ELECTRICITY FOR ENGINEERS 127

1.

2.

What can happen if only one generator is connected to the mains and several large fans are
started at the same time?
(A) The lights may be dimmed a little.
(B) The exhaust temperature of the auxiliary engine will raise.
(C) The generator may trip on overload.
(D) Nothing special.
The pressostat shown in the picture controls the cut-in/cut-out of a pump. To what part of the
pumps electric motor would this be connected?
(A) The main contactor.
(B) The timer.
(C) An auxiliary relay
(D) An overload relay

3.

What is the electrical function of the pressostat shown here?

(A) Pressure to open contact
(B) Pressure to close contact
(C) Pressure to cross-connect contact
(D) Pressure to either close contact or open contact depending on how it is connected

4.

What are the items F indicating in this starting box drawing?

(A) The fase terminals
(B) The fuses
(C) The front switch
(D) The front connectors

5.

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8.

9.

What do items C represent in this electric starter diagram? (See drawing on No.4)
(A) contacts
(B) relays
(C) overloads
(D) transformers
What could item D represent in this electric starting diagram? (See drawing on No.4)
(A) a pressostat
(B) a thermostat
(C) a level switch
(D) any of the above
When will the lefthand lamp L illuminate?(Assume there is no defect in the installation)
(See drawing on No.4)
(A) When the engine is stopped
(B) When the engine is running
(C) When the main breaker is switched on
(D) When an overload/trip occurs
What are items E in this starting circuit diagram? (See drawing on No.4)
(A) A low voltage relay
(B) A short-circuit trip
(C) An overload relay
(D) A reverse current trip
What are the items marked PM in this electric starter diagram?
(A) Start position switches
(B) Start push buttons
(C) Stop push buttons
(D) Stop position switches

10. What are the items PP indicated in this electric starting diagram? (See drawing on No.9)
(A) Start relays
(B) Stop relays

(C) Start push buttons

(D) Stop push buttons
11. What does item C indicate in this electrical starting circuit? (See drawing on No.9)
(A) The main contactor
(B) The auxiliary contactor
(C) A thermal relay
(D) The overload
12. What does item RT represent in this schematic electrical starting diagram? (See drawing on
No.9)
(A) The time relay
(B) The overload relay
(C) The measuring relay
(D) The signaling relay
13. What are the electric power suppliers on board of this ship?
(A) 440 volt and 220 volt
(B) Electric motors and lighting circuits
(C) 2 Auxiliary diesels, 1 Emergency diesel, 1 Turboalternator
(D) 4 x alternators, 2 x transformers

14. What is the meaning of CP in this ships electric plant diagram? (See drawing on No.13)
(A) Control panel
(B) Switch panel
(C) Main switchboard
(D) Control room
15. What does item CE stands for in this electric plant drawing? (See drawing on No.13)
(A) Control equipment power
(B) Central emergency station
(C) Common energy lighting distributor
(D) Emergency switchboard
16. Where is the shore pwer supply line to be connected to supply this ships electric plant?
(A) On CP
(B) On CE
(C) On TT
(D) On T

17. What are the items CD shown in this ships electric plant diagram? (See drawing on No.16)
(A) Distribution panels
(B) Transformers
(C) Control desks
(D) Starting boxes
18. What possibilities exist to supply power via direct connection to the Emergency switchboard?
(See drawing on No.16)
(A) 1 supply by main diesel engines, 2 supply by emergency diesel
(B) 1 supply by main switchboard, 2 supply by emergency diesel
(C) 1 supply by shore power, 2 supply by main switchboard
(D) 1 supply by shore power, 2 supply by main switchboard
19. What are items T shown in this ships electric plant schematic diagram? (See drawing on
No.16)
(A) Terminal boxes
(B) Transit line connector units
(C) Transformers
(D) Thyristor boosters
20. The Main as well as the Emergency switchboard are panels where the electric power is
(See drawing on No.16)
(A) generated as distributed
(B) fed into and distributed to the motors via starting boxes
(C) monitored and supplied to the consumers
(D) fed into, monitored and supplied to the consumers
21. What is shown by item No.1 on this electric motor?
(A) The stator coils
(B) The rotor coils
(C) The power supply terminal
(D) The lammelled coil brass

22. What is shown by item No.2 on this electric motor? (See drawing on No.21)

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24.

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27.

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30.

31.

32.

33.

(A) The motor casing

(B) The motor fan impeller
(C) The stator coils
(D) The rotor coils
In which part of an alternator is the electric power produced
(A) In the excitator
(B) In the slip rings
(C) In the rotor
(D) In the stator
How is the power output of an alternator controlled?
(A) By an alternator speed
(B) By the excitation current in the rotor
(C) By the excitation current in the stator
(D) By the resistance bridge in the main switchboard
How many slip rings with carbon brushes are fitted on the rotor of a three-phase alternator?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Six
If an alternator runs at 900 rpm and delivers AC current at 60 Hz, how many pole pairs has
this alternator got?
(A) Two
(B) Four
(C) Three
(D) Six
The principle of an automatic voltage regulator (AVR) is to produce an excitation current
proportional to ..?
(A) the speed of the alternator
(B) the output current of the alternator
(C) the output voltage of the alternator
(D) the output voltage and the output current of the alternator
How is the output voltage characteristic of an automatic voltage regulator adjusted?
(A) By the tappings on the series and shunt transformers
(B) By the tappings on the ballast reactor
(C) By adjusting the air gaps on reactors and transformers
(D) By any one of the above
To which part of the automatic voltage regulator AVR is the voltage control resistor (manual
or automatic voltage adjustment) connected?
(A) To the shunt transformer/ballast reactor
(B) To the series transformer
(C) Between ballast reactor and series transformer
(D) To the rectifier bridge
When parallel running alternators, what affects the reactive power of each alternator (kVAR)?
(A) The power throttle of the driving units
(B) The number of pole pairs of each paralleled alternator
(C) The excitation current
(D) The temperature of the windings due to load distribution
Name the conditions which must prevail to put two alternators in parallel?
(A) Same current, same type of alternator, same frequency
(B) Same type alternator, same frequency, frequency in phase
(C) Voltage equal, frequency equal, frequency in phase
(D) Voltage equal, current equal, frequency equal
Which of the following safety devices fitted on the main switch breaker will trip the alternator
if a major cabled line should fall to the distributors and the insulation should break through?
(A) The undervoltage relay
(B) The short circuit protection
(C) The reverse current trip
(D) The high/low frequency trip
In the event of total immersion of an electric motor in sea water or oils, which corrective
action should you take to make the motor operational again?

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40.

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43.

(A) Wash with tethrachloride, heat to 80 degree C and change bearings

(B) Wash with fresh water, wipe dry and revarnish windings
(C) Clean with air, wash with fresh water and heat by lamp
(D) Wash with tethrachloride, wipe dry and revarnish windings
If the governor of the driving machine of an alternator malfunctions, which safety device will
trip to the main switch breaker?
(A) The overload trip
(B) The reverse current trip
(C) The undervoltage/overvoltage trip
(D) The high/low frequency trip
A breakdown in insulation between a motor winding and the motor armature is called
..
(A) an insulation breakdown
(B) an earth
(C) a winding breakdown
(D) a short circuit
The breakdown in insulation between one or more windings or one or more coils inside an
electric motor is called .
(A) an earth
(B) a winding break
(C) a short circuit
(D) an insulation breakdown
If open circuit and interruption of current continuity occur in the windings of an electric motor
it is called ..
(A) an earth fault
(B) a winding break
(C) an insulation breakdown
(D) a short circuit
How will you find out if an electric motor has developed an earth fault?
(A) By carrying out a Megger Test
(B) By carrying out a Drop test(mini-volt test)
(C) By carrying out Continuity test (one ohm range on AVO meter)
(D) By carrying out a phase balance test
A six pole asynchrone motor is connected to a power supply with a frequency of 50 Hz. If the
rotor bar frequency is 2.3 Hz, what will be the speed of the motor?
(A) 972 RPM
(B) 954 RPM
(C) 928 RPM
(D) 912 RPM
What happens to the terminal voltage of an alternator producing 440 volt when it supplies a
lagging power factor load, example induction motors?
(A) The terminal voltage will fluctuate around 440 volt
(B) The terminal voltage will be exactly 440 volt
(C) The terminal voltage will drop below 440 volt
(D) The terminal voltage will goes above 440 volt
A battery of dry cells consists of 8 cells connected in series. Each cell has an E.M.F. of 1.5
volt and an internal resistance of 0.5 ohm. If the cells are connected to a resistance of 1.2 ohm,
what current flows?
(A) 1.8 ampere
(B) 2.3 ampere
(C) 2.8 ampere
(D) 3.1 ampere
What would a clamp type ampere meter read if clipped around a 3-core cable which is known
to carry 100 Amps to a 3-phase electric motor?
(A) 100 Amps
(B) 33.33 Amps
(C) 300 Amps
(D) 0 Amps
A 20 Amp motor operates from a 240 V insulated system. The cable impedance is 0.01 Ohm.
What current will flow in case of an earth fault?

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52.

53.

(A) 0 Amps
(B) 2400 Amps
(C) 240 Amps
(D) 20 Amps
A 10 Amp motor operates from a 110 Volt insulated system. The cable impedance is 0.01
Ohm. What will the current be in case of tatal short circuit on the motor?
(A) 1100 Amps
(B) 10 Amps
(C) 0 Amps
(D) 11 Amps
A six pole asynchrone motor is fed from a 60 Hz circuit and has a slip of 5 %. What is the
motor speed?
(A) 1720 RPM
(B) 1560 RPM
(C) 1140 RPM
(D) 960 RPM
How could you by measuring with AVO meter by R=1, determine which is the common
terminal on a one-phase induction motor which terminals are unmarked?
(A) Highest resistance between run and start. Remaining is common.
(B) Lowest resistance between run and common
(C) Common has highest resistance with run and start
(D) The common is indicating continuity to run as well as start
What is the continuity resistance of a heating element of 2 kWatt, 220 volt?
(A) 24.2 Ohm
(B) 9.09 Ohm
(C) 44 Ohm
(D) 11 Ohm
Which are the two requirements to make electricity generation possible?
(A) Presence of magnetic flux, moving conductor cutting flux
(B) Current to induce flux, rotary movement
(C) Power to induce magnetic flux, power to rotate
(D) Current to induce flux, conductor motion cutting flux
Determine the resistance of three resistors connected in STAR in a resistance box with 3
terminals? Resistance AB = 20 ohm, resistance BC = 30 ohm, resistance CA = 40 ohm
(A) R1 = 15 ohm, R2 = 5 ohm, R3 = 25 ohm
(B) R1 = 10 ohm, R2 = 18 ohm, R3 = 22 ohm
(C) R1 = 12 ohm, R2 = 8 ohm, R3 = 22 0hm
(D) R1 = 10 ohm, R2 = 10 ohm, R3 = 30 ohm
What happens to the characteristics of a 3 phase inductor motor if the applied voltage is
slightly reduced?
(A) Current and speed decrease, torque remains constant
(B) Current and torque decrease, speed remains constant
(C) Speed and torque decrease, current remains constant
(D) Speed decreases, current and torque remain constant
A STAR connected induction motor operates on 220 V with power factor 0.7 and efficiency
of 82%. Its output is 8 HP. What is the current and voltage across each phase?
(A) I phase is 12.8 Ampere, phase voltage is 220 volt
(B) I phase is 27.3 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 volt
(C) I phase is 15.8 Ampere, phase voltage is 220 volt
(D) I phase is 22.7 Ampere, phase voltage is 127 volt
How can the direction of a three phase induction motor can be reversed?
(A) Change the position of the entry cable on all terminals RST
(B) Change the position of the entry cable on two terminals
(C) Change the capacitor connection to another line
(D) Reverse the polarity of the armature
How many ratios does a transformer have?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

54. Single phase transformers of different ratings can be connected in parallel provided that the

(A) transformation and X/R ratios as well as the regulation are the same
(B) input and putput voltage as well as the regulation are the same
(C) output voltage, regulation and reactance are the same
(D) output, R/X ratio and regulation are the same
55. How much of its capacity can a three-transformer bank deliver if it is connected open-delta?
(A) 85 %
(B) 52 %
(C) 45 %
(D) 72 %
56. A 3-phase 60 cycle motor delivers 50 HP to a pump (shaft output). What is the torque if the
RPM is 1176 RPM?
(A) 225 pound-feet
(B) 175 pound-feet
(C) 275 pound-feet
(D) 250 pound-feet
57. In a shunt generator the armature current is 100 Amps and the field current 5 Amps. What is
the load current of the generator?
(A) 110 Amps
(B) 105 Amps
(C) 100 Amps
(D) 95 Amps
58. In oil type circuit breakers, what is the purpose of the oil?
(A) To act as an insulation
(B) To smother the arc
(C) To release hydrogen gas in the oil will extinguish the arc
(D) All of the above
59. Arc chutes in circuit breakers are efficient devices for quenching arcs in air because they

(A) extinguish the arc and prevent carbon formation

(B) isolate the breaker segments so the arc does not blow over
(C) control the temperature and molecular structure of the arc
(D) confine the arc, control its movement and provide rapid cooling
60. In the worst case, an electric shock of as low as 15 milli-amps will
(A) be totally harmless
(B) give you a faint shock
(C) burn your skin
(D) be fatal
61. What will happen when an earth fault occurs on one line of an insulated distribution system?
(A) The line will short circuit with the earth and the line fuse trips.
(B) The system will be in overload and both line fuse trip.
(C) No fuses will trip, the system is isolated from the earth.
(D) The opposite lin fuse will trip due overload.
62. What would be the value in ohms of a Neutral Earthing Resistor designed to limit the earth
fault current to full load rating in a 2 MW, cos phi 0.8, 3.3 kV 3 phase generator connected in
Star?
(A) 12.3 Ohm
(B) 9.7 Ohm
(C) 7.5 Ohm
(D) 4.4 Ohm
63. What information would you find on the name plate of any electric motor?
(A) Voltage, current kWatt, frequency, phases, speed, impedance
(B) Maker, voltage, current, power, frequency, phases, speed RPM
(C) Maker, voltage, horsepower, phases, BIL rating, polarity
(D) Voltage, current, horsepower, phases and polarity, speed
64. What information would you will find on the name plate of any industrial transformer?
(A) Power, current, horsepower, ampere
(B) Power, voltage, transformation rate, impedance
(C) Polarity marking, kWatt, impedance, voltages, maker

(D) KVar rating, voltage, impedance, BIL rating, polarity

65. A single phase motor has a full load current of 28 A. What will be the rating of the branch
fuses?
(A) 34 Amps
(B) 56 Amps
(C) 84 Amps
(D) 112 Amps
66. Three motors with full load currents of 15, 40 and 52 Amps each are fed by an unidentified
feeder. What is the minimum size of the motor feeder in AMPACITY?
(A) 120 Amps
(B) 175 Amps
(C) 235 Amps
(D) 350 Amps
67. A split-phase motor is an induction motor where the magnetic fields are produced by
that cause the motor to rotate.
(A) two permanent magnets
(B) the shunt and the series windings
(C) the main and the auxiliary windings
(D) the three stator windings
68. A voltmeter with 5,000 ohm internal resistance reads 10 volts at full scale. What resistor needs
to be put in series to increase its range to 150 volts?
(A) 7500 Ohm
(B) 35000 Ohm
(C) 70000 Ohm
(D) 165000 Ohm
69. A single phase, 3 wire, 60 Hz, 220 V Watthour meter has a disc constant of 1.2. Determine the
energy recorded by the meter after 18000 revolutions of the disc?
(A) 5000 Watthours
(B) 7200 Watthours
(C) 15000 Watthours
(D) 21600 Watthours
70. The low voltage side of a welding transformer has two turns and delivers 300 A. If the primary
side has 30 turns, how much current flows through it?
(A) 10 Amps
(B) 15 Ampere
(C) 20 Amps
(D) 30 Amps
71. In a group of five motors, one draws 10 A, two draw 50 A each and the remaining two draw 75
A each. What size conductor in terms of AMPACITY is needed to feed the group?
(A) 260 Amp
(B) 275 Amp
(C) 278.75 Amp
(D) 286.50 Amp
72. How many watts are there in one horsepower?
(A) 720 Watts
(B) 746 Watts
(C) 760 Watts
(D) 860 Watts
73. At what percentage of the motor name plate rating can a thermal overload relay be safely set
for continuity duty motors with service factor 1.15?
(A) 115 %
(B) 140 %
(C) 165 %
(D) 180 %
74. What should be the ampacity of branch circuit conductors supplying a single motor?
(A) 110 % of the full motor name plate rating
(B) 125 % of the full motor name plate rating
(C) 140 % of the full motor name plate rating
(D) 200 % of the full motor name plate rating

75. The size of any electrical conductor should be such that the voltage drop at full load will not
exceed a certain percentage. How much?
(A) 1 %
(B) 2 %
(C) 3 %
(D) 5 %
76. Except when used as bush-bars, which conductor number (AWG), or larger should always be
stranded?
(A) No. 6 AWG
(B) No. 8 AWG
(C) No. 10 AWG
(D) No. 12 AWG
77. What method should be used for achieving reduced voltage starting for large AC motors?
(A) Star-delta motor starter
(B) Auto transformer
(C) Line resistance starter
(D) Any of the above
78. A shorted 3-phase wire transmission has an impedance of (12 + J12) Ohms is supplying a load
of 1000kW at cos phi 0.8. The receiving line to line voltage is 13120 Volt. What is the loss?
(A) 15125 Watt
(B) 32600 Watt
(C) 45375 Watt
(D) 54125 Watt
79. A clamp meter is in fact a ..
(A) Volt meter
(B) Resistance meter
(C) Ampere meter
(D) Galvanometer
80. A Wheatstone Bridge is used to measure an unknown resistance in relation to .
(A) a voltage drop
(B) a current imbalance
(C) the laws of Kirchoff
(D) a known resistance
81. A Scott Transformer is used to transform .
(A) single phase power to two phase power
(B) two phase power to single phase power
(C) high voltage to low voltage
(D) two phase power to three phase power
82. What happens to the terminal voltage when it supplies a leading power factor load?
(A) It fluctuates
(B) It remains steady
(C) It rises
(D) It falls
83. Direct-on-line starting of motors will subject them to starting currents which are .
Higher than their full load (name plate) current?
(A) 2 to 3 times
(B) 5 to 7 times
(C) 9 to 12 times
(D) 12 to 15 times
84. In a Star-connected 3-phase motor ..
(A) the line voltage equal to the phase voltage
(B) the line current is equal to the phase current
(C) the phase voltage is higher than the line voltage
(D) the phase current higher than the line current
85. The phase current in delta connected alternator is found to be 127 A. What is the line current?
(A) 73.32 amps
(B) 127 amps
(C) 153.52 amps
(D) 219.97 amps

86. Line to line voltage of a Delta connected 3 phase alternator is found to be 440 volt. What is
the phase voltage?
(A) 440 volt
(B) 220 volt
(C) 254.33 volt
(D) 311.13 volt
87. The phase to phase voltage of a Star connected alternator is 254.34 volt. What is the
equivalent line to line voltage?
(A) 254.34 volt
(B) 230 volt
(C) 147 volt
(D) 440 volt
88. The line to line current of a Star connected motor is measured at 28 amps. What is the phase
current?
(A) 16.18 amps
(B) 22.72 amps
(C) 28.00 amps
(D) 48.44 amps
89. A single phase load takes 55 kW at 70 % power factor lagging from a 240 V, 50 Hz supply. If
the frequency is increased to 60 Hz by constant voltage, what will the power factor become?
(A) 0.842
(B) 0.700
(C) 0.633
(D) 0.583
90. Two 3-phase 4160 volt, 60 Hz alternators are operated in parallel. The total load of the system
is 1050 kW with power factor 0.75 lagging. If alternator No.1 is carrying 700 kW at 80 %
power factor lagging .
(A) the power factor of alternator No.2 is lagging 0.7352
(B) the power factor of alternator No.2 is lagging 0.7064
(C) the power factor of alternator No.2 is lagging 0.6914
(D) the power factor of alternator No.2 is lagging 0.658
91. An electric appliance takes 2500 Watt when connected across 220 volt, 60 Hz, single phase.
The electric current is 15 ampere. What is the resistance of the load?
(A) 8.2 ohm
(B) 9.4 ohm
(C) 10.5 ohm
(D) 11.11 ohm
92. Alternator (A) 100 kVA runs parallel with alternator (B) 125 kVA, both are 3 phase, 240 V, 60
Hz. The load of A is 60 kW, 90 % power factor and the load of B is 80 kW, 70 % power factor.
What is the total load?
(A) 472.8 amps
(B) 458.8 amps
(C) 429.8 amps
(D) 416.8 amps
93. The kWatt indicates 300 kWatt and the kVAR indicator shows 200 kVAR. What is the power
factor?
(A) 0.766
(B) 0.799
(C) 0.832
(D) 0.864
94. It is said sometimes that alternators are operating as a load, i.e. as a motor. What are the
circumstances for this to occur?
(A) Where parallel operation with deck generator or outside power supply occurs
(B) Where two generators are running in parallel
(C) Where three generators are running in parallel
(D) Any of the above
95. How many diodes are there in a full bridge rectifier?
(A) Two
(B) Three
(C) Four

(D) Six
96. Given that V = 240/30 degree V, I = 6 + J4 Amp. Find the real and the reactive power?
(A) Real = 1944 Watt. Reactive = 94.4 VAR capacitive
(B) Real = 1866 Watt. Reactive = 88.7 VAR inductive
(C) Real = 1826 Watt. Reactive = 96.9 VAR inductive
(D) Real = 1727 Watt. Reactive = 111.3 VAR capacitive
97. Wire sizes numbers (for example wire size 10 or wire size 14) are an indication of what?
(A) Wire section in square millimeters
(B) Wire outside diameter in millimeters
(C) Retrogressive numbering in AWG
(D) Progressive numbering in Amps
98. What is the power absorbed by a load of Z = (2+J1) Ohms when supplied to a source of
V=200/60 degree V?
(A) 16,000 Watt
(B) 16,850 Watt
(C) 17,450 Watt
(D) 18,000 Watt
99. One method of determining Watts and VARS in a single phase alternator current circuit is to
multiply the . By the complex expression of the current.
(A) power factor complex angle
(B) complex expression of the conjugate of the voltage
(C) complex apparent power conjugate of the consumers
(D) complex expression of the voltage
100.If an electric wire of length 100 m and 1.25 mm dia has a resistance of 30 ohm, what length of
the wire of same material with 0.75 mm dia which has a resistance of 25 ohm?
(A) 15 meters
(B) 20 meters
(C) 25 meters
(D) 30 meters
101.An induction motor is fed by a 3 phase feeder of 231 V and draws 150 A by 0.707 power
factor. What capacitor is needed to improve the power factor to 0.96 lagging?
(A) 24.1 kVAR
(B) 26.6 kVAR
(C) 30.05 kVAR
(D) 43.76 kVAR
102.An inductive load of (20+J10) ohm is connected in parallel with a capacitive load of (5-J5)
ohm to a source of (200+J100) volts. What is the total current?
(A) I=28.04 / 73.3 deg
(B) I=30.41 / 70.4 deg
(C) I=33.78 / 62.7 deg
(D) I=36.06 / 56.3 deg
103.A voltage of (60+J80) V is applied to circuit and the current is (3+5J) Amps. What is the real
power?
(A) 182.17 watt
(B) 219.62 watt
(C) 234.88 watt
(D) 259.14 watt
104.Megger test readings of a motor or alternator are ideally done when the machine is ..
(A) hot after stopping
(B) cooled down to hand warm
(C) cooled down to environment temperature
(D) running
105.When using a megger tester to test equipment rated 440 volts, make sure that the instrument
indicates a test voltage of
(A) 250 volts
(B) 500 volts
(C) 750 volts
(D) 1000 volts
106.In an emergency insulation resistance readings lower than normal can be acceptable, but what
would the allowable minimum be?

(A) 0.5 megaohm

(B) 1.0 megaohm
(C) 5.0 megaohm
(D) 10.0 megaohm
107.What is the maximum allowable temperature for normal Class A insulation type?
(A) 45 degree C
(B) 55 degree C
(C) 80 degree C
(D) 105 degree C
108.Which is the best way to give an electric motor a complete winding and insulation test?
(A) Megger test each phase separately to earth
(B) Megger test each phase to phase separately
(C) Conduct drop (mini-volt) test on each phase
(D) All of the above
109.Give the reason why shore power and ships power should never be run in parallel?
(A) Ships supply is in STAR, shore supply is in DELTA
(B) The shore frequency is rigid, the ships frequency is not
(C) No common earth is available
(D) Voltage drop from shore is different from the ship
110.When an electric motor is operated at a higher frequency, it will run . and it may be
operating .
(A) faster-----in overload
(B) slower------at too high a voltage
(C) faster------at overspeed
(D) slower------with too high a current
111. How many times full load current are motor fuses rated in order to withstand the large starting
current?
(A) 2 3 times
(B) 5 7 times
(C) 3 5 times
(D) 7 9 times
112.If a fault has occurred (shorted,earthed) in an electric motor and the motor has tripped on
overload, you should.
(A) not replace the fuses if they are not blown
(B) replace one fuse if only one is found blown
(C) replace two fuses if only two are found blown
(D) replace all three fuses, blown or not
113.What is the advantage of a fuse over a circuit breaker with regard to over current protection?
(A) It is less dangerous since there are no arcs
(B) It cannot get stuck, no mechanical parts
(C) The broken fuse is easier to locate
(D) Its very high speed breaking operation
114.For an overload of 25% of the full rated current how long compared to tripping a circuit
breaker would a fuse take to blow?
(A) Very much long
(B) Longer
(C) Lesser
(D) No difference
115.For instantaneous operation of preference overload tripping, at what percentage of the total
rated current is the device usually set?
(A) 125%
(B) 120%
(C) 115%
(D) 110%
116.How would you initiate a test, if found necessary, to find out if an alternator preference system
is working?
(A) By lowering the generator frequency
(B) By rising the generator frequency
(C) By rising the generator voltage
(D) By lowering the alternator voltage

117.What are the functions of the Under Voltage Release Unit as generator circuit breaker?
(A) It trips the alternator by under voltage
(B) It disallows breaker to be put on load by under voltage
(C) It prevents breaker operation in the absence of voltage
(D) All of the above
118.If a total short circuit occurs on a 3 phase alternator and the short circuit fails to operate, what
back-up safety device will activate?
(A) The preferential trip
(B) The low frequency trip
(C) The overspeed trip
(D) The under voltage trip
119.A generators Reverse power protection relay is fitted between .
(A) the breaker connecting bars
(B) the breaker and the consumers
(C) the generator and the consumers
(D) the generator and the bush bars
120.The pick up and the time settings of reverse current relays are adjustable. If the prime mover
of the alternator is a steam turbine what is the pick up setting?
(A) 1-2 %
(B) 2-3 %
(C) 4-6 %
(D) 6-7 %
121.How many seconds time delay is considered normal before a generators Reverse Trip Relay
operates?
(A) 1-3 seconds
(B) 3-5 seconds
(C) 5-7 seconds
(D) 7-8 seconds
122.If the prime mover of an alternator is a diesel engine, what should the Reverse current relays
pick up setting be?
(A) 5-10 %
(B) 10-15 %
(C) 8-10 %
(D) 5-8 %
123.What voltages are accredited standard secondary voltages for voltage transformers?
(A) 240 volt and 220 volt
(B) 220 volt and 110 volt
(C) 380 volt and 220 volt
(D) 230 volt and 120 volt
124.Current transformers supply ampere meters and the current operated coils of instruments with
a standard current of either
(A) 2 or 1 amps
(B) 5 or 1 amps
(C) 20 or 5 amps
(D) 20 or 5 milli-amps
125.What is the regulated minimum Megger test reading for MCCBs circuit breakers?
(A) 1-3 megohm
(B) 4-6 megohm
(C) 5-8 megohm
(D) 7-10 megohm
126.What is the purpose of the cable gland besides that it is designed to provide a watertight seal?
(A) To provide a gas tight seal
(B) As bulkhead or penetrating plate reiforcement
(C) To allow minor sliding of the cable
(D) To maintain the mechanical properties of the cable
127.How can you monitor the correct instant for synchronizing alternators should your
synchronizing system (synchronoscope or lamps) be defective?
(A) By fitting a voltmeter over one phase
(B) By fitting lamps over the three phases
(C) By fitting lamps crossed over two phases

(D) By fitting two voltmeters crossed over two phases.