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Artikulasio seeley

1. Which of these is commonly used for classifying joints in the body?


a. the connective tissue that binds the bones together
b. the degree of motion at each joint
c. the number of bones that articulate with each other
d. the embryonic tissue that formed the joint
e. both a and b
2. Given these types of joints:
1. gomphosis
2. suture
3. symphysis
4. synchondrosis
5. syndesmosis
Choose the types that are held together by fibrous connective tissue.
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,2,5
c. 2,3,5
d. 3,4,5
e. 1,2,3,4,5
3. Given these types of joints:
1. gomphosis
2. suture
3. symphysis
4. synchondrosis
5. syndesmosis
Choose the types that are held together by cartilage.
a. 1,2
b. 1,4
c. 2,3
d. 3,4
e. 3,5
4. Which of these joints is not matched with the correct joint type?
a. parietal bone to occipital bonesuture
b. between the coxaesymphysis
c. humerus and scapulasynovial
d. shafts of the radius and ulnasynchondrosis
e. teeth in alveolar processgomphosis
5. The epiphyseal plate can be described as a type of joint. Choose the
term that describes the joint before growth in the length of the bone
has ended.
a. synchondrosis
b. synostosis
c. syndesmosis
d. symphysis
e. synovial
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6. Which of these types of joints are often temporary, with bone


replacing them?
a. syndesmoses
b. synovial
c. symphyses
d. gomphoses
e. synchondroses
7. Which of these joints are the most movable?
a. sutures
b. syndesmoses
c. symphyses
d. synovial
e. gomphoses
8. In which of these joints are periodontal ligaments found?
a. sutures
b. syndesmoses
c. symphyses
d. synovial
e. gomphoses
9. The intervertebral disks are an example of
a. sutures.
b. syndesmoses.
c. symphyses.
d. synovial joints.
e. gomphoses.
10. Joints containing hyaline cartilage are called , and
joints containing fibrocartilage are called .
a. sutures; synchondroses
b. syndesmoses; symphyses
c. symphyses; syndesmoses
d. synchondroses; symphyses
e. gomphoses; synchondroses
11. The inability to produce the fluid that keeps most joints moist
would likely be caused by a disorder of the
a. cruciate ligaments.
b. synovial membrane.
c. articular cartilage.
d. bursae.
e. tendon sheath.
12. Which of these is not associated with synovial joints?
a. perichondrium on surface of articular cartilage
b. fibrous capsule
c. synovial membrane
d. synovial fluid
e. bursae
13. All of the costochondral joints, except for the first, usually develop into
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a. bursae.
b. synovial joints.
c. syndesmoses.
d. synostoses.
e. symphyses.
14. Assume that a sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From this list
of structures:
1. tendon or muscle
2. ligament
3. articular cartilage
4. fibrous capsule (of joint capsule)
5. skin
6. synovial membrane (of joint capsule)
Choose the order in which they would most likely be penetrated.
a. 5,1,2,6,4,3
b. 5,2,1,4,3,6
c. 5,1,2,6,3,4
d. 5,1,2,4,3,6
e. 5,1,2,4,6,3
15. Which of these do hinge joints and saddle joints have in common?
a. Both are synovial joints.
b. Both have concave surfaces that articulate with a convex surface.
c. Both are monoaxial joints.
d. Both a and b.
e. All of the above.
268 Part 2 Support and Movement
16. Which of these joints is correctly matched with the type of joint?
a. atlas to occipital condylepivot
b. tarsals to metatarsalssaddle
c. femur to coxaellipsoid
d. tibia to talushinge
e. scapula to humerusplane
17. Once a doorknob is grasped, what movement of the forearm is
necessary to unlatch the door, that is, turn the knob in a clockwise
direction? (Assume using the right hand.)
a. pronation
b. rotation
c. supination
d. flexion
e. extension
18. After the door is unlatched, what movement of the elbow is
necessary to open it? (Assume the door opens in, and you are on the
inside.)
a. pronation
b. rotation
c. supination
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d. flexion
e. extension
19. After the door is unlatched, what movement of the shoulder is
necessary to open it? (Assume the door opens in, and you are on the
inside.)
a. pronation
b. rotation
c. supination
d. flexion
e. extension
20. When grasping a doorknob, the thumb and little finger undergo
a. opposition.
b. reposition.
c. lateral excursion.
d. medial excursion.
e. dorsiflexion.
21. Tilting the head to the side is
a. rotation.
b. depression.
c. abduction (lateral flexion).
d. lateral excursion.
e. flexion.
22. A runner notices that the lateral side of her right shoe is wearing
much more than the lateral side of her left shoe. This could mean
that her right foot undergoes more than her left
foot.
a. eversion
b. inversion
c. plantar flexion
d. dorsiflexion
e. lateral excursion
23. For a ballet dancer to stand on her toes, her feet must
a. evert.
b. invert.
c. plantar flex.
d. dorsiflex.
e. abduct.
24. An articular disk is found in the
a. shoulder joint.
b. elbow joint.
c. hip joint.
d. knee joint.
e. ankle joint.
25. A lip (labrum) of fibrocartilage deepens the joint cavity of the
a. temporomandibular joint.
b. shoulder joint.
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c. elbow joint.
d. knee joint.
e. ankle joint.
26. Which of these joints has a tendon inside the joint cavity?
a. temporomandibular joint
b. shoulder joint
c. elbow joint
d. knee joint
e. ankle joint
27. Which of these structures help to stabilize the shoulder joint?
a. rotator cuff muscles
b. cruciate ligaments
c. medial and collateral ligaments
d. articular disk
e. all of the above
28. Bursitis of the subacromial bursa could result from
a. flexing the wrist.
b. kneeling.
c. overuse of the shoulder joint.
d. running a long distance.
e. extending the elbow.
29. Which of these does not occur with the aging of joints?
a. decrease in production of new cartilage matrix
b. decline in synovial fluid production
c. ligaments and tendons stretch and increase range of motion
d. weakening of muscles
e. increase in protein cross-linking in tissues

Chapter Eight
1. e; 2. b; 3. d; 4. d; 5. a; 6. e; 7. d; 8. e; 9. c; 10. d; 11. b;
12. a; 13. b; 14. e; 15. a; 16. d; 17. c; 18. d; 19. e; 20. a;
21. c; 22. b; 23. c; 24. d; 25. b; 26. b; 27. a; 28. c; 29. C

Skeletal system
1. Which of these is not a function of bone?
a. internal support and protection
b. provides attachment for the muscles
c. calcium and phosphate storage
d. blood cell production
e. vitamin D storage
2. The extracellular matrix for hyaline cartilage
a. is produced by chondroblasts.
b. contains collagen.
c. contains proteoglycans.
d. is usually covered by the perichondrium.
e. all of the above.
3. Chondrocytes are mature cartilage cells found within the
, and they are derived from .
a. perichondrium, fibroblasts
b. perichondrium, chondroblasts
c. lacunae, fibroblasts
d. lacunae, chondroblasts
4. Which of these statements concerning cartilage is correct?
a. Cartilage often occurs in thin plates or sheets.
b. Chondrocytes receive nutrients and oxygen from blood vessels in
the matrix.
c. Articular cartilage has a thick perichondrium layer.
d. The perichondrium has both chondrocytes and osteocytes.
e. Appositional growth of cartilage occurs when chondrocytes
within the tissue add more matrix from the inside.
5. A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the
a. epiphysis.
b. perichondrium.
c. diaphysis.
d. articular cartilage.
6. Yellow marrow is
a. found mostly in childrens bones.
b. associated mostly with flat bones.
c. found in the epiphyseal plate.
d. important for blood cell production.
e. mostly adipose tissue.
7. The periosteum
a. is an epithelial tissue membrane.
b. covers the outer and internal surfaces of bone.
c. contains only osteoblasts.
d. becomes continuous with collagen fibers of tendons or
ligaments.
e. has a single fibrous layer.
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8. Which of these substances makes up the major portion of bone?


a. collagen
b. hydroxyapatite
c. proteoglycan aggregates
d. osteocytes
e. osteoblasts
9. The flexible strength of bone occurs because of
a. osteoclasts.
b. ligaments.
c. hydroxyapatite.
d. collagen fibers.
e. periosteum.
10. The prime function of osteoclasts is to
a. prevent osteoblasts from forming.
b. become osteocytes.
c. break down bone.
d. secrete calcium salts and collagen fibers.
e. form the periosteum.
11. Osteochondral progenitor cells
a. can become osteoblasts or chondroblasts.
b. are derived from mesenchymal stem cells.
c. are located in the perichondrium, periosteum, and endosteum.
d. do not produce osteoclasts.
e. all of the above.
12. Lamellar bone
a. is mature bone.
b. is remodeled to form woven bone.
c. is the first type of bone formed during early fetal development.
d. has collagen fibers randomly oriented in many directions.
e. all of the above.
13. Central canals
a. connect perforating canals to canaliculi.
b. connect cancellous bone to compact bone.
c. are where blood cells are produced.
d. are found only in cancellous bone.
e. are lined with periosteum.
14. The type of lamellae found in osteons is lamellae.
a. circumferential
b. concentric
c. interstitial
15. Cancellous bone consists of interconnecting rods or plates of bone
called
a. osteons.
b. canaliculi.
c. circumferential lamellae.
d. a haversian system.
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e. trabeculae.
16. Given these events:
1. Osteochondral progenitor cells become osteoblasts.
2. Connective tissue membrane is formed.
3. Osteoblasts produce woven bone.
Which sequence best describes intramembranous bone formation?
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3,2
c. 2,1,3
d. 2,3,1
e. 3,2,1
17. Given these processes:
1. Chondrocytes die.
2. Cartilage matrix calcifies.
3. Chondrocytes hypertrophy.
4. Osteoblasts deposit bone.
5. Blood vessels grow into lacunae.
Which sequence best represents the order in which they occur
during endochondral bone formation?
a. 3,2,1,4,5
b. 3,2,1,5,4
c. 5,2,3,4,1
d. 3,2,5,1,4
e. 3,5,2,4,1
194 Part 2 Support and Movement
18. Intramembranous bone formation
a. occurs at the epiphyseal plate.
b. is responsible for growth in diameter of a bone.
c. gives rise to the flat bones of the skull.
d. occurs within a hyaline cartilage model.
e. produces articular cartilage in the long bones.
19. The ossification regions formed during early fetal development
a. are secondary ossification centers.
b. become articular cartilage.
c. become medullary cavities.
d. become the epiphyses.
e. are primary ossification centers.
20. Growth in the length of a long bone occurs
a. at the primary ossification center.
b. beneath the periosteum.
c. at the center of the diaphysis.
d. at the epiphyseal plate.
e. at the epiphyseal line.
21. During growth in length of a long bone, cartilage is formed and
then ossified. The location of the ossification is the zone of
a. calcification.
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b. hypertrophy.
c. proliferation.
d. resting cartilage.
22. Given these processes:
1. An osteon is produced.
2. Osteoblasts from the periosteum form a series of ridges.
3. The periosteum becomes the endosteum.
4. Osteoblasts lay down bone to produce a concentric lamella.
5. Grooves are changed into tunnels.
Which sequence best represents the order in which these processes
occur during growth in width of a long bone?
a. 1,4,2,3,5
b. 2,5,3,4,1
c. 3,4,2,1,5
d. 4,2,1,5,3
e. 5,4,2,1,3
23. Chronic vitamin D deficiency results in which of these
consequences?
a. Bones become brittle.
b. The percentage of bone composed of hydroxyapatite increases.
c. Bones become soft and pliable.
d. Scurvy occurs.
e. Both a and b.
24. Osteomalacia occurs as a result of a deficiency of
a. growth hormone.
b. sex hormones.
c. thyroid hormone.
d. vitamin C.
e. vitamin D.
25. Estrogen
a. stimulates a burst of growth at puberty.
b. causes a later closure of the epiphyseal plate than does
testosterone.
c. causes a longer growth period in females than testosterone
causes in males.
d. tends to prolong the growth phase of the epiphyseal plates.
e. all of the above.
26. Bone remodeling can occur
a. when woven bone is converted into lamellar bone.
b. as bones are subjected to varying patterns of stress.
c. as a long bone increases in diameter.
d. when new osteons are formed in compact bone.
e. all of the above.
9. The flexible strength of bone occurs because of
a. osteoclasts.
b. ligaments.
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c. hydroxyapatite.
d. collagen fibers.
e. periosteum.
10. The prime function of osteoclasts is to
a. prevent osteoblasts from forming.
b. become osteocytes.
c. break down bone.
d. secrete calcium salts and collagen fibers.
e. form the periosteum.
11. Osteochondral progenitor cells
a. can become osteoblasts or chondroblasts.
b. are derived from mesenchymal stem cells.
c. are located in the perichondrium, periosteum, and endosteum.
d. do not produce osteoclasts.
e. all of the above.
12. Lamellar bone
a. is mature bone.
b. is remodeled to form woven bone.
c. is the first type of bone formed during early fetal development.
d. has collagen fibers randomly oriented in many directions.
e. all of the above.
13. Central canals
a. connect perforating canals to canaliculi.
b. connect cancellous bone to compact bone.
c. are where blood cells are produced.
d. are found only in cancellous bone.
e. are lined with periosteum.
14. The type of lamellae found in osteons is lamellae.
a. circumferential
b. concentric
c. interstitial
15. Cancellous bone consists of interconnecting rods or plates of bone
called
a. osteons.
b. canaliculi.
c. circumferential lamellae.
d. a haversian system.
e. trabeculae.
16. Given these events:
1. Osteochondral progenitor cells become osteoblasts.
2. Connective tissue membrane is formed.
3. Osteoblasts produce woven bone.
Which sequence best describes intramembranous bone formation?
a. 1,2,3
b. 1,3,2
c. 2,1,3
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d. 2,3,1
e. 3,2,1
17. Given these processes:
1. Chondrocytes die.
2. Cartilage matrix calcifies.
3. Chondrocytes hypertrophy.
4. Osteoblasts deposit bone.
5. Blood vessels grow into lacunae.
Which sequence best represents the order in which they occur
during endochondral bone formation?
a. 3,2,1,4,5
b. 3,2,1,5,4
c. 5,2,3,4,1
d. 3,2,5,1,4
e. 3,5,2,4,1
194 Part 2 Support and Movement
18. Intramembranous bone formation
a. occurs at the epiphyseal plate.
b. is responsible for growth in diameter of a bone.
c. gives rise to the flat bones of the skull.
d. occurs within a hyaline cartilage model.
e. produces articular cartilage in the long bones.
19. The ossification regions formed during early fetal development
a. are secondary ossification centers.
b. become articular cartilage.
c. become medullary cavities.
d. become the epiphyses.
e. are primary ossification centers.
20. Growth in the length of a long bone occurs
a. at the primary ossification center.
b. beneath the periosteum.
c. at the center of the diaphysis.
d. at the epiphyseal plate.
e. at the epiphyseal line.
21. During growth in length of a long bone, cartilage is formed and
then ossified. The location of the ossification is the zone of
a. calcification.
b. hypertrophy.
c. proliferation.
d. resting cartilage.
22. Given these processes:
1. An osteon is produced.
2. Osteoblasts from the periosteum form a series of ridges.
3. The periosteum becomes the endosteum.
4. Osteoblasts lay down bone to produce a concentric lamella.
5. Grooves are changed into tunnels.
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Which sequence best represents the order in which these processes


occur during growth in width of a long bone?
a. 1,4,2,3,5
b. 2,5,3,4,1
c. 3,4,2,1,5
d. 4,2,1,5,3
e. 5,4,2,1,3
23. Chronic vitamin D deficiency results in which of these
consequences?
a. Bones become brittle.
b. The percentage of bone composed of hydroxyapatite increases.
c. Bones become soft and pliable.
d. Scurvy occurs.
e. Both a and b.
24. Osteomalacia occurs as a result of a deficiency of
a. growth hormone.
b. sex hormones.
c. thyroid hormone.
d. vitamin C.
e. vitamin D.
25. Estrogen
a. stimulates a burst of growth at puberty.
b. causes a later closure of the epiphyseal plate than does
testosterone.
c. causes a longer growth period in females than testosterone
causes in males.
d. tends to prolong the growth phase of the epiphyseal plates.
e. all of the above.
26. Bone remodeling can occur
a. when woven bone is converted into lamellar bone.
b. as bones are subjected to varying patterns of stress.
c. as a long bone increases in diameter.
d. when new osteons are formed in compact bone.
e. all of the above.
27. Given these processes:
1. cartilage ossification
2. external callus formation
3. hematoma formation
4. internal callus formation
5. remodeling of woven bone into compact bone
Which sequence best represents the order in which the processes
occur during repair of a fracture?
a. 1,2,3,4,5
b. 2,4,3,1,5
c. 3,4,2,1,5
d. 4,1,5,2,3
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e. 5,3,4,2,1
28. Which of these processes during bone repair requires the longest
period of time?
a. cartilage ossification
b. external callus formation
c. hematoma formation
d. internal callus formation
e. remodeling of woven bone into compact bone
29. If the secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases, osteoclast
activity , and blood calcium levels .
a. decreases, decrease
b. decreases, increase
c. increases, decrease
d. increases, increase
30. Osteoclast activity is inhibited by
a. calcitonin.
b. growth hormone.
c. parathyroid hormone.
d. sex hormones.
e. thyroid hormone.

Chapter Six
1. e; 2. e; 3. d; 4. a; 5, c; 6. e; 7. d; 8. b; 9. d; 10. c; 11. e;
12. a; 13. a; 14. b; 15. e; 16. c; 17. a; 18. c; 19. e; 20. d;
21. a; 22. b; 23. c; 24. e; 25. a; 26. e; 27. c; 28. e; 29. d;
30. a

Skeletal system anatomy


1. Which of these is part of the appendicular skeleton?
a. cranium
b. ribs
c. clavicle
d. sternum
e. vertebra
2. A knoblike lump on a bone is called a
a. spine.
b. facet.
c. tuberosity.
d. sulcus.
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e. ramus.
3. The superior and middle nasal conchae are formed by projections of
the
a. sphenoid bone.
b. vomer bone.
c. palatine process of maxillae.
d. palatine bone.
e. ethmoid bone.
4. The crista galli
a. separates the nasal cavity into two parts.
b. attaches the hyoid bone to the skull.
c. holds the pituitary gland.
d. is an attachment site for the membranes that surround the brain.
e. is a passageway for blood vessels.
5. The perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and the
form the nasal septum.
a. palatine process of the maxilla
b. horizontal plate of the palatine
c. vomer
d. nasal bone
e. lacrimal bone
6. Which of these bones does not contain a paranasal sinus?
a. ethmoid
b. sphenoid
c. frontal
d. temporal
e. maxilla
7. The mandible articulates with the skull at the
a. styloid process.
b. occipital condyle.
c. mandibular fossa.
d. zygomatic arch.
e. medial pterygoid.
8. The nerves for the sense of smell pass through the
a. cribriform plate.
b. nasolacrimal canal.
c. internal auditory meatus.
d. optic foramen.
e. orbital fissure.
9. The major blood supply to the brain enters through the
a. foramen magnum.
b. carotid canals.
c. jugular foramina.
d. both a and b.
e. all of the above.
10. The site of the sella turcica is the
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a. sphenoid bone.
b. maxillae.
c. frontal bone.
d. ethmoid bone.
e. temporal bone.
11. Which of these bones is not in contact with the sphenoid bone?
a. maxilla
b. inferior nasal concha
c. ethmoid
d. parietal
e. vomer
12. Which of these statements about vertebral column curvature is not
true?
a. The cervical curvature develops before birth.
b. The thoracic curvature becomes exaggerated in kyphosis.
c. The lumbar curvature becomes exaggerated in lordosis.
d. The sacral curvature develops before birth.
e. The lumbar curvature develops as an infant learns to sit and walk.
13. A herniated disk occurs when
a. the annulus fibrosus ruptures.
b. the intervertebral disk slips out of place.
c. the spinal cord ruptures.
d. too much fluid builds up in the nucleus pulposus.
e. all of the above.
14. The weight-bearing portion of a vertebra is the
a. vertebral arch.
b. articular process.
c. body.
d. transverse process.
e. spinous process.
15. Transverse foramina are found only in
a. cervical vertebrae.
b. thoracic vertebrae.
c. lumbar vertebrae.
d. the sacrum.
e. the coccyx.
16. Articular facets on the bodies and transverse processes are found
only on
a. cervical vertebrae.
b. thoracic vertebrae.
c. lumbar vertebrae.
d. the sacrum.
e. the coccyx.
17. Medially facing, superior articular processes and laterally facing,
inferior articular processes are found on
a. cervical vertebrae.
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b. thoracic vertebrae.
c. lumbar vertebrae.
d. the sacrum.
e. the coccyx.
18. Which of these statements concerning ribs is true?
a. The true ribs attach directly to the sternum with costal cartilage.
b. There are five pairs of floating ribs.
c. The head of the rib attaches to the transverse process of the vertebra.
d. Vertebrochondral ribs are classified as true ribs.
e. Floating ribs do not attach to vertebrae.
19. The point where the scapula and clavicle connect is the
a. coracoid process.
b. styloid process.
c. glenoid fossa.
d. acromion process.
e. capitulum.
20. The distal medial process of the humerus to which the ulna joins is the
a. epicondyle.
b. deltoid tuberosity.
c. malleolus.
d. capitulum.
e. trochlea
21. The depression on the anterior surface of the humerus that receives
part of the ulna when the forearm is flexed (bent) is the
a. glenoid fossa.
b. capitulum.
c. coronoid fossa.
d. olecranon fossa.
e. radial fossa.
22. Which of these is not a point of muscle attachment on the pectoral
girdle or upper limb?
a. epicondyles
b. mastoid process
c. radial tuberosity
d. spine of scapula
e. greater tubercle
23. Which of these parts of the upper limb are not correctly matched
with the number of bones in that part?
a. arm: 1
b. forearm: 2
c. wrist: 10
d. palm of hand: 5
e. fingers: 14
24. The ankle bone that the tibia rests upon is the
a. talus.
b. calcaneus.
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c. metatarsals.
d. navicular.
e. phalanges.
25. A place where nerves or blood vessels pass from the trunk to the
lower limb is the
a. obturator foramen.
b. greater ischiadic (sciatic) notch.
c. ischial tuberosity.
d. iliac crest.
e. pubis symphysis.
26. A projection on the pelvic girdle that is used as a landmark for
finding an injection site is the
a. ischial tuberosity.
b. iliac crest.
c. anterior superior iliac spine.
d. posterior inferior iliac spine.
e. ischial spine.
27. When comparing the pectoral girdle to the pelvic girdle, which of
these statements is true?
a. The pectoral girdle has greater mass than the pelvic girdle.
b. The pelvic girdle is more firmly attached to the body than the
pectoral girdle.
c. The pectoral girdle has the limbs more securely attached than the
pelvic girdle.
d. The pelvic girdle allows greater mobility than the pectoral girdle.
28. When comparing a male pelvis to a female pelvis, which of these
statements is true?
a. The pelvic inlet in males is larger and more circular.
b. The subpubic angle in females is less than 90 degrees.
c. The ischial spines in males are closer together.
d. The sacrum in males is broader and less curved.
29. A site of muscle attachment on the proximal end of the femur is the
a. greater trochanter.
b. epicondyle.
c. greater tubercle.
d. intercondylar eminence.
e. condyle.
30. A process that forms the outer ankle is the lateral
a. malleolus.
b. condyle.
c. epicondyle.
d. tuberosity.
e. tubercle.

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Chapter Seven
1. c; 2. c; 3. e; 4. d; 5. c; 6. d; 7. c; 8. a; 9. d; 10. a; 11. b;
12. a; 13. a; 14. c; 15. a; 16. b; 17. c; 18. a; 19. d; 20. e;
21. c; 22. b; 23. c; 24. a; 25. b; 26. c; 27. b; 28. c; 29. a;
30. a

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