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IBPSEXAMGURU

SBI PO PRELIMINARY
MODEL PAPER 9

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Sections
1. English Language
2. Reasoning
3. Quantitative Aptitude

Number of question
30
35
35
Total = 100 Qs.

Marks
30
35
35
Total marks = 100

Duration of Exam
60 minutes

Part 1 English Language


Q. (1 10): Read the following passage carefully and Certain words in the passage are printed in bold
letters to help you locate them easily while answering some of these questions.
We all believe that meditation requires incredibly difficult techniques and that only advanced gurus can
do it. Meditation can be to spend 15 minutes by yourself in silence. Try it: it will change your life.
Meditation is the single most important tool of self-development and spiritual growth.
Although the majority of people think of meditation as something that only very advance priests do and
that it requires specific attributes, skills and attitudes, anybody can and should meditate.
If we were to describe meditation, we could use the analogy of digestion. When we eat, certain
chemical responses take place in our body in order to break down the food in small particles that can be
absorbed by our cells. After all, if there is an interruption of this process and the food does no reach the
cells themselves, we may eat, but we will not be nourished.
In the same way, we may read books and obtain knowledge in many other ways and store it in our brain.
However, if this knowledge does not reach our heart it will not become part of us. It will not be part of
our engine, that is to say, the part of us being made up of emotions, beliefs, etc., which sets in motion
the rest of our organism, providing us with a direction. Therefore meditation is the digestion and
processing of knowledge into wisdom.
In order to make this information part of our belief system and our experience we need to process it.
And this is done when we meditate. We all know people who have studied several degrees and have
powerful minds, but can not adapt to the environment can not develop healthy relationships and can
not become part of social groups. They seem to lack common sense and empathy and do not
understand why people react negatively to their good intentions.
Meditation would help enormously in opening the heart and promoting compassion, empathy and the
flexibility necessary to listen to other peoples opinions without feeling threatened. After all, listening
does not mean we need to take in these thoughts, but communication does need to be a two way
exercise.
Meditation would make all this information part of the person himself and an individual point of view
would develop, normally expressed with passion because it would come from the heart, not from the
mind.
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When we meditate, we develop an inner knowing of our own that does not depend on anybody else's
opinion. We become flexible and open to other points of view because we realize that we all have ideas
which we feel passionately about and we don't feel threatened by them. We are all one and the same,
simply in different states of evolution and with different backgrounds, hence the different colored
glasses through which we see the world.
Q. 1. What is the General concept of meditation?
(1) Meditation works wonders for all.
(2) Meditation does not require special help.
(3) anyone can meditate and benefit.
(4) meditation needs Gurus.
(5) meditation is soul-satisfying.
Q. 2. Why can't some people adapt to environment?
(1) It is due to environmental pollution.
(2) They can't put themselves into other peoples shoes.
(3) These people are full of apathy.
(4) They don't have deeper insights.
(5) None of these
Q. 3. What could be a suitable title of the text?
(1) Know your self
(2) Advanced Meditation
(3) May all meditate
(4) stop clinging
(5) None of these
Q. 4. How does meditation improve us?
(1) We learn to resolve our issues.
(2) We discover a cure of all wrongs.
(3) We get closer to God.
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(4) We discover our own self independent of all.


(5) None of these
Q. (5 7): Pick the opposite of Q. 5. take in
(1) spend

(2) diffuse

(3) collect

(4) detract

(5) deflect

Q. 6. flexibility (1) abstruseness

(2) softness

(3) hardship

(4) pliability

(5) obduracy

Q. 7. normally (1) Generally

(2) never

(3) seldom

(4) infrequently

(5) sublime

Q. (8 10): Pick the meaning of Q. 8. analogy (1) parallel

(2) partial

(3) example

(2) earthy

(3) corporeal

(4) right

(5) change

Q. 9. spiritual
(1) karmic

(4) infinite

(5) celestial

Q. 10. process (1) understand

(2) acknowledge

(3) channel

(4) restrict

(5) treat

Q. (11 20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if
any, will be one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the
answer is (ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)
Q. 11. 1) Meetings were held with unions /2) to tackle indiscipline, /3) and with customers /4) to
understand its needs. /5) No errors
Q. 12. 1) The actual conduct of the test /2) at each venue will be entrusted /3) on the Officer-in-Charge
/4) who will be designated as test conductor. /5) No errors
Q. 13. 1) The list of candidates admitted /2) to the test should be remain /3) with the invigilator /4)
during the test. /5) No errors
Q. 14. 1) While the issue was no longer /2) as serious as the demise or survival of the, company /3) the
ultimate fate of this national treasure /4) was far off settled /5) No errors

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Q. 15. 1) At presently the global /2) supply of wheat is /3) the lowest it has been /4) for the past fifty
years. /5) No error
Q. 16. 1) In the early days /2) I would sit through meetings /3) and frequently have no idea /4) what a
presenter was talking with. /5) No errors
Q. 17. 1) Recovery campaigns should be mounted /2) not only to recover the dues /3) yet to create
awareness among borrowers /4) about the necessity of timely repayment. /5) No errors
Q. 18. 1) Where the default is willful and deliberately /2) legal steps should be taken promptly /3) after
obtaining approval /4) from appropriate authority. /5) No errors
Q. 19. 1) All accounts enjoying /2) fund based working capital limits of Rs. 10 lakhs and above /3) should
be reviewed /4) at least once a year. /5) No errors
Q. 20. 1) The book may not be reproduced /2) in whole, partially or in any form /3) without the written
permission /4) of the publishers. /5) No errors
Q. (21 30): Each question below a part of the sentence is printed in bold type. The part printed in bold
type may contain an error. Below each sentence four phrases are given which are numbered (1), (2), (3)
and (4). of these can substitute the part of the sentence in bold type to-correct it. The number of that
part is answer. If the part of the sentence which is printed in bold type is correct as it is, mark (5) i.e.
correction required as your answer.
Q. 21. He firmly believes on punctuality and discipline.
(1) firmly believes in
(2) believes firmly with
(3) firm believer on
(4) firmly believes into
(5) No correction required
Q. 22. When they reach the airport, the flight had departed.
(1) While they reach
(2) When they reached
(3) When they had reach
(4) When they were reached
(5) No correction required

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Q. 23. The police find it easy to prove the guilty but not innocent of the accused.
(1) guilt but not the innocence
(2) guilty but not innocence
(3) guilt not the innocent
(4) guilt but not innocents
(5) No correction required
Q. 24. Census reports in India have voiced concerned over the declining trend in the sex ratio.
(1) voice concern over the declined
(2) voiced concerned about the declining had
(3) voiced concern in the declining
(4) voiced concern over the declining
(5) No correction required
Q. 25. I have told the architect to put on his best in the assignment he was handling.
(1) to put in

(2) to have put up

(3) is putting to

(4) put down

(5) No correction required

Q. 26. I was not extravagant as I only bought what is necessary.


(1) only bought which was
(2) bought only what was
(3) only bought what were buy
(4) only what was
(5) No correction required
Q. 27. She reported that she had finished the project assigned to her.
(1) will have finished (2) having finished (3) finishes (4) have finished (5) No correction required
Q. 28. His narration that he was finding the umbrella in the street cannot be trusted.
(1) found the umbrella
(2) has been finding umbrella

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(3) had being finding the umbrella


(4) found a umbrella
(5) No correction required
Q. 29. The striking workers complained of being unjust treatment.
(1) being treated unjust
(2) unjustly treated
(3) being unjustly treated
(4) being justly treated
(5) No correction required
Q. 30. It is undesirable to run away from every danger, risks must not be taken.
(1) no risks must be
(2) any risk must be
(3) although risks must never be
(4) some risks must be
(5) No correction needed

Answers
Q. 1. (4)
Q. 2. (2)
Q. 3. (3)
Q. 4. (4)
Q. 5. (2) Take in means to understand something or absorb something completely so the antonym
should be diffuse-to spread.
eg. Internet is a powerful means of diffusing information
For other options:
Spend - eg. He spends a lot of time practicing the exercises. collect - synonym of take in
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eg. I have collected some information on the topic. detract - detract from is a phrasal verb means make
something seem less valuable or less deserving of admiration than it really is or was thought to be
eg. The mischief he makes detracts from all his good qualities. deflect - to change or cause to change
direction, avoid something.
eg. The minister deflected the accusations on him by presenting the report of his expenditures.
Q. 6. (5) Flexibility - the ability to change shape, size, direction etc. so the antonym should be.
obduracy - having the quality of being determined to act in a particular way and not to change despite
argument or persuasion.
eg. He is often criticized for the obduracy he shows.
For other options:
abstruseness - the quality of being difficult to understand.
eg. The article seemed boring because of its abstruseness.
softness - eg. The softness of his voice surprised me
hardship - difficulty
eg. He managed to pass the exam with flying colors instead of all hardships.
pliability - flexibility; the quality of being easily influenced or controlled by other people.
Q. 6. (3) Normally Generally (in normal conditions or situations, usually). So the antonym should be seldom- means rarely, not usually.
For other options:
never - not ever; it can be antonym of always. sublime - extremely good beautiful or enjoyable.
Q. (8 10): synonym:
Q. 8. (1) analogy- means comparison between things which have similar features.
parallel- something very similar to something else. (comparison).
eg. I am trying to see if there are any obvious parallel between the two cases.
For other options:
partial - not complete
example-something which is same of a group of things, that it is a member of
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eg. This painting is marvelous example of her work.


right - correct
change - eg. No change has been done in the schedule.
Q. 9. (5) celestial - of or from outside the world or invisible heaven.
For other options:
karmic - related to fate or destiny
earthy - natural, realistic or practical
corporeal - of the nature of physical body, tangible.
infinite - measurably great.
Q. 10. (1) understand (we need to understand the information)
For other options:
acknowledge - to recognize the existence of something or something to be true.
channel - to convey through a channel.
restrict - keep something within limits treat - to act or behave toward (a person) in a particular way to
deal with something (a disease, problem etc.)
Q. (11 20): Find out the errors in any part:
Q. 11. (4) their should replace its.
A verb should always agree with its subject (customers)
so here, it should be plural.
Its is used for singular (III person) neuter gender.
Q. 12. (3) to should replace on in the sentence. entrusted - to give (responsibility, etc) and it takes
preposition to.
Q. 13. (2) be should be removed. auxiliary verb is followed by be in a passive sentence (where the
sentence starts with the object and transitive verb is used.)
eg. The work should be done on time.
Q. 14. (4) Far off means long time ago:
since it is an adjective, it cant be used with a verb (sittled)
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Far off should be replaced with far from being.


Q. 15. (1) Present should replace presently. At present - at this time, or occuring now
Q. 16. (4) about should replace with. we talk about something (object, topic) we talk with somebody.
(person)
Q. 17. (3) but also should replace yet. The correlative of not only is but also The correlative of though is
yet.
Q. 18. (1) deliberate should replace deliberately. deliberately is an adverb and adjective is required to
qualify the noun (default)
Q. 19. (5) No error.
Q. 20. (2) the correct form is wholly, partially or in any form.
Q. (21 30): Phrase Replacement:
Q. 21. (1) We believe in something - we agree to it.
Q. 22. (2) When two events are of past, the first one is expressed in part perfect and the latter one is
expressed in past indefinite.
Q. 23. (1) guilt - the fact of having done something wrong.
innocence - the fact when someone is free of guilt. guilty and innocent are adjectives.
Q. 24. (4) voiced - expressed by saying/concern - worry.
Q. 25. (1) put in- to spent a lot of time or effort doing something.
Q. 26. (2) only should be placed before the noun (what was necessary) to express few or single.
When used before adjective or verb or noun to express limitation.
eg. Only I and the manager were present in the meeting.
eg. These shoe only cost Rs. 700
Q. 27. (5) No correction
Same as question (22).
Q. 28. (1) When we want to point to something which we have already talked about, we use article the
(the umbrella)/in reported speech we use past form of verb. (found)
Q. 29. (3) this part of sentence is in passive (present simple continuous) the adverb unjustly - not fairly.

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Q. 30. (4) in positive sentence we use some. any is usually used in negative and questions. undesirable not correct to do.

Test 2 Reasoning
Q. 1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word SHOULDER each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) None of these

Q. 2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
(1) Brick

(2) Cement

(3) Sand

(4) Mortar

(5) Wall

Q. 3. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the fifth, the seventh and
the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, using each letter once in each world, which of the following
is the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give X as the answer and if more than
one such word can be made, give Y as the answer.
(1) L

(2) E

(3) S

(4) X

(5) Y

Q. 4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does
not belong to that group?
(1) Nitrogen

(2) Hydrogen

(3) Methane

(4) Neon

(5) Helium

Q. 5. In a certain code BREAKING is written as BFSCFMHJ, How is MOTHERLY written in that code?
(1) IUPNZMSF

(2) IUPNXKQD

(3) IUPNFSMZ

(4) GSNLZMSF

(5) None of these

Q. 6. Among P, Q, R, S and T Each having a different height, Q is taller than S. T is shorter than P. R is
taller than Q but shorter than T. Who among them in the tallest?
(1) S

(2) P

(3) R

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

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Q. 7. Mohan correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is before 16th but after 13th August where
as his sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is after 14th but before 18th August. On
which day in August was their mother's birthday definitely?
(1) 15th

(2) 14th

(3) 14th or 15th

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Q. 8. In a certain code BEND is written as 5%3# and NIGHT is written as 3@64. How is DEBT written
in that code?
(1) #%4

(2) #@54

(3) #%34

(4) #%54

(5) None of these

Q. 9. How many such digits are there in the number 5834619 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number?
(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) None of these

Q. 10. If the positions of the first and the fifths digests in the number 85231467 are interchanged,
similarly the positions of the second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on, which of the
following will be second digit from the right end after the rearrangement?
(1) 2

(2) 5

(3) 3

(4) 1

(5) None of these

Q. (11 16): Each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions
numbered I, II, III & IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at
variance from commonly known facts Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q. 11. Statements : All drums are tubes.


Some tubes are pipes.
No pipe is stick.
Some sticks are rubbers.
Conclusions: I. Some rubbers are tubes.
II. Some sticks are drums.
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III. Some pipes are drums


IV. Some sticks are tubes.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only I and II follow
(4) Only I and II follow
(5) Only III follows

Q. 12. Statements: Some pens are rooms.


All rooms are walls
Some walls are bricks
All bricks are slates.
Conclusions : I. Some slates are walls.
II. Some walls are pens.
III. Some bricks are rooms.
IV. Some slates are rooms.
(1) Only I and III follow
(2) Only II and III follow
(3) Only I and II follow
(4) Only III and IV follow
(5) None of these

Q. 13. Statements: Some chairs are pencils.


Some pencils are bottles.
Some bottles are bags.

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Some bags are books.


Conclusions: I. Some books are pencils.
II. Some bottles are chairs.
III. No book is pencil
IV. Some bags are chairs.
(1) Only I follows
(2) Only either I or III follows
(3) Only III follows
(4) Only IV follows
(5) None of these

Q. 14. Statements: Some roads are buses.


All buses are trains.
Some trains are trucks.
All trucks are kites.
Conclusions: I. Some trucks are roads.
II. Some kites are buses.
III. Some trains are roads.
IV. Some kites are trains.
(1) None follows
(2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows
(4) Only III follows
(5) None of these

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Q. 15. Statements: All beads are rings


All rings are bangles.
All bangles are tyres.
All tyres are pendants.
Conclusion: I. Some pendants are beads.
II. Some tyres are rings
III. Some bangles are beads.
IV. Some pendants are rings.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only I, II and III follow
(3) Only II, III and IV follow
(4) Only I, III and IV follow
(5) All follow

Q. 16. Statements: Some desks are fruits.


All fruits are flowers.
No flower is branch.
Some branches are roots.
Conclusions: I. Some roots are flowers.
II. No branches are desks.
III. Some flowers are desks.
IV. Some branches are desks.
(1) Only either II or IV follows
(2) Only III follows
(3) Only either II or IV and III follow

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(4) Only III and IV follow


(5) None of these

Q. (17 22): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below:
R4PIJMQ3%T@UK5V1W$Y2BE6#9DH8G*ZN

Q. 17. Which of the following is the sixth to the left of the fifteenth from the left end of the above
arrangement?
(1) 2

(2) #

(3)%

(4) $

(5) None of these

Q. 18. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and not immediately followed by a letter?
(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) None of these

Q. 19. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
followed by a letter but not immediately preceded by a number?
(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) None of these

Q. 20. How many such consonants are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately
preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) None

(2) One

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) More than three

Q. 21. What should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following series based on the above
arrangement?
PJQTK1$2?
(1) E # D

(2) 6 9 D

(3) 6 9 8

(4) 6 # D

(5) None of these

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Q. 22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above
arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) W Y 1

(2) Q % M

(3) K @

(4) 9 H 6

(5) G Z 8

Q. (23 28): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a club. Each of them has a favorite sport from- Chess, Table
Tennis, Lawn Tennis, Volleyball, Badminton, Basketball and Carom, not necessarily in the same order,
Each of them also has a specific choice of color from-Blue, Red, Green, Yellow, Grey, Black and White,
not necessarily in the same order.
R likes Green and his favorite sport is Badminton. V's choice of color is neither Red nor Black. T's favorite
sport is neither Table Tennis nor Basketball. The one who likes Blue does not like Carom. The one who
likes Volleyball does not like Yellow and Grey. Q's favorite sport is Lawn Tennis and he likes Black. S likes
White. W likes Basketball. P likes Volleyball. T likes Blue. The one who likes Basketball does not like Grey.

Q. 23. What is V's choice of color?


(1) Black

(2) Grey

(3) Yellow

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Q. 24. What is T's favorite sport?


(1) Basketball

(2) Volleyball

(3) Chess

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Q. 25. Whose favourite sport is Carrom?


(1) S

(2) R

(3) W

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Q. 26. Whose favourite sport is basketball?


(1) S

(2) T

(3) W

(4) R

(5) None of these

Q. 27. What is W's choice of colour?


(1) Green

(2) White

(3) Black

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

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Q. 28. Which of the following combinations of sport and colour is correct?


(1) Table Tennis, Yellow (2) Volleyball, Red (3) Volleyball, Grey (4) Chess, Black (5) Carrom, Green

Q. (29 34): In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of digits/
Symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the following coding systems. If none of the combinations
correctly represents the group of letters, give answer (5) i.e. None of these.
Letter: R K A D E M W T I V U B F H P
Digit/Symbol: 2

3*18#4$596@7

Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, the codes for the first and the last letters
are to be interchanged.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, both are to be coded as ?
(iii) If both first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Now based on the above, find out the coded form of the letter groups given in each question

Q. 29. AMPERI
(1) 38712$

(2) $87123

(3) 387123

(4) 37812$

(5) None of these

Q. 30. RTVUBH
(1) 2459@

(2) @4592

(3) @459@

(4) ?459?

(5) None of these

Q. 31. BEFKMA
(1) 916 83

(2) ?16 8?

(3) 316 89

(4) 316 83

(5) None of these

Q. 32. EWPKIH
(1) 1#7 $@

(2) ?#7 $?

(3) 17# $@

(4)@#7 $1

(5) None of these

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Q. 33. RTDAVB
(1) 94*352

(2) 24*352

(3) ?4*35?

(4) 24*359

(5) None of these

Q. 34. HEUPKI
(1) @17 $

(2) $17 $

(3) @17 @

(4) ?17 ?

Q. 135. In the following questions, the symbols@, , %


illustrated below:

(5) None of these

as

P % Q means P is not greater than Q.


P

Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q

P # Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to Q


P Q means P is not smaller than Q
P@ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two
conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer (1) if only Conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only Conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either Conclusion I or II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither Conclusion I nor II is true.
Give answer (5) if both Conclusion I and II are true.

Q. 35. Statements: R T, T @ M, M
Conclusions: I. D # T

II. M # T

Answers
Q. 1. (3) S H O U L D E R

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Q. 2. (5) Birck, cement, Sand and mortar use for build wall.

Q. 3. (5) STREAMLINE
S, A, L, E
SALE, SEAL

Q. 4. (3) Among these, only Methane is compound gas.

Q. 5. (2)

Q. 6. (2)
P
T
R
Q
S

Q. 7. (1) According to Mohan and his sister their mothers birthday.


M After 13

16 before

S 14

15 18

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Page 19

Q. 8. (4) According to question


Word: B E N D I G H T
Code: 5 % 3 # @ 6 4
So,
DEBT
#%54

Q. 9. (2) According to question


5

34619

65431

Q. 10. (1) 8 5 2 3 1 4 6 7
New arrangement
14678523

Q. 11. (1) None follows.

Q. 12. (3) Statement 1 + Statement 2


I + A = I type
and its conversion in I type
Statement 3 + Statement 4
I + A = I type conversion in I type.

Q. 13. (2) All statements are I type so we cannot make any perfect conclusion but conclusion 1st and and
3rdmakes either case.

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Page 20

Q. 14. (5) Statement 1 + statement 2 I + A = I type and it conversion in I type


Statement 3 + Statement 4
I + A = I type
Its conversion in I type (conclusion 3rd and 4th)

Q. 15. (5) Statement 1 + Statement 2


A + A = A type
Conversion I type
Conclusion 3
Statement 2 + Statement 3
A + A = A type
Conversion I type
Conclusion: 2
Conclusion 2 + Statement 4
A + A = A type
Conversion I type
Conclusion 4
Conclusion 1 + Statement 3
A + A = A type
Conclusion 3 + Statement 4
A + A = A type
Conversion I type
So, All follows

Q. 16. (3) Statement 1 + Statement 2

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Page 21

I + A = I type
Conversion I type
Conclusion 3 and conclusion II and IV makes either case.

Q. 17. (3) According to question


Left Left
15 - 6 = 9th from left = %

Q. 18. (2) According to question


ConsonantNumber Number/Symbol
Q3%
Only One pair.

Q. 19. (4) According to question


Symbol/Letter Symbol Letter
@U
W$Y
G*Z
Three pairs.

Q. 20. (1) According to questions


ConsonantConsonantSymbol
No such type of pair.

Q. 21. (5)

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Page 22

Q. 22. (4)

Q. (23 28):
Members
P
Q
R
S
T
V
W

Sports
Volleyball
Lawn-tennis
Badminton
Carrom/Table
tennis
Chess
Carrom/Tabletennis
Basketball

Colors
Red
Black
Green
White
Blue
Grey
Yellow

Q. 23. (2)

Q. 24. (3)

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Page 23

Q. 25. (4)

Q. 26. (3)

Q. 27. (5)

Q. 28. (2)

Q. 29. (1) A M P E R I
38712$

Q. 30. (3) R T V U B H
@45

9@

Condition III

Q. 31. (2) B E F K M A
?16

8?

Condition II

Q. 32. (4) E W P K I H
@#7

$1

Condition I

Q. 33. (5) R T D A V B
94*359

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Page 24

Condition III

Q. 34. (4) H E U P K I
?17 ?
Condition II

Q. 35. (5) R > T > M = D


D<T

True

M < T True

Test 3 Quantitative Aptitude


Q. 1. What will be the area (in square meters) of 1.5 meter wide garden developed around all the four
sides of a rectangular field having area equal to 300 square metres and breadth equal to three fourth of
the length?
(1) 96

(2) 105

(3) 114

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Q. 2. In a two digit positive number, the digit in the units place is equal to the square of the digit in ten's
place, and the difference between the number and the number obtained by interchanging the digits is
54. What is 40% of the original number?
(1) 15.6

(2) 39

(3) 37.2

(4) 24

(5) None of these

Q. 3. Vishwas borrowed a total amount of Rs. 30,000/-, part of it on simple interest rate of 12 p.c.p.a.
and remaining on simple interest rate of 10 p.c.p.a. If at the end of 2 years he paid in all Rs.36,480/- to
settle the loan amount, what was the amount borrowed at 12 p.c.p.a.?
(1) Rs. 16,000/-

(2) Rs. 18,000/-

(3) Rs. 17,500/-

(4) Rs. 12,000/-

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(5) None of these

Page 25

Q. 4. If the numerator of a fraction is increased by and the denominator is decreased by the new
fraction obtained is
(1)

(2)

What was the original fraction?

(3)

(4)

(5) None of these

Q. 5. Twice the square of a number is more than eleven times the number by 21. The number can have
which of the following values?
(1) 4 or -

(2) 7 or -

(3) 3 or -

(4) or 4

(5) None of these

Q. (6 10): Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions.


Quantity of various items sold and price per kg.

Q. 6. If the quantity sold of item D increased by 50% and the price reduced by 10%.What was the total
value of the quantity sold for item D?
(1) Rs.675/-

(2) Rs. 6,750/-

(3) Rs. 67,750/-

(4) Rs. 33750/-

(5) None of these

Q. 7. Approximately, what is the average price per kg. of items A, B & C?


(1) Rs. 9.50

(2) Rs. 10.50

(3) Rs. 7.50

(4) Rs. 9

(5) Rs. 8

Q. 8. What is the ratio between the total values of quantity sold for items E & F respectively?
(1) 15:14

(2) 3:2

(3) 5:7

(4) 7:5

(5) None of these

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Q. 9. Total value of the quantity sold for item C is what per cent of the total value of the quantity sold
for item E?
(1) 111

(2) 85

(3) 90

(4) 87.5

(5) None of these

Q. 10. If the price as well as the quantity sold is increased by 20% for item A, what is the total value of
quantity sold for item A?
(1) Rs. 48,500/-

(2) Rs. 49.000/-

(3) Rs. 42,000/-

(4) Rs. 50,400/-

(5) None of these

Q. (11 15): Study the table carefully to answer the questions that follow:Sale (in cores) of number of units by six different Companies over the years
YEAR
COMPANY
A
B
C
D
E
F

2001

2002

2003

2004

2005

2006

110
91
103
112
72
64

118
93
153
166
169
56

143
85
100
78
154
120

126
99
128
83
98
70

152
69
96
135
140
176

195
35
56
198
192
54

Q. 11. Which Company has sold the maximum number of units over the years?
(1) A

(2) C

(3) E

(4) F

(5) None of these

Q. 12. What is the difference between number of units sold by Company D in the year 2001 and the year
2003?
(1) 3400000

(2) 3400000000

(3) 34000000

(4) 340000000

(5) None of these

Q. 13. Which Company has sold the minimum number of units over the years?
(1) A

(2) B

(3) D

(4) E

(5) None of these

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Q. 14. Number of units sold by Company B in the year 2003 is what percent of the total number of units
sold by all the companies together in that year?
(1) 12.76

(2) 15.5

(3) 12.5

(4) 20

(5) None of these

Q. 15. What is average number of units sold (in crores) in the year 2005?
(1) 130

(2) 133

(3) 127

(4) 121

(5) None of these

Q. (16 20): Study the following table to answer the given questions
Centre and Post-wise Number of Candidates
Post
Central
Bangalore
Delhi
Mumbai
Hyderabad
Kolkata
Luck now
Chennai

Officer Clerk
2000
15000
17000
3500
14900
11360
9000

5000
17000
19500
20000
17650
154300
11000

Field
Officer
50
160
70
300
70
30
95

Supervisor Specialist
Officer
2050
750
11000
750
7000
900
9000
1150
1300
1200
1500
650
1650
500

Q. 16. Which centre has the highest number of candidates?


(1) Delhi

(2) Kolkata

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Mumbai

(5) None of these

Q. 17. Which centre has 340%number of Clerks as compared to Bangalore?


(1) Luck now

(2) Mumbai

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Chennai

(5) None of these

Q. 18. What is the difference between total number of Officers and Clerks?
(1) 29,680

(2) 34,180

(3) 32,690

(4) 28,680

(5) None of these

Q. 19. In Kolkata, number for Specialist Officer is approximately what per cent of that of Officers?
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Page 28

(1) 8.7

(2) 9

(3) 6.5

(4) 8

(5) 6.9

Q. 20. In Chennai, the number of Clerks is approximately how much per cent more than that of Officers?
(1) 18

(2) 22

(3) 20

(4) 2

(5) 13

Q. 21. A train travelling at the speed of 60 km/hour crosses a platform in 20 seconds. What is the length
of the tray?
(1) 333metres (2) 300 meters (3) 336 metres (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. 22. A sum of money is to be divided among four persons in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4 : 5. Out of the four
one person gets Rs.200/- more than the other and Rs.100/- less than another. What is the sum?
(1) Rs.2,800/- (2) Rs.1,400/- (3) Rs.4,200/- (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these

Q. 23. If 4x + 5y = 83 and
(1) 3

(2) 4

(3) 7

(4) 11

then what is the value of y x?


(5) None of these

Q. 24. A boat running down streams covers a distance of 30 kms in 2 hours. While coming back the boat
takes 6 hours to cover the same distance. If the speed of the current is half that of the boat, what is the
speed of that boat in kmph?
(1) 15

(2) 5

(3) 10

(4) Cannot be determined

(5) None of these

Q. 25. In a College the number of students studying Arts, Commerce and Science are in the ratio of 3 : 5 :
8 respectively. If the number of students studying Arts, Commerce and Science is increased by 20%,
40%and 25%respectively, what will be the new ratio of students in Arts, Commerce and Science
respectively?
(1) 18:35:50

(2) 3:10:10

(3) 4:8:5

(4) 32:35:25

(5) None of these

Q. (26 30): What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
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Page 29

Q. 26. (47 588) (28 120) = ?


(1) 6.284

(2) 7.625

(3) 8.225

(4) 8.285

(5) None of these

Q. 27. 45% of 224 ? % of 120 = 8104.32


(1) 67

Q. 28.
(1) 16

(2) 62

(3) 59

(4) 71

(5) None of these

51 + 374 = (?)3
(2) 19

(3) 15

(4) 21

(5) None of these

Q. 29. 6573 21 (0.2)2 = ?


(1) 7825

(2) 62.6

(3) 1565

(4) 12.52

(5) None of these

Q. 30. 74156 - ? - 321 - 20 + 520 = 69894


(1) 3451

(2) 4441

(3) 5401

(4) 4531

(5) None of these

Q. (31 35): What should come in place of the questions mark (?) in the following number series?

Q. 31. 1548 516 129 43 ?


(1) 11

(2) 10.75

(3) 9.5

(4) 12

(5) None of these

Q. 32. 949 189.8 ? 22.776 11.388 6.8328


(1) 48.24

(2) 53.86

(3) 74.26

(4) 56.94

(5) None of these

Q. 33. 121 144 190 259 ? 466


(1) 351

(2) 349

(3) 374

(4) 328

(5) None of these

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Page 30

Q. 34. 14 43.5 264 ? 76188


(1) 3168

(2) 3176

(3) 1587

(4) 1590

(5) None of these

Q. 35. 41 164 2624 ? 6045696


(1) 104244

(2) 94644

(3) 94464

(4) 102444

(5) None of these

Answers
Q. 1. (3) let length be l and breadth be b given
B=
=

= 300

= 1 = 20
B = 15
Length of the garden = 20 + 2 1.5 = 23
And breadth = 15 + 2 1.5 = 18
Required area = 23 18-300 = 114

Q. 2. (1) Let original number be 10x + y


= y = x2

(1)

Now,
(10x + y) (10y + x) = 54
X y = 6 (2)
= 120
From (1) & (2)
X2 x + 6 = 0
= x = 3, -2
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Page 31

Thus original number is 39.


40% of 39 = 15.6

Q. 3. (4) Let amount borrowed of on 12% be x. then, for 2 years interest is


2 [x 12% + (30000-x) 10]
= 36480-30000
+

= 3240
12x + 30000-x = 32400
2x = 2400
X=
= Rs. 12000

Q. 4. (5) Let fraction be


Then

=
=
=

Q. 5. (2) Let number be x then,


2x2 = 11x + 21
= 2x2 - 11x - 21 = 0
2x2 - 14x + 3x - 21 = 0
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Page 32

2x (x-7) + 3 (x-7) = 0
(x - 7) (2x + 3) = 0
= x = 7 or x = -3/2

Q. 6. (4) The total value of the quantity sold for item D.


=

= 3000 11.25
= Rs. 33750

Q. 7. (2) The average price per kg. pf items A, B & C


=

= 11.66 (approx)

Q. 8. (1) Required Ratio


=
=

Q. 9. (3) Required %

100

= 90%

Q. 10. (5) The total value of quantity sold for item A


= 12
= 25200
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Page 33

Q. 11. (1) Company has sold the maximum number of units over the years
= 110 + 118 + 143 + 126 + 152 + 195
= 844 (in cr.)
Company A has sold the maximum number of units.

Q. 12. (4) The difference between number of units sold by company D in the year 2001 and the year
2003
= 112 78 107
= 340000000

Q. 13. (2) Company has sold the minimum number of units over the years = B
Company
A 110+118+143+126+152+195 = 844
B 91+93+85+99+69+35= 472 (minimum)
C 103+153+100+128+96+56 = 636
D 112+166+78+83+135+198= 772
E 72+169+154+98+140+192= 825
F 64+56+120+70+176+54 = 540

Q. 14. (3) Reqd % =

100

= 12.5%

Q. 15. (5) Reqd average


=
=

= 128 (in cr.)

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Q. 16. (4) In Bangalore = 2000 +5000 + 50 + 2050 + 750 = 9850


In Delhi = 15000 + 17000 + 160 + 11000 + 750 = 43910
In Mumbai = 17000 + 19500 + 70 + 7000 + 900 = 44470
In Hyderabad
= 3500 + 20000 + 300 + 9000 + 1150
= 33950
In Kolkata = 14900 + 17650 + 70 + 1300 + 1200 = 35120
In Luck now 11360 + 15300 + 30 +1500 + 650 = 28840
In Chennai 9000 + 11000 + 95 + 1650 + 500 = 22245

Q. 17. (5)

= 340%

Delhi has 340% of clerks as compared to Bangalore.

Q. 18. (3) The difference between total no. of officers and clerks = 72760

Q. 19. (4) Reqd % =

105450 = 32690

100

= 8.05 = 8% (approx)

Q. 20. (2) Reqd- % =

100

= 22% (approx)

Q. 21. (5) Time =


20 =
=y

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Page 35

X = 333.33 metres

Q. 22. (4) Out of the four one person we cannot determined the difference of their ratio's. Hence the
never decide whom person get more or less from others.

Q. 23. (5) 4x + 5y = 83
=
=
Divide y - x by y and put the value of
- =1=1=

Q. 24. (3) Let speed of the boat be x km/hr that of current be y km/hr then,
=2
= x + y = 15 (1)
=6
X y = 5 (2)
From (1) & (2)
2x = 20
x = 10 km/hr

Q. 25. (1) If number of students be increased, then


New ratio will be.
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Page 36

3 120% : 5 140% : 8 125%


= 18 : 35 : 50

Q. 26. (3)
?=
=
= 8.225

Q. 27. (1) ? =
= 67

Q. 28. (5) (?)3 =

51 + 374

(?)3 = 8951+374
(?)3 = 4539+374
(?)3 = 4913 = ? =

Q. 29.(4) ? =

= 17

0.04

= 12.52

Q. 30. (2) ? = 74156 321 20 + 520 69894 = 4441

Q. 31. (2) The series is : 3, 4, 3, 4

Q. 32.(4) The seires is: 0.2, 0.3, 0.4 0.5, 0.6,......

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Page 37

Q. 33. (1) The series is : +23, +46, +69, +92, +115

Q. 34. (5) The series is :


14 3 + 1.5 = 43.5
43.5 6 + 3 = 264
264 12 + 6 = 3174
3174 24 + 12 = 76188

Q. 35. (3) The serires is: 41 22 = 164


164 42 = 2624
2624 62 = 94464
94464 82 = 6045696

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Page 38

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