You are on page 1of 41

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

1. Solution: a)
These are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative,
executive and administrative matters.
According to Article 36, the term State in Part IV has the same meaning as in Part III
dealing with Fundamental Rights. Therefore, it includes the legislative and executive organs
of the central and state governments, all local authorities and all other public authorities in
the country.

2. Solution: c)
The Directive Principles resemble the Instrument of Instructions enumerated in the
Government of India Act of 1935. In the words of Dr B R Ambedkar, the Directive
Principles are like the instrument of instructions, which were issued to the GovernorGeneral and to the Governors of the colonies of India by the British Government under the
Government of India Act of 1935. What is called Directive Principles is merely another name
for the instrument of instructions. The only difference is that they are instructions to the
legislature and the executive.

3. Solution: c)
The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not legally enforceable
by the courts for their violation. Though non-justiciable in nature, they help the courts in
examining and determining the constitutional validity of a law. The Supreme Court has
ruled many a times that in determining the constitutionality of any law, if a court finds that
the law in question seeks to give effect to a Directive Principle, it may consider such law to
be reasonable in relation to Article 14 (equality before law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and
thus save such law from unconstitutionality.

4. Solution: d)
Some of the Socialistic Principles are:

To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
To secure the right to work, to education and to public assistance in cases of
unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement (Article 41).
To make provision for just and humane conditions for work and maternity relief
(Article 42).
To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life and social and cultural
opportunities for all workers (Article 43).

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 1

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries


(Article 43 A).
To raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of people and to improve
public health (Article 47).

5. Solution: d)
Fundamental rights ensure opportunities for economic non-discrimination. For e.g. all
should be eligible for public employment etc.It does not ensure economic equity/
Universal adult franchise ensures political equality and not economic equity.
DPSP alone ensures that all should have the right to work; at living wages; income
inequality should be minimized; women should get equal wages for equal work as men do
etc.
The last option deals with the subject of local government and not with economic equity.

6. Solution: b)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Uniform_civil_code_of_India
http://www.thehindu.com/opinion/open-page/uniform-civil-code-will-it-work-inindia/article6625409.ece

7. Solution: d)
The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act 2011 relating to the co-operatives is
aimed to encourage economic activities of cooperatives which in turn help progress of rural
India. It is expected to not only ensure autonomous and democratic functioning of
cooperatives, but also the accountability of the management to the members and other
stakeholders.

It makes Right to form cooperatives as a fundamental right.

Reservation of one seat for SC/ST and two seats for women on the board of every cooperative society.

Cooperatives could set up agency which would oversee election.

Uniformity in the tenure of Cooperative Board of Directors.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 2

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

Provisions for incorporation, regulation and winding up of co-operative societies


based on the principles of democratic process and specifying the maximum number
of directors as twenty-one.

Providing for a fixed term of five years from the date of election in respect of the
elected members of the board and its office bearers;

Providing for a maximum time limit of six months during which a board of directors
of co-operative society could be kept under suspension;

Providing for independent professional audit;

Providing for right of information to the members of the co-operative societies;

Empowering the State Governments to obtain periodic reports of activities and


accounts of co-operative societies; which have individuals as members from such
categories;

Providing for offences relating to co-operative societies and penalties in respect of


such offences.

8. Solution: d)
Though the Directive Principles are non-justiciable, the Constitution (Article 37) make it
clear that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be
the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws. Thus, they impose a moral
obligation on the state authorities for their application, but the real force behind them is
political, that is, public opinion. As observed by Alladi Krishna Swamy Ayyar, no ministry
responsible to the people can afford lightheartedly to ignore the provisions in Part IV of the
Constitution. Similarly, Dr B R Ambedkar said in the Constituent Assembly that a
government which rests on popular vote can hardly ignore the Directive Principles while
shaping its policy. If any government ignores them, it will certainly have to answer for that
before the electorate at the election time.

9. Solution: d)
The Directive Principles, although confer no legal rights and creates no legal remedies, are
significant and useful in the following ways:

They are like an Instrument of Instructions or general recommendations addressed


to all authorities in the Indian Union. They remind them of the basic principles of the
new social and economic order, which the Constitution aims at building.
They have served as useful beacon-lights to the courts. They have helped the courts
in exercising their power of judicial review, that is, the power to determine the
constitutional validity of a law.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 3

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

They form the dominating background to all State action, legislative or executive and
also a guide to the courts in some respects.
They amplify the Preamble, which solemnly resolves to secure to all citizens of India
justice, liberty, equality and fraternity.

10. Solution: b)

11. Solution: b)
As per the Swaran Singh Committee (that suggested inclusion of fundamental rights);
including duty to pay taxes should have been a fundamental duty, but it was not agreed
upon.
So as per the Direct taxation laws; income and other kinds of taxes are a legal obligation for
an Indian citizen as he uses public services, receives social and political security from the
state etc.

12. Solution: b)
According to Article 51 A, it shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag
and the National Anthem;
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 4

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

to cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people
of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to
renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
to value and preserve the rich heritage of the countrys composite culture;
to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and
wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures;
to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;
to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;
to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that
the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; and
to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six
and fourteen years. This duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment
Act, 2002.

13. Solution: c)
Fundamental Duties help the courts in examining and determining the constitutional
validity of a law. In 1992, the Supreme Court ruled that in determining the constitutionality
of any law, if a court finds that the law in question seeks to give effect to a fundamental
duty, it may consider such law to be reasonable in relation to Article 14 (equality before
law) or Article 19 (six freedoms) and thus save such law from unconstitutionality.
They are enforceable by law. Hence, the Parliament can provide for the imposition of
appropriate penalty or punishment for failure to fulfil any of them.

14. Solution: b)
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the
purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
It is true that the proposal for amendment may come from any of the options mentioned, but
only after the executive clears it can it be put forth the Parliament. From here the formal
process starts.

15. Solution: d)
The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require
prior permission of the president.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 5

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


A private member here means a MP who does not belong to the ruling coalition.
Special days in the Parliament are reserved for Private member bills not constitutional
amendment bills.

16. Solution: d)
The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more
than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the
members of the House present and voting.
In case of two-third of total membership approving the bill, the second condition
automatically gets fulfilled.

17. Solution: d)
After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures,
where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill
nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
After the presidents assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act)
and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

18. Solution: a)
These matters include:

Admission or establishment of new states.


Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing
states.
Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
Second Scheduleemoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president,
the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
Quorum in Parliament.
Salaries and allowances of the members of Parliament.
Rules of procedure in Parliament.
Privileges of the Parliament, its members and its committees.
Use of English language in Parliament.
Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
Use of official language.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 6

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

Citizenshipacquisition and termination.


Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
Delimitation of constituencies.
Union territories.
Fifth Scheduleadministration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
Sixth Scheduleadministration of tribal areas.

19. Solution: d)
The following are part of the basic structure as has become clear from several rulings of
Supreme Court:

Supremacy of the Constitution


Sovereign, democratic and republican nature of the Indian polity
Secular character of the Constitution
Separation of powers between the legislature, the executive and the judiciary
Federal character of the Constitution
Unity and integrity of the nation
Welfare state (socio-economic justice)
Judicial review
Freedom and dignity of the individual
Parliamentary system
Rule of law
Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
Principle of equality
Free and fair elections
Independence of Judiciary
Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
Effective access to justice
Principle of reasonableness
Powers of the Supreme Court under Articles 32, 136, 141 and 142

20. Solution: d)
The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha
in particular (Article 75). They act as a team, and swim and sink together. The principle of
collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha (not Parliament) can remove the ministry
(i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no
confidence.

21. Solution: a)
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 7

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


The Prime Minister plays the leadership role in this system of government. He is the leader
of council of ministers, leader of the Parliament and leader of the party in power. In these
capacities, he plays a significant and highly crucial role in the functioning of the
government.
Although all decisions are supposed to be taken based on consensus in the Council, he has
the final say over all the decisions of the Council of Ministers. To this effect, he can even
dismiss a few ministers who are causing frequent disagreement in the council.

22. Solution: a)
The lower house of the Parliament (Lok Sabha) can be dissolved by the President on
recommendation of the Prime Minister. In other words, the prime minister can advise the
President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the expiry of its term and hold fresh elections.
This means that the executive enjoys the right to get the legislature dissolved in a
parliamentary system.
Similarily, the legislature can also pass no confidence motion against the executive and
dismiss it. With it, the Lok Sabha is dissolved if there is no possibility of forming an
alternative government.
Resignation of any minister will not end Lok Sabha only that of the Prime Minister (that
too when no other person is chosen as PM) will bring the Lok Sabha to dissolution.

23. Solution: a)
Yes, India lies entirely in the northern hemisphere.
Second statement is wrong, because it implies that Indias east west distance is greater
than its north-south distance, which is incorrect. India measures 3,214 km (1,997 mi) from
north to south and 2,933 km (1,822 mi) from east to west.

24. Solution: c)

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 8

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

25. Solution: b)
Tributaries of Ganga:
Tributaries
- left

Ramganga, Gomti, Ghaghara,Gandaki, Burhi


Gandak, Koshi, Mahananda

- right

Yamuna, Tamsa, Son, Punpun,Betwa, Chambal, Tons,


Ken, Sindh,Hindon, Sharda

Tributaries of Brahmaputra
- left

Dibang River, Lohit


River,Dhansiri
River, Kalang

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 9

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


- right

Kameng River, Manas


River,Raidak
River, Jaldhaka
River,Teesta
River, Subansiri

26. Solution: b)
http://nca.gov.in/nb_basin.htm
India 2015 (Page no. 4)

27. Solution: c)
The Western Himalayan region extends from Kashmir to Kumaon. Its temperate zone is rich
in forests of chir, pine, other conifers and broad-leaved temperate trees. Higher up, forests of
deodar, blue pine, spruce and silver fir occur. The alpine zone extends from the upper limit
of the temperate zone of about 4,750 metres or even higher. The characteristic trees of this
zone are high-level silver fir, silver birch and junipers. The eastern Himalayan region
extends from Sikkim eastwards and embraces Darjeeling, Kurseong and the adjacent tract.
The temperate zone has forests of oaks, laurels, maples, rhododendrons, alder and birch.
Many conifers, junipers and dwarf willows also occur here. The Assam region comprises the
Brahmaputra and the Surma valleys with evergreen forests, occasional thick clumps of
bamboos and tall grasses. The Indus plain region comprises the plains of Punjab, western
Rajasthan and northern Gujarat. It is dry and hot and supports natural vegetation. The
Ganga plain region covers the area which is alluvial plain and is under cultivation for wheat,
sugarcane and rice. Only small areas support forests of widely differing types. The Deccan
region comprises the entire tableland of the Indian Peninsula and supports vegetation of
various kinds from scrub jungles to mixed deciduous forests. The Malabar region covers the
excessively humid belt of mountain country parallel to the west coast of the Peninsula.
Besides being rich in forest vegetation, this region produces important commercial crops,
such as coconut, betel nut, pepper, coffee and tea, rubber and cashew nut. The Andaman
region abounds in evergreen, mangrove, beach and diluvia forests. The Himalayan region
extending from Kashmir to Arunachal Pradesh through Nepal, Sikkim, Bhutan, Meghalaya
and Nagaland and the Deccan Peninsula is rich in endemic flora, with a large number of
plants which are not found elsewhere.

28. Solution: d)
All are incorrect. Please refer Pages 8 and 9 of India 2015 for more information.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 10

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


Census 2011 is 15th census since 1872
Overall sex ration increased by 7 points to 943.
Indias population growth decreased between 1911 and 21 - an exception.
Bihar is the thickly populated state in India according to census 2011.

29. Solution: d)
Apart from non-statutory instructions issued by the Government from time to time, display
of the National Flag is governed by the provisions of the Emblems and Names (Prevention
of Improper Use) Act, 1950 (No.12 of 1950) and the Prevention of Insults to National Honour
Act, 1971 (No. 69 of 1971). Flag Code of India, 2002 is an attempt to bring together all such
laws, conventions, practices and instructions for the guidance and benefit of all concerned.
For the sake of convenience, Flag Code of India, 2002, has been divided into three parts. Part
I of the Code contains general description of the National Flag. Part II of the Code is devoted
to the display of the National Flag by members of public, private organizations, educational
institutions, etc. Part III of the Code relates to display of the National Flag by Central and
State governments and their organisations and agencies.

30. Solution: a)
The emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at Sarnath, preserved in
the Sarnath Museum in India. The actual Sarnath capital including four Asiatic lions
standing back to back - symbolizing power, courage, pride, and confidence - mounted on a
circular base.At the bottom it has 1 horse & a bull,at its centre it has a beautiful wheel
(Dharma chakra). The abacus is girded with a frieze of sculptures in high relief of an
elephant (of the east), a bull (of the west), a horse (of the south), and a lion (of the north),
separated by intervening wheels, over a lotus in full bloom, exemplifying the fountainhead
of life and creative inspiration. Carved out of a single block of polished sandstone, the
capital is crowned by the Wheel of the Law (Dharma Chakra). In the emblem adopted by
Madhav Sawhney in 1950 only three lions are visible, the fourth being hidden from view.
The wheel appears in relief in the centre of the abacus, with a bull on the right and a
galloping horse on the left, and outlines of Dharma Chakras on the extreme right and left.
The bell-shaped lotus beneath the abacus has been omitted.

31. Solution: b)
Vande Mataram was composed in Sanskrit. It was first sung at the 1896 session of the
Indian National Congress.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 11

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

32. Solution: c)

33. Solution: a)
According to the Part-V, Article-75 of the Indian Constitution, the Council of Ministers are
collectively responsible to only to the Lok Sabha.

34. Solution: a)
The Right against Exploitation, contained in Articles 2324, lays down certain provisions to
prevent exploitation of the weaker sections of the society by individuals or the State. Article
23 provides prohibits human trafficking, making it an offence punishable by law, and also
prohibits forced labour or any act of compelling a person to work without wages where he
was legally entitled not to work or to receive remuneration for it. However, it permits the
State to impose compulsory service for public purposes, including conscription and
community service. The Bonded Labour system (Abolition) Act, 1976, has been enacted by
Parliament to give effect to this Article. Article 24 prohibits the employment of children
below the age of 14 years in factories, mines and other hazardous jobs. Parliament has
enacted the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986, providing regulations for
the abolition of, and penalties for employing, child labour, as well as provisions for
rehabilitation of former child labourers.
Article 39 lays down certain principles of policy to be followed by the State, including
providing an adequate means of livelihood for all citizens, equal pay for equal work for men
and women, proper working conditions, reduction of the concentration of wealth and means
of production from the hands of a few, and distribution of community resources to
"subserve the common good".
Despite being non-justiciable, the Directive Principles act as a check on the State; theorised
as a yardstick in the hands of the electorate and the opposition to measure the performance
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 12

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


of a government at the time of an election. Article 37, while stating that the Directive
Principles are not enforceable in any court of law, declares them to be "fundamental to the
governance of the country" and imposes an obligation on the State to apply them in matters
of legislation.

35. Solution: c)
During an Emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into
the total control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a
formal amendment of the Constitution. This kind of transformation of the political system
from federal during normal times to unitary during Emergency is a unique feature of the
Indian Constitution.
Since the state governments do exist even at the time of emergency, we can not call it single
government.

36. Solution: a)
Under Article 352, the President can declare a national emergency when the security of India
or a part of it is threatened by war or external aggression or armed rebellion. It may be noted
that the president can declare a national emergency even before the actual occurrence of war
or external aggression or armed rebellion, if he is satisfied that there is an imminent danger.
A proclamation of national emergency may be applicable to the entire country or only a part
of it. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the president to limit the operation of a
National Emergency to a specified part of India.

37. Solution: d)
The President can proclaim a national emergency only after receiving a written
recommendation from the cabinet. This means that the emergency can be declared only on
the concurrence of the cabinet and not merely on the advice of the prime minister. In 1975,
the then Prime Minister, Indira Gandhi advised the president to proclaim emergency
without consulting her cabinet.
The cabinet was informed of the proclamation after it was made, as a fait accompli. The 44th
Amendment Act of 1978 introduced this safeguard to eliminate any possibility of the prime
minister alone taking a decision in this regard.
Approval of the Parliament is required later to decide whether to continue the emergency or
not.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 13

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


38. Solution: b)
Identifying features of indicative planning may be summed up as under:

Every economy following the indicative planning were the mixed economies.
Unlike a centrally planned economy (countries following imperative planning)
indicative planning works through the market (price system) rather than replaces
it.15
Side by side setting numerical/quantitative targets (similar to the practice in the
imperative planning) a set of economic policies of indicative nature is also
announced by the economies to realise the plan targets.
The indicative nature of economic policies which are announced in such planning
basically encourage or discourage the private sector in its process of economic
decision making.

39. Solution: d)
7th schedule refers to the division of legislative subjects b/w Centre and states.
Economic and social planning is a concurrent subject. Also, while framing the Union, State
and Concurrent list, allocating subjects and other provisions, the Constitution vests power in
the Union to ensure co-ordinated development in essential fields of activity while preserving
the initiative and authority of the states in the spheres allotted to them.
Part IX refers to Panchayats which are responsible for local planning.
Sixth schedule gives elaborate guidelines on the political structure of the tribal areas; and
gives them the right to manage and redistribute their own resources and plan for economic
activities via several structures.

40. Solution: b)
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NITI_Aayog

41. Solution: d)
Infrastructure, Including Rural Infrastructure targets under 12 th FYP

Increase investment in infrastructure as a percentage of GDP to 9 per cent by the end


of Twelfth Five Year Plan.
Increase the Gross Irrigated Area from 90 million hectare to 103 million hectare by
the end of Twelfth Five Year Plan.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 14

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

Provide electricity to all villages and reduce AT&C losses to 20 per cent by the end of
Twelfth Five Year Plan.
Connect all villages with all-weather roads by the end of Twelfth Five Year Plan.
Upgrade national and state highways to the minimum two-lane standard by the end
of Twelfth Five Year Plan.
Complete Eastern and Western Dedicated Freight Corridors by the end of Twelfth
Five Year Plan.
Increase rural tele-density to 70 per cent by the end of Twelfth Five Year Plan.
Ensure 50 per cent of rural population has access to 40 lpcd piped drinking water
supply, and 50 per cent gram panchayats achieve Nirmal Gram Status by the end of
Twelfth Five Year Plan.

42. Solution: c)
Except 5th option, all are fundmental duties
The Fundamental Duties noted in the constitution are as follows:
It shall be the duty of every citizen of India

to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and
the National Anthem;

to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom;

to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;

to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;

to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of
India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce
practices derogatory to the dignity of women;

to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture;

to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild
life, and to have compassion for living creatures;

to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform;

to safeguard public property and to abjure violence;

to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the
nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement;

who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward,
as the case may be, between the age of six and fourteen years

43. Solution: b)

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 15

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


Article 54 of the constitution says:
"The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of (a) The elected members of both Houses of Parliament and
(b) The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States (including National
Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Pondicherry vide the Constitution 70th
amendment Act, 1992)."
Thus in the election of the President the citizens play no direct part and he is elected
indirectly by the representatives or the people, like the American President but no special
electoral college is elected, as in the case of America. Another point of difference that may be
noted is that the election of the President of India is by the system of proportional
representation, by the single transferable vote, as provided by Article 55(3) of the
Constitution, while the American President is elected by the straight vote system.

http://pib.nic.in/archieve/others/pr.html
http://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-in-school/how-is-indias-presidentelected/article3617995.ece

44. Solution: b)
The Vice President shall act as President in the absence of the President due to death,
resignation, impeachment, or other situations. The Vice President of India is also ex
officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. He ceases to perform as Chairman of Rajya Sabha
while acting as the President.
Article 66 of the Indian Constitution states the manner of election of the Vice-President. The
Vice-President is elected indirectly by members of an electoral college consisting of the
members of both Houses of Parliament in accordance with the system ofProportional
Representation by means of the Single transferable vote and the voting is by secret ballot

45. Solution: d)
The Rajya Sabha meets in continuous sessions, and unlike the Lok Sabha, the lower house of
Parliament, is not subject to dissolution. The Rajya Sabha has equal footing in all areas of
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 16

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


legislation with Lok Sabha, except in the area of supply, where the Lok Sabha has overriding
powers.
Members sit for six-year terms, with one third of the members retiring every two years.

46. Solution: d)
Parliamentary Committees are of two kinds: Ad hoc Committees and the Standing
Committees. Ad hoc Committees are appointed for a specific purpose and they cease to exist
when they finish the task assigned to them and submit a report. The principal Ad
hoc Committees are the Select and Joint Committees on Bills. Others like the Railway
Convention Committee, the Committees on the Draft Five Year Plans and the Hindi
Equivalents Committee were appointed for specific purposes. Apart from the Ad
hoc Committees, each House of Parliament has Standing Committees like the Business
Advisory Committee, the Committee on Petitions, the Committee of Privileges and the Rules
Committee, etc.
Standing committee is a committee consisting of Members of Parliament. It is a permanent
and regular committee which is constituted from time to time according to the provisions of
an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business. The work done by
the Indian Parliament is not only voluminous but also of a complex nature, hence a good
deal of its work is carried out in these Parliamentary Committees. [1]
Both Houses of Parliament, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha, have similar Committee structures
with a few exceptions. Their appointment, terms of office, functions and procedures of
conducting business are broadly similar. These standing committees are elected or
appointed every year, or periodically by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha, or as a result of consultation between them.

47. Solution: a)
Committee on Estimates
This Committee consists of 30 members who are elected by the Lok Sabha every year from
amongst its members. A Minister is not eligible for election to this Committee. The term of
the Committee is one year. The main function of the Committee on Estimates is to report
what economies, improvements in organisation, efficiency, or administrative reform,
consistent with the policy underlying the estimates may be effected and to suggest
alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration. From
time to time the Committee selects such of the estimates pertaining to a Ministry or a group
of Ministries or the statutory and other Government bodies as may seem fit to the
Committee. The Committee also examines matters of special interest which may arise or

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 17

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


come to light in the course of its work or which are specifically referred to it by the House
or the Speaker.
Committee on Public Undertakings
The Committee on Public Undertakings consists of 15 members elected by the Lok Sabha
and 7 members of Rajya Sabha are associated with it. A Minister is not eligible for election to
this Committee. The term of the Committee is one year.
The functions of the Committee on Public Undertakings are(a) to examine the reports and
accounts of Public Undertakings; (b) to examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and
Auditor General on the Public Undertakings; (c) to examine in the context of the autonomy
and efficiency of the Public Undertakings whether the affairs of the Public Undertakings are
being managed in accordance with sound business principles and prudent commercial
practices; and (d) such other functions vested in the Committee on Public Accounts and the
Committee on Estimates in relation to the Public Undertakings as are not covered by clauses
(a), (b) and (c) above and as may be allotted to the Committee by the Speaker from time to
time. The Committee does not, however, examine matters of major Government policy and
matters of day-to-day administration of the Undertakings.
Committee on Public Accounts
This Committee consists of 15 members elected by the Lok Sabha and 7 members of the
Rajya Sabha are associated with it. A Minister is not eligible for election to this Committee.
The term of the Committee is one year.
The main duty of the Committee is to ascertain whether the money granted by Parliament
has been spent by Government "within the scope of the Demand". The Appropriation
Accounts of the Government of India and the Audit Reports presented by the Comptroller
and Auditor General mainly form the basis for the examination of the Committee. Cases
involving losses, nugatory expenditure and financial irregularities come in for severe
criticism by the Committee. The Committee is not concerned with questions of policy. It is
concerned only with the execution of the policy laid down by Parliament and its results.
Business Advisory Committee (Lok Sabha)
The Business Advisory Committee of Lok Sabha consists of 15 members including the
Speaker who is the ex-officio Chairman. The members are nominated by the Speaker. Almost
all sections of the House are represented on the Committee as per the respective strength of
parties in the House. The function of the Committee is to recommend the time that should
be allotted for the discussion of such Government legislative and other business as the
Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, may direct to be referred to the
Committee. The Committee, on its own initiative, may also recommend to the Government
to bring forward particular subjects for discussion in the House and recommend allocation
of time for such discussions. The decisions reached by the Committee are always unanimous

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 18

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


in character and representative of the collective view of the House. The Committee generally
meets at the beginning of each Session and thereafter as and when necessary.

48. Solution: d)
Functions assigned to the Ministry under the Government of India (Allocation of Business)
Rules, 1961 made by the President under Article 77(3) of the Constitution of India:

Dates of summoning and prorogation of the two Houses of Parliament, Dissolution


of Lok Sabha, President's Address to Parliament.

Planning and Coordination of legislative and other official business in both Houses.

Allocation of Government time in Parliament for discussion of motions given notice


of by Members.

Liaison with Leaders and Whips of various Parties and Groups represented in
Parliament.

Lists of Members of Select and Joint Committees on Bills.

Appointment of Members of Parliament on Committees and other bodies set up by


Government.

Functioning of Consultative Committees of Members of Parliament for various


Ministries.

Implementation of assurances given by Ministers in Parliament.

Governments stand on Private Members Bills and Resolutions.

Secretarial assistance to the Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.

Advice to Ministries on procedural and other Parliamentary matters.

Coordination of action by Ministries on recommendations of general application


made by Parliamentary Committees.

Officially sponsored visits of Members of Parliament to places of interest.

Matters connected with powers, privileges and immunities of Members of


Parliament.

Parliamentary Secretaries - functions.

Organisation of Youth Parliament Competitions in Schools/Colleges throughout the


country.

Organisation of All India Whips Conference.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 19

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

Exchange of Government Sponsored Delegations of Members of Parliament with


other countries.

Determination of Policy and follow up action in regard to matters raised under rule
377 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha and by way of
Special Mentions in Rajya Sabha.

Manual for Handling Parliamentary work in Ministries/Departments.

The Salaries and Allowances of Officers of Parliament Act, 1953 (20 of 1953).

The Salary, Allowances and Pensions of Members of Parliament Act, 1954 (30 of
1954).

The Salary, and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977 (33 of
1977).

The Leader and Chief Whips of Recognised Parties and Groups in Parliament
(Facilities) Act, 1998 (5 of 1999)

49. Solution: c)
The division of powers is in favour of the Centre and highly inequitable from the federal
angle. Firstly, the Union List contains more subjects than the State List. Secondly, the more
important subjects have been included in the Union List. Thirdly, the Centre has overriding
authority over the Concurrent List. Finally, the residuary powers have also been left with
the Centre, while in the US, they are vested in the states. Thus, the Constitution has made
the Centre very strong.
The Constitution stipulates three types of emergencies - national, state and financial. During
an emergency, the Central government becomes all powerful and the states go into the total
control of the Centre. It converts the federal structure into a unitary one without a formal
amendment of the Constitution. This kind of transformation is not found in any other
federation.
The governor is empowered to reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature
for the consideration of the President. The President can withhold his assent to such bills not
only in the first instance but also in the second instance. Thus, the President enjoys absolute
veto (and not suspensive veto) over state bills. But in US and Australia, the states are
autonomous within their fields and there is no provision for any such reservation.

50. Solution: b)

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 20

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects (i.e., the matters which are not
enumerated in any of the three lists) is vested in the Parliament. This residuary power of
legislation includes the power to levy residuary taxes.
From the above scheme, it is clear that the matters of national importance and the matters
which requires uniformity of legislation nationwide are included in the Union List. The
matters of regional and local importance and the matters which permits diversity of interest
are specified in the State List. The matters on which uniformity of legislation throughout the
country is desirable but not essential are enumerated in the concurrent list. Thus, it permits
diversity along with uniformity.

51. Solution: a)
The Constitution expressly secures the predominance of the Union List over the State List
and the Concurrent List and that of the Concurrent List over the State List. Thus, in case of
overlapping between the Union List and the State List, the former should prevail. In case of
overlapping between the Union List and the Concurrent List, it is again the former which
should prevail. Where there is a conflict between the Concurrent List and the State List, it is
the former that should prevail.
In case of a conflict between the Central law and the state law on a subject enumerated in the
Concurrent List, the Central law prevails over the state law. But, there is an exception. If the
state law has been reserved for the consideration of the president and has received his
assent, then the state law prevails in that state. But, it would still be competent for the
Parliament to override such a law by subsequently making a law on the same matter.

52. Solution: b)
If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in the national interest that Parliament should
make laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament becomes competent to make
laws on that matter. Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members
present and voting. The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any
number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. The laws cease to have effect on the
expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force.
When the legislatures of two or more states pass resolutions requesting the Parliament to
enact laws on a matter in the State List, then the Parliament can make laws for regulating
that matter. A law so enacted applies only to those states which have passed the resolutions.
However, any other state may adopt it afterwards by passing a resolution to that effect in its
legislature. Such a law can be amended or repealed only by the Parliament and not by the
legislatures of the concerned states.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 21

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


53. Solution: a)
The Constitution empowers the Centre to exercise control over the states legislative matters
in the following ways:
(i) The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the
consideration of the President. The president enjoys absolute veto over them.
(ii) Bills on certain matters enumerated in the State List can be introduced in the state
legislature only with the previous sanction of the president. (For example, the bills imposing
restrictions on the freedom of trade and commerce).
(iii) The President can direct the states to reserve money bills and other financial bills passed
by the state legislature for his consideration during a financial emergency.

54. Solution: a)
The Constitution contains the following other provisions which enable the Centre to exercise
control over the state administration:
(i) Article 355 imposes two duties on the Centre: (a) to protect every state against external
aggression and internal disturbance; and (b) to ensure that the government of every state is
carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
(ii) The governor of a state is appointed by the president. He holds office during the pleasure
of the President. In addition to the Constitutional head of the state, the governor acts as an
agent of the Centre in the state. He submits periodical reports to the Centre about the
administrative affairs of the state.
(iii) The state election commissioner, though appointed by the governor of the state, can be
removed only by the President.

55. Solution: b)
These include a number of advisory bodies and conferences held at the Central level.
The non-constitutional advisory bodies include the NITI AYOG, the National Development
Council, the National Integration Council, the Central Council of Health, the Central Council
of Local Government and Urban Development, the Zonal Councils, the North-Eastern
Council, the Central Council of Indian Medicine, Central Council of Homo-eopathy, the
Central Family Welfare Council, the Transport Development Council, the University Grants
Commission and so on.
The important conferences held either annually or otherwise to facilitate Centrestate
consultation on a wide range of matters are as follows: (i) The governors conference
(presided over by the President). (ii) The chief ministers conference (presided over by the
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 22

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


prime minister). (iii) The chief secretaries conference (presided over by the cabinet
secretary). (iv) The conference of inspector-general of police. (v) The chief justices
conference (presided over by the chief justice of India). (vi) The conference of vice-cancellors.
(vii) The home ministers conference (presided over by the Central home minister). (viii) The
law ministers conference (presided over by the Central law minister).

56. Solution: b)
Service Tax Levied by the Centre but Collected and Appropriated by the Centre and the
States (Article 268-A): Taxes on services are levied by the Centre. But, their proceeds are
collected as well as appropriated by both the Centre and the states. The principles of their
collection and appropriation are formulated by the Parliament.
Taxes Levied and Collected by the Centre but Assigned to the States (Article 269): The
following taxes fall under this category:
(i) Taxes on the sale or purchase of goods (other than newspapers) in the course of inter-state
trade or commerce.
(ii) Taxes on the consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce

57. Solution: a)
The Centre The receipts from the following form the major sources of non-tax revenues of
the Centre: (i) posts and telegraphs; (ii) railways; (iii) banking; (iv) broadcasting (v) coinage
and currency; (vi) central public sector enterprises; and (vii) escheat and lapse.19
The States The receipts from the following form the major sources of non-tax revenues of the
states: (i) irrigation; (ii) forests; (iii) fisheries; (iv) state public sector enterprise; and (v)
escheat and lapse.

58. Solution: a)
Article 275 empowers the Parliament to make grants to the states which are in need of
financial assistance and not to every state. Also, different sums may be fixed for different
states. These sums are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India every year.
Apart from this general provision, the Constitution also provides for specific grants for
promoting the welfare of the scheduled tribes in a state or for raising the level of
administration of the scheduled areas in a state including the State of Assam.
The statutory grants under Article 275 (both general and specific) are given to the states on
the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 23

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


The Constitution also provided for a third type of grants-in-aid (other than Statutory and
Discretionary), but for a temporary period. Thus, a provision was made for grants in lieu of
export duties on jute and jute products to the States of Assam, Bihar, Orissa and West
Bengal. These grants were to be given for a period of ten years from the commencement of
the Constitution. These sums were charged on the Consolidated Fund of India and were
made to the states on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.

59. Solution: a)
To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the Constitution lays down that the
following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the
President:

A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested;
A bill which varies the meaning of the expression agricultural income as defined for
the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income tax;
A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to
states; and
A bill which imposes any surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the purpose of
the Centre.

60. Solution: b)
The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers the Central government to set up an ad hoc
tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute between two or more states in relation to the
waters of an inter-state river or river valley. The decision of the tribunal would be final and
binding on the parties to the dispute. Neither the Supreme Court nor any other court is to
have jurisdiction in respect of any water dispute which may be referred to such a tribunal
under this Act.
The need for an extra judicial machinery to settle inter-state water disputes is as follows:
The Supreme Court would indeed have jurisdiction to decide any dispute between states in
connection with water supplies, if legal rights or interests are concerned; but the experience
of most countries has shown that rules of law based upon the analogy of private proprietary
interests in water do not afford a satisfactory basis for settling disputes between the states
where the interests of the public at large in the proper use of water supplies are involved.

61. Solution: c)

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 24

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


The first National Tribal Festival Vanaj concluded this month - February 2015 in New
Delhi.
It was organised by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
Key facts

The aim of weeklong National Tribal Festival was to bridge the gaps of social divide
and promote tribal culture in India.

The purpose of the festival was to uplift the quality of tribal lives of the country in
order to conserve and promote their distinctive cultures by providing them national
platform.

More than 900 folk and tribal artists from states like Assam, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat,
Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Nagaland,
Odisha, Rajasthan, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal participated in it.

Maiden edition of the festival showcased the rich diversity of Tribal culture, art,
painting, music, dance, tribal medicine, tribal food, and a special attraction- tribal
cuisine.

62. Solution: d)

It is duty imposed by government on imported products which have prices less than
their normal values or domestic price.

Usually countries initiate anti-dumping probes to check if domestic industry has


been hurt because of a surge in below-cost imports.

Anti-Dumping Duty is imposed under the multilateral WTO regime and vary from
product to product and from country to country.

In India, anti-dumping duty is recommended by the Union Ministry of Commerce,


while the Union Finance Ministry imposes it.

63. Solution: d)
India and Sri Lanka have signed an agreement on civil nuclear cooperation, Cultural
cooperation during Sri Lankas newly elected President Maithripala Sirisen four-day visit to
India.
Sri Lanka has signed first such bilateral agreement on civil nuclear cooperation.
Following agreements were signed between India and Sri Lanka
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 25

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

Agreement on Cooperation in the Peaceful Uses of Nuclear Energy- It will facilitate


the transfer and exchange of knowledge and expertise, resources in peaceful uses of
Nuclear energy between both nations. This agreement also includes capacity
building and training of personnel for nuclear security, radioactive waste
management and nuclear and radiological disaster mitigation and environmental
protection.

Programme of Cultural cooperation between both nations for years 2015-18 It


seeks to enhance cooperation in different fields like arts, visuals arts, cultural
documentation, archeology, handicrafts etc between both nations.

MoU on establishment of Nalanda University- It will enable Sri Lanka to


participate in Indias Nalanda University project.

Work Plan 2014-15 under MoU on Cooperation in the field of Agriculture- It will
facilitate bilateral cooperation in Agro Processing, Agricultural extension,
horticulture, agricultural machinery, training in farm mechanization, livestock
diseases, etc. between relevant institutes and organizations from both countries.

64. Solution: d)
Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India
to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices. The minimum support
prices are announced by the Government of India at the beginning of the sowing season for
certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs
and Prices (CACP).
In formulating the recommendations in respect of the level of minimum support prices and
other non-price measures, the CACP takes into account a comprehensive view of the entire
structure of the economy of a particular commodity or group of commodities. Other Factors
include cost of production, changes in input prices, input-output price parity, trends in
market prices, demand and supply, inter-crop price parity, effect on industrial cost
structure, effect on cost of living, effect on general price level, international price situation,
parity between prices paid and prices received by the farmers and effect on issue prices and
implications for subsidy. The Commission makes use of both micro-level data and
aggregates at the level of district, state and the country

65. Solution: d)
The FCI has been constructing storage capacity for holding buffer and operational stocks of
food grains at nodal points in the country. The storage capacities available with FCI are
mainly used for storage of food grains and partly for other commodities and general
warehousing.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 26

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


The buffer stocks are required to
1. Feed TPDS and other welfare schemes,
2. Ensure food security during the periods when production is short of normal demand
during bad agricultural years
3. Stabilize prices during period of production shortfall through open market sales.

66. Solution: a)
Import dependence was about 3 per cent during 1992-93. The production of oilseeds, though
it has increased in recent years (from 184.40 lakh tons in 2000-01 to 297.99 lakh tons in 201112), it has not kept pace with the demand for edible oils in India. Imports have helped raise
the per capita availability of edible oils which has increased from 5.8 kg in 1992-93 increased
to 14.5 kg in 2010-11.
ii. One instrument for promoting future domestic production is calibration of the import
duty structure. Large imports of edible oils are primarily due to competitive prices of edible
oils in the international market and the import duty structure which has been sharply
reduced to near zero levels over time to protect consumers India has such a high market
share (in the world edible oil imports) that allows it to set some independent tariff policy
that can meet both goals better.

67. Solution: d)
The role of the agriculture market is to deliver agricultural produce from the farmer to the
consumer in the most efficient way. Agriculture markets are regulated in India through the
APMC Acts.
According to the provisions of the APMC Acts of the states, every APMC (Agricultural
Produce Marketing Committee) is authorised to collect market fees from the buyers/traders
in the prescribed manner on the sale of notified agricultural produce. The relatively high
incidence of commission charges on agricultural/horticultural produce renders their
marketing cost high, which is an undesirable outcome.
All this suggests that a single point market fee system is necessary for facilitating free
movement of produce, bringing price stabilisation, and reducing price differences between
the producer and consumer market segments. Another point to be highlighted is that the
cleaning, grading, and packaging of agricultural produce before sale by the farmers have not
been popularised by these market committees on a sufficient scale.

68. Solution: d)
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 27

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


The horticulture sector includes a wide range of crops, such as fruits, vegetables, roots and
tuber crops, flowers, aromatic and medicinal plants, spices, and plantation crops, which
facilitate diversification in agriculture. It has been recognised that growing horticulture
crops is now an ideal option to improve livelihood security, enhance employment
generation, attain food and nutritional security, and increase income through value
addition. Over the years, there have been noticeable achievements and significant
improvement in the production and productivity of various horticulture crops.
The NHM scheme was launched during the Tenth Plan for holistic development of the
horticulture sector, duly ensuring forward and backward linkages by adopting a cluster
approach, with the active participation of all the stakeholders. The supply of quality planting
material through establishment of nurseries and tissue culture units, production and
productivity improvement programmes through area expansion and rejuvenation,
technology promotion, technology dissemination, human resource development, creation of
infrastructure for post-harvest management and marketing in consonance with the
comparative advantages of each state/region and their diverse agro-climatic conditions are
the major programmes of the Mission.

69. Solution: d)
There are various major crop insurance schemes under implementation in the country:
(i) National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS): The NAIS is a government-sponsored
central-sector crop insurance scheme being implemented in the country since 1999-2000
season (the erstwhile Comprehensive Crop Insurance Scheme-CCIS of 1985 was merged into it)
with the objective of providing financial support to farmers in the event of failure of crops
as a result of natural calamities, pests, and diseases. The Agriculture Insurance Company of
India Ltd. (AICIL) is the implementing agency for the Scheme. At present, the scheme is
being implemented by 25 states and two UTs.
(ii) Modified NAIS (MNAIS): With the aim of further improving crop insurance schemes, the
MNAIS is under implementation on pilot basis in 50 districts in the country from rabi 201011 season. Some of the major improvements made in the MNAIS are

Actuarial premium with subsidy in premium at different rates


All claims liability to be on the insurer
Unit area of insurance reduced to village panchayat level for major crops
Indemnity for prevented/sowing/planting risk and for post-harvest losses
due to cyclone
On account payment up to 25 per cent advance of likely claims as immediate
relief
More proficient basis for calculation of threshold yield, and
Allowing private sector insurers with adequate infrastructure

Other schemes too cover the aforementioned.


http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 28

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

70. Solution: d)
It includes all those economic policies which intend to boost the aggregate demand in the
economy be it domestic or external. For the enhanced domestic demand, the focus has to
be on increasing the purchasing power of the masses which entails an emphasis on the
creation of the gainful and quality employment opportunities.
Cutting down CAD and fiscal deficit affect the level of demand and inflation in the macroeconomy.

71. Solution: a)
Several connotations and meanings of the term privatisation have developed. We may see
them as follows:
(i) Privatisation in its purest sense and lexically means de-nationalisation i.e. transfer of the
state ownership of the assets to the private sector to the tune of 100 per cent. Such bold
moves took place only once anywhere in the world without any political fallouts - in the
early 1980s of the UK under the Thatcher regime. This route of privatisation has been
avoided by almost all democratic systems. In the mid-1990s some west European nations
Italy, Spain and Francebesides the USA went for such moves.21 India never ventured into
any such privatisation move.
(ii) The sense in which privatisation has been used is the process of disinvestment all over
the world. This process includes selling of the shares of the state-owned enterprises to the
private sector. Disinvestment is de-nationalisation of less than 100 per cent ownership
transfer from the state to the private sector. If an asset has been sold out by the Government
to the tune of only 49 per cent the ownership remains with the state though it is considered
privatisation. If the sale of shares of the state-owned assets has been to the tune of 51 per
cent, the ownership is really transferred to the private sector even then it is termed as
privatisation.
(iii) The third and the last sense in which the term privatisation has been used around the
world, is very wide. Basically, all the economic policies which directly or indirectly seem to
promote the expansion of the private sector or the market (economy) have been termed by
the experts and the governments as the process of privatisation. We may cite a few examples
from India de-licencing and dereservatrion of the industries, even cuts in the subsidies,
permission to foreign investment, etc.

72. Solution: a)

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 29

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


Considered as the backbone for the success of the reform process in India itself, it consists
of dismantling of the Administered Price Mechanism (APM). There were many products in
the economy whose prices were fixed/regulated by the Government viz. petroleum, sugar,
fertilizers, drugs, etc.
Though a major section of the products under the APM were produced by the private sector,
they were not sold on the market principles which hindered the profitability of the
manufacturers as well as the sellers and ultimately the expansion of the concerned
industries leading to a demand-supply gap. Under market reforms these products were to
be brought into the market fold.
In the petroleum segment now only kerosene oil and the LPG remained under the APM
while petrol, diesel, lubricants have been phased out. Similarly, the income tax paying
families dont get sugar from the TPS on subsidies; only urea, among the fertilizers, remain
under APM while many drugs have also been phased out of the mechanism. Opening the
petroleum sector for private investment, cutting down the burden of levy on sugar, etc. are
now giving dividends to the economy. But we cannot say that the Factor Market Reforms
(FMRs) are complete in India. It is still going on. Cutting down subsidies on the essential
goods is a socio-political question in India. Till market-base purchasing power is not
delivered to all the consumers, it would not be possible to complete the FMRs.

73. Solution: d)
When the general level of prices is falling over a period of time this is deflation, the opposite
situation of inflation. It is also known as disinflation. But in contemporary economics,
deflation or disinflation not used to indicate fall in prices. Instead, a price rise is termed a
rise in inflation and a price fall is termed a fall in inflation. The terms deflation or
disinflation have become part of the macroeconomic policy of modern governments. In
policy terms, the terms show a reduction in the level of national income and output, usually
accompanied by a fall in the general price level.
Such a policy is often deliberately brought about by the governments with the objective of
reducing, inflation and improving the balance of payments (BoP) by reducing import
demand. As instruments of deflation, any policy includes fiscal measures (as for example,
tax increase) and monetary measures (as for example, increase in interest rate).

74. Solution: d)
The governments may take recourse to tighter monetary policy to cool down either the
demand-pull or the cost-push inflations. This is basically intended to cut down the money
supply in the economy by siphoning out the extra money (as RBI increases the Cash Reserve
Ratio of bank in India) from the economy and by making money costlier (as RBI increases

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 30

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


the Bank Rate or Repo Rate in India). This is a short-term measure. In the long-run, the best
way is to increase production with the help of the best production practices.
Again, this measure does not work if the price rise is taking place in the items of everyday
use such as salt, onion, wheat, etc. (because nobody purchases such goods by borrowing
from the banks). This measure helps if the prices are rising due to extra demand of cement,
iron and steel, etc.
75. Solution: a)
Core Inflation is based on the inclusion or exclusion of the goods and services while
calculating inflation. Popular in western economies, core inflation shows price rise in all
goods and services excluding energy and food articles. In India, it was first time used in the
financial year 200001 when the Government expressed that it was under controlit means
the prices of manufactured goods were under control. This was criticised by experts on
account of excluding food articles and energy out of the inflation and feeling satisfied on the
inflation front. Basically, in the western economies, food and energy are not the problems for
the masses, while in India these two segments play the most vital role for them.

76. Solution: a)
An inflationary situation in an economy which results out of a process of wage and price
interaction when wages press prices up and prices pull wages up is known as the
inflationary spiral. It is also known as the wage-price spiral. This wage-price interaction was
seen as a plausible cause of inflation in the year 1935 in the US economy, for the first time.
It can be seen in Indias case also when the government revises the Dearness allowance
(addition to the basic salary w.r.t. to inflation levels), it adds to the existing demand in the
economy and leads to inflation.

77. Solution: a)
A situation in an economy when inflation and unemployment both are at higher levels, is
contrary to conventional belief. Such a situation first arose in 1970s in the US economy
(average unemployment rate above 6 per cent and the average rate of inflation above 7 per
cent)32a and in many Euro- American economies. This took place as a result of oil price
increases of 1973 and 1979 and anticipation of higher inflation. The stagflationary situation
continued till the early 1980s. Conventional thinking that a trade-off existed between
inflation and unemployment (i.e. Phillips curve) was falsified and several economies
switched over to alternative ways of economic policies such as monetaristic and supply-side
economics.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 31

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


When the economy is passing through the cycle of stagnation (i.e. long period of low
aggregate demand in relation to its productive capacity) and the government shuffles with
the economic policy, a sudden and temporary price rise is seen in some of the goodssuch
inflation is also known as stagflation. Stagflation is basically a combination of high inflation
and low growth.

78. Solution: c)
Economists usually distinguish between inflation and a relative price increase. Inflation
refers to a sustained, across-the-board price increase, whereas a relative price increase is a
reference to an episodic price rise pertaining to one or a small group of commodities. This
leaves a third phenomenon, namely one in which there is a price rise of one or a small group
of commodities over a sustained period of time, without a traditional designation.
Skewflation is a relatively new term to describe this third category of price rise.
In India, food prices rose steadily during the last months of 2009 and the early months of
2010, even though the prices of non-food items continued to be relatively stable. As this
somewhat unusual phenomenon stubbornly persisted, policymakers conferred on how to
bring it to an end. The term skewflation made an appearance in internal documents of the
Government of India, and then appeared in print in the Economic Survey 2009-10, GoI, MoF.
The skewedness of inflation in India in the early months of 2010 was obvious from the fact
that food price inflation crossed the 20 per cent mark in multiple months, whereas wholesale
price index (WPI) inflation never once crossed 11 per cent. It may be pointed out that the
skewflation has gradually given way to a lower-grade generalised inflation. (with the
economy in the middle of 2011 inflating at around 9 per cent with food and non-food price
increases roughly at the same level).

79. Solution: a)
This is the ratio between GDP at Current Prices and GDP at Constant Prices. If GDP at Current
Prices is equal to the GDP at Constant Prices, GDP deflator will be 1, implying no change in
price level. If GDP deflator is found to be 2, it implies rise in price level by a factor of 2, and
if GDP deflator is found to be 4 , it implies a rise in price level by a factor of 4. GDP deflator
is acclaimed as a better measure of price behaviour because it covers all goods and services
produced in the country (because the weight of services has not been equitably accounted in
the Indian headline inflation i.e. inflation at the WPI).

80. Solution: d)
Inflation redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors i.e. lenders suffer and borrowers
benefit out of inflation. The opposite effect takes place when inflation falls (i.e. deflation).
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 32

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


Holding money does not remain an intelligent economic decision (because money loses
value with every increase in inflation) that is why people visit banks more frequently and
try to hold least money with themselves and put maximum with the banks in their saving
accounts. This is also known as the shoe leather cost of inflation (as it consumes the precious
time of the people visiting the bank frequently tagging their shoe!). It means that saving rate
increases. But this happens as a short-term effect of inflation. In the long-run, higher
inflation depletes the saving rate in an economy. Just the opposite situation arises when
inflation falls or shows falling traits with decreasing saving, in the short-run and increasing
saving in the long-run, respectively.

81. Solution: b)
WPI categories. Services are included in CPI. Price rise in intermediate goods is not counted.
Instead, the final price rise in the manufactured good is included.

82. Solution: d)
The typical problem of bottleneck inflation (i.e structural inflation) arises out of shortfalls in
the supply of goods, a general crisis of a developing economy, rising demand but lack of
investible capital to produce the required level of goods.
Whenever the Government managed to go for higher growths by managing higher
investible capital it had inflationary pressures on the economy (seen during 1970s and 1980s,
specially) and growth was sacrificed at the altar of lower inflation (which was politically
more justified). Thus the supply-side mismatch remained a long-drawn problem in India for
higher inflation. After some time even if the government managed higher expenditure, most
of it was eaten by the non-developmental areas which did show low growth with higher
inflation signs of a stagnating economy.

83. Solution: a)
Major traits of recession, to a great extent, are similar to that of depression may be summed
up as follows

there is a general fall in demand as economic activities takes a downturn;

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 33

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

inflation remains lower or/and shows further signs of falling down;


employment rate falls/unemployment rate grows;
Industries resort to price cuts to sustain their business.

The major economic traits of boom may be listed as given below:

an accelerated and prolonged increase in the demand;


demand peaks up to such a high level that it exceeds sustainable output/production
levels;
the economy heats up and a demand-supply lag is visible;
the market forces mismatch (i.e. demand and supply inequilibrium) and tend to
create a situation where inflation start going upward;

(e) the economy might face structural problems like shortage of investible capital, lower
savings, falling standard of living, creation of a sellers market.

84. Solution: a)
Agriculture is not only the biggest sector of the economy (employment wise) but also the
most free private sector, too. It is the only profession which still carries no burden of
individual income tax.
This is the biggest unorganised sector of the economy accounting for more than 90 per cent
share in the total unorganised labour-force (93 per cent of the total labour force of the
economy i.e. 39.7 crores, is employed in the unorganised sector).

85. Solution: c)
Under the broader step of Tenancy Reforms, three inter-related reforms protecting the land
tenants were effected by the GoI:

Regulation of rent so that a fixed and rational rate of rent could be paid by the sharecroppers to the land owners;
Security of tenure so that a share-cropper could be feel secure about his future income
and his economic security; and
Ownership rights to tenants so that the landless masses (i.e. the tenants, the sharecroppers) could be transferred the final rights for the land they plough - land to the
tillers.

86. Solution: c)
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 34

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


Prevention of pig-to-human transmission
The transmission from swine to humans is believed to occur mainly in swine farms, where
farmers are in close contact with live pigs. Although strains of swine influenza are usually
not able to infect humans, this may occasionally happen, so farmers and veterinarians are
encouraged to use face masks when dealing with infected animals. The use of vaccines on
swine to prevent their infection is a major method of limiting swine-to-human transmission.
Prevention of human-to-human transmission
Influenza spreads between humans when infected people cough or sneeze, then other
people breathe in the virus or touch something with the virus on it and then touch their own
face, eyes, nose or mouth. Swine flu cannot be spread by pork products, since the virus is
not transmitted through food. The swine flu in humans is most contagious during the first
five days of the illness, although some people, most commonly children, can remain
contagious for up to ten days.
PIB Features
http://pib.nic.in/newsite/efeatures.aspx

87. Solution: b)
The Ministry of Home Affairs extends manpower and financial support, guidance and
expertise to the State Governments for the maintenance of security, peace and harmony
without trampling upon the constitutional rights of the States.
The Ministry of Home Affairs shows[4][5] the has the following constituent Departments:
Department of Border Management
Department of Border Management, dealing with management of borders, including coastal
borders.
Department of Internal Security
Department of Internal Security, dealing with police, law and order and rehabilitation.
Department of Jammu & Kashmir Affairs
Department of Jammu & Kashmir (J & K) Affairs, dealing with the constitutional provisions
in respect of the State of Jammu & Kashmir and all other matters relating to the State
excluding those with which the Ministry of External Affairs is concerned.
Department of Home
Dealing with the notification of assumption of office by the President and Vice President,
notification of appointment of the Prime Minister and other Ministers, etc
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 35

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


Department of Official Language
Dealing with the implementation of the provisions of the Constitution relating to official
languages and the provisions of the Official Languages Act, 1963.
Department of States
Dealing with Centre-State relations, Inter-State relations, Union Territories and Freedom
Fighters' pension.

88. Solution: b)
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India :(1) There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-General of India who shall be appointed by the
President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall only be removed from office in like
manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
(2) Every person appointed to be the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall, before
he enters upon his office, make and subscribe before the President or some person
appointed in that behalf by him, an oath or affirmation according to the form set out for the
purpose in the Third Schedule.
(3) The salary and other conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor-General shall
be such as may be determined by Parliament by law and, until they are so determined, shall
be as specified in the Second Schedule:
Provided that neither the salary of a Comptroller and Auditor-General nor his rights in
respect of leave of absence, pension or age of retirement shall be varied to his disadvantage
after his appointment.
(4) The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall not be eligible for further office either under
the Government of India or under the Government of any State after he has ceased to hold
his office.
(5) Subject to the provisions of this Constitution and of any law made by parliament, the
conditions of service of persons serving in the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and
the administrative powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General shall be such as may be
prescribed by rules made by the President after consultation with the Comptroller and
Auditor-General.
(6) The administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General
including all salaries, allowances and pensions payable to or in respect of persons serving in
that office, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
149. Duties and Powers of the Comptroller and Auditor-General :- The Comptroller and
Auditor-General shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the
accounts of the Union and of the States and of any other authority or body as may be
http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 36

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so
made, shall perform such duties and exercise such powers in relation to the accounts of the
Union and of the States as were conferred on or exercisable by the Auditor-General of India
immediately before the commencement of this Constitution in relation to the accounts of the
Dominion of India and of the provinces respectively.
150. Form of accounts of the Union and of the States :- The accounts of the Union and of the
States shall be kept in such form as the President may, on the advice of the Comptroller and
Auditor-General of India, prescribe.
151. Audit Reports :(1) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of
the Union shall be submitted to the president, who shall cause them to be laid before each
House of Parliament.
(2) The reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of a
State shall be submitted to the Governor of the State, who shall cause them to be laid before
the Legislature of the State.

89. Solution: b)
http://www.icrisat.org/what-we-do/agro-ecosystems/Bhoo-Chetana/background.htm

90. Solution: c)
The enactment of Administrative Tribunals Act in 1985 opened a new chapter in the sphere
of administering justice to the aggrieved government servants. Administrative Tribunals Act
owes its origin to Article 323-A of the Constitution which empowers Central Government to
set-up by an Act of Parliament, Administrative Tribunals for adjudication of disputes and
complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to the
public service and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union and the States. In
pursuance of the provisions contained in the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, the
Administrative Tribunals set-up under it exercise original jurisdiction in respect of service
matters of employees covered by it. As a result of the judgement dated 18 March 1997 of the
Supreme Court, the appeals against the orders of an Administrative Tribunal shall lie before
the Division Bench of the concerned High Court.
The Administrative Tribunals exercise jurisdiction only in relation to the service matters of
the litigants covered by the Act. The procedural simplicity of the Act can be appreciated
from the fact that the aggrieved person can also appear before it personally. The
Government can present its case through its departmental officers or legal practitioners.
Thus, the objective of the Tribunal is to provide for speedy and inexpensive justice to the
litigants.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 37

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


The Act provides for establishment of Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) and the State
Administrative Tribunals. The CAT was set-up on 1 November 1985. Today, it has 17
regular benches, 15 of which operate at the principal seats of High Courts and the remaining
two at Jaipur and Lucknow. These Benches also hold circuit sittings at other seats of High
Courts. In brief, the tribunal consists of a Chairman, Vice-Chairman and Members. The
Members are drawn, both from judicial as well as administrative streams so as to give the
Tribunal the benefit of expertise both in legal and administrative spheres.

91. Solution: b)

92. Solution: b)
The electoral roll is a list of all people in the constituency who are registered to vote in
Indian Elections. Only those people with their names on the electoral roll are allowed to
vote. The electoral roll is normally revised every year to add the names of those who are to
turn 18 on the 1st January of that year or have moved into a constituency and to remove the
names of those who have died or moved out of a constituency. If you are eligible to vote and
are not on the electoral roll, you can apply to the Electoral Registration Officer of the
constituency, who will update the register. The updating of the Electoral Roll only stops
during an election campaign, after the nominations for candidates have closed.

93. Solution: a)
The greatest advantage of the parliamentary system is that it ensures harmonious
relationship and cooperation between the legislative and executive organs of the
government. The executive is a part of the legislature and both are interdependent at work.
As a result, there is less scope for disputes and conflicts between the two organs.
By its very nature, the parliamentary system establishes a responsible government. The
ministers are responsible to the Parliament for all their acts of omission and commission.
The Parliament exercises control over the ministers through various devices like question
hour, discussions, adjournment motion, no confidence motion, etc.

94. Solution: b)
The parliamentary system of government in India is largely based on the British
parliamentary system.
However, it never became a replica of the British system and differs in the following
respects:

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 38

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15

India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system. In other words,
the Head of the State in India (that is, President) is elected, while the Head of the
State in Britain (that is, King or Queen) enjoys a hereditary position.
The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while
the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due
to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights.
In Britain, the prime minister should be a member of the Lower House (House of
Commons) of the Parliament. In India, the prime minister may be a member of any
of the two Houses of Parliament.
Usually, the members of Parliament alone are appointed as ministers in Britain. In
India, a person who is not a member of Parliament can also be appointed as minister,
but for a maximum period of six months.

95. Solution: b)

96. Solution: b)
The objective of INO is to conduct basic research on the elementary particle called neutrino.
Presently 21 research institutes, Universities and IITs from all over the country are involved
in this project. INO is expected to galvanise interest in basic science research in the whole
country and particularly in and around Theni and Madurai districts of Tamil Nadu. Science
students across the country will have opportunity to pursue cutting edge research in the
field of particle physics while being located in India.
The observatory will be located underground so as to provide adequate shielding to the
neutrino detector from cosmic background radiation. Tunnel construction is very common
and will not have any impact on environment, water sources or dams in the region.

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 39

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


97. Solution: d)
A Soil Health Card is used to assess the current status of soil health and, when used over
time, to determine changes in soil health that are affected by land management. A Soil
Health Card displays soil health indicators and associated descriptive terms. The indicators
are typically based on farmers' practical experience and knowledge of local natural
resources. The card lists soil health indicators that can be assessed without the aid of
technical or laboratory equipment.
Though quite a few states including Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Haryana
are successfully distributing such cards, Centre plans to make it a pan India effort.
According to the data, up to March 2012 over 48 crore soil health cards have been issued to
farmers to make them aware about nutrient deficiencies in their fields. Tamil Nadu has
started issuing soil health cards from the year 2006 onwards. There are 30 Soil Testing
Laboratories (STLs) and 18 Mobile Soil Testing Laboratories functioning in the State. The
Laboratory at Kudumianmalai, Pudukottai District has been declared as central laboratory
and it monitors quality of analysis in all laboratories.

98. Solution: c)
Key facts of report

Losses- Annually the cost of environmental damage associated with ecosystem


degradation and biodiversity loss is about Rs. 670 crore. While, the cost of health
effects due to poor environment is estimated at Rs. 620 crore.

Factors- The losses are due to combination of factors associated with unsustainable
and inefficient economic activities in Sundarbans.

These factors include mangrove destruction, impact of cyclones, reduced agricultural


yields and unsustainable fisheries as well as destruction of ecosystem services.

Cyclones- Damage costs from cyclones are the highest and accounts for damages
worth Rs. 290 crore. It also includes damages to houses, agriculture, human injuries
and fatalities.

Health issues- Due to environmental degradation, villagers in Sundarbans are


suffering from poor health outcomes. This degradation is generally in the form of
adverse natural events, such as cyclones and storms and increases in soil salinity.

These risk factors contribute considerably to mortality and morbidity, particularly


among women and children.

99. Solution: c)

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 40

Insights Mock Tests 2015: Solutions Test - 15


MADAD an e-portal will help Indian citizens living abroad to file consular grievances online
on the services offered by the Indian Missions and Posts abroad.

It incorporates several innovative features including flexible architecture to handle a


variety of grievances, linking of similar grievances on the basis of passport number
to avoid duplication and automatic escalation and enhancement of priority.

It will also help to speed up forwarding and handling of complaints, improve


tracking and redressal and escalate unresolved cases.

100.

Solution: a)

There is no body like National Skill Commission.


The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) has recently joined hands with Rural
Self Employment Training Institute (RSETI), to provide vocational training to unemployed
youth.
In this regard memorandum of understanding (MoU) was signed between the two bodies in
the presence of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Minster Kalraj Mishra. Along with
vocational training MoU also aims at providing loan linkages to deserving beneficiaries
linked to the Prime Ministers Employment Guarantee Programme (PMEGP).

http://www.insightsonindia.com

INSIGHTS

Page 41

You might also like