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NBDE Part I Remembered Questions 1

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15.

A 12 yo patient would still have


which primary teeth:
K, T
C, H
B, I
S, L

K, T

The connection of fluoride in


formation of hydroxyappatite causes
what changes in crystals and how is
the solubility affected by acid?

Crystals become
discolored.
Fluoride
LOWERS the
solubility
constant making
it less soluble in
acid

Actinomycosis is an infection
caused by what?

Bacteria

Actinomycosis is often
associated with what?

Dental work and jaw


trauma

17.

Damage to the right condyle will


cause deviation to which side?

Right (same side)

All of the following come from the


dental sac except?

Epithelial attachment

18.

Describe emphysema.

Decreased
elasticity
Increased lung
volume
Barrel chest*
Collapse of
alveolar walls
with loss of
diffusional
surface area

The anterior of the left and right


ventricles are necrosed. What
artery is blocked?

Anterior
interventricular artery
(aka left anterior
descending artery)

The azygos causes an impression


on what?

Right lung

Blastomycosis is an infection
caused by what?

Fungus
Detergents kill bacteria by interfering
with the function of what cell
structure?

Cell membrane
(specifically the
fatty parts)

A bullet entering between teh 7th


and 8th intercostal ribs would
pierce which lobe of the lung?

Inferior lobe
20.

Do canines have mamelons?

NO!

Calvarium contains what


vessels?

Diploid veins

21.

Dysgeusia can be caused by what?

Xerostomia

Can Rubella be transmitted from


mother to fetus?

YES
It is associated with
congential anomalies

Each of the following structures lies


between the hyoglossus and the
mylohyoid muscles EXCEPT one.

Lingual ARTERY

Can Rubella be transmitted from


mother to fetus?

YES
It is associated with
congenital anomalies

Esophageal varices are commonly


seen in what?

Alcoholics

Failure of the left ptyergoid muscle


causes the mandible to deviate to
what side?

Left (same side)

Carotid body mainly measures


what?

Partial pressure of O2

CHF is most common on which


side?

RIGHT SIDE
Enlargement of RV
commonly from
Pulmonary HTN
Does not involve left
side of heart

The greater the horizontal overlap of


the anteriors means...?

The SHORTER
the posterior
cusps MUST be

The greater the vertical overlap...?

The LONGER the


posterior cusps
MAY be

A greyish pseudomembrane is found


in an infection caused by a species
of?

Corynebacteira
diptheria

H0ow long does it take cortical bone


to form?

5-7 years

High concentration of extracellular


potassium will result in?

Depolarization

Histoplasmosis is a disease caused


by what?

Fungus

16.

19.

22.

23.

24.

25.

Clinical case: a bullet hit the head


above the ear and came out of
where?

Temporal

CNS myelin sheath is formed by


what?

Oligodendrocytes

26.

27.

28.

29.

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45.

HIV patient comes in with


a purple spot on their lip.
What is the most likely
diagnosis?

Kaposi sarcoma

How does Nystatin work?

Binds to ergosterol (in the cell


membrane of fungus)

How does the TMJ get


nutrients?

Through diffusion from the


disk (synovial membrane and
synovial fluid provide
nourishment and lubrication)

How do you know that


systemic lupus
erythamatous is getting
worse and advancing
badly?

Renal failure

How is Hep A
transmitted?

Fecal/oral route

How many nuclei do


skeletal, cardiac and
smooth muscle have?

Skeletal - multinucleated
Cardiac - 1 nuclei
Smooth - 1 nuclei

If a patient wants an
implant, but it is too close
to the sinus what ethics
are involved?

Non-maleficence and
autonomy

If ISS is >1mm?

Posterior cusps MUST be


SHORT, and central grooves
MUST be WIDE

If ISS is 0mm?

46.

47.

48.

49.

50.

51.

52.

Posterior cusps MAY be


LONG, and central grooves
MAY be NARROW

In a healthy kidney what


does not get passed
through?

Albumin

Individuals with SLE can


have a false positive of
what other disease?

Syphilis

An individual with
multiple myleloma
presents with what type of
signs and symptoms?

Increased susceptibility to
infection
Accumulation of Bence-Jones
protines
Proteinuria
"Punched out" lesions on xray

In emphysema do you see


metabolic acidosis or
alkalosis?

Respiratory acidosis

The internal laryngeal


nerve innervates what?

Mucosa of the larynx above the


vocal folds

Is the TMJ a loading join?

Yes

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54.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

60.

61.

Jaundice does NOT result


from which of the following:
Gallstones
Hepatitis A
Hemolytic anemia
Vitamin K deficiency
Carcinoma of the common bile
duct

Vitamin K deficiency

Know all the blots

Northern blot = RNA


Southern blot = DNA
Western blot - protein
Eastern blot = posttranslational
modifications of proteins

The lesser the vertical


overlap...?

The SHORTER the


posterior cusps MUST be

Less horizontal overlap of the


anteriors means...?

The LONGER the


posterior cusps MAY be

Live attenuated vaccine is


what type of immunity?

Artificial active immunity

Low concentration of
extracellular potassium will
result in?

Hyperpolarization

L. pneumophila is found
where?

Air conditioning systmes

Macrostomia is fusion of
what?

Failure of fusion between


the maxillary and
mandibular prominences
of the embryonic face

A minor gland is full of


leukocytes, why?

Sjorgren

MOA of jaundice?

Elevated serum bilirubin


levels

Mycobacterium is considered
to be?

Acid-fast

Nitroglycerin was
administered and the pain
went away, what condition is
this?

Angina pectoris

Norepineprhine is secreted
from what type of terminal?

POSTsynaptic
sympathetic

A patient has pain and which


of the following could it be?

Cholelithiasis

Patient is anesthetized and


pain at the TMJ is gone. What
nerve was anesthetized?

Auriculotemporal nerve

Patient with a heart stent


placed 6 years ago and a hip
replaced 10 years ago - which
would you NOT do?

Antibiotic prophylaxis

62.

63.
64.

65.

66.

67.

The philtrum of the lip is formed


from what?

Medial nasal
processes and
maxillary
processes

72.

73.

PNS myelin is formed by what?

Schwann cells

Polyene antifungals are specific to


fungus because?

It attacks sterols
that are present in
fungus and not
present in
bacteria

75.

The presence of anterior mamelons


in an adult is indicative of what?

Anterior open
bite/malocclusion

76.

Process of elongation of the


diaphysis?

1) chondrocytes
proliferate in
epiphyseal plate
2) chondrocytes
hypertrophy on
diaphyseal side of
the area
3) matrix calcifies
4) chondrocytes
die
5) osteoblasts lay
down layer of
primary bone
along the bone
spicules

Pt case: Lady had osteoporosis who


had surgery to repair her incus and
malleus after which she lost her
sense of taste, how does this happen
and what canal does that nerve exit?

74.

77.

78.

79.

80.

81.

82.

V3 exists via
foramen ovale

69.

70.

71.

Endothelial cells

Right mandibular excursion is


done by what muscle?

Left lateral pterygoid


muscle

Serous demilumes are present in


waht?

Found in all mixed


glands - sublingual
and submandibular
(They surround
mucous acini)

Stenson's duct is located near


which tooth?

Maxillary 1st molar

The superior orbital fissure


appears where in the skull?

In between the lesser


and greater wings of
the sphenoid

Taste buds are involved in all


papilla except?

Filiform

There is a diabetic firefighter with


a bad upper left bridge and is
looking to replace with implants.
When placing implants into bone
what epithelium is encountered?

Pseudostratified
ciliated columnar

To increase anterior guidance you


would do what?

Decrease horizontal
and increase vertical
overlap

Unilateral cleft lip is caused by


what?

When the maxillary


prominence on the
affected side fails to
join with the merged
medial nasal
prominences

What action of the lingual nerve


stays with the nerve throughout its
course?

Sensory to anterior
2/3 of the tongue

What amino acid is involved in


collagen cross linking?

Lysine

What are the branches of the


costocervical trunk?

Deep cervical
Superior intercostal

What are the branches of the


thryocervical trunk?

Inferior thyroid
Suprascapular
Transverse cervical

What are the sensory and motor


components of the gag reflex?

Sensory Glossopharyngeal
Motor - Vagus

What are the symptoms of SLE?

Women
Inflammation in
joints, tendons and
other CT and organs.
Butterfuly rash over
cheeks and bridge of
nose

Chorda tympani
(CN VII) which
joins the lingual
nerve (V3) Facial nerve exist
via internal
acoustic meatus*

68.

Ricketsial diseases are destructive


for what?

A pt comes to you with diabetes, what


is the MOST accurate way of seeing
their glucose levels?

HbA1c

Pt has a submandibular tenderness.


Pt is an alcoholic. Radiograph shows
a radiopaque mass (sialolith). What
is the reason of swelling?

Bacterial
infection

Pyrimidine synthesis begins with


what?

Ribose-5phosphate

Radiographs of a pts skull show


"punched out" areas. Lab studies
reveal hyperproteinemia and
prteinuria. Which of the following
represents the probably diagnosis of
this condition?

Multiple myeloma

83.

84.

85.

86.

87.

What are the three stages of


healing?

Inflammatory phase blood clot formation


Reparative phase cartilage callus
Remodeling phase forms compact bone
using howship's
lacunae

107.

108.

109.

What artery supplies nutrients


to the TMJ?

External carotid artery

What bacteria is involved in


ANUG?

P. intermedia

What bacteria is likely to cause


the periodontitis and bleeding
gums in the 19 yo boy?

Aggregatibacter
actinomycetemcomitans

What can beta-2 adrenergic


drugs be used to treat?

Asthma

What can be used to identify


DNA restriction fragments?

Southern blot

What causes nongonoccocal


urethritis?

Clamydia

What causes Q fever?

Coxilla burnetii
(unpasteurized milk)

What color does minocycline


cause the teeth to turn?

Grey and BLUE

What crosses in front of the


anterior scalene muscle?

Suprascapular
Transverse cervical

What directly stimulates


growth hormone?

Somatocrinin

What disease blocks ACH?

Myasthenia gravis

What disease has Janeway


lesions?

Infective endocarditis

What do alpha receptors


mediate?

Vasoconstrictor actions
of catecholamines

101.

What do beta-2 agonists do?

Bronchodialtors for
asthma by relaxing
smooth airway mm

115.

102.

What do beta sheets form?

Hydrogen bonds

116.

What do cerebral vascular


accidents, Alzheimer and
Parkinson's have in common?

Dementia

What do chief cells secrete?


Where are they found?

Pepsinogen

117.

What does activation of beta-1


adrenergic receptors do?

Increase contractile
force and heart rate

118.

What does activation of beta-2


adrenergic receptors do?

Leads to vascular and


non-vascular smooth
muscle RELAXATION

88.

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114.

What does
ADH do?

Increases water permeability of the


membranes in the distal tubules and
collecting duct

What does
aldosterone
do?

Causes the nephron to resorb more sodium


and secretion of K in the distal convoluted
tubules and collecting duct

What does a
Rh+ factor
suggest in a pt
who has SLE?

That they also have joint problems

What does
essential HTN
do to the
kidney?

Increased arterial pressure causes a


DECREASE in GFR. TO compensate the
kidneys would constrict the efferent
arterioles in order to increase GFR and
increase the amount of filtrate going into
the proximal tubules

What does it
mean if you
have a shallow
articular
eminence (45
degrees)?

Posterior cusps MUST be SHORTER

What does it
mean if you
have a steep
articular
eminence (60
degrees)?

Posterior cusps MAY be TALL

What does
Meckle's
cartilage
form?

Mandible

What does
pulmonary
HTN do to the
RV?

Increases afterload

What does
secretory IgA
do?

Prevents bacteria from binding to surfaces

What does
smooth
muscle have
instead of
troponin?

Calmodulin

What does
streptomycin
inhibit?

Bacterial protein production (translation)

What does the


axillary sheath
surround?

Axillary vein
Axillary artery
3 CHORDS of the brachial plexus

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125.

126.

127.

128.
129.

130.

131.
132.

133.

What does the deep cervical artery


supply?

Semispinalis
capitis
Semispinalism
cervicis

What does the superior intercostal


artery supply?

Intercostal
muscles

What does the superior orbital


fissure lie between?

Lesser and
greater wings of
the sphenoid

What does the suprascapular artery


supply?

137.

138.

139.

Supraspinatus
muscle
SCM
Subclavius

140.

What does the transverse cervical


artery supply?

Trapezius
SCM

141.

What do parietal cells secrete?

HCL
Intrinsic factor

142.

What do the maxillary vein and the


superficial temporal vein go down
and drain into?

Retromandibular
vein

What do the retromandibular vein


and posterior auricular combine to
form?

External jugular
vein

What do you call the air left in the


lungs after forceful expiration?

Residual volume

What drains the stomach?

Portal vein

What effects does carbon monoxide


have on O2 and PO2?

DECREASES O2
content
PO2 remains the
same

What enzyme is not found in


muscle?

Glucose-6phosphatase

What enzymes do fluoride inhibit?

Enolase

What form of nitrogen is a waste


product in humans?

Ammonium

What GI tract disease is


characterized by noncaseating
granulomas?

Crohn's disease

What gives rise to the anterior


pituitary?

Rathke's pouch

What goes between the superior


pharnygeal and middle pharyngeal
constrictors?

Glossopharyngeal
nerve
Hypoglossal
nerve

What hormones does the anterior


pituitary secrete?

GH
Prolactin
LH
FSH
ACTH
TSH

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144.

145.

146.

147.

148.
134.

135.

136.

149.

What increases
someones risk of the
chance of
atherosclerosis?

Increased LDL

What inflammatory
cells appear first in
large numbers at an
injured site?

Neutrophils

What innervates
muscles below the
vocal cord?

Recurrent laryngeal (from vagus)

What is aldosterone
produced by?

Zona glomerulosa

What is anaplasia?

Loss of cell differentiation and


tissue organization

What is an
intermediate of the
urea cycle?

Orinthine

What is aplasia?

A lack of cell growth or


proliferation

What is a restriction
endonuclease used
for?

To cut DNA

What is beneficence?

Do good
1. Give the highest quality of
service of which he/she is capable
of.
2. Preserve a healthy dentition
unless it compromises the wellbeing of other teeth
3. Participate in legal and publichealth related matters

What is cancellous
bone?

Spongy or trabecular bone

What is cor
pulomonale?

Right ventricular enlargement


secondary to a lung disorder that
causes pulmonary artery HTN. RV
failure follows.

What is cortical bone?

Compact bone

What is cortisol
produced by?

Zona fasiculata

Except: Cricothyroid (external


laryngeal nerve)

150.

151.

152.

153.

154.

What is
essential
HTN?

CO is raised early in the disease with normal


TPR. Over time CO drops to normal, but TPR
is increased. This can be from 1) overactive
renin-angiotensin system which leads to
vasoconstriction and retention of sodium and
water. The increase in blood volume leads to
HTN 2) overactive sympathetic nervous
system which leads to increased stress
responses

What is
hyperplasia?

Production of many new cells

What is
hypoplasia?

Under/incomplete development of a tissue or


organ

What is in
the 1st
pharyngeal
arch?

Trigeminal V:
Meckel's cartilage
Muscles of mastication
Malleus
Mylohyoid

What is in
the 2nd
pharyngeal
arch?

Facial VII:
Reichert's cartilage
Stapes
Styloid process
Stylohyoid
Muscles of facial expression

What is in
the 3rd
pharyngeal
arch?

Glossopharyngeal IX:
Pharynx
Stylopharyngeus

What is in
the 4th
pharyngeal
arch?

Vagus X:
Muscles of the soft palate (EXCEPT tensor
veli palatine)
Muscles of the pharynx (EXCEPT
stylopharyngeus)
Cricothyroid and cricopharyngeus

164.

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166.

167.

168.

169.

170.

171.

172.
155.

156.

157.

158.

159.

160.

161.

162.

163.

What is in
the carotid
sheath?

Common carotid
Internal jugular
VAGUS nerve

What is
lamellar
bone?

Secondary bone - this remodels woven bone

What is
mesentery?

Tissue that connects the posterior wall of the


peritoneal cavity to the jejunum

What is
mesiodens?

An accessory tooth located between maxillary


central incisors

What is
metaplasia?

REVERSIBLE change in tissue type from one


to another

What is
needed for
enamel
formation?

Stratum intermedium (prepares nutrients for


the ameloblasts for the IEE)

What is nonmalificence?

Do no harm

173.

174.

175.

176.

177.

178.

179.

180.

What is not part of the


Circle of Willis?

Basilar artery

What is not seen in


Posselt's envelope?

Rest position

What is staph aureus


MOA of drug
resistance?

Produces enzyme that breaks


down penicillin

What is the active form


of vitamin D?

1,25 hydroxyvitamin D

What is the advantage of


heat sterilization over
autoclaving?

It can keep sharp instruments


sharp

What is the articular


capsule innervated by?

Auriculotemporal (posterior)
Masseteric (anterior)
Posterior deep temporal
(anterior)

What is the
auriculotemporal nerve
a brance of?

Mandibular branch (V3)

What is the cause of


brown and grey tooth
discoloration?

Tetracycline before the age of 2

What is the cricothyroid


innervated by?

External laryngeal nerve

What is the difference


between the IVC and
portal veins?

Portal vein contains no valves

What is the Granular


layer of Tomes?

It is located within dentin


located at the root of the tooth
beneath the dentinocemental
junction

What is the main amino


acid in the tertiary
structure of protien?

Cystiene (disulfide bonds)

What is the MOA of


Diptheria toxin?

Inhibits protein synthesis


(translation)

What is the MOA of


rifampin?

Nuclei acid synthesis inhibitor binds to DNA-dependent RNA


polymerase and inhibits RNA
synthesis

What is the most


abundant papilla on the
tongue?

Filiform

What is the most


common shaped groove
of a mandibular second
premolar?

Y shaped groove (seen in 3 cusp


type)

What is the most


important target of
cAMP?

Protein kinase A

181.

182.

183.

184.

What is the only tooth that has its


root inclined mesially?

Mandibular canine

200.

What is the prominence on the


surface of the superior maxillary
bone caused by the canine tooth?

Canine eminence

201.

What is the similarity between Type


I vs. Type IV hypersensitivity?

Both require
previous
sensitization

What is transduction?

Transfer of genetic
material from virus
into bacteria

202.

185.

What is veracity?

Truthfulness

186.

What is woven bone?

Immature bone
("bundle bone")

What ligament prevents excessive


retraction of the TMJ?

TMJ ligament

What makes up the carotid


triangle?

Superior belly of
the omohyoid
Posterior belly of
the digastric
SCM

What makes up the muscular


triangle?

Superior belly of
omohyoid
SCM
Midline of neck

187.

188.

189.

190.

What makes up the submandibular


triangle?

Bellies of the
digastric
Inferior border of
the mandible

203.

204.

205.

206.

207.

208.

209.

210.

What makes up the submental


triangle?

Anterior belly of
digastric
Hyoid bone
Mandible

What medication can cause gum


enlargement?

Dilantin
(phenytoin)

What medication is DNA gyrus


inhibitor?

Ciproflaxacin

194.

What muscles abduct the scapula?

Serratus anterior
Pectoralis

214.

195.

What muscles retract the scapula?

Trapezius
Rhomboids

215.

What needs a protein transporter


to cross the cell membrane?

Glucose (GLUT4)

What nerve innervates teeth 3-5?

Middle superior
alveolar and
posterior superior
alveolar

191.

192.

193.

196.

197.

198.

What nerve innervates the triceps?

Radial

What nerve is at the floor of the


mouth?

Lingual nerve

211.

212.

213.

216.

217.

218.

219.
199.

What organ does aldosterone act


on?

Kidney

What organ is not stimulated by


the anterior of the pituitary?

Medulla of adrenals

What organs are abundant in


what organelles?

Liver - smooth ER
Pancreas - rough
ER/ribosomes
Muscle mitochondria
Glands - golgi

What part of antibody attaches


to the antigen?

Antibody's paratope
interacts with the
antigen's epitope

What permanent tooth is like the


primary maxillary 1st molar?

Permanent maxillary
premolar

What permanent tooth


resembles the primary
mandibular 1st molar?

Unlike any other tooth

What permanent tooth


resembles the primary maxillary
2nd molar?

Permanent maxillary
1st molar

What premolar has the shorter


central groove and more
supplemental grooves?

Second maxillary
premolar

What produces intrinsic factor?

Parietal cells (in the


stomach)

What reaction requires


Thiamine?

Pyruvate
dehydrogenase

What releases NE?

Postganglionic
sympathetic ONLY

What sequence is Vitamin D


created?

Skin --> liver -->


kidneys

What special feature does


mycobacterium tuberculosis
have?

Mycolic acids (which


block antibiotics from
penetrating)

What structure is anterior to the


pharyngeal tonsil?

Palatalglossal fold

What structure is posterior to


the pharyngeal tonsil?

Palatopharyngeal fold

What structure passes deep to


they hyoglossus muscle?

Lingual ARTERY

What structure pierces the


buccinator muscle?

Parotid gland DUCT

What sustains the corpus


luteum after the 1st trimester?

hCG

What system is involved in


general anesthesia?

Reticular system

What three teeth are aligned in a


straight line in the same arch?

Mandibular premolar
and molar teeth

220.

221.

222.

223.

224.

225.

226.

227.

228.

229.

230.

231.

232.

233.

What tooth has a


lingual curve on the
distal incisal edge?

Mandibular lateral

234.

What type of
antibiotic is
streptomycin?

Aminoglycoside

235.

What type of
collagen is present
in the PDL?

Type I (mainly)
Type III and V

What type of
epithelium is
present in salivary
ducts?

Simple COLUMNAR epithelium

What type of
epithelium is
present on the
palate?

Keratinzed stratified squamous


epithelium

What type of
hypersensitivity
reaction is present
in SLE?

Type III (immune-antibody


complex)

What type of
incubation does Hep
A have?

Short

What type of spores


does histoplasmosis
have?

Chlamydospores

What type of virus is


Hep A?

RNA enterovirus
(single stranded)

What would you


likely find
concentrated in the
apical region of a
salivary serous
columnar epithelial
cell?

Well-developed RER

When are alveoli


most negative?

At the beginning of inhalation

When Ca2+ enters


smooth muscle what
happens?

It binds to calmodulin and the


calmodulin activates myosin light
chain kinase

When dietary
carbohydrate is in
short supply what
does glucagon do?

Activates adenylate cyclase in the


adipocyte plasam membrane which
raising the intracellular
concentration of cAMP. It then ppregulates the blood glucose level by
acting through cAMP

Where are beta-1


adrenergic
receptors found?

236.

237.

238.

239.

240.

241.

242.

243.

244.

245.

246.

247.

248.

249.

Heart
250.

Where are beta-2


adrenergic receptors
found?

On vascular and non-vascular


SMOOTH MUSCLE

Where are parietal cells


found?

Fundus of the stomach

Where are the cell bodies


of the postganglionic
sympathetic nerves to
the head located?

Cervical ganglia

Where are the cell bodies


of the preganglionic
sympathetic nerves to
the head located?

Intermediolateral horns (T1L2)

Where does
histoplasmosis
primarily affect?

Lungs

Where does the antigen


for a MHC I come from?

Virus AND infected cell

Where does the


nasolacrimal duct drain
lacrimal fluid from the
surface of the eye into?

Inferior meatus

Where does the vertebral


artery pass through?

Foramen magnum

Where do odontoblasts
come from?

Dental papilla

Where do osteoblasts
come from?

Dental sac or follicle

Where do sigmoid
sinuses drain to?

Internal jugular vein

Where do the globular


heads of C1q exclusively
bind to?

CH2 domain of IgG


CH3 domain of IgM

Where do the superior


and inferior salivatory
nuclei supply
innervation and where
do they send their axons
through?

They supply parasympathetic


innervation of the various
salivary glands and send their
axons through the facial (sup.)
and glossopharyngeal (inf.)
nerves

Where is 25hydroxyvitamin D
converted to 1,25
hydroxyvitamin D?

Kindey

Where is blastomycosis
found?

Soil and decaying wood in


parts of North America

Where is histoplasmosis
found?

Soil & often associated with


decaying bat guano or bird
droppings

Where is mucormycosis
found?

In blood vessels

251.

252.

253.

254.

255.

256.

257.
258.

259.

260.

261.

262.

263.
264.

265.

266.

267.

268.

269.

270.

271.

Where is the epithelial attachment


from?

The reduced
enamel epithelium

Where is the origin of the superior


head of the lateral ptyergoid?

Infratemporal
surface of sphenoid
bone

Which glands are ony mucous


secreting?

Palatal

Which layer of skin has granules in


it?

Stratum spinosum

Which layer of skin has


keratohyalin?

Stratum
granulosum

Which layer of skin is keratin


found in?

Stratum corneum

Which layer of skin is the thinnest?

Stratum lucidum

Which permanent tooth is like the


primary 2nd molar?

Permanent 1st
molar

Which premolar has a lingual


groove?

Mandibular first
premolar

Which premolar has a mesial


groove?

Maxillary first
premolar

Which roots are spread wider?


Mandibular 1st or 2nd molar?

Mandibular 1st
molar

Which structure passes through


the superior and middle
pharyngeal constrictors?

Stylopharyngeus
and
glossopharyngeal

Which tooth has the longest crown?

Mandibular canine

Which type of muscle tissue does


not have troponin?

Smooth

Which types of muscle contain


tropomysin?

ALL

Which types of muscle is


sarcolemma present?

Skeletal and
cardiac (striated
muscles)

Which vein comes off the renal vein


on the left side, but the IVC on the
right side?

Gonal vein

Which vitamin is involved in


transamination?

Pyridoxine (Vit B6)

Who have a much less chance of


getting HPV?

Circumsized men

Why can an impulse travel from


one nerve to another in one
direction?

Because the
synapse limits the
direction of travel

You can decrease plasma


osmolality by injecting what into
serum?

ADH

272.

You have to do a RCT on a mandibular


canine. What is the most likely
complication you may encounter?

Bifurcated
root

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