validate a Windows 7 answer file?

A.
Scanstate
B.
Windows SIM
C.
DISM
D.
SMS
Answer: D
Although you can create an answer file with any text editor, it is recommended that you use
Windows SIM to validate the answer file.
11.
What command can you use to view the contents of a WIM file?
A.
Syspep
B.
Windows SIM
C.
WINPE
D.
ImageX
Answer: D
ImageX can be used to view the contents of a WIM file, capture Desktop images, mount images for
offline image editing, and compress image files.

12.
What tool would you use to create a VHD file?

A.
BCDBoot
B.
BCDEdit
C.
ImageX.exe
D.
Disk Management console.
Answer: D
The Disk Management console that is part of the Computer Management console can be used to
create a VHD file.
13.
Where do you check to see how much memory your system has?
A.
Device Manager
B.
Hardware console
C.
System applet in the Control Panel
D.
Display settings
Answer: C
You can view a summary of important information about your computer by opening System in the
Control panel (including the system type 32-bit or 64-bit), your Windows Experience Index, and the
amount of RAM you have.
14.
You just started Device Manager. How can you determine if a device is disabled?
A.
There is a red X.
B.
It is grayed out.
C.
There is a down arrow.
D.
It is flashing.
Answer: C
A down black arrow indicates a device is disabled. A disabled device is a device that is physically
present in the computer and consumes resources but does not have a driver loaded.
15.
Where can you manage all your devices that are connected through your USB ports?
A.
Devices folder
B.
Devices and Printers folder
C.
USB folder
D.
Plug and Play folder
Answer: B
The Devices and Printers folder gives you a quick view of devices connected to your computer.
These devices are typically external devices that you can connect to or disconnect from your
computer through a port or network connection.
16.
How do scan for new devices with Windows 7?

A.
Run the sigverif.exe command.
B.
Run the Scandisk.exe command.
C.
Click Hardware and Sound in the Control Panel and select Add a device under the
Devices and Printers section.
D.
Run the scanhw.exe command.
Answer: C
Usually when you connect a device, it is automatically recognized, and Windows 7 automatically
tries to load the proper driver. If not, you need to select the Add a device under the Devices and
Printers section in the Control Panel so that Windows scans for hardware changes.
17.
To support Windows Aero, which of the following is not true?

A.
You need to have a color depth of 32 bits per pixel.
B.
You need to have a refresh rate of less than 10 hertz.
C.
You need to set a Windows Aero theme.
D.
You need to have Windows frame transparency on.
Answer: B
You need to have a refresh rate that is higher than 10 hertz.
18.
What is the minimum WEI score for your system to support Windows Aero?
A.
1.0
B.
2.0
C.
3.0
D.
4.0
Answer: C
For Windows 7 to support Windows Aero, you must have a Windows Experience Index of 3.0 or
higher.
19.
Which command enables you to manage your partitions and volumes?

A.
diskpart
B.
scandisk
C.
defrag
D.
fdisk
Answer: A
The two main programs or utilities to manage your volumes and partitions are the diskpart command
and the disk management console.
20.
Which of the following describes the system volume?

A.
The volume that contains the Windows boot files
B.
The volume that contains the Windows operating system
C.
The Z drive
D.
The fastest drive
Answer: A
As strange as it sounds, the system volume contains the Windows boot files, whereas the boot
volumes contains the Windows operating system.
21.
How many disks do you need to create RAID0?

A.
One
B.
Two
C.
Three
D.
Four
Answer: B
RAID0 is called stripping, which uses 2 to 32 disks to create a single volume that is spread out
through all of the disks. Because it is spread out throughout all the disks, the spanned disk provides
better performance.
22.
How many drive letters can Windows 7 support for disks, excluding the floppy disks?
A.
B.
16
C.
24
D.
32
Answer: C
Because there are 26 letters in the alphabet and two are reserved for floppy disks, you are limited to
24 drive letters (C through Z).
23.
How can you ensure that a single user does not use too much disk space?
A.
Defrag the hard drive.
B.
Establish disk quotas.
C.
Run the disk cleanup tool.
D.
Schedule the disk cleanup tool with the /q option.
Answer: B
To limit how much space a user can use within a volume, use disk quotas.
24.
What is the default subnet mask for the host address of 172.32.32.67?
A.
255.0.0.0
B.
255.255.0.0
C.
255.255.255.0
D.
255.255.255.255
Answer: B
The 172.32.32.67 address is a class B address and a private address. The default subnet mask for
a class B address is 255.255.0.0.
25.
What is the CIDR notation for the 255.255.240.0 subnet mask?

A.
/18
B.
/20
C.
/22
D.
/24
Answer: B
If you translate 255.255.240.0 to binary, you have 11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000. Because
there are 20 bits masked, the CIDR notation is /20.
26.
Which of the following is NOT a private address?

A.
172.31.34.7
B.
10.31.0.1
C.
192.168.3.39
D.
172.32.32.32
Answer: D
The private address is assigned 10.x.x.x, 172.16.x.x to 172.31.x.x, and 192.168.0.x and
192.168.255.x. The 172.32.32.32 does not follow any of those ranges.
27.
What service can you use that translates from computer/NetBIOS names to IP addresses?
A.
DNS
B.
WINS
C.
DHCP
D.
NAT
Answer: B
To translate from the NetBIOS computer names, you use WINS, which is short for Windows Internet
Name Service.
28.
Which command is used to show all TCP/IP configurations including the DNS and WINS servers
used by the host?
A.
ipconfig
B.
ipconfig /all
C.
ipconfig /flushdns
D.
ipconfig /registerdns
Answer: B
The ipconfig /all command is used to display full TCP/IP configuration information.
29.
What command would you use to release the IPv6 address handed out by a DHCP server?
A.
ipconfig /all
B.
ipconfig /release
C.
ipconfig /release 6
D.
ipconfig /flushdns
Answer: C
The ipconfig /release6 releases the IPv6 address configured by a DHCP server.
30.
If you have a wireless access point configured to use Temporary Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP)
security and you are using pre-shared keys, which option should you choose to connect to the
wireless access point?
A.
WPA2-Enterprise
B.
WPA2-Personal
C.
WPA-Enterprise
D.
WPA-Personal
Answer: D
WPA uses TKIP encryption. Personal uses pre-shared keys.
31.
A user connects to your corporate network using a VPN. What do you call it when the user can
access an intranet resource through the VPN while surfing the Internet without going through the
corporate VPN but while connected through the VPN?
A.
Split tunneling
B.
NAT
C.
Name resolution
D.
DHCP
Answer: A
Split tunneling is the process of allowing a remote VPN user to access a public network such as the
Internet at the same time that the user is allowed to access resources through the VPN.
32.
You need to configure multiple computers with the least amount of administrative effort to connect to
your wireless network. What should you do?
A.
Manually configure each computers wireless adapters.
B.
Save the wireless network settings to a USB device and apply it to each computer.
C.
Copy the wireless network settings to a shared folder and access the configuration
from the share folder on each laptop.
D.
Copy the wireless network settings to the hard disk of each of the new computers.
Answer: B
You can save the information to a USB device and then use the device to copy the configuration to
each computer.
33.
Which account is automatically created and disabled when you install a fresh copy of Windows 7?
A.
Administrator
B.
Administrators
C.
RemoteIdentity
D.
PowerUser
Answer: A
The built-in administrator account provides access to files, directories, and service. The
Administrator and Guest accounts are disabled by default.
34.
What enables you to store credentials such as user names and passwords that you use to log on to
a website or other computers and that can be used to log you in automatically?
A.
Password Cache
B.
DLL Library
C.
Credential Manager
D.
Password Capture
Answer: C
Credential Manager enables you to store credentials so that you can use them in the future.
35.
What is the first thing you need to do to enable auditing on some printers?
A.
Enable user auditing.
B.
Enable user quotas.
C.
Enable object auditing.
D.
Enable ACL auditing.
Answer: C
Files, folders, and printers are examples of objects. Therefore, the first step in enabling auditing for a
printer, file, or folder is that you must enable object auditing.
36.
Which of the following file systems is the most secure?

A.
FAT
B.
FAT32
C.
NTFS
D.
VFAT
Answer: C
NTFS is the only one that provides security features such as encryption and NTFS permissions and
the capability to use transaction tracking to keep the file system reliable.
37.
Which permission always wins out?

A.
Explicit
B.
Inherited
C.
Full Control
D.
Deny
Answer: D
The Deny permission always overrides the permissions that have been granted, including when a
user or group has been given full control.
38.
How do you prevent someone from connecting a USB drive to a corporate laptop and copying
sensitive data to the USB drive?
A.
Use group policies.
B.
Use NTFS permissions.
C.
Use disk quotas.
D.
Use rights.
Answer: A
By using group policies with Windows 7, you can block the automatic installation of USB storage
devices on the computers.
39.
In which folder do you find x86 programs on a 32-bit version of Windows?

A.
C:\Program Files
B.
C:\Program Files (x86)
C.
C:\Windows
D.
C:\Windows\System32
Answer: A
The Program Files folder is the default program to contain programs that are not part of Windows.
40.
What enables you to encrypt an entire volume?

A.
BitLocker
B.
FAT32
C.
EFS
D.
PAP
Answer: A
BitLocker is designed to help protect all of the personal and system files of the drive that Windows is
installed on if your computer is stolen.
41.
The Documents library includes the My Documents folder and _______.

A.
The All Documents folder
B.
Public Documents
C.
Favorites
D.
The Administrator folder
Answer: A
The Documents library includes the My Documents folder and the Public Documents folder.
42.
Which of the following is NOT a folder-sharing technology available in Windows 7?

A.
Public Sharing
B.
Basic Sharing
C.
NFS
D.
Advanced Sharing
Answer: C
The three types of sharing available in Windows 7 are Public Sharing, Basic Sharing, and Advanced
Sharing. NFS sharing is associated with UNIX machines.
43.
You share a couple of folders in your Windows 7 computer. Unfortunately, they are not visible on
anyones network map so that users can find the shares easily. What is most likely the problem?
A.
You need to enable the Network Discovery service.
B.
You did not give the proper NTFS permissions.
C.
You did not give the proper Share permissions.
D.
You did not register your system in your DNS server.
Answer: A
To vie the computer using network map, you need to have the Link Layer Topology Discovery (LLDT)
operational. Therefore, you need to have the Network Discovery service enabled. This is done using
the Network and Sharing Center.
44.
You have a shared folder on an NTFS volume. What is the best way to share folders and lock it
down?
A.
Set Everyone to have full control share permissions and lock it down with NTFS
permission.
B.
Set Everyone to have full control NTFS permissions and lock it down with Share
permissions.
C.
Set Everyone to have full control NTFS and share permissions and lock it down with
file attributes.
D.
Lock it down with both share and NTFS permissions.
Answer: A
With Microsofts best practices, you should grant full control to Everyone and use NTFS to lock it
down.
45.
What do you call the component that holds and forwards the print jobs that are sent to the physical
printer?
A.
The printer driver
B.
The spooler
C.
The PrintTemp folder
D.
The Processor area
Answer: B
The printer spooler is often referred to as a queue, which accepts each document being printed,
stores it, and sends it to the printer device when the printer device is ready.
46.
You have a print job that you cannot delete, and it does not finish. What should you try?
A.
Restart the printer.
B.
Restart the Server service.
C.
Restart the print spooler.
D.
Make sure the printer is connected.
Answer: C
If the print spooler becomes unresponsive or you have print jobs that you cannot delete, you should
try to restart the Print Spooler service.
47.
What do you call a package of multiple SHIMs bundled together by Microsoft?

A.
An MSI package
B.
An XP Package
C.
A Microsoft Application Compatibility Toolkit
D.
A Microsoft Application Reconfig Kit
Answer: C
In new versions of Windows, Microsoft includes numerous SHIMs or minor fixes that are used to
improve compatibility with existing non-Microsoft software. Microsoft analyzed the application and
provided an application compatibility SHIM. These SHIMs are bundled together with the Microsoft
Application Compatibility Toolkit.
48.
You upgraded your computer running Windows XP with SP2 to Windows 7 Professional. What
should you do when you run the PickUp.exe program and you receive the following error: This
application is only designed to run on Windows XP or later.
A.
You should run the application with elevated privileges.
B.
You should run the application in VGA mode.
C.
You should install Windows XP mode and run the application under Windows XP
mode.
D.
You should make sure your machine has all the Windows updates.
Answer: C
When an application that was written for an older version of Windows does not run under Windows
7, you should try compatibility mode or run the application under Windows XP mode.
49.
What can you use to easily invoke an online service by using only the mouse?
A.
Cookies
B.
ActiveX
C.
Accelerators
D.
SmartScreen Filter
Answer: C
An accelerator is a form of selection-based search that allows a user to invoke an online service
from any page using only the mouse.
50.
How do you remove the stored passwords from a computer?

A.
On the Security tab in Internet Options, set the Internet zone security to High.
B.
On the Privacy tab in Internet Explorer, set the level to Medium.
C.
On the Privacy tab in Internet Options, set the level to High.
D.
In Explorer, click Tools, and then click Delete Browsing History. Click Delete
passwords.
Answer: D
To delete saved passwords in Internet Explorer, you must delete the browsing history.
51.
What technology in Internet Explorer is used to protect you from spoofed sites that might try to trick
you into divulging confidential information?
A.
Protected mode
B.
Phishing filter
C.
Junk mail filter
D.
Fake Site filter
Answer: B
Some sites are created to look as other sites that are used to lure people to divulge confidential
information. Because these sites are fishing for information, these sites are referred to as phishing.
52.
Which edition of Windows 7 enables you to sync with network folders?

A.
B.
Windows 7 Starter
C.
D.
Answer: C
The capability to sync with network folders is not included in Windows 7 Starter, Windows 7 Home
Basic, and Windows 7 Home Premium.
53.
You want to view someones Event Viewer without logging directly onto that persons computer.
What option should you use?
A.
System Information
B.
C.
System Information tool
D.
Remote Management console
Answer: B
By using the Computer Management console, you can connect to remote computers to manage
viewing the Event Viewer.
54.
You need to give a presentation using your mobile computer. When you connect the project to the
computer with an S-Video cable, how do you get the Desktop to display on the projector?
A.
Open Display Settings. Select the icon that represents the project. Then, select the
This is my main monitor option.
B.
Open Display Settings. Select the icon that represents the laptop display. Then,
clear the Extend the desktop onto this monitor option.
C.
Clear the Lock the taskbar option of the taskbars context menu. Drag the taskbar
as far to the right as possible.
D.
Clear the Lock the taskbar option of the taskbars context menu. Drag the taskbar
as far to the left as possible.
Answer: A
If you want to use the projector as the main monitor, open the display settings in the Control Panel.
Then, select the icon that represents the project and make it the main monitor.
55.
What program is used to directly connect to a network projector?

A.
Remote Desktop
B.
Remote Assistance
C.
Remote Projector
D.
Remote SideShow
Answer: C
A network projector is a video project thats connected to a wireless or wired local area network
(LAN). What sets the network projector apart from other presentation methods is that you can
connect to and operate the project remotely over a network connection. If your computer can
connect to the project, you can deliver a presentation from any location that has network access,
whether its your private office or a configure room where the project is located.
56.
How large does your USB drive have to be to make use of ReadyBoost?
A.
256 MB
B.
512 MB
C.
1 GB
D.
2 GB
Answer: B
USB flash devices that can be used with Windows ReadyBoost include USB 2.0 flash drives, Secure
Digital (SD) cards, and CompactFlash cards. These devices must have sufficiently fast flash memory
and be at least 512 MB or larger in size.
57.
What should the minimum WEI be if you want to support multiplayer 3-D gaming and recording and
playback of HDTV?
A.
2.0
B.
3.0
C.
4.0
D.
6.0
Answer: D
A computer with a base score of 6.0 or 7.0 has a faster hard disk and can support high-end,
graphics-intensive experiences, such as multiple and 3-D gaming and recording a playback of HDTV
content.
58.
What tool can you use to increase the number of processors used during boot?
A.
Computer Management Console
B.
System Information
C.
D.
IIS
Answer: C
If you start System Configuration, click the Boot tab and clicked the Advanced Options button.
59.
You are going to upgrade a couple of applications, and you want to backup all system and data files.
What should you use?
A.
Create a System Image Backup.
B.
Use System Restore.
C.
Use previous versions of files.
D.
Use System Configuration.
Answer: A
System Image Backup, sometimes referred to as the Complete PC Backup, is a copy of the system
drives required for Windows to run and is one of the fastest ways to restore your hard drive. It can
also include additional drives.
60.
You have a computer running Windows 7 with C and D drives. Both hard drives are formatted with
NTFS file system. You need to disable the previous versions on the D drive. What should you do?
A.
Modify the Quota settings.
B.
Modify the Sharing settings.
C.
Use the Disk Management snap-in.
D.
Modify the System protection settings from System properties.
Answer: D
To enable or disable what is affected by System Restore and previous versions, you must use the
System Protection Settings from System Properties.
Exam 5
1.
Which edition of Windows 7 is the minimum needed to fully support HomeGroups and DVD video
playback and authoring?
A.
Windows 7 Home Starter
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
HomeGroup and DVD video playback and authoring are supported by Windows Home Premium,
Windows 7 Professional, and Windows Enterprise. The minimum is Windows 7 Home Premium.
2.
You click the Internet Explorer button on the taskbar, which provides a list of recently opened items.
What do you call this list?
A.
Notification list
B.
Jump list
C.
Quick Launch
D.
Shortcut menu
Answer: B
A jump list is a list of items you go to frequently. Jump lists appear on the Start menu next to pinned
programs and recently used programs. The jump list can contain recently opened items and items
you have pinned to the jump list. You can also add jump lists to the task bar.
3.
What is the maximum amount of memory that Windows 7 Home Premium 64-bit can recognize?
A.
2 GB
B.
4 GB
C.
8 GB
D.
16 GB
Answer: D
Windows 7 Home Premium 64-bit can recognize up to 16 GB. Windows 7 Home Basic 64-bit can
recognize up to 8 GB and 64-bit versions of Windows 7 Ultimate, Enterprise, and Windows 7
Ultimate can recognize up to 192 GB.
4.
What is the minimum amount of free disk space you need to install a 32-bit version of Windows 7
Ultimate edition?
A.
10 GB
B.
20 GB
C.
40 GB
D.
50 GB
Answer: C
To install most 32-bit versions of Windows 7, you need 40 GB of free disk space.
5.
What kind of upgrade can you perform from Windows Vista Home Premium 32-bit to Windows 7
Home Premium 64-bit?
A.
In-Place Upgrade
B.
Custom Install
C.
Replace Upgrade
D.
Enhanced Upgrade
Answer: B
Because you are not upgrading different versions, you have to do a custom install, which will not be
able to upgrade all application and user settings.
6.
After you install Windows 7, Windows limits its function after 30 days if you dont
__________________.
A.
Run Windows updates.
B.
Add yourself to the local administrators group.
C.
Activate Windows.
D.
Run the Compatibility toolkit application.
Answer: C
Most copies of Windows need to be activated after installation. If not, you are not able to do anything
with Windows after 30 days except activate it.
7.
A.
Migration toolkit
B.
Xcopy
C.
Windows Explorer
D.
USMT
Answer: D
Windows Easy Transfer (WET) and User State Migration Took (USMT) can help you migrate data
8.
these tools provides a graphical program to migrate settings?
A.
USMT
B.
WET
C.
Windows Explorer
D.
Magic Migrate
Answer: B
The Windows Easy Transfer (WET) is a graphical program that enables you to transfer one users
profile or multiple user profiles. You cannot use WET to move program files or system files.
9.
Which command do you use to remove the security identifiers and all other user-specific or
computer-specific information from the computer before you clone a computer?
A.
sysprep
B.
WinPE
C.
Oscdimg
D.
ImageX
Answer: A
If you create a cloned copy of Windows and apply the cloned copy to multiple computers, each copy
of Windows cloned to a target computer using the same image has the same parameters, such as
the same computer name and security identifier (SID). Unfortunately, for these computers to operate
properly on a network, these parameters have to be unique. The command sysprep overcomes this
problem by removing the security identifier and all other user-specific or computer-specific
information from the computer.
10.
When migrating a server between two Windows 7 computers, what command do you use to
determine the amount of space needed to accomplish the migration?
A.
scanstate with the /nocompress /p option on the source computer.
B.
scanstate with the/nocompress /p option on the target computer.
C.
scanstate with the /copyraw /p option on the source computer.
D.
scanstate with the /copyraw /p option on the target computer
Answer: A
store. The /p option gives you space estimation if used with the /nocompressed option.
11.
What option do you use with imagex.exe to capture a volume image from a drive to a new .wim file?
A.
/append
B.
/apply
C.
/export
D.
/capture
Answer: D
The /capture option is used to capture a volume image from a drive to a new .wim file.
12.
What tool do you use to add a virtual hard disk with Windows 7 to your Windows boot menu?
A.
Use the diskpart command.
B.
Use the Disk Management console.
C.
Use the BCDboot command.
D.
Use the BCDedit command.
Answer: D
For Windows Vista and Windows 7, the boot menu is configured using the vcdedit command, which
edits a hidden file called bcd. To add a VHD manually to the boot menu, you would also use the
BCDedit command.
13.
Where do you add a computer to a domain?

A.
Device Manager
B.
C.
System applet in the Control Panel
D.
Display settings.
Answer: C
Every computer should have a unique computer name. To change the computer name and\or
domain name (join to a domain), you would open System in the Control Panel.
14.
How do you determine which edition and version of Windows 7 you are using?
A.
Use the Task Manager.
B.
Use the Start menu.
C.
Use the System properties.
D.
Use the Notification area.
Answer: C
To quickly see the version of Windows 7 you are using, use System properties.
15.
How would you manage the devices installed inside your computer such as expansion cards?
A.
Devices folder
B.
Devices and Printers folder
C.
Device Manager
D.
Plug and Play folder
Answer: C
To find devices that are connected to your computer but are not listed in the Devices and Printers
folder, look in the Device Manager, which lists all the hardware installed inside your computer and
devices connected externally.
16.
What command can you use to verify that your drivers are properly signed?
A.
Use the sigverif command.
B.
Use the scandisk command.
C.
Use the Task Manager.
D.
Use the Verification toolkit.
Answer: A
You can use the signature verification program (Sigverif.exe) to verify that your drivers are properly
signed.
17.
Which of the following is not a requirement to use Windows Aero?

A.
The display adapter driver must follow the Windows 7 Display Driver Model
(WDDM).
B.
The display adapter must support DirectX 9.
C.
The display adapter must support Pixel Shader 2.0.
D.
The display adapter must support up to 1920 x 1200 screen resolution.
Answer: D
The display adapter must be able to support DirectX9 with Pixel Shader 2.0 and Windows 7 Display
Driver Model (WDDM). If you wish to support a screen resolution of 2000 x 1000, you need to have
sufficient video memory.
18.
Which registry hive stores the settings specific to a local computer?

A.
HKEY_CURRENT_USER
B.
HKEY_USERS
C.
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
D.
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
Answer: C
The HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE stores settings that are specific to the local computer and includes
what drivers are loaded, which software packages are installed, and system-wide settings.
19.
What do you need to be able to extend a hard drive in Windows 7?

A.
The volumes must exist on a Basic disk.
B.
The volumes must exist on a Dynamic disk.
C.
The disk needs to use MBR.
D.
The disk needs to use GPT.
Answer: B
Dynamic disks enable you to shrink and extend volumes on the fly without any third-party utilities.
20.
What is usually the %systemroot%?

A.
C:\
B.
C:\Windows
C.
C:\WINNT
D.
C:\Windows\system32
Answer: B
The %systemroot% or systemroot indicates the folder into which Windows 7 is installed. It is located
on the boot partition. By default, the Windows 7 system root directory is C:\Windows.
21.
What is the maximum number of disks you can use with RAID0?
A.
B.
C.
16
D.
32
Answer: D
RAID0 is called stripping, which uses 2 to 32 disks to create a single volume that is spread out
through all of the disks. Because it is spread out through all of the disks, the spanned disk provides
better performance.
22.
How can you add another volume to a computer that has no more drive letters available?
A.
Graft two volumes together and assign them both to the same drive letter.
B.
Use mount points.
C.
Merge two volumes together and assign them both to the same drive letter.
D.
Start using double drive letters.
Answer: B
When you prepare a volume, you can assign a drive letter or create a mount point. A mount point is
grafted into a folder on another drive letter. When you go into that folder, you are jumping to the new
volume.
23.
How do you check for errors on a volume?

A.
Run the chkdsk driveletter: command.
B.
Run the scandisk driveletter: command.
C.
Run the defrag driveletter: command.
D.
Run the check driveletter: command.
Answer: A
You should periodically use the Check Disk tool (chkdsk) to check the integrity of a disk.
24.
What is 2027::3ff4:932b:65bb called?

A.
MAC Address
B.
WEP key
C.
IPv4 address
D.
IPv6 address
Answer: D
The 2027::3ff4:932b:65bb is an IPv6 address. It is short for
2027:0000:0000:0000:0000:3ff4:932b:65bb.
25.
What technology hides multiple private addresses behind a single public address so that multiple
people can access the Internet at the same time?
A.
MASK
B.
REAL
C.
NAT
D.
DNS
Answer: C
To allow private addresses to connect to the Internet, use a router that supports Network Address
Translation (NAT), also known as IP masquerading, which translates between the internal private
addresses and the public Internet addresses.
26.
Which type of IPv6 addresses are equivalent to IPv4 public addresses so they are globally routable
and reachable on the IPv6 portion on the Internet?
A.
B.
Link-local addresses
C.
Unique local addresses
D.
Multicast addresses
Answer: A
If you need to assign a computer directly to the Internet, you want to configure a computer with an
IPv6 address that is equivalent to a public IPv4 address. Therefore, you need a global unicast IPv6
address.
27.
What is used to assign IP addresses to your hosts?

A.
DNS
B.
WINS
C.
DHCP
D.
NAT
Answer: C
The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is used to automatically configure a host during
bootup on a TCP/IP network.
28.
What command is used to clear all local entries for the DNS cache?
A.
B.
ipconfig /flushdns
C.
ipconfig /register
D.
/ipconfig /renew
Answer: B
The ipconfig /flushdns purges the DNS resolver cache.
29.
What command do you use to query a DNS server for a name translation to an IP address?
A.
ipconfig
B.
ipconfig /flushdns
C.
D.
nslookup
Answer: D
The nslookup command displays information that you can use to diagnose your DNS infrastructure.
30.
What is the maximum speed for 802.11b?

A.
2 Mbps
B.
11 Mbps
C.
54 Mbps
D.
110 Mbps
Answer: B
802.11b uses a 2.4-GHz transmission frequency and supports speeds up to 11 Mbps.
31.
Where do you enable split tunneling when you create a VPN connection?
A.
Right-click a VPN connection, and then click Properties. Click the Networking tab,
and open the Advanced option for the Internet Protocol 4 (TCP/IP4). Then, deselect the Use
default gateway on remote network.
B.
Right-click the VPN connection, and then click the split-tunnel option.
C.
Right-click the VPN connection, select Advanced options, and then, select the splittunnel option.
D.
Right-click the VPN connection, select Properties, and then, select the split-tunnel
option.
Answer: A
To create a split tunnel, you need to right-click a VPN connection, and then click Properties. Next,
select the Networking tab, and double-click the Internet Protocol Version 4 (TCP/IP4). Click the
Advanced button, and then deselect Use default gateway on remote network.
32.
To protect a tunnel created with L2TP, what protocol do you use to provide encryption?
A.
MPPE
B.
IPSec
C.
SSTP
D.
CHAP
Answer: B
To provide security for L2TP, use IPSec.
33.
What authorizes a user to perform certain actions on a computer such as backing up files and
directories or performing a system shutdown?
A.
Permission
B.
Right
C.
Authentication key
D.
Fingerprints
Answer: B
A right authorizes users to perform certain actions on the computer such as logging on to a system
interactively, logging on locally, backing up files and directories, performing a system shutdown, and
adding or removing device drivers.
34.
Where do you find the Users console?

A.
Accessories
B.
Maintenance folder
C.
Control Panel
D.
System properties
Answer: C
To create and manage users in Windows 7, you need to open the Users console from the Control
Panel.
35.
Where do you look to see information gathered through auditing?

A.
B.
Registry Editor
C.
Logs folder
D.
Event Viewer
Answer: D
If auditing is enabled, the security logs in the Event Viewer will contain the events captured.
36.
Which standard NTFS permission allows you to read files and folders, execute files, write and
modify files, delete files and folders, and change attributes of files and folders.
A.
Modify
B.
List Folder Contents
C.
Read
D.
Execute
Answer: A
With the Modify permission, the user can read files and folders, execute files, write and modify files,
delete files and folders, and change attributes of files and folders.
37.
When you copy a file from a folder in the C drive to a folder in the D drive, which permissions will the
file retain?
A.
Permissions assigned to the source folder.
B.
Permissions assigned to the target folder.
C.
No permissions.
D.
Full permissions to Everyone.
Answer: B
When you copy from one drive to another, it retains permissions assigned to the target folder.
38.
You add Pat to the DataUsers group, then to the Management group. Which permission does Pat
receive?
A.
The permissions for the DataUsers group
B.
The permissions for the Management group
C.
The permissions for the Data Users and Management groups
D.
No permissions
Answer: C
When a user is assigned to groups, the user receives the permissions assigned to the group. These
permissions are cumulative unless a Deny permission is assigned.
39.
What would you use to search remote data stores?

A.
Library
B.
Local index
C.
Search connector
D.
Top views
Answer: C
A search connector is an XML-based file used to search remote data stores.
40.
What is used for quick searches on your hard drive?

A.
XML Search file
B.
Index
C.
Search cache
D.
File Hash
Answer: B
Windows uses the index to perform fast searches of the most common files on your computer.
41.
What technology was released with Windows 7 to make it easier for home users to share files and
printers?
A.
EasyShares
B.
HomeGroup
C.
UserShares
D.
PrivateShare
Answer: B
A HomeGroup makes it easier to share files and printers on a home network. You can share
pictures, music, videos, documents, and printers with other people in your HomeGroup.
42.
Where is the Public folder located?

A.
C:\Public
B.
C:\Inetpub\Public
C.
C:\Users\Public
D.
C:\My Documents
Answer: C
The Public folder is designed to enable users to share files and folders from a single location quickly
and easily. It is located at C:\Users\Public.
43.
What technology is designed to reduce traffic (including web and file-sharing traffic) between two
remote sites, specifically the central site and smaller remote site?
A.
Distributed File System
B.
Proxy server
C.
IIS
D.
BranchCache
Answer: D
BranchCache caches files on a remote site after it communicates with the central office so that in the
future it can use the cache to provide files without always going to the central office.
44.
Which special or administrative share is used during remote administration of a computer and for
viewing a computers shared resources?
A.
NetLogin
B.
Print$
C.
C$
D.
IPC$
Answer: D
The ADMIN$ and IPC$ are both used by the system during remote administration of the computer.
45.
By default, which printer permission is assigned to the Everyone group?

A.
Allow Print
B.
C.
D.
Allow Full Control
Answer: A
The Print permission allows users to send documents to the printer.
46.
Where is the print spooler kept on a computer running Windows 7?

A.
C:\Windows\spool
B.
C:\spool
C.
C:\Windows\System32\Spool\Printers
D.
C:\Windows\Spool\Printers
Answer: C
By default, the spool folder is located at %SystemRoot%\System32\Spool\Printers.
47.
Which of the following tools can be used to restrict what applications a user can run on Windows 7?
A.
Applocker in group policies
B.
System Configuration tool
C.
D.
Computer Management Toolkit
Answer: A
You can use group policies to restrict which software can be used on a computer, specifically
software restriction policies and AppLocker.
48.
Which of the following is NOT a requirement to run Windows XP mode?

A.
2 GB of memory
B.
A video card with 512 MB of memory
C.
A processor and motherboard that support hardware virtualization
D.
15 GB of additional free disk space
Answer: B
To run Windows XP mode, you need a computer that is capable of hardware virtualization (Intel-VT
or AMD-V virtualization) and a BIOS that supports hardware virtualization. Virtualization must also
be enabled in the BIOS Setup program. It is also recommended that you have 2 GB of memory and
an additional 15 GB of hard disk space per virtual Windows environment.
49.
How can you configure Internet Explorer to automatically delete temporary Internet files when you
close Internet Explorer?
A.
Modify the properties of the Recycle Bin.
B.
Modify the security level of the Internet zone.
C.
Create a script, and execute it with Task Scheduler.
D.
Modify the advanced settings from the Internet Options.
Answer: D
If you go into Advanced settings in Internet Options, you can configure Internet Explorer to
automatically delete temporary files.
50.
What can be done to notify you when a website has change?

A.
Configure autoupdate with IIS.
B.
Configure dynamic update with IIS.
C.
If a website supports RSS, you can configure an RSS feed.
D.
Close Internet Explorer, and restart it.
Answer: C
RSS feeds are used to get automatic updates and notifications when a website posts something
new.
51.
Which tab do you use from Internet Options to delete cookies and temporary files?
A.
General
B.
Security
C.
Privacy
D.
Connections
Answer: A
The General tab is where you can delete temporary files, history, cookies, saved passwords, and
web form information.
52.
You have a folder that you want to make available offline. What do you need to do?
A.
Share a folder and ensure that the Allow caching of files in this shared folder check
box is selected.
B.
Map a network drive to the folder and select the cached option.
C.
Use the cache command.
D.
Grant the cache permission to the user.
Answer: A
After you share a folder, make sure that you select the Allow caching of files in this folder.
53.
Which of the following is NOT a way to send an invitation to a user to connect using Remote
Assistance?
A.
Save the invitation to a file.
B.
Use e-mail to send an invitation.
C.
Use the Publish in Active Directory Invitation.
D.
Use Easy Connect.
Answer: C
You can invite someone you trust by saving the invitation to file, using e-mail to send an invitation,
and using Easy Connect. You cannot send an invitation using Active Directory.
54.
You have a Bluetooth-enabled handheld device that you want to connect to your laptop. What do
you need to do?
A.
Configure the passkey and ensure the device is discoverable.
B.
Configure the appropriate wireless security method and ensure that the device is
discoverable.
C.
Turn on the network Discovery and configure the passkey.
D.
Configure the passkey and ensure that the mobile device is Wi-Fi-enabled.
Answer: A
When you configure a Bluetooth-enabled handheld device, you need to enable Bluetooth and assign
a passkey.
55.
What program gives you quick access to process and memory utilization and which programs use
the processor and memory?
A.
Windows Task Manager
B.
Performance Monitor
C.
Windows Experience Index
D.
Event Viewer
Answer: A
A common tool used to quickly view systems performance is the Windows Task Manager.
56.
You insert a flash drive and discover that you cannot make use of all the memory on the USB flash
device when configuring ReadyBoost. What do you think the problem is?
A.
The USB flash drive has slow flash memory.
B.
The USB flash drive has fast flash memory.
C.
The USB flash drive has both slow and fast flash memory.
D.
The USB flash drive does not meet with the minimum requirements to configure
ReadyBoost.
Answer: C
To get the benefit of ReadyBoost, your USB device needs to use fast flash memory. Therefore, if you
insert a USB flash device that consists of slow flash memory, ReadyBoost will use only the fast flash
memory.
57.
You have a user who has had problems during the last few weeks. You need to identify the cause of
the problem. Therefore, you want to look at the historical view of workstation performance and see
when the problem first started. What should you do?
A.
You should use Performance Monitor.
B.
You should use the Reliability Monitor.
C.
You should use a System Diagnostics Data Collector Set.
D.
You should use the Resource Overview tool.
Answer: B
The two places to look for a history of problems are the Event Viewer and the Reliability Monitor.
58.
Windows fails to start. What can you use to load the minimal set of Windows drivers and services so
that you can troubleshoot the problem?
A.
Safe mode
B.
WinPE
C.
Windows Backup
D.
System Information
Answer: A
Safe mode starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services. While in Windows Safe mode,
you can access the Control Panel, Device Manager, Event Viewer, System Information, Command
Prompt, and Registry Editor.
59.
System Restore do NOT back up which of the following?

A.
Registry
B.
COM+ and WMI Information
C.
IIS metabase
D.
Data files created by a user
Answer: D
System Restore backs up the registry, DLL, cache folder, user profile, COM+ and WMI information,
IIS metabase, and certain monitored files. It does not back up data files.
60.
What can you use to delete all System Protection snapshots on a computer running Windows 7?
A.
You should run Disk Defrag.
B.
You should run Disk Cleanup for System Restore and Shadow Copies.
C.
Restore files from the previous versions.
D.
Restore files using System Restore.
Answer: B
Disk cleanup enables you to remove old copies of System Restore and Shadow Copies.
*
1.
Which edition of Windows includes DirectAccess and BranchCache?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: A
Windows 7 Enterprise is targeted for managed environments, mainly large enterprises. It includes all
features that Windows 7 offers, including BitLocker, BitLocker To Go, AppLocker, DirectAccess, and
BranchCache.
2.
How much memory does a 32-bit version of Windows 7 support?

A.
1 GB
B.
2 GB
C.
4 GB
D.
8 GB
Answer: C
A 32-bit version of Windows is based on a 32-bit address bus, which can use up to 4 GB of memory.
3.
Which of the following does NOT include Aero?

A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
Aero is not included in Windows 7 Home Basic or Windows 7 Starter.
4.
What is the minimum processor that you need to install Windows 7 Home Basic, 32 bit?
A.
800 MHz
B.
1 GHz
C.
1.2 GHz
D.
2.0 GHz
Answer: B
To install Windows 7 Home Basic, you need to have a 1 GHz processor. However, a faster
processor gives you better performance.
5.
What do you call a minimal 32-bit or 64-bit version of Windows 7 that you can use in a DVD to install
or repair the Windows operating system?
A.
Windows PE
B.
Windows Basic
C.
Windows Min
D.
Windows Bare
Answer: A
Windows PE is a minimum 32-bit or 64-bit operating system with limited services built on the
Windows 7 kernel. It can be used to install and repair Windows and can be useful if your system
does not boot.
6.
What tool is used to determine if your computer can run Windows 7?

A.
Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor
B.
Program Compatibility Troubleshooter
C.
D.
Application Compatibility Manager
Answer: A
If you are not sure if your system is ready to run Windows 7, you can use the Windows 7 Upgrade
Advisor, which can be downloaded from the Microsoft website.
7.
Where do you find the previous operating system, user data, and programs if you install Windows 7
on a hard disk volume that contains an existing Windows installation?
A.
C:\Windows\Backup
B.
C:\Windows\System32\Archive
C.
C:\Windows.OLD
D.
C:\Windows.BAK
Answer: C
When you perform a clean installation of Windows 7 on a volume that contains an existing Windows
installation, assuming you did not reformat the volume, the previous operating system, user data,
and program files are saved to the Windows.OLD folder.
8.
A.
Migration toolkit
B.
Windows PE
C.
Internet Explorer
D.
WET
Answer: D
Windows Easy Transfer (WET) and User State Migration Tool (USMT) can help you migrate data
9.
these tools is a command-line tool that provides this functionality?
A.
USMT
B.
WET
C.
Windows Explorer
D.
Magic Migrate
Answer: A
While the Windows Easy Transfer program is a graphical program, the User State Migration Tool
(USMT) is a scriptable command-line tool that is highly customizable. Because it a scriptable
command-line tool, it is usually used to automate migration during large deployments of the
Windows 7 operating system.
10.
What can you use to automate the installation of Windows 7 using the Microsoft Windows 7 DVD?
A.
Create an answer file named autounattend.xml and copy it to a USB drive.
B.
Create an answer file called winnt.sif file and copy it to the USB drive.
C.
Create an answer file and copy it to the C:\ folder.
D.
Create an answer file and copy it to the system BIOS.
Answer: A
To perform an automated installation of Windows 7, the installation process automatically looks for
the autounattend.xml file on the DVD or USB drive.
11.
Which option used with the sysprep command restarts the computer in Windows Welcome mode,
enabling you to customize the Windows operating system, create user accounts, and name the
computer?
A.
/generalize
B.
/oobe
C.
/reboot
D.
/quiet
Answer: B
The /oobe option, short for out-of-box experience, restarts the computer in Windows Welcome
mode, which enables end users to customize the Windows operating system.
12.
What script do you use to create an image of a Windows 7 computer on multiple CDs?
A.
Span.cmd
B.
WinPE.cmd
C.
AIK.cmd
D.
Createspannedshares.cmd
Answer: D
If you have an older system that does not have DVD drives, but does have CD-ROM drives, you can
use the createspannedshares.cmd script to create spanned media, which then breaks the DVD into
multiple CDs. The createspannedshares.cmd is part of the Windows Automated Installation Kit
(AIK).
13.
What is the primary tool to manage and configure Windows 7?

A.
Registry Editor
B.
Windows Explorer
C.
Control panel
D.
Answer: C
The primary program to configure Windows is the Control Panel. You can change the name of the
computer, modify user profiles, create users and groups, change the display settings, change the
power settings, and many other options.
14.
Where do you enable IIS in Windows 7?

A.
Registry Editor
B.
Windows Explorer
C.
Programs in the Control Panel
D.
Answer: C
You can enable and disable Windows features by clicking Programs in the Control Panel and then
clicking Turn Windows features on or off.

15.
What type of device enables you to connect it to Windows 7 and then automatically configure itself
for use?
A.
Free device
B.
Plug and play device
C.
PCI device
D.
Signed device
Answer: B
Plug and play refers to the capability of a computer system to automatically configure expansion
boards and other devices. You should be able to plug in a device and play with it without worrying
about setting DIP switches, jumpers, and other configuration elements.
16.
What tool do you use to disable a device?

A.
Windows Explorer
B.
Regedit
C.
Add/Remove Drivers
D.
Device Manager
Answer: D
To disable a driver, you open Device Manager. You can then either right-click the device to
disable it or open the properties of the device to disable it.
17.
What is a combination of pictures, colors, and sounds on your computer that describes your desktop
look and feel?
A.
Windows Scheme
B.
Windows Saturation
C.
Power schemes
D.
Theme
Answer: D
A theme is a collection of visual elements and sounds for your computer desktop.
18.
Where do you go to stop and disable a service?

A.
Accessories
B.
C.
System Tools
D.
System32 folder
Answer: B
Services are managed with the Services console, which is also part of the Computer Management
console. Both of these are found in the Administrative Tools.
19.
Where do you find the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security?

A.
B.
Registry Editor
C.
Program Manager
D.
File Manager
Answer: A
The Administrative Tools include the Computer Management console, Event Viewer, Local Security
Policy, services console, Task Scheduler, and Windows Firewall with Advanced Security.
20.
You have a new 5-GB hard drive. Which partitioning style do you have to use?
A.
MBR
B.
GPT
C.
EFI
D.
BIOS
Answer: B
you must use GPT
21.
You just connected a large USB drive. You try to make it a dynamic disk, but the option is not
available to you. What is the problem?
A.
You dont have the correct drive loaded.
B.
The drive is disabled.
C.
Dynamic disks are not supported on USB disks.
D.
The drive needs to be powered on.
Answer: C
Dynamic disks are supported on SCSI, IDE, Fiber Channel, and Serial Storage Architecture (SSA).
They are not supported on USB, Firewire/IEEE 1994, and removable disks.
22.
You want Windows 7 to implement RAID 1. What do you need to do?

A.
Enable Write caching on the first disk.
B.
Enable Write Caching on the second disk.
C.
Convert the basic disk to dynamic disks.
D.
Convert the dynamic disk to basic disks.
Answer: C
RAID 1, or disk mirroring, needs two disks. In addition, both disks must be dynamic disks.
23.
Where do you find the Disk Management console?

A.
Control Panel
B.
C.
Device Manager
D.
Regedit
Answer: B
The Disk Management console is an MMC console that is included in the Computer Management
console.
24.
Which of the following gives you the best read access performance?
A.
Simple disk
B.
Spanned disk
C.
Mirrored disk
D.
Stripped disk
Answer: D
Stripped volumes can improve the speed of access to the disk because data is spread across
multiple disks. However, it does not provide fault tolerance. If one disk fails, you lose the entire
volume.
25.
What is the default subnet mask for a host with the address of 220.67.34.87?
A.
255.0.0.0
B.
255.255.0.0
C.
255.255.255.0
D.
255.255.255.255
Answer: C
The 220.67.34.87 is a class C address. Therefore, the default subnet mask is 255.255.255.0.
26.

A.
B.
16
C.
24
D.
32
Answer: D
An IPv4 address is 32 bits. To make it easier to work with, it is usually expressed in four 8-bit octets,
each octet ranging from 0 to 255 (an example is 172.24.4.23).
27.
What type of IPv6 address is used by hosts when communicating with neighboring hosts on the
same link?
A.
B.
Link-Local addresses
C.
Unique local unicast addresses
D.
Multicast addresses
Answer: B
Link-Local addresses are used by hosts when communicating with neighboring hosts on the same
link. By using Link-Local addresses, you can have one network device communicate with another
network to figure out its surrounding without any configuring.
28.
What command is used to configure and monitor various network parameters on a computer running
Windows 7 including configuring IP addresses and default gateways?
A.
net
B.
netsh
C.
nslookup
D.
ipconfig
Answer: B
The netsh command can be used to configure and monitor various networking parameters including
configure IP addresses, default gateway, DNS servers, interfaces, routing protocols, and filters.
29.
What command is used to test network connectivity to another host?

A.
ipconfig
B.
ping
C.
nslookup
D.
netstat
Answer: B
The ping command uses the ICMP protocol to verify connections to a remote host.
30.
If you have a wireless access point configured to use Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) security
and you are using digital certificates, which option should you choose to connect to the wireless
access point?
A.
WPA2-Enterprise
B.
WPA2-Personal
C.
WPA-Enterprise
D.
WPA-Personal
Answer: A
WPA2 uses AES encryption. WPA-Enterprise uses digital certificates.
31.
When connecting to a wireless network, what is used to identify the wireless network?
A.
AES
B.
SSID
C.
TKIP
D.
Digital certificate
Answer: B
The SSID, short for service set identifier, is a unique identifier attached to the header or packet sent
over a wireless network.
32.
Which VPN does Windows 7 NOT support?

A.
PPTP
B.
IPSec with IPSec
C.
SSTP
D.
CISP
Answer: D
Windows 7 supports PPTP, LTP with IPSec, SSTP, and IKEv2. Therefore, it does not support CISP.
33.
When using authentication, which of the following authentication methods is the least secure?
A.
PAP
B.
CHAP
C.
MS-CHAPv2
D.
EAP-MS-CHAPv2
Answer: A
PAP is short for Password Authentication Protocol, which sends the password in plain text
(unencrypted).
34.
What defines the type of access granted to an object or object attribute?

A.
Permission
B.
Right
C.
Authentication key
D.
Fingerprints
Answer: A
A permission defines the type of access granted to an object or object attribute. An object can be a
file, folder, printer, or user account. An attribute might be a persons phone number or address in the
user account.
35.
What feature helps prevent unauthorized changes to a computer running Windows 7 by a program?
A.
UAC
B.
USB
C.
GMT
D.
ActiveX
Answer: A
User Account Control (UAC) is a feature that can help prevent unauthorized changes to your
computer.
36.
How do you enable auditing in Windows?

A.
B.
Open the System Properties through the Control Panel.
C.
Use the Users console in the Control Panel.
D.
Use group policies.
Answer: D
You can enable auditing in Windows using group policies including local policies.
37.
What is the minimum standard NTFS permission to change permissions of a file or folder?
A.
Full Control
B.
Modify
C.
Read
D.
Write
Answer: A
To change permissions and take ownership, you need to have the Full Control permission.
38.
When you move a file from a folder in the C drive to a folder in the D drive, which permissions does
the file retain?
A.
B.
C.
No permissions
D.
Answer: B
When you move from one drive to another, the file retains permissions assigned to the target folder.
39.
You have several data folders on your computer running Windows 7. You would like to view them as
one folder while still keeping them separate. What should you do?
A.
Create a search connector.
B.
Create a library.
C.
Create an index.
D.
Create a local profile.
Answer: B
Libraries are virtual folders that link two or more folders so that they can be viewed as one.
40.
Which search tool is NOT a method for Windows 7 to search for files?
A.
The search box on the Start menu
B.
The search box located at the top of the open window
C.
The search box at the top of the library
D.
The search box in the desktop
Answer: D
Windows 7 has several ways to perform searches including the Start menu, open windows, and
libraries.
41.
What do you do to recover EFS encrypted files if the encryption key is lost or damaged?
A.
Right-click the file and click recover.
B.
Use an EFS Recovery Agent to update the encrypted file.
C.
Convert to BitLocker.
D.
Convert to BitLocker To Go.
Answer: B
A recovery certificate is a special Encrypting File System (EFS) certificate you can use to recover
encrypted files if your encryption key is lost or damaged. You need to create the recovery certificate,
install it, and then update previously encrypted files with the new recovery certificate.
42.
You have a shared folder on an NTFS volume. Which one of the following statements is true?
A.
A user who accesses the folder remotely has the same or more restrictive access
permissions than if she accesses the folder locally.
B.
A user who accesses the folder remotely has less restrictive access permissions
C.
A user who accesses the folder remotely has the same access permissions than if
she accesses the folder locally.
D.
A user who accesses the folder remotely has more restrictive access permissions
Answer: A
When you access a computer remotely through the share, you include the share permissions and
NTFS permissions that can restrict access. When you access the local folder directly, only the NTFS
permissions apply. Therefore, they can have the same or more restrictive access if both are applied.
43.
Which of the following is NOT a share permission for a standard shared folder in Windows 7?
A.
Full Control
B.
Change
C.
Modify
D.
Read
Answer: C
The three share permissions are Full Control, Change, and Read.
44.
Which mode of BranchCache has the cache data reside on local clients at the remote site?
A.
Distributed Cache
B.
Hosted Cache
C.
Proxy Cache
D.
Link Cache
Answer: A
The BranchCache caches files on a remote site after it communicates with the central office so that
it the future it can use the cache to provide without going to the central office. Distributed Cache is
distributed across client computers in the branch.
45.
What permission do you have to give for a user to change the configuration of a printer?
A.
B.
C.
Allow Full Control for Documents
D.
Allow Modify for Printers
Answer: A
The Allow Manage Printers allows you to modify printer settings and configuration including the ACL.
46.
You add a printer directly to the network using a built-in Ethernet card. Now you want to load the
printer onto your computer. Which of the following is true?
A.
The printer is considered a local printer.
B.
The printer is considered a network printer.
C.
The printer needs to be moved so that it can be plugged directly into the Windows
computer.
D.
The printer needs to be assigned a name such as http://servername/printername.
Answer: A
When you connect to the network printer, you install the printer as a local printer and use the Create
a New Port Wizard to create a standard TCP/IP port.
47.
If you print a document and get garbled text, what is most likely the problem?
A.
The print spooler becomes unresponsive.
B.
The printer is not using the right ink-cartridge.
C.
The printer has not been calibrated.
D.
You are using the incorrect driver.
Answer: D
If you have the incorrect print driver, you get strange characters, garbled characters, or snippets of
program code.
48.
Which of the following is NOT a rule you can create with software restrictions?
A.
Hash
B.
Path
C.
Certificates
D.
Location
Answer: D
The four types of rules used with software restrictions include hash, certificate, path, and zone.
49.
Where do you configure an individual application to run as an administrator?
A.
Using local security policy
B.
The System Configuration Tool
C.
The Computer Management Tool
D.
The Application Compatibility Options under the application properties
Answer: D
If you right-click the executable and select properties, you can select the Compatibility tab to
configure what OS to run under, 256 colors, 640x480 resolution, and privilege level.
50.
You have a website that appears not to display properly. What can you do for the website to display
properly?
A.
Enable an accelerator.
B.
Enable a SmartScreen Filter.
C.
Enable Compatibility Mode.
D.
Enable a RSS feed.
Answer: C
Websites designed for earlier versions of Internet Explorer might not display correctly in the current
version. Often, you can improve how a website looks in Internet Explorer by using Compatibility
View.
51.
You have a website that is too hard to read because it is too small. What can you do?
A.
You need to decrease the screen resolution.
B.
You need to increase the screen resolution.
C.
You need to decrease the zoom level for the tab.
D.
You need to increase the zoom level for the tab.
Answer: D
When you have trouble seeing a website because its content is too small, you can use the zoom
feature.
52.
Which of the following do you NOT find in the Mobility Center?

A.
Volume
B.
Presentation Settings
C.
Display Settings
D.
External Display
Answer: C
The Mobility Center includes Volume, Battery Status, Wireless Network, External Display, Sync
Center, Presentation Settings, and Screen Rotation. Display Settings is not in the Mobility Center.
53.
You are ready to give a presentation using your computer running PowerPoint. What should do you
prepare your system for the presentation?
A.
Create a second hardware profile, reboot the computer, and load the second
hardware profile.
B.
Shut off your e-mail messengers, change your volume control, change your screen,
and disable the screen savers and sleep features.
C.
Create a second user profile and configure the profile for presentations and logins
as the user to give the presentation.
D.
Configure your Presentation Settings and turn on Presentation Settings.
Answer: D
The best way to give presentations is to configure Presentation Settings with the Mobility Center and
turn the Presentation Settings on when you are ready to give the presentation.
54.
Which version of Windows 7 does NOT support Remote Desktop Hosting?

A.
B.
C.
Windows 7 Ultimate
D.
Answer: A
You cannot use Remote Desktop Connections to connect to computers running Windows 7 Starter,
Windows 7 Home Basic, Windows 7 Home Premium, and you can only create outgoing connections
from these editions of Windows 7. Only Windows 7 Professional, Ultimate, and Enterprise editions
support Remote Desktop Hosting.
55.
To connect to a computer using Windows Remote Desktop, what group do you need to be a
member of on the remote computer?
A.
Guests
B.
Power users
C.
Remote Desktop Users
D.
Power Users
Answer: C
All administrators are automatically given the necessary permission to use Windows Remote
Desktop. For other users, you must add them to the Remote Desktop Users group.
56.
Which technology is used to improve the performance of computers using a USB flash drive?
A.
ReadyBoost
B.
ReadyCache
C.
ReadyDrive
D.
ReadyUp
Answer: A
Windows ReadyBoost boosts system performance by using USB flash devices as additional sources
for caching.
57.
If you want to see if you are running out of physical memory, which counter should you use?
A.
CPU utilization
B.
Pages\sec
C.
Network utilization
D.
Interrupts\sec
Answer: B
To see how much paging takes place between RAM and the paging file, you use the pages\sec. A
high value indicates that you need to utilize paging more often, which means you are running out of
physical memory.
58.
In Windows 7, what can be used to quickly determine if your antivirus is up to date and if Windows is
patched?
A.
Event Viewer
B.
Action Center
C.
Reliability Monitor
D.
System Information
Answer: B
Action Center is a central place to view alerts and take actions that can help keep Windows running
smoothly.
59.
What tool can be used to thoroughly test memory?

A.
B.
System Information
C.
Memory Diagnostic Tool
D.
Safe Mode
Answer: C
Windows 7 has multiple diagnostic tools including a Memory Diagnostic Tool and Network
Diagnostic Tool.
60.
What should you do if you made changes to the video refresh rate on your computer and the display
does not work properly?
A.
Run the SysEdit tool.
B.
Reinstall Windows.
C.
Reboot the system with the emergency repair disk.
D.
Press the F8 key during the boot sequence, and select Last Known Good
Configuration.
Answer: D
If you load a driver and your machine does not boot properly, you can access the advanced boot
menu and try Last Known Good Configuration.
primary partitions, extended partitions, and logical drives.
Basic Input / Output System (BIOS)

The firmware application encoded in a computer that initializes the computer before the operating system is loaded. The
BIOS manages basic hardware configuration.
Battery Meter
A small application that runs on mobile computers and displays the percentage of battery power as well as power plan
currently in use.
BCDboot
A command line tool that enables you to manage and create new boot configuration data (BCD) stores and BCD boot
entries.
Bcdedit
A command line tool that enables you to manage BCD stores in Windows Vista/7/Server 2008.
BitLocker
A feature of Windows 7 enterprise and Ultimate that enables you to encrypt the entire contents of your system or data
partition. It is useful for protecting data stored on laptops, which are susceptible to theft.
BitLocker to Go
A component of BitLocker that is new to Windows 7 and enables you to encrypt the contents of a USB flash drive or portable
hard drive.
BranchCache
A new feature of Windows 7 that enables users to rapidly access data from remotely located file and web servers.
BranchCache enables users at a small branch office to cache copies of frequently accessed files from head office servers on
a local computer.
Built-in Group
A predefined local group that is granted specific rights and privileges on the local computer.
Cache
A space on the computer's hard disk that is set aside for holding offline copies of shared files and folders from a computer on
the network.
Certificate
A method of granting access to a user based on unique identification. Certificates represent a distinctive way to establish a
user's identity and credentials. They originate from a certification authority (CA). Internet Explorer uses these certificates so
that the user can verify that he is accessing the proper website.
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

An authentication protocol that uses a hashed version of a user's password so that the user's credentials are not sent over
the wire in clear text.
Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR)

A flexible method of stating IP address and masks without needing to classify the addresses. An example of the CIDR format
is 192.168.1.0/24.
Compatibility View
A feature of Internet Explorer 8 that enables websites designed for earlier versions of Internet Explorer to display properly in
Internet Explorer 8.

An application that provides access to several of the most commonly used administrative tools such as Task Scheduler,
Event Viewer, Local Users and Groups, Performance Monitor, Device Manager, Services and several others.
Content Advisor
A component of Internet Explorer that enables you to control what internet content users can view on a Windows 7 computer.
Credential
The information provided by a user or computer to gain access to another network resource. Credentials include usernames, passwords, certificates, and other personal identification information.
Credential Manager
A Windows 7 utility that stores credentials for logging on to resources such as websites, terminal servers, and applications.
This utility stores credentials in an electronic Windows vault that makes them available for facilitated logon to these types of
resources.
Data Collection Sets

A component of Performance Monitor that records computer performance information into log files. This feature was known
as Performance Logs and Alerts in Windows 2000/XP/Server 2003.
Data Recovery Agent

A specially configured user account that has the ability to decrypt drives and partitions that been encrypted using BitLocker.
Decryption
Unscrambling the data in an encrypted file through use of an algorithm so that the file can be read.
Default Gateway
The term applied to the router that leads to other networks.
Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM)

A command line tool that enumerates, installs, uninstalls, configures and updates system images.
Deployment Server
The default mode of WDS in Windows Server 2008 R2, this mode deploys Windows 7 installations within a domain
environment using AD, DS, DNS, and DHCP.
Destination Computer
A computer on which Windows 7 together with applications has been freshly installed and to which user settings and data are
to be restored using the USMT.
Device Driver
The specialized software component of an operating system that interfaces with a particular hardware component.
Device Manager
A tool from which you can manage all the hardware devices on your computer.
Differencing VHD
Also known as child VHD, a VHD that contains only the differences between it and its parent VHD.
Direct Memory Address (DMA)

The process of data bypassing the CPU and accessing RAM directly, designated as channels; for example a floppy drive
uses DMA channel 2.
DirectAccess
A new feature of Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008 R2 that enables users to directly connect to corporate networks from
any Internet connection using a seamless, bidirectional, secured tunnel without the need for a virtual private network (VPN)
connection.
Disk Cleanup
A program that checks your hard disk for old, temporary, or repetitive folders and files and enables you to remove these
items to free up additional disk space. It includes a dialog box that enables you to select which folders should be removed.
Disk Management Snap-In

A Microsoft Management Console snap-in that enables you to perform all management activities related to disks, partitions,
and volumes.
DiskPart
A command line tool that enables you to perform all management activities related to disks, partitions, and volumes. You can
use this tool to script actions related to disk management.
Distributed Cache
A mode of BranchCache in which each branch office client computer stores its own copy of files cached from the head office
server which making them available to other users in the same branch office who requests the same file.
Domain Name Services (DNS)

A hierarchical naming system that is contained in a distributed database. DNS provides name resolution for IP addresses
and DNS names.
Driver Signing
The digital signature that Microsoft adds to a third party device driver to validate its usage.
Dynamic Disk
A disk partitioning scheme supported by Windows 2000/XP/Vista/7 as well as Windows Server 2003/2008 R2 that contains
dynamic volumes.
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

The protocol in the TCP/IP protocol stack that negotiates the lease on an IP address from the DHCP server.
Dynamic VHD
A VHD that gradually increases in size towards a configured maximum as data is added to it.
Encrypting File System (EFS)

an advanced attribute setting of Windows 2000/XP/Vista/7 and Windows Server 2003/2008 R2 for files and folders on an
NTFS-formatted volume that provides certificate-based public key security for those files and folders. EFS encrypts and
decrypts files in a manner that is transparent to users.
Encryption
Scrambling and rearranging data in a file through use of an algorithm so that the file cannot be read.
Event Log Subscription
An Event Viewer feature that enables you to collect event logs from a number of computers in a single, convenient location
that helps you keep track of events that occur on these computers.
What replaced the Quick Launch toolbar?

Pin to Taskbar
Where do you place gadgets in Windows 7?

Desktop
Which feature enables you to minimize all windows except the one on which you want to focus?
Aero Shake
Which is not a library that is included with Windows 7?

Movies
What Windows 7 feature replaces the Security Center found in Windows Vista?
Action Center
In Windows 7, what is designed to replace VB Script for scripting and performing actions?
PowerShell
Which edition is available as a volume license only?

Enterprise
Which editions of Windows 7 can be added to an Active Directory Domain?
Pro
Which edition of Windows 7 supports AppLocker?

Ultimate (and Enterprise)
Which edition of Windows 7 is designed for low-end mobile devices, usually sold through OEMs?
Windows 7 Starter
What is the minimim amount of memory for a 32-bit version of Windows 7?

1GB
What is the minimum disk space to install the 64-bit version of Windows 7?
20GB
What is the minimum processor to install tthe 32-bit or 64-bit version of Windpws 7?
1GHz
What is the maximum amount of memory that the 32-bit version of Windows 7 Home Basic supports?
4GB
What is the maximum amount of memory recoginized by the 64-bit version of Windows 7 Enterprise and Ultimate editions?
192GB
You need to upgrade Windows XP Professional to Windows 7 Professional while keeping user and application settings. How
should you proceed?
Upgrade to Window Vista followed by upgrading to Windows 7
Which components of Windows 7 allows you to enhance performance of the system by using USB flash drives or Sd memory
cards?
Ready Boost
Which keys are used to zoom out when the screen is magnified?
Windows + -
_____ is used with Windows Search to enable you to search Windows SharePoint sites, intranets, and specific Internet sites
from the Windows Explorer interface?
Federated Search
____ is an extension of Wake on LAN that works with wireless networks.

Wake on Wireles LAN
_____ causes Windows 7 to render all the windows on the desktop transparent, enabling you to see any gadgets on the
desktop underneath.
Aero Peek
_____ GPOs are administrative templates with preconfigured settings that administrators can use as a baseline for creating
new GPOs.
Starter
What software can you use to check if your machine can be successfully upgraded to Windows 7?
Windows Upgrade Advisor
What tool can be used to migrate user settings from a computer running Windows XP to a computer running Windows 7?
USMT
What replace the MS-DOS boot disks for fixing and troubleshooting a wide range of boot problems on a Windows Vista or 7
system?
Windows PE
Which of the following is not a feature of Windows PE?

A. Internal networking support
B. Internal NTFS support
C. Boot a virtual DOS enviornment
D. Scripting language support
Where would you find a copy of Window PE?

Windows 7 AIK
Which of the followng is NOT a new feature of Windows PE 3.0?

A. A Windows imaging format that allows itself to be edited.
B. Window PE 3.0 is smaller than previous versions
C. Windows PE supports Hyper-V
D. Windows PE allows direct modification of the BIOS
Which of the following is NOT a use for Windows PE?

A. Custom deployments
B. System troubleshooting
C. Providing quick file server capability
D. System Recovery
You have a 3rd party controller card for your drivers. How do you install the drivers during installation?
Click the Load Driver button when the Windows Installation program asks, "Where do you want to install Windows?"
A(n)______ is a series of folders associated with a specific user that contains personal documents, user-specific registry
setting, Internet favorites , and other personalized information.
User profile
You need to migrate user setting from one computer to a new computer with Windows 7. What type of migration is this?
Side-by-Side migration
You need to migrate user settings to a network share, performa clean installation of Windows 7 on a computer, and migrate
the user settings from the network share computer. What type of migration is this?
Wipe-and-load
What graphical program allows you to transfer user profile data from one computer to another?
Windows Easy Transfer
What is a USB cable that can be used to connect two Windows computers together solely for the purpose of using the
Windows Easy Transfer program?
Easy Transfer cable
Where do you find yhe Windows Easy Transfer program to use with your Windows 7 machine?
Microsoft's website
Which program allows you to migrate user setting from one computer to a computer running Windows 7 using a command
line interface?
USMT
What does the USMT use to keep track of the migration process?
XML files
What program do you use to determine if your machine can be upgraded to Windows 7?
Upgrade Advisor
What are the steps to upgrade a 32-bit version to a 64-bit version of Windows?
It cannot be upgraded
You have a computer with Windows XP, which is installed on the entire C drive. You now want to Install Windows 7 onto the
computer and make it a dual boot. What can you do?
use a third-party tool to shrink the Windows XP partition
If you install Windows 7 on a wolume that has Windows XP, where do you find the old Windows files?
Windows.old folder
What do you call a Windows PE on a computer with Windows 7 already installed that allows you to troubleshoot and fix if the
computer fails to start?
Windows RE
What stops a user from using Windows PE as a permanent operating system?

It reboots after 72 hours
What is the default folder to which Windows is installed?

c:\Windows
What is the agreement that you have to accept when installing Windows?
EULA
What folders hold the user profiles on a system with Windows 7?

c:\users
Windows 7 contains a _____ architecture that makes it easier to install multilingual support on a computer.
MUI
Which of the following is NOT an objective when performing a large-scale Windows 7 deployment?
A. Creating standardized computing software enviornments
B. Minimzing amount of user interaction required at workstation
C. Standardizing the computing hardware environments
D. Minimizing the interruption of user productivity
What do you call a template for a workstation configuration that contains all the software the workstation requires?
Reference computer
You are getting ready to deploy Windows 7 to multiple enterprise workstations. What do you use to hold the information
captured from the reference computer?
Image file
What is a graphical utility that installers can use to create ditribution shares and answer files that automate and customize
Windows 7 installations?
Windows SIM
What is an XML script that provides the Windows 7 Setup program with the information it needs to perform an unattended
installation?
answer file
What is a command line tool that installers can use to capture, modify, and apply image files in the Windows Imaging format?
ImageX.exe
What is a command line tool that installers can use to mount, edit, and upgrade image files in the Windows Imaging format?
DISM.exe
What is a command line program that installers can use to prepare Windows 7 computers for imaging, auditing, and
deploymeny including preparing a reference computer?
Sysprep.exe
What tool is a superset of Windows 7 AIK that enables you to perform lite-touch installation and zero-touch installation?
Microsoft Deployment Toolkit 2010
What can be installed on Windows Server 2008 that enables installers to deploy Windows Imaging files to workstations over
the network?
WDS
What parameter do you use with the sysprep command that configures Windows 7 to present the Windows Welcome
interface the next time the computer starts?
/oobe
You have a Windows image file for Windows 7. You need to add a device driver to the image file. What utility should you
use?
DISM.exe
To add drivers to an image using DISM.EXE, what file must you include?
.inf file
Which type of image contains all of the elements of a workstation configuration, including applications drivers, updates, and
all configuration settings?
Thick images
Which type of image contains a basic install WIM image file?

Thin images
What command is used to partition a format disk?

Diskpart.exe
What technology enables a computer to transmit the same data to multiple destinations at the same time?
Multicasting
What is the file-based disk image format used to deploy its latest Windows operationg system releases, Windows 7, and
Windows Server 2008?
WIM
Which script is used to create the Windows PE build?

Copype.cmd
What option is used with the imageX.exe to capture an image from a reerence computer?
/capture
What technology do you use to boot the server over the network to perform an installation over the network?
PXE
What is a customized boot image that you burn to a disk that enables a workstation to boot Windows PE and connect to the
WDS server?
Discover image
What software replaces the Package manager that was available with the Windows AIK associated with Windows Vista?
DISM
What option do you use with the dism command to mount an image to a folder?
/mount-wim
What basic network service is necessary to deploy an install image using WDS?
DNS
What is the default partition style used in Windows 7?
MBR
What is the largest disk that MBR supports?

2 TB
What is the maximum number of primary partitions that MBR supports?

Four
What is the largest disk that GPT supports?

18 EB
What is the maximum number of primary partitions that GPT supports?

128
To support GPT, what computer architecture does your computer need to support?
EFI
Which type of disk uses primary partitions, extended partitions, and logical drives to organize data?
Basic disk
You are starting to run out of free disk space on a drive. What tool can you use to free up some disk space?
Disk Cleanup
What tool can you use to defragment your volumes by recopying fragmented files to contiguous space on the disk?
Disk defragmentation
What tool can you use to search for and fix disk errors?
check disk
What do you call a device driver that includes a digital signature that ensures that the device driver comes from the authentic
puplisher and that someone has not maliciously altered it?
signed driver
What is the primary tool to manage devices and their drivers?

Device manager
You just installed a new driver for you scanner and now the scanner does not function at all. What should you do?
Roll back the driver
Which of the following is NOT a requirement to shrink a basic disk partition?

A. The existing partition pr volume must not be full
B. The partition or volume must not be a raw partition
C. The volume is NTFS
D. The volume is not using compression
What type of disk supports an unlimited number of volumes?

Dynamic disk
What type of volume support is based on RAID1?

Striped volume
What is the maximim number of volumes you can assign to a striped volume?
32
Which is the preferred file system used in Windows 7?

NTFS
What is the main tool or utility that you use to manage your disk?
Disk management
What is the quickest way to access the Disk Management console?

Which of the following is NOT a basic requirement to extend a partition on a basic disk?
Read chapter 4 quiz question 14
What is used to determine if a signed driver has been altered?

Checksum
____ are the rules or language in which networking is possible.

protocols
What type of connection does an unsheilded twisted pair (UTP) cable use?
RJ45
What layer of the OSI model covers the cabling and electrical signaling?
physical
What layer of the OSI model are the Media Access Control addresses part of?
Data-link
What is the primary protocol used by Windows to communicate over a network?

TCP/IP
On which layer of the OSI model is IPv4 adressing included?

network
What is used to specify which bits of an IPv4 address are used for the network identifier and which bits are used for the host
identifier?
subnet mask
In what class is the address 156.43.75.212?

class b
What is the default subnet mask for 198.54.653?

255.255.255.0
What is used avoid assigning entire addresses of a particular class to networks that didn't have thjat many hosts?
CIDR
If you have an IPv4 address of 123.54.34.77 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0, what is the CIDR notation?
/20
Which of the following is NOT an IPv4 private address range?

224.0.0.0 through 224.255.255.255
What would a corporation use to allow private IPv4 adresses to communicate with the internet?
NAT
What address is assigned to a computer that fails to locate a DHCP server?

APIPA
What server automatically assigns IP addresses?

DHCP
What type of address is the FCC0:0:0:0B5D:FF:BE3B:F4F7:3311?

IPv6
What type of address defines a single network interface in a computer or other device?
Unicast
Which type of IPv6 address is unique throughout the IPv6 universe?

Global
What type of address mechanism is a tunneling protocol that enable computers to transmit IPv6 packets through NAT routers
that do not support IPv6?
Teredo
TCP is considered a ______ protocol.

Connection-oriented
What do you call codes that identify specific applications running on the system?
Ports
What utility or tool allows you to view and manage all your network connections?
Network and sharing center
What is a software routine that acts as a virtual barrier between a computer and the network to which it is attached?
Firewall
What command is used to test network connectivity between two hosts?

Ping
What are privileges granted to a specific system entity, such as users, groups, or computers, which enable them to perform a
task or access a resource?
permissions
What is used to store permissions?

ACL
What do you call permissions that run downward through a hierarchy?

inheritance
You copy several files from one folder to another folder within the same drive. What permisssions do the files in the
destination folder have?
the same as the target folder permissions
You copy several files from one folder to another folder in different drive. What permissions do the files in the destination
folder have?
the same as the target folder permissions
You move several files from one folder to another folder within the same drive. What permissions do the files in the
destination folder have?
The same permissions as the had in the source folder
You move several files from one folder to another folder in a different drive. What permissions do the files in the destination
folder have?
The same permissions as the had in the source folder
True or false? Allow Full Control takes precedence over all other permissions granted.
False
True or false? Explicit permissions take precedence over inherited permissions.

True
True or False? Allow permissions are cumulative?

True
Which NTFS permission allows you to take ownership of a folder on an NTFS volume?
Full control
Which NTFS permission allows you to navigate through restricted folders to reach other files and folders?
read and execute
Which of the sharing methods places all the shared folders in a single location?
public folder sharing
Which type of sharing is new to Windows 7?

Homegroup sharing
By default, what type of acces is given to all users who join a workgroup?
read-only
What virtualized folders enable users to access files form different locations as if they were all in the same place?
Libraries
What do you need to do to activate Public folder sharing?

Enable network discovery and Public folder sharing in the Netwrok and Sharing centre
How do you share a folder so that it is invisible to users browsing the network?
Add a dollar sign to the share name
What is the minimum permissions that allows you to add files to a shared folder?
change
You have a PC named PC1. You have a c:/Data folder that is shared as Data. You log on directly to PC1 and access the
c:\Data folder using Windows Explorer. Which permissions apply?
NTFS permisssions combined with Share permissions as most restrictive
What do you call a device driver that converts the print jobs generated by applications into an appropriate string of
commands for a specific print device?
Print driver
What do you call the set of commands that a printer understands in order to
Printer control language
You want to configure the printers sp that if an executive and an office worker print at the same time, the executive print job
prints first. How do you do this?
Configure 2 print jobs and configure priorities
What permission must a user have to print to a printer?

Print
You have a printer that is heavily used. You want to add a second printer and have users print to both printers at one. What
do you need to do?
Create a printer pool
Which version of Internet Explorer comes with Windows 7?

IE 8
What is included with with IE8 that enables the browser to display older pages properly?
compatibility view
Which add-on enables users to send text or other media that you select in an IE browser window to another application, such
as an email client, or an Internet resource, such as a blog?
Accelerators
What is based on a push technology used with IE that notifies you when a web site is changed?
RSS
What is used to help prevent attackers that penetrate the computer's defense from accessing vital system components?
protected mode
What configures IE to only low-integrity disk locations, such as the Temporary internet files and the standard IE storage
areas, including the History, Cookies, and Favorites folders?
Protected mode
You are visiting a Web site that worked fine with IE6 on XP. You suspect it is not compatible with IE8's protected mode. What
should you NOT do when troubleshooting this problem?
Run IE as a domain administrator (quiz 7)
Which of the following is NOT an available security zone found in IE?

A. Internet
B. Custom Sites
C. Local Intranet
D. Trusted Sites
Which security zone in IE provides the most elevated set of privileges?

Trusted sites
Which security zone used in IE is used for all web sites that are not listed in the other 3 zones?
Internet
Which security zone used in IE and usually used by local web sites does not run in protected mode and has significant
access to the systemm including the ability ri run certain scripts?
Local Intranet (quiz 7)
What technology is used with IE8 to help defend against phishing?

SmartScreen Filtering
What feature in IE 8 enables you to surf the internet without leaving any record of your activities?
InPrivate filtering
You open Internet Options in IE8. Which tab do you use to enable or disable the pop-up blocker?
Privacy
What is used in IE and is a text file that contains information about you and your web-surfing habits that a Web site maintains
on your computer?
Cookie
How do you know if you are using SSL while browsing with IE?
You have a gold lock in the address bar
When using SSL communications, the public key is stored in a ____.

Digital Certificate
What program that comes with Windows 7 is a wizard-based solution that users or administrators can use to automatically
configure an executable file to use an appropriate Windows 7 compatibility mechanism?
Program Compatibilty Troubleshooter
When you open the properties of an executable file, which of the following is NOT a compatibility mode setting?
A. Run in 640x480 screen res
B. Run as Administrator
C. Run in Black and White
D. Run in 256 colors
You have a program that ran on your XP with SP2. You try to install the program on Windows 7, but it does not run. What
should you try 1st?
Configure a Windows emulation mode
A compatibility fix, formerly known as a _______, is a software component that sits between an application and the operating
system.
shim
What specialized program collects compatibility information for web pages and web-based applications?
Internet Explorer Compatibility Test Tool
If you have a program that ran in XP but does not in Windows 7, what should you load to run the program?
Windows XP mode
Software Restriction policies and AppLocker are configured through ________.

Group Policies
To keep Windows reliable and secure, you must download and install Windows ______ on a regular basis.
Updates
What is a Windows update that addresses a specific problem or issue with Windows?
Hotfix
A _____ is a cumulative set of all updates for a particular operating system version, usually going back to its original release
and are extensively tested.
Service pack
Which of the following is used to download Windows updates using the network's idle bandwidth?
A. BITS
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. NTTP (quiz 8)
______ is a program that downloads updates from the Microsoft Update Website, stores them for administrative evaluation,
and deploys the updates when they are released by the administrators.
WSUS (quiz 8)
The best way to configure the WSUS client is through _____.

Group Policies
______ is a set of extensions to the Windows Driver Model that provides an operating system interface through which
instrumented components provide information and notification interface to managed resources in Windows and it is used to
create scripts to configure performance parameters.
WMI (quiz 8)
Logs are traditionally text files, but the Windows operating systems have long usd a graphical application called ___ to
display the log information gathered by the operating system.
Event Viewer
Which of the following is NOT a traditional type of Windows log?

A. Application
B. Security
C. System
D. Installation (quiz 8)
You can use the _____ console on one computer to connect to another computer and display its logs.
Event viewer
What system rating quantfies capabilities of Windows 7 computer by breaking it down into categories and assigning each
one a rating?
WEI
What tool can display information for hundreds of different statistics in a variety of ways so you can geta thorough picture of
how well your system is performing?
Performance monitor
To capture counter statistics in the Performance Monitor console for later review, you must create a(n)_____.
DCF (quiz 8)
What tool automatically tracks events that can have a negative effect on system stability and used them to calculate a
stability index?
Reliability monitor
What program quickly shows the current processes and how much memory each process takes?
Task manager
What program displays a more comprehensive breakdown of process and performance statistics than the task manager
does?
Resource monitor
What program is used to configure and troubleshot the Windows 7 startup process?
System configuration tool
_____ is known as virtual memory in Windows 7.

Paging files
Which of the following is used to increase a computer's memory capacity using nonvolatile memory in the form of a USB
flash drive or a flash memory card?
ReadyBoost
What is a caching routine that enables Windows 7 to restore user access to applications faster than Windows Xp?
SuperFetch
ReadyBoost requires a computer with USB 2.0 interface and a ______ or larger flash drive.
256 MB
What service or program does WSUS require to operate?

IIS (quiz 8)
A computer is considered to be working too hard if the processor utilization is consistently more than ___%.
80
_____ enable administrators to receive events from other computers (called sources) in the Event Viewer console on thier
own computers (called collectors).
Subscriptions
______ is the process of verifying the identity of the person operating the computer.
Authentication
______ is the process of granting an authenticated user a specific degree of access to specific computer data resources.
Authorization
_____ enable users to perform specific operating system tasks such as shut down the system or perform backups?
User rights
_____ enable the user to manage, configure, or perform certain tasks on an object?
Permissions
A ___ is an entity that represents a collection of users or computers?

group
What is a collection of computers that are all peers?

Workgroups
What is a collection of computers that all utilize a central directory service for authentication and authorization and is usually
associated with Active Directory?
Domains
What program do you use to manage fully all local users and group accounts ona computer running Windows 7?
Computer management Console
_______ is a series of folders asscoiated with a specific user account that contains personal documents and personal
setting.
User profile
Which type of user profile is automatically created when a user logs on the computer for the first time and is store on the
computer's local hard drive?
Local user profile
Which type of user profile is stored on a shared server drive, which makes it accessible form anywhere on the network?
Roaming user profile
Which type of user profile is stored on a network share but does not allow changes to be saved?
Mandatory user profile
What technology helps prevent software from making changes to your system without your knowledge?
UAC
When accessing an object, the ____ lists each user that can access the object and what each user can do with the object?
ACL
Which group includes all members of the Authorized Users group plus the guest user account?
Everyone
What program or component includes user accounts?

Control Panel
Which program is an MMC snap in: Control Panel, Registry Editor, Local Users and Groups or System Configuration
Local user and groups
Which tab would you use to configure a login script or a mapping to a home drive and folder when using the Local Users and
Groups snap-in?
Profile
Which of the following do y ou have to create the same user account for on each computer that the user needs to access?
A. NFS
B. Workgroups
C. Domains
D. Groups (quiz 9)
What is a collection of logical objects that represent various types of newtwork resources such as computers, users and
groups?
Directory service
What is Microsoft's directory service called?

AD
Which account is designed for users that require only temporary access to the computer and is disabled by default?
Guest
What do you call it when you are loading an application and you get a credential prompt that makes the rest of the screen
dull and unclickable?
Secure desktop
What do you call the process that tries every combination of characters, numbers or symbols until a password is guessed?
brute force
What option is used to make sure a user does not reuse the same password when changing a password?
Enforce Password History
What option enables strong passwords on a Windows 7 system?

Password Must Meet Complexity Requirements
To configure password settings such as a minimum password age or a password must meet complexity requirements, you
use _____.
Group Policies
Which value defines the number of invalid logon attempts that trigger an account lockout?
Account Lockout Threshold
What tool is used to store and quickly retrieve the usernames and passwords for servers and websites that you have visited?
Credential manager
What is a credit-card like device that contains a chip on which is stored a digital certificate that helps identify a particular
user?
Smart card
What standard does Windows 7 include to support smart cards?

PIV
What is used to encrypt files when using the Encrypting File System?
Digital certificate
What command enables you to execute a command as an administrator while logged in as a standard user?
Run as
To reset your password if you forget the administrator password for a computer running Windows 7, you should create a
______.
password reset disk
What are policies that define specific operating system functions?

User rights
What component in Windows 7 provides a centralized console that enables users and administrators to access, monitor, and
configure the various Windows 7 security mechanism?
Action center
A(n) ____ is a software program that protects a computer by allowing certain types of network traffic in and out of the system
while blocking others.
firewall
What type of application do users inadvertantly download and run which can open a connection to a computer on the
internet, enabling an attacker on the outside to run programs or store data on the system?
trojan horse
Which program would you use to configure your IPSec connections?

Windows Firewall with Advanced Security
What software component is used to protect against spyware?

Windows Defender
When Windows Defender is updated, it updates its ____ so that it knows how to detect and deal with new spyware.
Definitions
The _____ is a feature of NTFS that encrypts the files on a computer so that even if an intruder can obtain a file, he is unable
to read it.
Encrypting file system
What component can run a machine that is not part of the domain to control access to specific internet sites?
Parental control
Which tool provides an environment in which you can use command-line tools to work drivers, disks, and network resources
that can be useful in troubleshooting?
Windows PE
You want to view the logs shown in the Event Viewer on a remote computer? What should you do?
Use the Connect to Another Computer command in the Action Menu within the Event Viewer
Which console can be customized to include any snap-in that you need organized in any way that you want?
MMC
Which troubleshooting tool enables you to connect to a user's remote computer, view and interact with the user's screen, and
chat with the user?
remote assistance
What port does Remote Assistance and Remote Desktop use?

TCP 3389
Which program enables you to connect to a remote computer including servers with no interaction required from the remote
computer?
remote desktop
_____ requires invitations to use.

remote assistance
How can you execute commands on a remote computer?

Use winrs.exe
Which components display the boot menu and loads the kernel?
Windows Boot Manager and Windows Boot Loader
Where is the boot menu configuration stored?

BCD registry file
____ reserves all of the system configuration, driver and registry changes you made since the computer last booted
successfully.
Last Known Good Configuration
You load a driver for you motherboard and now the system does not boot properly. What should you do?
Use Last Known Good Configuration
What option starts the computer with a minimal set of generic drivers which are needed to run the system?
safe mode
Which tool enables you to easily enable or disable individual applications and services to be enables duriing the startup
sequence?
System Configuration tool (MSconfig)
When Boot Logging is enabled, what is the name of the boot log and where is it located?
\Windows\ntblog.txt
What is similar to Windows PE but also gives you a collection of recovery tools that can identify and repair many of t he
problems that can prevent the system from starting?
Windows RE
What format supports Virtual PCs that contain the entire content of a hard disk in a single, portal file?
VHD
What program do you use to create a new VHD in Windows 7?

Disk Management console
How do you add a VHD to the boot menu?

Use BCDedit.exe
What new feature used with Windows 7 and Windows Server 2008 R2 enables networks with computers at remote locations
to conserve bandwidth by store frequently accessed files on local drives?
Branchcache
Which Branchcache mode enables each Windows 7 workstation on the branch office network to cache data from the content
server on its local drive and then shares the cached data with other local workstations?
Distributed cache mode
What type of backup creates a seperate backup of the computer's system disk and reserve partition that Windows 7 creates
on the disk during installation and saves to a VHD file on the backup device?
System Image backup
_____ is a copy of various operating system configuration settings and registry information from a specific point in time.
system restore point
What are duplicates of files that Windows creates as pare of a restore point?
volume shadow copy
Which type of attack describes jamming the wireless frequencies used by a transmitter?
Denial of Service
Which technology is the most common to connect to a wireless network for a corporation that allows a date rate up to
54MB/sec?
802.11g
What wireless technology allows up tp 600Mb/sec using MIMO?

801.11n
Which wireless technology is considered a weak encryption protocol?

WEP
Which wireless encryption is considered the most secure?

WPA2
Which encryption protocol was the first widely used wireless encryption protocol that used a unique encryption fo each
packet?
WPA
Which tool is designed specifically for mobile PCs?

Windows Mobility Center
What protocol is used by network projectors to communicate?

RDP
What bundles together the configuration setting that users most often use when giving a presentation into a single switch?
Presentation setting
What technology is used to configure power settings using the graphical control panel?
ACPI
What command is used to manage power?

powercfg.exe
What do you use to synchronize betwen your computer, offline drives and mobile devices?
Sync center
What replaced ActiveSync to synchronize data files, email, appointments and contact info with mobile devices?
Windows Mobile Device Center
What technology enables users to protect specific filesa and folders, so that no one else can access them?
EFS
If you don't have TPM, how else can you use Bitlocker?
Store the encryption key on a USB flash drive
What user account has the ability to recover BitLocker drives for an entire organization?
data recovery agent
What technology is used ot encrypt removable USB devices?

BitLocker to Go
What technology uses the remote client to connect to a remote access server over the internet?
VPN
Which VPN protocol connects using SSL?

SSTP
What does L2TP use to encrypt data?

IPsec
What feature is base on IKEv2 Mobility and Multihoming protocol that reconnects to a VPN server automatically after an
interruption?
VPN Reconnect
What component is used to ensure that all clients meet a minimum set of criteria such as up to date antivirus protection and
windows updates?
Network Access Protection
____ enables remote users to automatically connect to the computer network whenever they have access.
DirectAccess
What protocol does DirectAccess use to encrypt network communications?

IPSec

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Exam 1

Which edition of Windows includes DirectAccess and BranchCache?

Windows 7 Home Basic

Windows 7 Home Premium

How much memory does a 32-bit version of Windows 7 support?

Which of the following does NOT include Aero?

Windows 7 Home Premium

Windows 7 Home Basic

What tool is used to determine if your computer can run Windows 7?

Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor

Program Compatibility Troubleshooter

Application Compatibility Toolkit

Application Compatibility Manager

Create an answer file named autounattend.xml and copy it to a USB drive.

Create an answer file and copy it to the C:\ folder.

Create an answer file and copy it to the system BIOS.

What is the primary tool to manage and configure Windows 7?

Computer Management console

Where do you enable IIS in Windows 7?

Programs in the Control Panel

Computer Management console

Plug and play device

What tool do you use to disable a device?

Where do you go to stop and disable a service?

Where do you find the Windows Firewall with Advanced Security?

You dont have the correct drive loaded.

The drive is disabled.

Dynamic disks are not supported on USB disks.

The drive needs to be powered on.

You want Windows 7 to implement RAID 1. What do you need to do?

Enable Write caching on the first disk.

Enable Write Caching on the second disk.

Convert the basic disk to dynamic disks.

Convert the dynamic disk to basic disks.

Where do you find the Disk Management console?

Computer Management console

How many bits is an IPv4 address?

Global unicast addresses

Unique local unicast addresses

What command is used to test network connectivity to another host?

Which VPN does Windows 7 NOT support?

IPSec with IPSec

What defines the type of access granted to an object or object attribute?

How do you enable auditing in Windows?

Modify the boot.ini file.

Open the System Properties through the Control Panel.

Use the Users console in the Control Panel.

Use group policies.

Permissions assigned to the source folder

Permissions assigned to the target folder

Full permissions to Everyone

Create a search connector.

Create a local profile.

The search box on the Start menu

The search box located at the top of the open window

The search box at the top of the library

The search box in the desktop

Right-click the file and click recover.

Use an EFS Recovery Agent to update the encrypted file.

Convert to BitLocker To Go.

Allow Manage Printers

Allow Manage Documents

Allow Full Control for Documents