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PA L A

Name ................................................
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............

COMEDK MODEL EXAMINATION

07- 05- 2015

B1
VERSION

Paper - II (Biology+English)

FT15R/MOD/[B1]COMED K

Maximum Mark : 120

Duration : 2 hrs

1. Physics and Chemistry as one paper for two hours duration besides Biology and English as another paper for
two hours duration.
2. Candidates are required to mark their answers on an OMR Answer sheet. Each correct answer is awarded one
mark. There will be no negative marking.
3. Candidates seeking admission for Medical / Dental courses will have to satisfy the eligibility norms prescribed
by MCI/DCI, besides eligibility in English viz.50% securing for General Merit candidates & 40% for SC, ST and
OBC candidates of Karnataka is mandatory for allocation of Rank. However only scores in Physics, Chemistry
and Biology of the Entrance Test will be the basis for Ranking.

1.

These are the chief events occur in the female reproductive cycle, arrange them in proper sequence :
a) Secretion of FSH
b) Growth of corpus luteum
c) Growth of the follicle and oogenesis
d) Ovulation
e) Sudden increase in the level of LH

2.

A) c - a - d - b - e

B) a - d - c - e - b

C) a - c - e - d - b

D) b - a - c - d - e

The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called

A) Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days
B) Follicular phase lasting for about 6 days
C) Luteal phase and lasts for 13 days
D) Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days

3.

In a normal pregnant woman, the amount of total gonadotrophin activity was assessed. The result expected
was
A) High level of circulating FSH and LH in the uterus to stimulate implantation of the embryo
B) High level of circulating hCG to stimulate endometrial thickening
C) High level of FSH and LH in uterus to stimulate endometrial thickening
D) High level of circulating hCG to stimulate estrogen and progesterone synthesis

4.

Which one of the following is the most likely root cause why menstruation is not taking place in regularly
cycling human female?
A) Maintenance of the hypertrophical endodermal lining
B) Maintenance of high concentration of sex hormones in the blood stream
C) Retention of well developed corpus luteum
D) Increased secretion of gonadotrophins

5.

Find the mismatch

A) Natural method

- coitus interruptus

B) Barrier method

- condoms

C) IUDs

- cervical caps

D) Oral administration - pills

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6.

7.

What would happen if vasa differentia of man are cut?

A) Sperms are non nucleated

B) Sperms are tailless

C) Spermatogenesis does not occurs

D) Semen is without sperms

Transfer of zygote or early embryos with upto 8 blastomeres in to the fallopian tube is known as
A) ZIFT

8.

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B) IUT

C) IVF

D) GIFT

Find out the correct statement about IUDs

1) IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms
2) Cu ions suppress sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms
3) Hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
4) Progestasert is a hormone releasing IUDs

9.

A) only one and two is correct

B) only 3 and 4 is correct

C) 2 and 3 are false

D) all statements are correct

Which of the following is not correctly paired

1. Coelacanth

- ancestor of frog

2. Ichthyosaurs

- fish like reptile

3. Homology

- Convegent evolution

4. Small & directional variation

- de Vries

5. Branching descent

- Darwin

A) 1 and 4

B) 2 and 3

C) 3 and 4

D) 1 only

10. Which of the following fossil men used burial customs

A) Austropithecus

B) Pithecanthropus erectus

C) Sinanthropus pekinensis

D) Neanderthal man

11. Which of the following is not correct pair,

A) Dryopithecus - Ape like primate

B) Study of fossils Paleantology

C) Devonian period Age of fishes

D) Mesozoic era Age of Mammals

12. Which of the following is not an example of adaptive radiation

A) Australian marsupials

B) Darwin finches

C) Placental mammals in Australia

D) Eye of octopus and mammals

13. Name the disease from the following hints :

a) Pathogens generally present in the small intestine
b) infections mainly through contaminated food and water
c) pathogens migrate to other parts of the body through blood
d) pathogenic bacterium causes intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases
e) This could be confirmed by widal test
A) Malaria

B) Typhoid

C) Amoebiasis

D) Elephantiasis

14. Marijuana, Hashish, Charas and Ganja obtained from :

A) Latex of poppy plant papaver somniferum

B) Root of cannabis sativa

C) Flower tops, leaves and resin of cannabis plant D) Obtained from erythroxylum coca
15. Identify the secondary lymphoid organ which provide the site for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen
A) Spleen, bone marrow, thymus

B) Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, appendix

C) Spleen and bone marrow

D) Peyers patches of small intestine and thymus

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16. Find out the correct statement.

A) Adaptive immunity is present at the time of birth
B) Humoral immune response is cell mediated
C) Each antibody molecule has two longer light chains and two smaller heavy chains
D) CMI is mediated by T lymphocytes
17. Increase in concentration of pollutants in higher trophic levels is called
A) Recycling

B) Eutrophication

C) Biodegradation

D) Biomagnification

18. The frog that feeds on an insect is a

A) Primary consumer

B) Tertiary consumer

C) Secondary consumer

D) Decomposers

19. Green house effect is due to

A) Depletion of O3 layer and increase in CO2 concentration
B) Depletion of CO2 layer and increase in O3 concentration
C) Depletion of O3 layer and decrease in CO2 concentration

D) Afforestation

20. The different forms of interbreeding species that live in different geographical regions are called
A) Sibling species

B) Allopatric species

C) Sympatric species

D) Polytypic species

21. Group of organisms of same species in a given area at a time is:

A) Community

B) Biosphere

C) Population

D) Ecosystem

22. Antibiotics are

A) Collective name of useful bacteria

B) Toxins produced by bacteria

C) Drugs manufactured to kill viruses

D) Products of metabolism of bacteria

23. Cry II ab and Cry I ab produce toxins that control

A) Cotton boll worms and corn borer respectively
B) Corn borer and cotton bollworms respectively
C) Corn borer and tobacco budworms respectively
D) Nematodes and tobacco budworms respectively
24. The method of DNA finger printing involves the use of
A) Restriction enzymes B) Taq polymerase

C) Oligonucleotide primers

D) All of these

25. The correct sequence of hierarchial levels in biological diversity is

A) Community & Ecosystem diversity Species diversity Genetic diversity
B) Genetic diversity Species diversity Community & Ecosystem diversity
C) Specific diversity Genetic diversity Community diversity
D) Genetic diversity Ecosystem diversity specific diversity
26. Species richness means
A) Number of species per unit area
B) Number of particular species per the total number of different species in a particular area
C) Number of genes in a particular species
D) Number of genetic variation in a particular area
27. Competitions is most severe between two :A) Closely related species growing in different niches
B) Closely related species growing in the same habitat
C) Distantly related species growing in the same habitat
D) Distantly related species growing in different niches

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28. The J shaped growth form is represented by the following exponential equation :A) N t N 0 B 1 D E
C)

dN
rN 1
dt

B)

dN
rN
dt

D)

KN
K

29. Relationship between epiphytes and tree is :

A) Parasitism

B) Proto co-operation

C) Commensalism

D) Amensalism

30. The wheat variety Atlas 66 having :

A) High oil content

B) High vitamin content

C) High mineral content D) High protein content

31. Semi - dwarf varieties of rice were introduced in :

A) 1962

B) 1961

C) 1965

D) 1966

32. Pusa sawani, the okra variety resistant against :

A) Aphids

B) Jassids

C) Shoot and fruit borer D) Aphides and fruit borer

33. Which is used for the commercial production of ethanol :

A) Acetobacter aceti

B) Aspergillus niger

C) Monascus purpurens

D) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

34. Large amount of CO2 production in Swiss Cheese by a bacterium called :

A) Lactobacillus

B) Acetobactor aceti

C) Clostridium butylicum

D) Propionibacterium sharmanii

35. Which one is not matched

A) Brewers yeast S.Cerevisiae

B) Cyclosporin propionibacterium

C) Streptokinase - Streptococcus

D) Penicillin P. notatum

36. IPM stands for

A) Indian pest management

B) Indian Pest Managing

C) Integrated Place Management

D) Integrated Pest Management

37. Small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementory to the regions of DNA which is used
in PCR
A) Promotor

B) Primer

C) Complementer

D) Duplicator

38. DNA is a
A) Hydrophilic molecule

B) Hydrophobic molecule

C) Lipolytic molecule

D) Proteolytic molecule

39. Escherichia coli is used in biological researchers because :

A) It is easily available

B) It can be easily cultured

C) It is easy to handle

D) It can easily multiply in the host

40. The DNA polymerase which is used in PCR is isolated from :

A) Bacillus thuringiensis B) Clostridium sps.

C) Salmonella sps.

D) Thermus aquaticus

41. Ethidium bromide stained gel exposed to UV light gives :

A) Bright orange coloured bands

B) Bright red coloured bands

C) Light orange coloured bands

D) Dark blue coloured bands

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42. The enzyme involved in Reverse transcription is :

A) DNA - dependent RNA polymerase
B) DNA - dependent DNA polymerase
C) RNA - dependent DNA polymerase
D) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
43. Which of the following is not correct
A) The igene codes for the repressor of the lac operon
B) The Z gene codes for beta-galactosidase
C) Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme beta-galuclosidase
D) The repressor of the operon is synthesised from the Z gene
44. What happened when heat killed S cells along with live R cells were injected into mice?
A) Mice died and showed live R cells

B) Mice died and showed live S cells

C) Mice died and showed dend R cells

D) Mice survived and showed live R cells

45. Which of the following statement is incorrect

A) DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides
B) DNA as an acidic substance present in nucleus was first identified by Friedrich Meischer in 1896
C) Bacteriophage lamda has 48502 base pairs
D) In a double helix, the two chains are coiled in a right-handed fashion
46. Embryosac develops from megaspore mother cell through
A) 1 meiosis and 2 mitosis

B) 1 mitosis and 2 meiosis

C) 1 mitosis and 3 meiosis

D) 1 meiosis and 3 mitosis

47. Find out the correctly matched pairs:

I) Meiocytes formed as a result of meiosis
II) Bryophytes gametes produced by mitotic division
III) Turkey new organism develop directly from female gametes
IV) Pteridophytes syngamy occurs outside the body of the organism
A) I and IV

B) II and III

C) I, II and IV

D) I, II and III

48. Match the following and choose the correct combination from given:
Column I (Organism)

Column II (Chromosome number of meiocyte

Maize

48

Rice

20

Potato

34

Apple

21

24

A) A t, B q, C p, D r
B) A t, B s, C p, D q
C) A q, B t, C p, D r
D) A s, B t, C p, D r

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49. In angiosperms normally after fertilization

A) The zygote divide earlier than the primary endosperm nucleus
B) The primary endosperm nucleus divides earlier than the zygote
C) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nucleus divide simultaneously
D) Both the zygote and primary endosperm nucleus undergo a resting period
50. Which of the following statement is not true?
A) the formation of embryosac from megaspore, first division is reduction division
B) sporogenous cells directly behave as megaspore mother cell
C) megaspore divides twice to form an 4 nucleated embryosac
D) egg and synergids always lie near the micropylar end of ovule
51. During meiosis, the allele of the parental pair separate or segregate from each other. How many alleles are
then transmitted to progeny
A) four

B) two

C) six

D) one

52. The pattern of inheritance of white eye colour in Drosophila shows that the gene is:
A) located on X-chromosome
B) located on the Y-chromosome
C) located on an autosome
D) sex influenced
53. Carriers of a genetic disorder
A) are indicated by shaded square
B) will produce children with the disease
C) have a homozygous recessive genotype
D) are heterozygotes for the gene that can cause the disorder
54. Study the pedigree chart of a certain family given in figure and select the correct conclusion which can be
drawn for the character

A) Inheritance of a condition like myotonic dystrophy as an autosomal dominant trait

B) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not posible
C) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like haemophilia
D) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenyl ketonuria
55. Mental retardation caused by phenylketonuria is due to
A) dominant nature of the gene
B) Non conversion of glutamic acid into tyrosine
C) Conversion of tyrosine into phenyl alanine
D) Accumulation of phenyl alanine in cerebrospinal fluid

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56. The binding site of t RNA with m RNA and aminoacids respectively are:
A) mRNA with codon loop and aminoacid with aminoacid acceptor end
B) mRNA with codon end and aminoacid with anticodon loop
C) mRNA with anticodon loop and aminoacid with stop codon
D) mRNA with anticodon loop and aminoacid with aminoacid acceptor end
57. Replication of DNA in eukaryotes commences from:
A) one end of chromatid extending to the other end
B) the centromere to either of the ends of chromatids
C) several sites along the DNA of the chromatid simultaneously
D) both ends of the chromatid simultaneously
58. In Lac operon structural gene produces the enzyme
A) -galactosidase, permease and glycogen synthetase
B) - galactosidase, permease and transacetylase
C) Permease, glycogen synthetase and transacetylase
D) -galactosidase, phosphoglucose isomerase and permease
59. Sickle cell trait arise due to the substitution of :
A) Glutamic acid for valine at the 6th position of chain
B) Valine for glutamic acid at the 6th position of chain
C) Valine for glutamic acid at the 3rd position of chain
D) Valine for glutamic acid at the 6th position of chain
60. Consider the following statement:
i) m-RNA provides the template for synthesis of protein
ii) t-RNA brings aminoacids and reads the genetic code
iii) RNA polymerase binds to promoter and initiates transcription
iv) A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called introns
A) I, III and IV are correct

B) I and II are correct

C) I, II and III are correct

D) II and III are correct

In each of the following questions we have sensences given in four parts. Read each sentence to
find out whether there is any error in it. The error if any will be the answer
61. (A) The car flew off the road/(B)and fell into the valley/(C) because Amit/(D) was driving faster
62. (A) Anita was/(B) unhappy about the results/(C) of the discussion she/(D)has with Rajani?
63. (A) Taking pity/(B) on the mouse/ (C) the sage transformed it into a cat (D) No error
64. (A) You have not care /(B) to see that your /(C) expenditure was more/(D) than your salary.
65. (A) Jayesh had hardly/ (B) started reading the magazine/(C) than the managing director/(D) came to see him
66. (A) Unless I do not get/ (B) some tea (C) I shall not be able/ (D) to do any more work.
67. (A) Both of my/ (B) children, a daughter and a son, (C) always quarrel with /(D) one another.
68. (A) Every man and woman/(B) should vote. (C) for the candidate/ (D) of their choice
69. (A) He had consulted not only the opposition parties/ (B) but also accommodated their views/ (C) while
dropping/(D) this controversial clause
70. (A) The escape of David to France/ (B) was successfully arranged, but no sooner/(C) was this done than

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George/(D)was captured and held prisoner.

In each of the following questions, a group of words has been underlined. Below each four choices
(A), (B), (C), (D) are given. Pick out that one which can substitute the underlined group of words
correctly without changing the meaning of the sentence
71. The patient was saved from the jaws of death because of the doctor arrived on time
A) of the doctor being arrived

B) of the arrival of the doctor

C) the doctor arrive

D) of the doctor had arrived

72. How can you take the support of your voters for granted without being loyally to them?
A) being loyally for

B) been loyally to

C) being loyal to

D) loyally being to

73. Every resident must help the Residents Welfare Association for keep up the colony clean
A) for upkeep clean the colony

B) for keeping the colongy cleanliness

C) keep the colony clean

D) for clean and keep the colony

74. Any one who known to Indias metros knows the meaning the pollution
A) knowing Indias metros knows

B) is known to Indias metros knows

C) knows Indias metros knows

D) knew Indias metros knowing

75. In our country everyone has opportunities to rise to top in every walk of life
A) have opportunities to rise

B) has been having opportunities

C) has had opportunities for a raise

D) none

76. If Indian people are united, this nation could become a source with strength for the entire world
A) can become a source with

B) could become a resource of

C) can become resourceful for

D) can become a source of

77. All the efforts were direct to promote harmony among various groups of people
A) were directing to promote

B) were directed at promote

C) were directed to promote

D) were directed to promoting

78. What did happen there is not something that agitates me

A) What does happen B) What would have happened
C) What happened

D) What should have happened

79. We cannot ignore the contribution of Kapil Dev for bringing about change in our bowling pattern
A) for bringing in

B) in bringing about

C) in bringing of

D) for the brought over

80. Such loopholes can be founded whenever similar laws exist

A) could have bee founded

B) can be found

C) could be founded

D) could have found

Fill up the Blanks

81. ................he woke up, he saw that his bag was stolen
A) If

B) when

C) where

D) so

82. The Police Inspector............the wanted criminal from his friends residence
A) arrived

B) gathered

C) arrested

D) collected

83. The Managing Director ..............many favours on his faithful servant Vibha
A) gave

B) approved

C) imposed

D) bestowed

84. Purchasing a colour TV set is considered as a(n)..............of status

A) luxury

B) symbol

C) symptom

D) honour

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85. Rajni..........................her mother to purchase a new saree for the occasion

A) thought

B) called

C) thanked

D) advised

86. The Indian economy badly needs to........... an export oriented economic structure
A) prepare

B) develop

C) achieve

D) gain

87. Collective...................are needed to root out the dowry system

A) funds

B) methods

C) laws

D) efforts

88. A servant is expected to carry ............orders of his master

A) on

B) for

C) in

D) out

89. As a social worker, he tried his best to ..........the condition of the poor
A) improve

B) change

C) correct

D) develop

90. Mahesh cannot be appointed since he.........the experience necessary for the job
A) misses

B) loses

C) lacks

D) needs

Pickout the correct meaning of the words given below

91. BOOM
A) blessing

B) curse

C) explosion

D) vigour

B) destroy

C) reproduce

D) strengthen

B) protect

C) devote

D) create

B) eventful

C) natural

D) extraordinary

B) model

C) discovery

D) invention

B) dignified

C) unpaid

D) praiseworthy

B) desire

C) branch

D) ability

B) scarce

C) diffuse

D) headless

B) variety

C) multiplication

D) magnitude

B) poor

C) lowly

D) listed

92. FORTIFY
A) topple
93. HINDER
A) impede
94. PHENOMENAL
A) incidental
95. PARADIGM
A) solution
96. HONORARY
A) honest
97. FACULTY
A) privilege
98. TERSE
A) concise
99. MULTIPLICITY
A) finite
100. SCHEDULED
A) backward

Choose the most suitable antonym of the given words

101. TERMINATION
A) endeavouring

B) beginning

C) amendment

D) phasing

B) extracted

C) negated

D) discouraged

B) change

C) disengage

D) boycott

102. INSPIRED
A) expired
103. PARTICIPATE
A) precipitate

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10

104. EGALITARIAN
A) unequal

B) socialist

C) capitalist

D) liberal

B) deficit

C) ill

D) profit

B) progress

C) hamper

D) retard

B) appearance

C) impression

D) interior

B) tyranny

C) aristocracy

D) self-rule

B) resultantly

C) troubledly

D) initially

B) experiential

C) natural

D) spiritual

105. DEFICIENCY
A) abundance
106. FLOURISH
A) improve
107. VENEER
A) exterior
108. DICTATORSHIP
A) democracy
109. EVENTUALLY
A) primarily
110. PHENOMENAL
A) ordinary

Given below is a passage in which missing words are represented by numbered blanks. Below the
passage against each number are suggested four choices, only one of which fits the blank
appropriately. Find out the appropriate choice in each case
Our independence in 1947 was born against the (51) of the great Bengal famine of 1942-43. Speaking at
Noakhali in 1946, Gandhiji (52) that the first and (53) duty of independent India is to (54) an environment
which (55) every Indian to earn his or her daily(56). Gandhiji was against making people beggars and that
is why he stressed the need for (57) to earn rather than give (58) food on (59) of charity and (60).
111. A) Milieu

B) border

C) backdrop

D) barrenness

112. A) witnessed

B) deliberated

C) acceded

D) emphasised

113. A) last

B) second

C) foremost

D) freest

114. A) create

B) sustain

C) conserve

D) pollute

115. A) helps

B) enables

C) protects

D) subsidises

116. A) meal

B) living

C) livelihood

D) bread

117. A) methods

B) policies

C) opportunities

D) activities

118. A) up

B) in

C) off

D) away

119. A) grounds

B) rules

C) systems

D) considerations

120. A) generation

B) nutrition

C) deficiency

D) patronage

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PA L A

Name ................................................
Batch.................... Roll No. ...............

COMEDK MODEL EXAMINATION

07- 05- 2015

Paper - II - Key with Hints

FT15R/MOD/[B1]COMED K

1.

21.

41.

61. D

81. B

101. B

2.

22.

42.

62. D

82. C

102. D

3.

23.

43.

63. D

83. D

103. D

4.

24.

44.

64. A

84. B

104. A

5.

25.

45.

65. C

85. D

105. A

6.

26.

46.

66. A

86. B

106. D

7.

27.

47.

67. D

87. D

107. D

8.

28.

48.

68. D

88. D

108. A

9.

29.

49.

69. A

89. A

109. D

10.

30.

50.

70. C

90. C

110. A

11.

31.

51.

71. C

91. A

111. C

12.

32.

52.

72. C

92. D

112. D

13.

33.

53.

73. C

93. A

113. C

14.

34.

54.

74. A

94. D

114. A

15.

35.

55.

75. D

95. B

115. B

16.

36.

56.

76. D

96. A

116. D

17.

37.

57.

77. D

97. E

117. C

18.

38.

58.

78. C

98. A

118. D

19.

39.

59.

79. B

99. B

119. D

20.

40.

60.

80. B

100. D

120. D

B1
VERSION