1

DEFENSE
COLLEGE
EMBRYOLOGY

Progressive Assessment for Year I Medical Students

Date: April 12, 2012

Time allowed: 2 hours

Name: ____________________________________________________

Total No of Pages: 10

PART I.

For each of the following Multiple Choice Questions choose the one best answer and write
your choice in BLOCK LETTERS against the corresponding question number in the space provided.
( 60 points, 1 point for each correct answer)
______1. With regard to spermatogenesis, which statement is false?
a. spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by spermiogenesis.
b. The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately 72 hours.
c. Primary spermatocytes are the largest germ cells in the seminiferous tubules.
d. Spermatogenesis begins at puberty.
e. Spermatogonia begin to increase in number at puberty.
______2. Concerning oogenesis, which statement is true?
a) oogonia grow and give rise to secondary oocytes by mitotic division.
b) primary oocytes remain arrested in metaphase of meiosis II until fertilization occurs.
c) primary oocytes undergo cytodifferentiation to form three polar bodies prior to ovulation.
d) all oogonia become primary oocytes during ovulation. e) primary oocytes begin the first meiotic division before birth.
______3. Sertoli cells do not
a. involve themselves in the regulation of spermatogenesis.
b. line the seminiferous tubules
d. coagulate semen and form a vaginal plug

c. support and nurture the male germ cells.

e. Produce testicular fluid.

______4. Concerning the female reproductive system, which statement is true?

a) the usual site of fertilization is the ampulla of the uterine tube.
b) the basal layer of endometrium is sloughed off during each menstruation.
c) the endometrium of the uterus has a wall made up of a very thick smooth muscle layer.
d) the perimetrium of the uterus is a trumpet-shaped opening towards the peritoneal cavity.
e) the vaginal glands are sloughed off and discarded with each menstrual flow during pregnancy.
______5. When does a secondary oocyte complete its second meiotic division to become a mature ovum?
a) at ovulation
b) before ovulation
c) at fertilization
d) at puberty
e) before birth
______6. Regarding the sperm and sperm transport, which statement is false?
a) Vesiculase coagulates some of the semen and forms a vaginal plug.
b) Fructose in the semen, secreted by the seminal glands, is an energy source for the sperms.
c) Spermatozoa are nonmotile during storage in the epididymis, but they become motile in the ejaculate.
d) Prostaglandins in the semen stimulate uterine motility.
e) None of the above.
______7. Liquor folliculi,

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a) stimulates the myoepithelial cells of the mature follicle to rupture.
b) acts as a porous filter through which dissolved hormones and enzymes are prevented.
c) causes the endometrial glands to secrete and prepare the endometrium for implantation.
d) is composed of cumulus oophorus and polar bodies.
e) None of the above.
______8. With respect to the zona pellucida, which statement is false?
a. is composed of sulfated glycoproteins.
b. prevents polyspermy
c. functions as a porous filter
d. prevents premature implantation
e. arises by delamination from the embryoblast
______9. Which statement is true?
a.The corpus luteum of pregnancy degenerates 10 to 12 days after ovulation.
b. If fertilization occurs, the blood levels of circulating estrogens and progesterone fall.
c. Primary oocytes undergo cytodifferentiation to form three polar bodies prior to ovulation.
d. Removal of the corpus luteum of pregnancy before the 4th month usually leads to abortion.
e. If an oocyte is not fertilized, the corpus atreticum remains functionally active throughout the first 20weeks
of pregnancy.
______10. Which statement is false?
a. Primary oocytes begin the first meiotic division before birth.
b. Oogonia grow and give rise to secondary oocytes by mitotic division.
c. The number of oocytes that ovulate is greatly reduced in women who take oral contraceptives.
d. The difference in the sex chromosome complement of sperms forms the basis of primary sex determination.
e. At ovulation, the nucleus of the secondary oocyte begins the second meiotic division, but progresses only
to metaphase.
______11. When does a secondary oocyte complete its second meiotic division to become a mature ovum?
a) at ovulation
b) before ovulation
c) at fertilization
d) at puberty
e) before birth
______12. Where does the blastocyst normally implant?
a) functional layer of the cervix
b) myometrium
c) functional layer of the endometrium
d) perimetrium
e) basal layer of the endometrium
______13. Which of the following structures must degenerate for blastocyst implantation to occur?
a) endometrium in progestational phase
b) zona pellucida
c) syncytiotrophoblast
d) cytotrophoblast
e) functional layer of the endometrium.
______14. Which of the following componenets plays the most active role in invading the endometrium
during blastocyst implantation?
a) epiblast
b) syncytiotrophoblast
c) hydroblast
d) extraembryonic somatic mesoderm
e) extraembryonic visceral mesoderm
______15. Before a spermatozoan fertilizes an ovum,
a) its glycoprotein coat must be removed from its head.
c) its acrosomal membrane must be impermeable.
e) it should be capacitated in the epididymidis.

b) the zona pellucida must be shed.

d) its tail piece should be lost.

______16. If fertilization occurs:

a) The corpus luteum degenerates. b) Estrogen and progesterone levels fall.
c) Menstruation occurs.
d) Cleavage of the zygote and blastogenesis occur.
e) The secretory endometrium enters an ischemic phase.
______17. Fertilization does not
a) determine the chromosomal sex of the embryo.
b) restore the normal diploid number of chromosomes in the zygote.
c) stimulate the penetrated oocyte to complete the first meiotic division.
d) cause metabolic activation of the oocyte and initiates cleavage of zygote.

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e) result in variation of human species through mingling of maternal and paternal chromosomes.
______18. Which of the following is/are not derivative(s) of the somites?
a) scleretome
b) myotome
c) dermatome
d) urogenital ridge
e) epimeric and hypomeric
muscles.
______19. Regarding cleavage, which statement is false?
a) begins when the male and female pronuclei contact each other.
b) enhances the corpus luteum to enlarge to form corpus albicans.
c) is a series of rapid mitotic divisions while the zygote is still surrounded by zona pellucida.
d) results in the formation of increasingly small cells. e) occurs as the zygote passes down the uterine tube.
______20. Select the incorrect statement.
a) gastrulation is first indicated by the formation of the primitive streak.
b) neurulation is the process by which neuroectoderm forms the neural plate.
c) preponderance of sacrococcygeal teratoma is found in male newborns.
d) epiblast and hypoblast are fused in the cloacal membrane. e) all germ layers are derived from epiblast.
______21. During the first week of development,
a) Somites, which will give rise to the vertebrae, ribs and axial musculature, are formed.
c) Developmental disturbances may give rise to major congenital anomalies.
b) Neural tube is formed.
d) The embryo is a solid ball of blastomeres and is called gastrula.
e) None of the above.
______22. Which of the following is not a developmental event of the second week?
a) Formation of amniotic cavity
b) Formation of the notochord
c) Formation of chorion
d) Completion of implantation
e) Formation of bilaminar germ disc
______23. With regard to the primitive streak, select the statement which is false.
a) it forms the nucleus pulposus of each intervertebral disk.
b) actively forms mesoderm until the early part of the fourth week.
c) results from migration of epiblastic cells to the median plane of the disc.
d) is a thickening of the epiblast at the caudal end of the embryonic disc at the beginning of the 3rd week.
e) normally undergoes degenerative changes but remnants may persist and give rise to a sacrococcygeal
teratoma.
______24. With regard to the notochord, which statement is false?
a) it induces the formation of cardiogemic region.
b) is the primordial axis of the embryo around which the axial skeleton forms.
c) it induces the formation of each vertebral body,including the nucleus pulposus of each intervertebral disk.
d) Provides signals that are necessary for the development the central nervous system.
e) it is a solid cylinder of mesoderm extending from the primitive node to the prochordal plate.
______25. Which of the following is/are not mesodermal in origin?
a) astrocytes
b) bone and cartilage
c) microglia
e) endothelium of blood and lymph vessels

d) cardiac muscle cells

______26. Which of the following is/are not a derivative(s) of the neural crest?
a) Schwann cells
b) chromaffin cells c) neurohypophysis d) melanocytes e) parafollicualr (C) cells
______27. Intermediate mesoderm gives rise to the
a) neural tube
b) heart
c) kidneys and gonads
______28. Which structure is/are not visible during the fourth week?
a) closed neuropores
b) three pairs of pharyngeal arches
d) upper limb buds
e) lens placodes.

d) somites

e) notochord
c) scalp vascular plexus

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______29. During the embryonic period,
a) pigment is visible in the retina
b) sex of the embryo is clearly distinguishable externally
c) ossification of the fetal skeleton is active.
d) the amount of white fat is about 16% of body weight.
e) the body of the embryo is usually completely covered with lanugo hairs.
______30. Which of the following is false with regard to the fetal period?
a) during the 10th week, the skin of the fetus is coverd by vernix caseosa.
b) by the end of 12 weeks, primary ossification centers appear in the skeleton, especially in the cranium and
long bones.
c) by 24 weeks type II pneumocytes have begun to secrete surfactant.
d) at 9 weeks, the liver is the major site of erythropoiesis.
e) fingernails are present by 24 weeks.
______31. Select the correct event during the fetal period.
a) fetal spleen is an important site of hematopoiesis during week 20.
b) the quantity of white fat is about 8% of body weight during week 21.
c) by 36 weeks, the circumferences of the head and abdomen are approximately equal.
d) the eyelids open at week 18.
e) umbilical herniation is a normal event during the 38th week.
______32. Which process establishes the three definitive germ layers?
a) neurulation
b) gastrulation
c) craniocaudal folding
d) angiogenesis
______33. The human placenta is of _____________ type.
a) Zonary
b) Diffuse
c) Epitheliochorial

d) Endotheliochorial

e) lateral folding
e) Hemochorial

______34. Which statement is false about prochordal plate?

a) helps to establish the bilateral symmetry of the embryo.
b) helps to establish the cranial versus the caudal region of the embryo.
c) it eventually develops into orophargngeal membrane at the site of the future mouth.
d) it is columnar-shaped thickening of epiblast cells. e) it is a circular, midline thickening of hypoblast cells.
______35. The amniotic fluid does NOT
a) allow free fetal movements.
b) prevent adherence of the embryo to the amnion.
c)assist in the regulation of fetal body temperature.
d) participate in blood development in the third week.
e) absorb jolts to provide a protective buffer for the embryo or fetus.
______36. The yolk sac contributes to the development of all of the following, except:
a) Central nervous system.
b) Germ cells.
c) Midgut.
d) Hindgut.

e) Foregut.

______37. Concerning the placenta, which statement is false? The placenta:

a) is typically discoid in shape and weighs approximately 500 ~600 grams (>1 lb) at term.
b) fetal part develops from the chorionic sac (villous chorion).
c) trophoblasts are the precursor cells of the human placenta.
d) cotyledons are partially separated by the chorionic plate and amnion.
e) is made up of the chorion frondosum together with the decidua basalis.
______38. Which of the following statements is false?
a) The amniotic sac enlarges faster than the chorionic sac.
b) The amnion and smooth chorion fuse to form the amniochorionic membrane.
c) The placenta during early pregnancy synthesizes glycogen, cholesterol, and fatty acids.
d) High levels of alpha fetoprotein usually indicate the presence of a severe neural tube defect.
e) As pregnancy advances, the placental membrane becomes progressively thicker and, therefore, acts
as a perfect barrier to infections.
______39. Which of the following statements is false?

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a) The chorionic plate and umbilical cord are covered by amnion.
b) The umbilical veins carry poorly oxygenated fetal blood to the placenta.
c) The umbilical vesicle (yolk sac) transfer nutrients to the embryo during the 2nd and 3rd weeks.
d) During the 4thweek, the endoderm of the yolk sac is incorporated into the embryo as the primordial gut.
e)The umbilical cord usually has two arteries and one vein that are surrounded by mucoid connective tissue.
______40. Which of the following is NOT the function of the placenta?
a) production of hormones.
b) exchange of gases.
c) exchange of nutrients and electrolytes.
d) permits normal fetal lung development.
e) transmission of maternal antibodies.
______41. The main cause of oligohydramnios is/are:
a) renal agenesis and/or obstructive uropathy
b) gastrointestinal defects (e.g.,esophageal atresias)
c) central nervous system disorders (e.g., anencephaly)
d) maternal diabetes
e) All of them.
______42. Concerning the monozygotic and dizygotic twins, which of the following statements is false?
a)Monozygotic twins usually have two amnions, one chorion, and one placenta.
b)There is one amnion, one chorion, and one placenta in conjoined twins.
c)Dizygotic twins always have two amnions and two chorions, but the chorions and placentas may be fused.
d)The frequency of monozygotic twinning shows marked racial differences.
e)The rate of dizygotic twinning increases with maternal age.
______43. Amniotic fluid does NOT contain
a) aqueous solution.
c) meconium [fetal feces]
d) urine

b) desquamated fetal epithelial cells and alpha fetoprotein.

e) cytotrophoblast and endothelium of fetal capillaries.

______44. Which of the following is not true about birth defects?

a. short stature is one of the classic features of the Turner syndrome.
b. A weak catlike cry and microcephaly indicate the clinical diagnosis of achondroplasia.
c. Sparse body hair and gynecomastia may indicate the clinical diagnosis of Klinefelter's syndrome.
d. Tetracycline would cause stained teeth and hypoplasia of enamel.
e. Microtia is a minor anomaly.
______45. Which of the following is not true about birth defects?
a) trisomy of the autosomes occurs with increasing frequency as maternal age increases.
b) phenobarbital is considered to be a safe, antiepileptic drug for use during pregnancy.
c) deafness has been reported in infants of mothers who have been treated with penicillin during the second trimester .
d) the phenotype of Turner syndrome is female.
e) thalidomide induces limb defects.
______46. With regard to the development of the skull, which of the following statements is false?
a. The membranous portion of the skull is derived from neural crest cells and paraxial mesoderm.
b. The parachordal cartilage contributes to the base of the occipital bone and forms the boundaries of the
foramen magnum.
c. The hypophysial cartilage forms the petrous and mastoid parts of the temporal bone.
d. The trabeculae cranii fuse to form the body of the ethmoid bone.
e. Nasal capsules contribute to the formation of the ethmoid bone.
______47. With regard to the development of the skull, which of the following statements is false?
a. The dorsal end of the first pharyngeal arch cartilage forms the malleus and the incus.
b. The dorsal end of the second pharyngeal arch cartilage forms the stapes of the middle ear and the
styloid process of the temporal bone.
c. The dorsal end of the third pharyngeal arch cartilage ossifies to form the lesser horn and superior
part of the body of the hyoid bone.
d. The ventral parts of the third arch cartilages give rise to the greater horns and the inferior part of the
body of the hyoid bone.
e. Intramembranous ossification occurs in the maxillary prominence of the first pharyngeal arch and

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subsequently forms the squamous temporal, maxillary, and zygomatic bones.
_______48. Concerning the development of the skeletal system, which statements is false?
a. The posterior fontanelle closes about 3 months after birth.
b. the anterior fontanelle closes about the middle of the second year.
c. Sutures and fontanelles allow the bones of the skull to overlap (molding) during birth.
d. The posterolateral fontanelles disappear by the end of the first year.
e. None of the above.
_______49. Which of the following statements is false concerning craniosynostosis?
a. Acrocephaly (oxycephaly) results from premature closure of the coronal suture.
b. Scaphocephaly results from premature closure (synostosis) of the sagittal suture.
c. If the coronal and lambdoid sutures close prematurely, then the result is brachycephaly (plagiocephaly). d.
Premature closure of the frontal (metopic) suture results in achondroplasia.
e. None of the above.
_______50. Which of the following statements is false about the development of the skeletal system?
a. The clavicles begin to ossify before any other bones in the body.
b. The viscerocranium is formed mainly from the first two pharyngeal arches.
c. Endochondral ossification of the bones of the extremities begins by the end of the embryonic period.
d. Fused ribs are often associated with a hemivertebra. e. The presence of extra fingers or toes is called syndactyly.
_______51. Which of the following statements is true about the development of the muscular system?
a. Somites and somitomeres form the musculature of the heart.
b. Myoblasts (embryonic muscle cells) are derived from neuroectoderm.
c. Fibroblasts produce the endomysium layers of the fibrous sheath of the muscle.
d. somitomeres remain loosely organized structures and segregate into sclerotome and dermomyotome segments.
e. The myoblasts that form the skeletal muscles of the trunk are derived from mesenchyme in the myotom
regions of the somites.
_______52. Which of the following statements is true about the development of muscles?
a. The intercostal muscles remain segmentally arranged like the somites.
b. The extrinsic eye muscles are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve (CN XII).
c. The first pair occipital (postotic) myotomes form the muscles of mastication.
d.The sacrococcygeal myotomes of epaxial divisions form the muscles of the pelvic diaphragm and the
striated muscles of the anus and sex organs.
e. Myoblasts of the hypomeres form the extensor muscles of the vertebral column.
_______53. With regard to the development of the musculoskeletal system,
a) sclerotomes of the somites form the viscerocranium.
b) xiphoid process develops during the 6th week.
c) the muscular system develops from neuroectoderm.
d) the upper limbs rotate laterally through 900 on their longitudinal axes.
e) premature closure of the frontal (metopic) suture results in scaphocephaly.
_______54. During the development of the body cavities and the diaphragm,
a) Fusion of the cranial pleuropericardial membranes separates the pleural cavities from the peritoneal cavity.
b) The pleuroperitoneal membranes form the central tendon of the diaphragm.
c)The crura of the diaphragm develop from myoblasts that grow into the dorsal mesentery of the esophagus.
d) Motor nerve supply to the diaphragm is via the phrenic nerves.
e) The arteries supplying the primitive gut (celiac, sup. and inf. mesenteric) pass between the layers of the
ventral mesentery.
_______55. Concerning the pharyngeal arches,
a) musculature of the 2nd pharyngeal arch forms the muscles of mastication.
b) they begin to develop early in the 4th week as neural crest cells migrate into the future head and neck regions.
c) ventral end of the 2nd arch cartilage ossifies to form the stapes of the middle ear and the styloid
process of the temporal bone.
d) the palatine tonsil is the derivative of the 4th arch.
e) the thymus develops from the 3rd arch.

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_______56. During the development of the heart, which statement is false?
a) mesoderm around the endocardium forms the myocardium, which secretes the cardiac jelly.
b) mesoderm migrating into the cardiac region from the coelomic wall near the liver forms the epicardium.
c) the trabeculated part of the right ventricle is derived from the truncus arteriosus.
d) before birth the oval foramen allows most of the oxygenated blood to pass into the left atrium.
e) cavitation of the ventricular walls forms the trabeculae carnae.
_______57. Tetralogy of Fallot is not characterized by
a) pulmonary stenosis
b) right ventricular hypertrophy
c) overriding aorta
d) ventricular septal defect
e) left ventricular hypertrophy
_______58. Which of the following congenital cardiovascular malformations is most commonly associated
with maternal rubella infection?
a) isolated dextrocardia
b) patent ductus arteriosus
c) coarctation of the aorta
d) patent truncus arteriosus
e) double aortic arch
_______59. Keratohyalin granules are most apparent in which of the following layers of the epidermis?
a. Stratum basale
b. Stratum spinosum
c. Stratum granulosum
d. Stratum lucidum
e. Stratum corneum
_______60. Which of the following statements is false about melanocytes?
a. They function as sensory mechanoreceptors.
b. They are located between the basal cells of the epidermis and in the hair bulbs.
c. They are stimulated by ultra violet radiation to synthesize the pigment melanin.
d. They exhibit cytocrine mode of secretion.
e. They stem from neuroectoderm of the neural crest.
_______61. The cardiovascular system is not derived from:
a). Splanchnic mesoderm

b). Endoderm

c). Paraxial mesoderm

d). lateral mesoderm

e). Neural crest cells

_______62. Concerning the development of the heart,

a) SA nodes are derived from cells from the atrioventricular canal.
b) the bulbus cordis forms the trabeculated part of the right ventricle.
c) endocardial cushions develop in the atrioventricular and contruncal regions.
d) the prevalence of atrial septal defects is more common in females than in males.
e) the truncus arteriosus forms the roots and proximal portion of the aorta and pulmonary artery.
_______63. With regard to the development of the arterial system, which statement is false?
a) the external carotid artery is a sprout of the 4th aortic arch.
b) the mesenteric arteries are derived from the right proximal umbilical arteries.
c) the aortic sac forms right and left horns which subsequently gives rise to the brachiocephalic artery.
d) the 1st aortic arch gives rise to stapedial arteries.
e) the subclavian artery is derived from the 3rd aortic arch.
_______64. With regard to the development of the heart,
a) the right horn of the sinus venosus becomes the coronary artery. false
b) the bulbus cordis is incorporated into the walls of the definitive ventricles. true
c) the left horn of the sinus venosus receives all blood through the superior and inferior venae cavae. false
d) the endocardial cushion develop form cardiac jelly. true
e) the conus arteriosus gives origin to the pulmonary
trunk.True

_______65. Concerning the development of the aortic arches,

a) the right fourth aortic arch becomes the right pulmonary artery.
b) dorsal parts of the fifth pair of aortic arches form the ductus arteriosus.
c) proximal parts of the third aortic arches persist to form the stems of stapedial arteries.
d) the first pair of he aortic arches may contribute to the formation of the external carotid arteries.
e) dorsal parts of the second aortic arches become the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.

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_______66. Concerning the development of the heart, which statement is false?
a) Cavitation of the ventricular walls forms the trabeculae carneae.
b).The critical period of heart development is from day 20 to day 50 after fertilization
c) The left horn of sinus venosus becomes incorporated into the wall of the right atrium.
d) The sinoatrial node develops during the 5th week. e) The left auricle is derived from the primordial atrium.
_______67. With regard to the development of cardiovascular system, which statement is false?
a) the foramen ovale functionally closes immediately after birth.
b) Umbilical veins carry well-oxygenated blood from the chorion.
c) the smooth part of the right ventricle is derived from the bulbus cordis.
d) trabeculated part of the right ventricle is derived from the primitive ventricle.
e) Distal parts of the umbilical arteries become the internal iliac arteries and superior vesical arteries.
_______68. With regard to the development of cardiovascular system, which statement is false?
a). The visceral pericardium is derived from mesothelial cells of the bulbus cordis.
b). The right anterior cardinal vein and the right common cardinal vein become the SVC.
c). The foramen primum serves as a shunt, enabling oxygenated blood to pass from the right to the left atrium.
d). Because it is derived from sinus venosus, the smooth part of the wall of the right atrium is called sinus venarum.
e). Most of the wall of the left atrium is smooth because it is formed by incorporation of the primordial pulmonary vein.
_______69. With regard to the development of cardiovascular system, which statement is false?
a. Coarctation of the aorta occurs twice as often in males as in females.
b. Atrial septal defect (ASD) occurs more frequently in females than in males.
c. Ventricular septal defects (VSDs) occur more frequently in males than in females.
d. Persistent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is two to three times more frequent in females than in males.
e. The distal part of the right sixth pharyngeal arch artery forms a prenatal shunt, the ductus arteriosus.
_______70. With regard to the development of cardiovascular system, which statement is false?
a. Most of the intra-abdominal parts of the umbilical arteries become the ligamentum venosum.
b. The short, thick ligamentum arteriosum extends from the left pulmonary artery to the arch of the aorta.
c. The right ventricular wall is thicker than the left ventricular wall in fetuses and newborn infants.
d. The intra-abdominal part of the umbilical vein eventually becomes the round ligament of liver.
e. None of the above.
_______71. The heart primordium between the fourth and seventh weeks does not consist of:
a. the bulbus cordis
b. ventricle
c. atrium
d. sinus venosus
e. auricles.
_______72. With regard to the pharyngeal apparatus, which statement is false?
a) the palatine tonsil is derived from the second pharyngeal pouch.
b) tympanic membrane is derived from the first pharyngeal membrane.
c) external acoustic meatus is derived from the fourth pharyngeal groove.
d) the thymus is derived from the third pharyngeal pouch. e) the facial nerve innervates the second pharyngeal arch.
_______73. During the development of the tongue,
a) the two lateral swellings and the tuberculum impar originate from the third pharyngeal arch.
b) the copula (hypobranchial eminence) is formed by the fusion of the first pharyngeal arches.
c) the anterior two-third is separated from the posterior two-third by median sulcus.
d) the root of the tongue originates from the 2nd , 3rd and part of the 4th pharyngeal arches.
e) the tongue musculature is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve.
_______74. During the development of the face, which statement is false?
a) the lower lip is derived from the mandibular prominences.
b) the maxillary prominences form the cheeks and maxillae.

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c) the upper lip is formed by the two lateral nasal prominences and the two maxillary prominences.
d) the nose is formed from the five facial prominences.
e) maxillary prominences form the palate.
_______75. The intermaxillary segment is not composed of:
a) the palatal component, which forms the triangular primary palate.
b) the philtrum.
c) the pharyngeal cleft, which gives rise to the bridge of the nose.
d) the upper jaw component which carries the four incisor teeth.
e) all of the above.
PART II. Answer True or False in response to each of the following entries.
Do not write T or F.
(Total 30 points)
1. With regard to the development of the body cavities,
-----------t-a) the body cavities have a parietal wall lined by mesothelium derived from somatic medoderm.
----------f--b) the arteries supplying the primordial gut pass between the layers of the ventral mesentery.
---------t---c) the septum transversum is the primordium of the central tendon of the diaphragm.
--------t----d) the pleuroperitoneal membranes are produced as the developing lungs and pleural cavities
expand and invade the body wall.
-----------f-e) the pleuroperitoneal opening on the left side closes slightly earlier before the right one.
2. With regard to the development of the diaphragm,
----------f--a) the embryonic phrenic nerves enter the diaphragm by passing through the pleuroperitoneal membranes.
---------t---b) the fibrous pericardium is the adult dreivative of the pleuropericardial membranes.
--------t----c) the motor nerve that supplies the diaphragm is solely the phrenic nerve.
-------t-----d) congenital diaphragmatic hernia is the most common cause of pulmonary hypoplasia.
------t------e) in retrosternal hernia the heart may be displaced into the superior part of the peritoneal cavity.
3.
Concerning the development of the skeletal system,
----t-----a) appendicular skeleton originates from the sclerotomal portion of somites.
----t-----b) viscerocranium is derived largely from ectodermal neural crest.
----f-----c) xiphoid process is formed during the middle of the third trimester.
----t-----d) clavicles begin to ossify before any other bones in the body.
------t---e) ossification of the long bones begins during the 8th week.
4 Concerning the development of the muscular system,
----t-----a) the muscular system develops from mesoderm, except the muscles of the iris.
-----f----b) the sacrococcygeal myotomes of the epaxial division form the muscles of pelvic diaphragm.
-------f--c) the three preotic myotomes form the muscles of the tongue.
------f---d) cardiac muscle differentiates from splanchnic mesenchyme surrounding the endoderm of the
primordial gut.
--------f-e) smooth muscle fibers develop from ectodermal neural crest.
5. During the development of the veins,
-----f----a) the persistent right vitelline vein becomes the umbilical vein.
----t-----b) the superior vena cava is formed from the fusion of the right anterior cardinal vein and the right
common cardinal vein.
---f------c) anastomosis of the supracardinal veins forms the left brachiocephalic vein.
------t---d) the only adult derivatives of the posterior cardinal veins are the common iliac veins and root of
azygos veins.
-----f----e) after birth, the intra-abdominal part of the umbilical vein becomes the inferior mesenteric vein.
6. Concerning the development of the aortic arches,
---t------a) the first pair of he aortic arches may contribute to the formation of the external carotid arteries.
---f------b) dorsal parts of the second aortic arches become the proximal part of the right subclavian artery.
----f-----c) proximal parts of the third aortic arches persist to form the stems of stapedial arteries.
----f-----d) the right fourth aortic arch becomes the right pulmonary artery.
------f---e) dorsal parts of the fifth pair of aortic arches form the ductus arteriosus.

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7. Concerning the development of the heart,
-------f--a) before birth, the oval foramen allows most of the oxygenated blood entering the the left atrium to
pass into the right atrium.
-----f----b) the left horn of sinus venosus becomes incorporated into the wall of the right atrium.
----t-----c) the left auricle is derived from the primordial atrium.
----t-----d) cavitation of the ventricular walls forms the trabeculae carneae.
------t---e) the sinoatrial node develops during the 5th week.
8. With regard to the development of cardiovascular system,
----t-----a) the foramen ovale functionally closes immediately after birth.
-----t----b) the smooth part of the right ventricle is derived from the bulbus cordis.
-----t----c) trabeculated part of the right ventricle is derived from the primitive ventricle.
----t-----d) portal vein is derived from the right vitelline vein.
-----t----e) renal veins are derived from the right subcardinal veins.
9. With regard to the development of the immune system and lymphatic organs,
-----t----a) the spleen develops from aggregations of mesenchymal cells in the dorsal mesentery of the stomach.
---------b) the red pulp of the spleen develops at the beginning of the 2nd trimester.
-----f----c) lymph nodules of the lymph nodes appear at the beginning of the 2nd trimester.
----t-----d) pharyngeal tonsil proliferates from the endodermal lining of the 2nd pharyngeal pouch.
---------e) in the absence of neural crest cells the thymus fails to develop.
10. With regard to the development of the venous system, which statement is true?
---f------a)The vitelline or omphalomesenteric veins originate in the chorionic villi and carry oxygenated blood
to the embryo.
----f-----b)The cardinal veins carry blood from the yolk sac to the sinus venosus.
----t-----c) The superior mesenteric vein is derived from the right vitelline vein.
-----f----d) After birth, the right umbilical vein is obliterated and forms the ligamentum venosum.
-----t----e) The anastomosis between the subcardinal veins forms the left renal vein.