,..,"'~Ji'" ~ . . ~. .....--'2...

t:co
i!aainoeriftl
S.rviQC: lb-li-.

[no NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE

ASKED TO DO SO j

T.B.C. : 0-FTF--J-NFA

Serial No. (

Tesl Booklet Series

31585 1

MECHANIC AL ENGINEERI NG
Paper-!
(Time Allowed : Two HourS')

om

TEST BOOKLE T

[Maximum Marks: zoo)

3.

BE IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSW(-E="R::c:ScHcEcE=Tc_ _ _ _ _ _ _

0
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7.

8.
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ra

xa

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.e

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Booklet in the Box provided alongside DO NOT write

anylhing else on the Test Booklet.
This Test Booklet contains 120 items (<juC:>tions). Each ilo::In cumpri~es four responses (answers).
You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. ln case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark th(l responoo which you consider the best. In any
case, choose ONLY ONE response fer each item_
You have to mark all ynur responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet prcvided.
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After you have ccmpleted filling in all your responses en the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, ycu should hand ever to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet.
Ycu are permitted to take away with ycu the Test Booklet.
Sheets fer rcugh wcrk are appended in the Test Bocklet at the end.

w
w

4.

ce

I.

.c

2.

INSTRUCTION S
IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COM!VIENCEMENT OF THE EX AMINAl ION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN
OR MISSING PAGES OR lTEMS, ETC. If SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE
TEST BOOKLET.
ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, CORD AS THE CASE MAY

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THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE
TN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every questicn. For each question fm
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (033) of the marks
il.ssigned to that questicn will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate givo:s more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrung answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there_ will be
no penalty for that questicn.
(DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO)

Icc kept in a well insulated thermo flask

In a reversible isothermal expansion

is an example of which system ?

process, the fluid expands from I 0 bar

(a) Closed system

and 2m' to 2 bar and 10m', during the

(b) Isolated system

pro<;<:SS tht< beat ~upplied is IOO.kW. What

(c) Open system

is the work done during the process ?

{d) Non-flow adiabatic

2.

4.

The relation

sy~tem

(a) 333 kW

(b) 100 kW

o.l~ = ~, where s represents

(c) 80 kW

entropy, Q represents heat and T represents

(d) 20 kW
5.

which one of the following processes ?

ce

Irrevcr~ible

(a) Zeroth law of thermodynamics

processes only

(b) First law of thermodynamics

ra

(c) Both reversible and irreversible

(c) Second law of thermodynamics

Consider the following properties of

vapour
Pressure

2.

Temperature

3.

Dryness fraction

4.

Specific volume

is done on it. The system is brought to

w
w

the original state by an adiabatic process.

The initial internal energy is 100 kJ. Then
what is the quantity of work transfer during
the process '!

vapour?

(b)

land3

(c)

2 and 3"

85 kJ of heat is supplied to a dosed system

at c0nstant pressure while 20 kJ of work

sufficient to specify the condition of a

1 and2

6.

process, the system rejects 90 kJ of beat

Which of these two properties alone are not

(a)

(d) Third law of thermodynamics

at constant volume. During the next

.e

xa

3.

All real processes

processes
(d)

Measurement of temperature is based on

which law of thermodynamics ?

(a) Reversible processes only

{b)

.c

temperature (absolute), holds good in

om

I.

(a)

30 kJ

(b) 25 kJ
(c)

20 kJ

(d) 15 kJ

(d) 3and4
2

<

(Contd.)

An inventor says that his new concept of

10. An engine working on Carnot cycle rejects

an cngme, while working between

40% of absorbed heat from the source,

while the sink temperature is maintained

reject~

45% of heat absorbed from the

at 27"C, then what is the source

limit~

source. His engine is then equivalent to

temperature 7

which one of the following engines ?

(a) 750c

(a) Carnot-cngine

(b) 477"C

(b) Diesel engine

(c)

(c) An impossible engine

(d) 675"C

203"C

om

of 27"C and 327"C

temperature

.c

7.

(d) Ericsson engine

8.

ce

11. A thermal electric power plant produces

1000 MW of power. If the coal releases

Three engines A, B and C operating on

900

Carnot cycle use working substances as

engine will have higher efficiency ?

Engine A

rate at which heat is rejected from the

power plant ?

(a)

(b) Engine B

xa

(c) Engine C

{a)

500 MW

(b)

1000 MW

(c)

1500 MW

(d) 2000 MW

.e

(d) All engines have same efficiency

A series combination of two Camot's

12. A heat engine is supplied with 250 kJ/s

engines operate between the temperatures

of heat at a constant fixed temperature of

w
w

9.

107 k.Jih of energy, then what is the

ra

Argon, Oxygen and Air respectively. Which

><

of .180"C and 20"C. If the engines produce

227"C; the heat is rejected at 27"C, the

equal amount of work, then what is the

cycle is reversible, then what amount of

intermediate temperature ?

heat is rejected ?

80"C

{a)

250 kJ/s

(b) 90"C

(b)

200 kJ/s

(a)

(c)

JOO"C

(c)

180 kJ/s

(d)

llO"C

(d)

ISO kJ/s

<

(Contd.)

13. Match List-I with List-II and select the

correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
List-1

A.

15. In a throttling process, which one of the

following parameterS; remains constant ?
(a) temperature

Lis I-II

Isolated system

(b) pressure

1. Energy is always

(c)

constant

(d) entropy

2.1n:reooeinvelocity

Nozzle

om

B.

at the expense of

"Throttling device

16. For a given value of

temperature) for a reversed Camot cycle,

3. Appreciable drop

the variation ofTL (Sink temperature) for

in pressure with-

different values of COP is represented by

out any change

wh!eh one of the following graphs ?

ce
. (a)

4. Enthalpy of the

compressor

fluid increases by

ra

Centrifugal

the amount of

work input
D

(a) 4

(b)

(c)

(d) 1

co'

(o)

co'!/

w
w

14. 070 kgls of air enters with a specific

enthalpy of 290 kJ and leaves it with

450 kJ of specific enthalpy. Velocities at

inlet and exit are 6 m/s and 2 m/s
respectively. Assuming adiabatic process,
what is power input to the compressor ?

(a)

120 kW

(b)

118 kW

(c)

115 kW

(d)

112kW

co' \

(b)

xa

.e

Code:
A

(Source

its pressure drop

in energy

D.

T~

.c

C.

enthalpy

(d)

co'~
4

"

(Contd.)

20

17. Which cycle consists of two reversible

Consider the following properties

isotherms i!nd two reversible isobars ?

I.

Temperature

{a) Camot cycle

2.

Viscosity

).

Specific entropy

4.

Thennal conductivity

(b) Stirling cycle

(c) Ericsson cycle

Brayton cycle

is/are intensive ?
(o)

18. Which one of the following parameters

I only

om

(d)

Which of the above properties of a system

(b) 2 and 3 only

(o) 2, 3 and 4 only

equilibrium of a system

(d)

'I

21. Consider the following properties

(b) Maxwell relation

(d) Helmholtz function

19. Consider the following:

Air

2.

Gaseous combustion products

3.

Steam

xa

I.

Entropy

2.

Viscosity

3.
4.

Temperature
Spcx:ific heat at constant volume

Which of the above properties of a system

is/are extensive ?
()

I only

(b)

I and 2 only

.e

(c) 2,3and4

Which of these are pure substances,

(d)

1,2and4

there is no phase change ?

w
w

(a)

I.

ra

(c) Gibbs function

a.~suming

I, 2, 3 lllld 4

ce

(a) Clapeyron relation

.c

is significant to ascertain chemical

22. A reversible heat engine rejects SO percent

I and 2 only

of the heat supplied during a cycle of

and 3 only

operation. If this engine is reversed and

(c) 2 and 3 only

operates as a heat pump, then what is its

(b)

(d)

,,,

I0

(b)

15

coefficient of performance ?

l, 2 and 3

(o) 20
(d) 25

"

(Contd.)

23_ Match List-I with List-II and select the

25. Which of the following performance

correct answer using the code given below

advantages does a rocket engine have as

the lists :

compared to a turbojet engine ?

List-!
Cycles)

l_

No altitude limitation

(Thermodynamic co-

2.

Higher efficiency

3.

Longer flight duration

No ram drag

ordinotes)

om

(Ga~-

List-JJ

A.

Carnot cycle

I. Pressure-Entropy

4.

B.

Brayton cycle

2. Pressure-Tempe-

Select the correct answer from the code

rature

3. Temperature-

(a)

Volume
Stirling cycle

4_ Temperature-

Entropy

Code:

(a) 4

(b)

(c) 4

(d)

xa

I and 4 only

(c)

1,2and3

shows that the combustion is necessarily

complete ?
(a) Presence of frt:e carbon in exhaust
(b) Presence of CO in exhaust

(c)

Presence of oxygen in exhaust

(d) Presence of nitrogen in exhaust

w
w

24. The bore and stroke of the cylinder of a

6-cylinder engine working on an Otto-cycle

27. What is the purpose of supercharging an

are 17 em and 30 em respectively, total

engine ?

clearance volume is 9225 em', then what

(a) To increase the power output of

is the compression ratio ?

(a)

(b)

26. Which of the folluwing symptoms

2 only

(d) 2, 3 and"4

.e

t and

ra

D.

.c

Ericsson cycle

ce

C.

given below :

engme

7-8

(b) To reduce specific fuel consumption

(b) 62
(c)

(c) To reduce the noise of the engine

158

(d) To improve cooling of cylinders

(d) 54

'

(Contd.)

32. A composite slab has two layen. of different

materials having internal conductivities k 1
and k,. If each layer has the same thickness,
then what is the equivalent thermal
conductivity of the slab ?

(a) Heavy water

,,,

(b) Graphite
(c)

Beryllium

(d) All the above

(b)

29. Which one of the following statements is

correct ?

,,,

The nuclear radiators produced in a reactor,

which must be shielded, are :

(d)

(b) Alpha, Beta and Gamma rays

ML-r-e-'

(b) MJ..:r-e-

,,,
,,,

2:4

(b) 4

2 : 1

(d)

.e

MLe-r-'

(d) ML6"'T""

ra

xa

,,,
,,,

2k,k,
(kl+k2)

conductivities in the ratio of I : 2 : 4.

What "Will be the temperature drop ratio
across the three respective layers ?

30. In MLT6 system (9 being time and T

temperature). what is the dimension of
thermal conductivity ?

2k,
(kl +kl)

33. A composite wall of a furnace has 3 layers

of equal thickness having thermal

(c) Neutrons and Gamma rays

(d) Electrons and Gamma rays

k)k2
2(k, +kl)

ce

(a) Electrons only

k,k.
(k, +k2)

1: I
Jog4 : log2 : log!

34 What is the heat lost per hour across a

wall 4 m high, 10m long and 115 mm
thick, if the inside wall temperature is
30"C >1nd out~ide ambient temperature is

w
w

3 I. A steel plate of thermal conductivity

50 W/m-K and thickness 10 em passes a
heat flux by conduction of 25 kWim'. If

IO"C ? Conductivity of brick wall is

115 W/mK, heat tran.fer coefficient for
inside waH is 25 W/m'K and that for
outside wall is 4 Wlm'K.

the temperature of the hot surface of the

plate is l OO'"C, then what is the temperature
uf the cooler side of the plate ?
30"C

(a) 3635 kJ

(b) 40"C

(b) 3750 kJ

soc

(c) 3840 kJ

(d) 60"C

(d) 3920 kJ

(a)

(c)

om

following is used as moderator ?

.c

28. With natural uranium, which of the

'

{Contd.)

35. When a Jiqutd !lows through a tube with

38. Air at 20"C blows over a hot plate of

sub-cooled or saturated boiling, wbat is

50

the process known ?

maintained at 220"C. The convective heat

{a) Pool boiling

transfer co-efficient is 25 W/m'K. What

(b) Bulk boiling

will be the heat loss from the plate ?

(c) Convection boiling

(a)

{d) Forced convection boiling

(b) 2500

the NTU is equal to

(d) 4000

10- What is the effectiveness of the heat

39.

15

(c)

033

ra

(b)

(d) 02

ha~

one

xa

37. A large concrete slab I m thick

05

ce

exchanger?
(a)

om

"'rh,c 0

1500 W

.c

rh~cb

60 em made of carbon steel

(c} 3000 W

36. In a balanced counter flow heat exchanger

with

dimensional temperature distribution :

What will be the view factor

4- !Ox+ 20x' +lOx',

the

geometry as shown in the figure above

.e

where T is temperature and x is distance

(sphere within a cube) ?

from one face towards other face of wall.

material has tht;mnal di/Tusivity

w
w

Ifth~ ~lab

r, 1 for

(n)

of2 x IQ-' rn'lhr, what is the rate of change

of temperature at the other f.ace of the

(b)

'4

(o)

(d)

wall ?

(a) OlC!h

(b) 02"Cih

(c) 03"Cih

(d) 04"Cih

(Contd.)

40. In vapour compression refrigeration

system, at entrance to which component
the working fluid is superheated vapour ?

43. The thermal efficiency of a Camot heat

engine is 30%. If the engine is reversed

in operation to work as a heal pump with

(a) Evaporator
(b) Condenser

operating conditions unchanged, then what

(c) Compressor
(d) Expansion valve

will be the COP for heat pump ?

030

om

(a)

(b) 233

.c

(c) 333

ce

(d) Cannot be calculated

44. In vapour absorption refrigeration system

heating in generator is done at 177"C,
refrigeration in evaporator at -3"C and

ra

41. Which one of the following expansion

processes takes place in a vapour
compression cycle ?
(a) Polytropic process with change in
temperature
(b) Adiabatic process with work transfer
(c) Isentropic process with change in
enthalpy
(d) Adiabatic proces~ with constant
enthalpy

Compressor

O:>ndenscr

.e

rQcornpressor

valve

(a)

15

(b) 20

(c) 30

valve

(d)

w
w

'
Evaporator

will be the maximum COP of the system?

f:xpansion

xa

Evaporator

cooling in condenser at 27"C. Then whnt

Condenser

40

45. In conventional refrigerants what is the

Which one of the following statements is

clement responsible for ozone depletion ?

correct with respect to the schematic

diagram as shown above ?
{a) Multi-<:vaporator vapour compression
system of refrigeration
(b) Two stage compression vapour
compression refrigeration system
(c) Cascade system of vapour compression
refrigeration system
(d) None of the above

(a)

Chlorine

(b) Fluorine
(c)

Carbon

(d) Hydrugen

"

(Contd.)

49. In a sample of moist air at standard

ratio of actual COP to reversible COP of

atmospheric pressure of 101325 kPa and

a refrigcratiiJn cycle is 08, the condenser

26"C the partial pressure of water vapour

and evaporator temperatures arc 51 "C and

is 1344 kPa. If the saturation pressure of

-30"C respectively. If cooling capacity of

water vapour is 3}6 kPa at 26"C, then

the plant is 24 kW then what is the work

what are the hwnidity ralio IUid relative

requirement ?

humidity of moist air sample ?

om

46. The refrigerating efficiency, that is, the

{a)

100 kW

(a)

(b)

\-33 kW

(b) 000836 and 40%

(c)

125 kW

(c) 001344 and 132%

(d)

208 kW

(d) 001344 and 40%

ce

.c

0-00836 and 132%

50.

47. The atmospheric air at 760 mm of Hg,

ra

dry bulb temperature 15"C and wet bulb

temperature 11"C enters a heating coil

air leaving the coil ?

28"C

(b) 29"C

30"C

w
w

(c)

12-6

'

'/

ss~/!' \b
7

i
'

''

22DBT32

A classroom is to be air"conditionOO by
obtaining the comfort conditions of22"C dbt
and 55% RH from outdoor conditions of
32C dbt and 22"C wbt. The weight ot
outside air supplied is 30 kg/min. The
comfort conditions required are achieved
first by chemical dehumidification and then
by cooling with a cooling coil as shown
in the psychrometric chart above. What
is the capacity of the dehumidification in
kg/hr ?

.e

(a)

xa

will be the dry bulb temperature of the

'

whose temperature is 41 "C. If the by-pass

factor of the heating coil is 05, then what

~-t grnfkg.

(d) 26"C

48. In a psychrometric chart, what does a

vertical downward line represent ?

(a) Sensible cooling process

(b) Adiabatic saturation process

(a)

32

(c) Humidification process

(b) 54

(d) Dehumidification process

(c) 68

(d) 95

10
'

(Contd.)

54. Operating temperature of a cold storage

51.

is -2"C. From the surrounding at ambient

temperature of 40~c heat leaked into the

Specific
humidity
'w'

cold storage is 30 kW. If the actual COP

of the plant is 1/10"' of the maximum

dbt --->

possible COP, then what will be the power

Which one of the following statements is

the cold storage temperature at -2"C ?

process 1-2 as shown on the psychrometric

(a)

chart above ?

190 kW

(b) 370 kW

(a) Wbt decreases in the process

(c) 2028 kW

.c

process

increase~

m the

(d) 4650 kW

ce

(b) The total enthalpy

om

required to pump out the heat to maintain

correct for a cooling and humidification

55. Air enters a rectangular duct measuring

(c) The total enthalpy remains constant

30 x 40 em with a velocity of 85 m/s

in the process

and a temperature of 40"C. Kinematic

ra

(d) It is an adiabatic saturation process

viscosity of the air is 1695 x 1Q- 6 m'ls.

52. What is the saturation temperature at the

partial pressure of water vapour in the

xa

air-water vapour mixture called ?

What will be the Reynolds number ?

172

>

10'

(b) 258

'

10'

(a)

(a) Dry bulb temperature

(<) 086

10'

(b) Web bulb temperature

(d) 072

10'

Dew point temperature

.e

(c)

56. What is the capillary rise in a narrow two-

(d) Saturation temperature

w
w

dimensional sht of width 'w' ?

53. The humidity ratio of atmospheric air at

(a) Half of that in a capillary tube of

28"C <lbt and 760 nm1 ofHg is 0-016 kNim'.

diameter 'w'

What is the partial pressure of water

(b) Two-third of that in a capillary tube

vapour?

of diameter 'w'

(') 2242 kN/m'

{c) One-third of that in a capillary tube

of diameter 'w'

(b) 2-535 kNfml

(c)

(d) One-fourth of that in a capillary tube

3535 kN/m'

of diameter 'w'

(d) 4242 kNfm'

II

'

(Contd.)

57. \Vhat is the difference in pressure head,

60. What is the vertical distance of the centre

measured by a mercury-oil differential

manometer for a 20 em difference of

ofpr<;:ssure below the centroid of the plane

mercury level ? (Sp. gravity of oil = 08)

,,,

(b) 252 m of oil

(c)

340 m of oil
(b)

{d) 200 m of oil

,,,

58. In order to increase sensitivity of U-tube

manometer, one leg is usually inclined
by an angle 9. What is the sensitivity of
inclined tube compared to sensitivity of
U-tubc ?
(a) sin e

10 sin1 8
Ab
10 sin2 6
Ah 2

ce

(d)

10 sine
A b

.c

(a) 272 m of oil

om

llfea ?

61. What are the forces that innuence the

sinO

(a) Gravity and viscous forces

cosO

J')

problem of fluid statics ?

ra

(b)

59. A tank has

111

xa

(d) tan 9

its side a very small

(b) Gravity and pressure forces

(c) Viscous and surface tension forces
(d) Gravity and surface tension forces
62. A body weighs 30 N and 13 N when

ish and the piston area a, the liquid having

.e

weighed under submerged conditions in

a specific weighty. What is the force that

liquids of relative densities 08 nnd \2

rnnst be exerted on the piston to hold it

respectively. What is the volume of the

in position against the hydrostatic pressure ?

body ?

(a) 2yha

(a)

(b) yha

(b) 3-82 l

piston. The head ofliquid above the piston

w
w

horizontal cylinder fi !ted with a frictionless

(<)

(d)

2yha
3

(c)

,,,

1250 f

1870 l

(d) 7550 l

12

(Contd.)

65. Consider the following equations

I. A,v, '""A,v,

63. For floating bodies, how is the metacentric

radius defined ?
(a) The distance between centre of gravity

2.

and the mctacentre.

""
iN
Ox+ay""O

(b) Second moment of area of plane of

flotation about centroidal axts

om

3.

perpendicular to plane of rotation/

immersed volume.
(c)

4.

The distance between centre ofgr-.. vity

ce

64. Match l.ist-1 with List-11 and select the

correct answer using the code given below

I. Vortex flow

2. Drag

(a) 2725
(b) 5450

.e

initially parabolic

66. A penstock pipe of 10m diameter carries

water under a pressure head of I 00 m. If
the wall thickness is 9 mm, what is the
tensile sires~ in the pipe wall in MPa ?

xa

Velocity profile

{c) 272-5

and then flattens

w
w

}"onnation of

(d) 1090

3. Vortex shedding
67. Which one of the statements is correct
for a forced vortex ?

cyclones

Shape of rota-

4. Turbulence

(a) Turns in an opposite direction to a

free vortex

meter tube

(b) Always occurs in conjunction with a

free vortex

Code:

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d)

I and 2

Singing of tde-

m a ptpe ts

(a)

(b)

ra

Li.st-11

phone wires

D.

I only

(d) 3 and 4

LISI-1

C.

(a)

(c) 2 and 3

the lists :

B.

.c

Moment of inertia of the body about

its axis of rotation/immersed volume.

A.

Which of the above equations are fonns

of continuity equations ? (Where u, v arc
velocities and V is volume)

and fhe centre of buoyancy.

(d)

f&(rv,)+ Oz(v,):O

(c) Has the linear velocity directly

propo_nional to the radius
(d) Has the linear velocity
proportional to the radius

invn~ely

13

'

(Contd.)

68. How could 'Magnus effect' be simulated

as a combination

72. In a submerged orifice tlow, the discharge

is proportional to which one of the

following parameters ?
(a) Square root of th<: downstrcllrll head
(b) Square root of the upstream head
(c) Square of the upstream head
(d) Square root of the difference between
upstream and downstream heads

(a)

Uniform flow and doublet

(b)

Uniform flow, irrotational vortex and

doublet

om

(c) Uniform flow and vortex

(d) Uniform flow and line source

73. Which one ofthe following statements is

correct for a fully developed pipe flow ?
(a) Pressure gradient balances the wall
shear stress only and has a constant
value.
(b) Pressure gradient is greater than the
wall shear stress.
(c) The velocity profile is changing
continuously.
(d) Inertia force balances the wall shear
stress.

69. When is Bernoulli's equation applicable

between any two points in a !low tleld '!
rhe Oow is steady, incompressible

.c

(a)

and rotational

ce

{b) The flow is steady, compressible and

irrotatiom;l
(c) The flow is unsteady, incompressible

ra

and irrotational

(d) The flow is steady, incompressible

70

and irrotational

?4. Which one of the following statements is

Three identical pipes of length /,diameter d

appropriate for the free surface, the

hydraulic gnu.li~ntline and energy gradient
line in an open channel flow ?
(a) Parallel to each other but they nr<:
diiTerent lines
(b) All coinciding
(c) Such that only the first two coincide
(d) Such that they are all inclined to each
other

xa

and friction factor f are connected in

parallel between two reservoirs. What is

.e

the size of a pipe of length I and of the

same friction factor f equivalent to the
above pipe ?
155 d

(b)

14 d

(c)

3 d

(d)

1732 d

w
w

(o)

75. A sluice gate discharges water into a

horiwntal rectangular channel with a
velocity of 12 m/s and depth of flow of
I m. What is the depth of flow after the
hydraulic jump ~

71. How does the head loss in turbulent flow

in pipe vary

(a) Directly as velocity

642
5K4
(c) 494
(d) Nl

(a)
{b)

(b) Inversely as square of velocity

(c)

Approximately as square of velocity

(d) Inversely as velocity

14

'

m
m

rn
m

{Contd.)

76. What is the commonly used boundary layer

79. Which one of the following is proper for

control method to prevent separation ?

a normal shock wave ?

(a) Usc of smooth boundaries

(a)

(b) Using large divergence angle in the

(b) Irreversible

boundary

Reversible

(c) hentrupic

(c) Suction of accelerating fluid within

(d) Occurs in a converging tube

80. Which one of the following

(d) Suction of retarded fluid within the

(a)

depends on its effective length land the

local acceleration due to gravity g. What

{b) Pressure rise in a duct due to abrupt

ce

closure of valve in the duct

is the number of dimensionless parameter

involved ?

(c) Pressure rise in a duct due to slow

opening of valve in the duct

ra

(a) TWo

(d) Pressure nse m a duct due to

propagation of supersonic wave

(b) One

xa

81. Which one of the following is correct for

tangential component of velocities before
and after an oblique shock ?

.e

78. What is the correct dimensionless group

form<'d with the variables p--density,
N-rotational speed, d-diameter and
)1--cOcfficient Of ViSCOSity

w
w

"
"

(d)

Unity

(b)

Equal

(c)

Unequal

82. A hydraulic reaction

pNd

turbin~

working under

a head of 16m develops 640 kW of power.

What is the unit power of the turbine ?

Nd

(c)

{a)

{d) None of the above

(b)

through the duct

Three

(d) Zero

()

Pressure rise in 11 duct due to normal

closure of valve in the duet

.c

77. The time period of a simple pendulum

pNdl

~tatements

relates to expression 'pvc' ?

boundary layer

(c)

om

the: boundary layer

(a)

10 kW

'"

(b) 40 kW

Nd'

(c) 60 kW

'"

(d) 160 kW

15

{Contd.)

83. A Francis turbine working at 400 rpm has

a unit speed of 50 rpm and develops
500 kW of power. What is the effective
head under which this turbine operates ?

625 m

(b)

640 m

(c)

400 m

(d)

100m

correct answer using the code given below

the lists

List-1

from 300 to 1000 +

axial flow with

.c

fixed runner vane.

outer diameter. If the rotative speed is

3000 rpm and manometric efficiency 08
then what is th~ n~t head U.cvclup~<.l ?

10 m

(d)

60 m/s

(b)

50

(c)

45

(d)

75

4. Specific speed

adjustable runner
vanes.

Cnde :
A

90

D. Kaplan turbine

axial flow with

86. A mixed flow pump is driven by a 8 kW

motcr running at 1000 rpm. lt delivers
water at the rate of 1000 liters/min against
a total head of 25 m. What is the specific
speed of the pump in meter-minutes ?
(a)

mixed flew.

from 300 to 1000 +

w
w

42 m/s

from 60 to 300 +

.e

28 m/s

(c)

Tangential flow.

ra
m

xa

85. The speed ratio of a Pelton wheel operating

under a head of 900 m is 0-45. What is
the peripheral velocity of the turbine
wheel ?
(b) 96 m/s

from 10 to SO+

C. Propeller turbine 3. Specific speed

30 m

(d) 40 m

(a)

2. Specific speed

ce

D. francis turbine

(b) 20 m
(c)

I. Specific speed

A. Pelton turbine

84. A centrifugo.l pump with wdial vo.ne tips

at the outlet has an impeller of 100 mm

(a)

List-!1

om

(a)

87. Match List-! with List-11 and select the

(a)2134

(b) 4

(d) 4

(c)

16

'

(Contd.)

89. Which one of the fo!lowing combination

represents the power trnnsmission systems ?
Pump, hydraul.ic accumulator,

88. Which one of the following graphs

Tepresents the chara<:teristics of a torque

'"'

converter ? Where suffix r stands for

turbine runner and P stands for pump

impeller.

coupling
(b) Pump, turbine, hydrauhc accumulator

and hydraulic coupling

(o) Turbine, accumulator, intensifier and
hydraulic coupling
(d) Accumulator, intensifier, hydraulic

''

T/fe .J.

om

'"'

' 0

lc

'"

"t

.c

coupling and torque converter

90. Which one of the following is NOT

'"
''
'
'"

"t
(o)

___,. N,JNP

'"

.e

"

-> N,fN,

(d)

'"

with

Li~t-II

'"

List-11
(Features)

u~-t-1

A.

Benson

I Vertic"! lire tube

B.

Stirling

2. Hori;:ontal fire

C.

tube
Babcock-Wilcox 3. Bent water tube

D.

Cochran

4. Once through
flow
5 Inclined water

'"
''

"""

Code:
A

(o) 4

5
2
3

5
5

(b) 1
(o)

"
'"

(d)
17

'

and select the

correct answer using the code given below

the lists :

T
_,

.,

--> N/Nr

Li~t-1

(Type of boiler)

lc

" t

91 Match

w
w

"t

'""
''

Air prchcatcr
(d) Feed water pump

xa

"

""

(o)

accessory for the boiler ?

(o) Condenser
(b) Economizer

ce

-> NjNP

ra

"
'"

(b)

hydraulic intensifier and hydraulic

(Contd.)

92. Steam pressures at the inlet and exit of a

95. Water (C = 4 kJ/kgK) is fed to a boiler

at 30C, the enthalpy of vapurillltion at
atmospheric pressure in the boiler is
2400 kJ/kg; the steam coming from the
boiler is 09 dry. What is the net heat
supplied in the boiler ?
(a) 2160 kJ/kg
(b) 2400 kJ/kg

nozzle are 16 bar and 52 bar respectively

and discharge is 028 m'/s. Critical pressure
ratio is 05475. If the exit pressure is
reduced to 32 bar then what will be the
flow rate in m'ls ?
0280

om

(a)

(b) 0328

(c) 2440 kJ/kg

(d) 2280 kJ/kg

(c) 0356
(d) 0-455

.c

96. In a simple impulse turbine the no=le

angle at the entrance is 30". For maximum
diagram efficiency what is the blade-speed
ratio ?

93. Consider the follo,.,ing statements

ce

Choked 11ow through a nozzle means

I.

Discharge

2.

Discharge is zero

3.

Velocity at throat is supersonic

4.

Nozzle exit pressure is less than or

equal to critical pressure.

maxtmum

ra

(Note : sin 30" = 05, cos 30 = 0866.

sm 15"- 0259, cos 15" = 0966)
(a) 0259
(b) 075

1S

Which of the above statements is/arc

correct
(b)

and 2

(c)

2 and 3

(d)

I and 4

prcss"re ratio for this flowing steam in

the no7..7.le ?
096

(b)

058

(c)

033

statements

The degree of reaction of a reaction

turbine is the ratio of enerey transfer
in fixed blade to the overall energy
trans!Cr across a stage.
2. The overall pressure drop in a turbine
is the product of pressure drop pel" stage
and number of stages.
3. Gas turbine cycle (Brnyton cycle) is not
as efficient as Rankine cycle for steam.
Which t>f the ahove statements is/are
correct?
(a) I only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2and3
(d) 3 t>nly

94. The index of expansion of dry saturate<.!

steam flowing through a nozzle is equal
to 1 J35, and then what is th" critical

(a)

97. Consider the following

pertaining to gas turbines

1.

.e

only

w
w

(o)

xa

'

(c) 05
(d) 0-433

(d) 015

18

'

(Contd.)

Steam
Flow

101. Which one of the fo!lowing statements is

correct ?
(a) Reciprocating compressors are used
to supply large quantities of air at a
lower pressure ratio.
(b) Centrifugal compressors are used to
supply large quantities of air at a lower
pressure raho.
(c) Centrifugal compressors arc used to
supply small quantities of air at a
lower pressure ratio.
(d) Centrifugal compressors cannot be run
at high speed because of impeller,
diffuser and casing.

FMFMFMFM

Velocity

'

,'

',

.c

ce

!02. Which one ofth~ following graphs shows

the corr~ct representation of the processes
for a t\vo stage air c<->mpressor with perfect
interco<->ling ami uo pressure drop in the
int~rcooler ?
(a)P,7
6

ra

fhe pressure and velocity diagram as

shown in the figure above for a steam
lurbme refers to which one of the
following ?
(Where : M-moving blade, F-fixcd blade)
(a) Impulse turbine-Velocity compounded
(b) Impulse turbine-Pressure compounded
(c) Impulse !w-hine-Pressure and Velocity
compounded
(d) Reaction turbine stages

om

-~------'

xa

99. If the enthalpy dwp in the moving blades

and fixed blades of a steam turbine is
I 0 kJ/kg and 15 k.Jikg respectively then
what is the degree of reaction ?

67%
(b) 60%
(c) 40%
(d) 33%

(b) P,

!\
g
., '+-~.-..,J,_'I; \

.e

(a)

P,

I 00. In a simple single stage gas turbine plant,

if T, is the minimum temperature and T,
is the maximum temperature then what is
the work ratio in terms of r, '?

w
w

(b)

T,

-4

v
(c)

PTt:c\~~
;2 3\-~---'''1~'

T -1
1--'e'
T, e

(a)

P,

-4

,_,

1--'e'
T, e

(c)

1-Tlrl~t

(d)

T !
1--' ,,
T, e

T, '

19

'

(Contd.)

103. Consider the following statements

105. Which one of the following diagrams

depicts correctly the radial distribution of
axial velocity over the blades in the
last stage of multistage axial flow
compressors ?

pertaining to axial flow compressors

Like centrifugal comprcs~or, axial flow

I.

compresors arc limited by surge at

low mass flow rates.

2.

Axial flow

comprcs~urs

()

experience

tip,---~

3.

om

choking at low flow rates.

The design point of axial flow

compressors is clo~~;: to the surge limit.

As mass flow diminishes the

root

compressor blades stall causing flow

ce
(b)

Which of the above statements is/arc

correct?

1,3and4

(o)

ra

() I and 2 only
1,2and3

(d) 3 and 4 only

xa

104.

'

"

c~

w
w

"

(o)

.e

c~

I<- c"''"" ------>i

separation.

(b)

L-.-c--'

.c

4.

l_j__j__~-

I>- cm ..n---->1

Mass Flow Rate

(d)

- - , - - . tip

''

In the graph as shown above, for an axial

flow compressor, surging is likely to occur
in which one of the following.zones ?
(a) A

(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

20
<

(Contd.)

106. Which one of the following statements is

correct ?
Increasing the number of reheating stages
in a gas turbine to infinity, makes the
~xpansion tending :
(a) R~versible adiabatic
(b) Isothermal
(c) Isobaric
(d) Adiabatic

Direction:> ;

om

Each of the next TWELVE (I Z) items

consists of two statements, one labelled
as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as
'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these
two statements carefully and select the
answers to these items using the codes
given below :

Codes :

.c

(a) Both A and R are individually

true and R is the correct explanation
of A

ce

(b) Both A and Rare individually true

but R is not the co~"~"et explanation
of A

(c) A is true but R is false

ra

107. Which one of the following statements is

correct ?
In a boiler, the air pr~heater is invariably
locat~d between :
(a) Forced draft fan and chimney
(b) Forced draft fan and furnace
(c) EconomiL.Cr an<.! feed pump
(d) Condenser and feed pump

(d) A is fbe b11t R is true

108.

.e

'

xa

I 09. Assertion (A) : An

air-conditioner
operating as a beat pump
is superior to an electric
resistance heater for
winter heating.
-Reason (R)

The above T-S diagram for a gas rurbine

plant is drawn for the case where :
(a) Compression of air is done in two
stages incorporating an intercooler
between two.
(b) Expansion of gases is done in two
stages followed by regeneration.
(c) Expansion of gases is done in two
stages with a reheater between the
<wo.
(d) Expansion of gases is done in two
stages with a reheater between the
two followed by regeneration.

A heat pump rejects more

w
w

heat than the heat

equivalent of the heat
absorbed.

\10_ Assertion {A): After buming mcreases

the thrust of a jet engine.

Reason (R)

The air fuel ratio of jet

engine is high.

Ill. Assertion (A) : Cork is a good irn~ulator.

Good insulators are
Rei>Son (R)
highly porous.
21
<

(Contd.)

117. Assertion (A) : The local acceleration is

Reason {R)

113_ Assertion (A) : :For the similar conditions

ce

In case of forced
convection system the
movement of fluid is by
means of external agency_

118. Assertion (A): The 'dimples' on a golf

ball are intentionally
provided.
A turbulent boundary
Reason (R)
layer, since it has more
momentum
than
a
laminar boundary layer,
can better resist an
adverse pressure gradient

ra

{R}

zero in a steady motion.

The
convective
component arises due to
the fact that a fluid
element expenences
different velocities at
different locations_

.c

the values of convection

heal transfer coefficients
are more m forced
convection than in free
convection.
Rea~on

om

116. Assertion (A) : A narr~w glass tube,

when i mmcrsed into
mercury causes capillary
depression, and when
immersed into water
causes capillary rise.
Reason (R)
Mercury is denser than
water.

112. Assertion (A): Drop-wise condensation

is associated with higher
heat transfer rate as
compared to the heat
transfer rale in film
condensation.
Reason (R)
In drop condensation
there ts free surface
through whieh dire<;t heat
transfer takes place.

xa

114. Assertion (A) : If a domc~tic refrigerator

works inside an adiabatic
room with its door open,
the room temperature
gradually decreases.
Reason (R)
Vapour comprcsswn
refrigeration cycles nave
high COP compared to
air refrigeration cycles.
A~scrtion

(A): In a fluid, the ate of

deformation is far more
important than the total
deformation itself.
Reason (R)
A fluid continues to
deform so long as the
external forces arc
applied.

120. Assertion (A): Multistaging compi-e<>Sion

is done only in reciprocating compressors.
Reason (R)
Reciprocating compressors
are used to compress a
large pressure ratio and
low discharge.

115.

w
w

.e

119. Assertion (A) : Increase in static suction

lift of centrifugal pump
may cause cavitation_
Reason (R)
Available Net Positive
Suction Head mcreases
with increase in static
suction lift.

22
"

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

T.B.C. : 0-FTF-J-NFB
~0581

TEST BOOKLE T
MECHANICAL ENGINEER ING

Paper-Il
Two Hours

Maximum Marks

INSTRUC TIONS

200

.c

Time Allowed

om

Serial No.

Test Booklet Series

6.
7.

8.

9.

ra

10.

5.

xa

4.

.e

3.

MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC- IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST

BOOKLET.
ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOKLET SERIES A, B, CORD AS THE CASE MAY BE
IN THE APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test r - - - - - - - - - - - - - - ,
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything e!se on the Test Booklet.
This Test Booklet contains 120 items (questions). Each item compnses four responses
(answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet.
In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which
you consider the best. In any case. choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer- Sheet.
All items carry equal marks.
Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the responses to various items in the
Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions
sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the
examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer
Sheet You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
Penalty for wron' answen ;
THERE WILL B8 PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN TH8
OBJECTNE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four altematives for the answer to every question. For each question for
which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-th:lrd j033) of the
marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
{ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even
if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as
above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank. i.e., no answer is given by the candidate. there will be
no penalty for that question.

w
w

2.

ce

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEME NT OF TilE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

3. Why is an offset provided in a radial

cam-translating follower mechanism?

1\

(a)

To decrease . pressure angle

during iuiCent of the follower

60',\

To increase pressure angle

during ascent of the follower

corner as shown in the figure

above. At an instant when the rod
makes an angle of 60' with the
horizontal plane, the downward
velocity of point A is 1 m(s. What is
the angular velocity of the rod at
this instant?

(d)

To decrease pressure angk

during descent of the follower

15 radjs

(c)

0 5 radjs

(d)

075 rad/s

.c

ce

(b)

cam rotating with a uniform

angular velocity pushes its Oatfaced radial follower upwards. If the
nature of the upward displacement
of the follower with respect to the
angle of cam rotation is cyclmdal,
then what 1s the shape of
acceleration curve?

4. A

ra

2-0 radjs

om

(c)

A rod of length I m is sliding in a

(a)

To avoid obstruction due to

some other machine part

(a)

2.

J-

,,

Cam angle

xa

(b)

w
w

.e

The figure as shown above is a rigid

body undergoing planar motion.
The absolute tangential accelerations of the points R and S on
the body are ISO mmjse<: 2 and
300 mm/se<: 2 respectively in the
directions shown. What 1s the
angular acceleration of the rigid
body?
(~

(c)

166 radjsec2

M 333 rad/sec 2
(c)

"'

500 radjsec~

(d) 250 radfsec2

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA

5. An external gear with 60 teeth

meshes with a pinion of 20 teeth,
module being 6 mm. What is the
centre distance in mm?

180

(c)

240

(d)

300

6. A gear having 100 teeth is fixed and

another gear having 25 teeth
revolves around it, centre lines of
both the gears being joined by an
arm, How numy revolutions will be
made by the gear of 25 teeth for one
revolution of arm?

(b)

(d)

(b)

45 m/s

(e)

60 mjs

(d)

120 m/s

~ 1200
-~ t 1000

xa

(c)

30 m(s

ra

9.

(<>)

800

(a)

w
w

.e

7. A machine is coupled to a power

source. The machine requires
constant
torque
but
to,-que
supplied by the power source is
(800+200sin!l)N-m. Mass moment
of inertia of the flywheel 1s
400 kg-m 2 . What is the maximum
angular acceleration of the flywheel
and at what position does it occur?

(a)

1%

{b)

5%

(b)

10 rad/sec 2 at El- 90"

(c)

05 rad/sec 2 at El = 180"

(c)

75%

(d)

2 0 rad(sec 2 at fl = 90"

(d)

10%

05 rad/sec 2 at !l- 90"

I"

90 180 270 3

Cranlr angle in deg

The above figure shows the turning

momerrt diagram of an engine. The
mean speed of prime mover is
2n rad/s and the mass moment of
inertia is 01 kg-m 2 , then what is
the coefficient of fluctuation of
energy?

{a)

0-FTF..J-NFB/llA

"

7 g/cm 3 . Then what ;, <he

maximum peripheral velocity?

om

(b)

;,

.c

120

flywheel,
""e stress
'"252a MN(m2
aad
"' <he density

ce

(a)

B.

[ P. T. 0.

"

10. ln a Hartnell governor, the mass of

each ball is 2 5 kg. Maximum and
mimmum centrifugal forces on the
balls are 2000 N and
100 N
corresponding to radii 20 em and
15 em respectively. Lengths of
vertical and horizontal arms of the
bell-crank levers are the same, then
what is the spring stiffness m
N/cm?

Li.st-f

Critical
damping
Magnificatwn
factor

'
'

(b)

200

D. Hammer
blow

400

{d)

800

Forced vibration
of spring-mass
system
Damped vibration

'

Code:

ce

{c)

Balancing of
reciprocating
masses
Torsional
vibratwn of shafts

om

Node point

.c

100

Li.st-JJ

A.

c
{a)

Match Ust-1 w;th List-tl and select

the correct <Jnswer using the code
given below the Lisls ;

(o) A

' 'c '

' ' 'c
'c '
'
,

ra

A governor is said

to be

sensitive

11. Consider the following statements

xa

hunting if it

w
w

::>.

isochronous
sensitivity

Which 0;
is/are tme?

'"'

(o)

1'1
(cj
(d)

if

it

has

1s

"

no

(c)

,;;c.
,;;c.

fmooth
statements

A mass M vibrates on a frictionless

platform between two sets of

springs having individual spring
constant as shown in the figure
above. Whal is the combined "Pring
constant of the system?

I only

=' '
=' '
' =' '
I

(I!)

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA

,,

;;q

too sensillve

above

' '

.e

2.

(d)

when
it
readily
responds to small change in
speed

(d)

2(K1 +K 2 )
2(K!K2)

14. A reciprocating engine. running at

80 radfs. is 5upported on springs.
The 5tatlc deflection of the spring is
lmm. Take g=l0mfs 2 . When
the engine runs. what will be the
f~quency of vibr-ations of the
system?

16. Tht static deflection of a shaft under

a
flywheel
'"
4
mm.
Take
2
g=10mjs . What 1s the critical

(a.)

50

(b)

20

80 rad/s

(b)

90 rad/s

(c)

10

(c)

100 radjs

(d)

(d)

160 radjs

.c

(a)

om

speed in mdfs?

ra

ce

17. Given below are the locations of the

poles of a second-order closed-loop
automatic control system. Which
one of them corresponds to a, stable
and critically damped 5ystem?

(a)

o
-~

xa

The above figure shows two rotors

connected by an elastic shaft
undergoing tonnonal vibration. The

w
w

.e

rotor Ul has a mass of 2 kg and a

diameter of 60 em, while the
rotor @ has a mass of 1 kg and a
diameter of 20 em. What is the
distance ! at which the node of
vibration of torsional vibration
occurs?

"'
(o)

36 em

(a)

(b)

30 em

(c)

22 em

(d)

18 em

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(d)

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-~

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-~

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>S. Match Ust-1 with List-1! and select

the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists :
List-JI

(Descriptiort)

(Shape)

diameter and 5 mm pitch is acted

upon by an axial load of 12 kN.
Permissible
thread
bearing
pressure 1s 6 MPa. Considering
bearing action between the threads
in engagement, what is the number
of threads in engagement with the

A. Spline

1. Involute

B. Roll pin

2. Semicircular

screw?

3. Tapered on one
side

{a)

(c)

Gib-headcd

,,,

D. Woodruff key

'

Circular

(o)

(d)

A
1

'

B
4

..

'c
3

c
3

D
1
D

'

D
1

.e
,

carriage

wheel

1 kN and 0-5 kNm

(b)

10 kN and 5 kN-m

(c)

05 kN and 025 kN-m

(d)

1 kN and 1 kN-m

to cyclic axial force is less than that

of a rotating beam of the same
dimensions subjected to steady
lateral force. What is the reason?

and

(a)

Axial

(b)

Absence of centrifugal effects

in the rod

{c)

The number of discontinuities

vulnerable to fatigue is more in
the rod

(d)

Neither I nor 2

At a particular time, the rod

has only one type of stress
whereas the beam has both

Both I and 2

tensile
stresses

IC engine cylinder and liner

w
w

2.

Railway

{a)

22. Fatigue strength of a rod subjected

19. Consider the following joints :

Which of the above joints is/are the

result(s) of interference fit?

(a)

1 only

(b) 2 only

,,,

(d)

10

ce

'c '

ra

~I

A
2

(d)

pitch line velocity of 10 mfs; driving

gear has a diameter of 10 m. Find
the tangential force between the
driver and the follower, and the
transmitted torque respectively.

xa

B
3

21. A spur gear transmits 10 kW at a

""''
(o( A

~)

.c

c.

om

List-/

20. A power screw of 32 mm nominal

0-F'TF'..,J-NFB/llA

'

stiffness is
bending stiffness

less

than

compressive

c
23. Maximum shear stress developed on
the surface of a solid ci<cular shaft

26. Consider the following statements

corresponding

to

(o)

'"'

60 MPa

(a)

30 MPa

(d)

IS MPa

3.

25. On

ce

what does the basic static

capacity of a ball bearing depend?

Directly
proportional
to
number of balls m a row and

.e

(a)

(a)

1 only

(b)

1 and 2

(c)

2 and 3

(d)

1 and 3

27. The principal strains at a point in a

body, under biaxial state of stress,

diameter of ball

are IOOOxl0- 6 and -(iOOxl0-6.

w
w

(b)

statements

ra
m

l2<JOO N

xa

(d)

of the above

is/are correct?

I'I 5000 N
25CO N

Normal and shear stresses may

occur simultaneously on a
plane.

Which

8000 N

(a)

Under plane stress condition,

the strain m the direction
perpendicular to the plane is

zero.

24. An
elevator
weighing
10000 N
attains an upward velocity of 4 m(s
m
2 seconds
with
unifonn
acceleration. Then what is the
tension in the wire rope?
(a)

2.

the

same torque?

120 MPa

Twodimensional
stresses
applied to a thin plate in its
own plane represent the plane
stress condition.

.c

developed

om

under pure torsion is 240 MPa. If

the shaft diameter is doubled, then
what is the maximum shear stress

Directly proportional to square

of ball diameter and inverse of

What is the maximum shear strain

at that point?

number of rows of balls

(d)

w- 6

Directly
proportional
number of ba!!s in a row and

(a)

200 x

square of diameter of ball

(b)

800x!0- 6

(c)

lOOOx 10-6

(d}

I600x10-6

(c)

proportional
a
square a diameter a bill>
directly proportional
number of balls in a ww

Inversely

='

0-FTF...J-NFB/UA

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[ P. T. 0.

28. What 1s the relationslrip between

elastic constants E, G and K?
(a)

E~

J_._.,_

KG
9K+G

,,

overhanging beam ABC is

supported at points A and B, as
shown in the above figure. Find the
maximum bending moment and the
point where it occurs.

E~

9KG
K+3G

(d)

E =

9KG
3K+G

.c

(c)

om

An

(a)

(b)

150 Gf>a

(c)

200 GPa

(d)

400 GPa

(b)

6 kN-m at the left support

(c)

45 kN-m at the right support

(d)

45 kN-m at the midpoint

between the supports

32. A freely supported beam at its ends

carries a central concentrated load,
and maximum bending moment is
M. If the same load be unifonnly
distributed over the beam length,
then what is the maximum bending
moment?

xa

100 Gf>a

.e

(a)

ra

ce

29. A bar produces a lateral strain of

magnitude -60x w- 5 mjm, when
subjected to tensile stress of
magnitude 300 MPa along the axial
direction. Find the elastic modulus
of the material, if the Poisson's ratio
is 03.

6 kN-m at the right support

(~

~I

M '

(c)

w
w

30. A uniformly distributed load w

(in kNJm) is acting over the entire
length of a 3 m long cantilever
beam. If the shear force at the midpoint of cantilever is 6 kN, what is
the value of w?
(~

(c)

(~

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(d)

'

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2M

33. Match List-! with List-11 and select

the correct answer using the code
given below the Lists

Wading)

'

'
c

w
w

' ' '

~)

'

.e

Code;

' ' '

{c)

(~

'
c
' ' ' '

'

0-FTF---J-NFB{llA

avg

(d)

2"~:avg

When two springs of equal lengths

are arranged to fonn a cluster
spring

1.

angle of twist in both the

springs will be equal

2.

deflection of both the springs

will be equal

3.

load taken by each spring will

be half the total load

4.

shear stress in each spring will

be equal

Which of the above

' '

(b}

~ 'avg

ra

4.

(a)

35. Consider the following statements

xa

'

'

'

ce

'. c::::c==-

A.

om

{Cantilever

.c

LIS t-Il
(Shear FDrce
Diagram)

List-!

{o)

34. A beam having rectangular crosssection is subjected to an external

loading. The average shear stress
developed due to the external
loading at a particular cross-section
is -ravg What 1s the maximum shear
stress developed at the same
cross-section due to the same
loading?

statements

isjare correct?
(o)

1 and 2

(b)

3 and 4

(c)

2 only

(d)

4 only

[ P. T. 0.

water main of 1 m diameter

contains water at a pressure head
of 100 metres. The permissible
tensile stress in the material of the
water main is 25 MPa. What is the
minimum thickness of the water
main? (Take g= 10mjs2)

36. A

{c)

50 mm

{d)

60 mm

,,,

,,,

ra

Four vertical columns of same

material, height and weight have
the same end conditions. Which
crosssection
will
carry
the
maximum load?
Solid circular section

(b)

Thin hollow circular section

(c)

Solid square section

(d)

!-section

40. Which one of the following crystal

xa

(a)

steel specimen 150mm 2 m

cross-section stretches by 005 mm
over a 50 mm gauge length under
an axial load of 30 kN. What is the
strain
energy stored
in the
specimen? (Take E ~ 200 GPa)

(a)

075 N-m

(b)

!00 N-m

(c)

!50 N-m

0-ITF-J-NFB/llA

systems is valid for gold?

(a)

Orthogonal

(b)

Cubic

(c)

Hexagonal

(d)

Triclink

41. Which one of the following is correct

for 'Climb?

w
w

38. A

om

20 mm

.c

(b)

ce

10 mm

.e

.7.

(a)

39. What is the expression for the strain

energy due to bending of a
cantilever beam [length L, modulus
of elasticity E and moment of
inertia I)?

10

(a}

Dislocation moves parallel to

the slip plane

{b)

Dislocation moves
perpendicular to the slip plane

(c)

Sliding of one plane of atoms

over the other plane

(d)

Dislocation moves from a slip

plane to another slip plane

42. Which one of the following is correct

for "Burger's vector" in screw

46. The elements which, added to steel,

help

in

chip

formation

during

machining are

dislocation?

(a}

sulphur, lead and phcsphorus

(b)

Inclined to the dislocation line

(b)

sulphur, lead and cobalt

(c)

Parallel to the dislocation line

{c)

aluminium, lead and

(d)

Opposite to the dislocation line

(d}

aluminium,
copper

Vacancy defect

(b)

Compositional defect

(c)

Interstitial defect

(d)

Surface defect

titanium

ce

(a)

c<;~pper

.c

43. Which one of the following defects is

'Schottky defect'?

om

Perpendicular to the dislocation line

(a)

47. Which one of the following cast irons

ra

consists of carbon in rosette form?

(a)

White cast iron

(b)

Gray cast iron

(c)

Malleable cast iron

(d)

Nodular cast iron

44. Which one of the following elements

(a)

Chromium
Tungsten

(cf

Nickel

{d)

Molybdenum

w
w

.e

(b)

xa

is an austenitic stabilizer?

45. Which one of the following elements

is a ferdtic stabilizer?
Nickel

(b)

Manganese

(c)

Copper

(d)

Chromium

(a)

0-FTF--J-NFB/llA

48. Which one of the following possesses

the
property
of nonsparking
character?
(a)

Hadfield's manganese steel

(b)

Spring steel

(c)

Stellite

(d)

lnvar

[P. T. 0.

Nano e<>mpositc materials are highly

preferable in design consideration
for their
{o)

high
resistance
propagaTion

Co

"

List-!
(Artide)

crack
A.

/b)

Match List-! with List-11 and select

the correct answer using the e<>de
given below the Lists :

vibration resistance

List-n
(Processing Method}

Disposable
coffee cups

B. Large water
(o)

impact resistance

c.
high resilience

Plastic sheets

D. Cushion pads

'
'

'

.c

I'J

ce

50. Which one of the following mediums

is used for the fastest cooling rate of
steel quenching?

(o)

Water

(d)

Brine

ra
xa

OH

.e

(b)

Air

w
w

51. Which one of the following materials

is not a compDsite?

(a)

Wood

{b)

Expandable
bead moulding

Thermoformmg

Blow moulding

Calendering

Code

(o)

(o)

Rotomoulding

om

...

(b)

(o)

'
'
c
'
' '
B
c
' ' '
c
'
'
5

B
5

(d)

53. Which of the following composites

are
'dispersion-strengthened
composJtes?
(a)

Particulate e<>mposites

Concrete

{b)

Laminar composites

{c)

Plywood

(c)

Fiber reinforced composites

(d)
(d)

Sialon

Short-fiber discontinuous
composites

0-FTF-J-NFB[llA

54. Why are Babbitt alloys used for

beanng material?

Compressive

embeddability

(b)

Tensile

They are relatively stronger

than other bearing materials

(c)

Shear

(d)

Hydrostatic stress

{d)

They do not lose strength with

increase in temperature
They
have
strength

high

58. Which

nne
of
the
statements is correct?

fatigue

Aluminium

(c)

Pure iron

(d)

Stellile

56. Consider
characteristics

Strength is decreased.

3.

Close tolerances
maintamed.

be

w
w

cannot

Which e>f the abe>ve characteristics

e>f hot working is)are correct?

(c)

As compared to roll forming,

extruding speed is high

(d)

Impact extrusion is quite

similar to Hooker's process
including the flow of metal
be1ng in the same direction

59. What is the major problem in hot

extrusion?

Pore>sity in the metal is largely

eliminated.

2.

(a}

Extrusion is an ideal process

for obtaining rods from metal
having poor density

folle>wing

.e

1.

(b)

ra

(b)

In extrusion process, th1cker

walls can be obtained by
increasmg
the
forming
pressure

HSS

xa

(a)

(a)

ce

55. Which one of the following materials

can be subjected to an age
hardening process?

following

.c

(c)

excellent

om

(o)

(o) They
(b)

57. Which one of the following processes

is the wiredrawing process?

(a)

Design of punch

(h)

Design of die

(c)

Wear and tear of die

(d)

Wear of punch

60. Which one of the following is a high

energy rate forming process?

1 only

(a)

Roll forming

(b)

Elcctrohydraulic forming

(b)

3 e>nly

(c)

2 and 3

{c)

Rotary forging

(d)

1 and 3

(d)

Forward extrusion

0-.nF..J-NFB/llA

13

[ P. T. 0.

Carbon steel tool bits

(b)

Stell:ite tool bits

(c)

Ceramic tool bits

(d)

HSS tool bits

1.

The actual entry point through

which the molten metal enters
the mould cavity is called ingate.

2.

Bottom gate in case of a mould

creates unfavourable temperature gradient.

3.

Sprue m case of a mould 1s

made tapered to avoid mr
inclusion.

62. Which of the following are the most

suitable materials for die casting?

Zinc and its alloys

(b)

Copper and its alloys

(c)

Aluminium and its alloys

(d)

Lead and its alloys

Which of the
is/are correct?

(a)

ra

63. Which one of the following casting

processes 1s best suited to make
bigger size hollow symmetrical
pipes?

statements

l only

(b)

1 and 2

(c)

2 and 3

(d)

l and 3

which one of the fo11owing

fumaces mos.t of the nonferrous
alloys are melted?

66. In

Die casting

(b)

Investment casting

(c)

Shell moulding

(o.)

Reverberatory furnace

(d)

Centrifugal casting

(b)

Induction furnace

(c)

Crucible furnace

(d)

Pot furnace

.e

xa

(o.)

64. Which of the following are the most

w
w

likely characteristics in centrifugal

casting?

above

ce

(o.)

.c

(a.)

65. Consider the following statements

om

61. Which of the following cutting tool

bits are made by powder metallurgy
process?

size

(a)

Fine grain
porosity

{b)

Coarse grain size and high

porosity
and

high

(c)

Fine gram
density

(d)

Coarse grain size and high

density

0-FTF....J-NFB/llA

s1zc

and

high

67. By

which one
methods gray
welded?
(a}

no

(b)

MIG welding

(c)

Gas welding

(d)

Arc welding

welding

of the following
iron ie usually

68. Match List-] with List-11 and select

70. What is the number of jaws in selfcentred chuck?

the correct answer using the code

given below the Lists :

List-!
(Welding
Process)
A. Laser
welding

List-I!
(Application)
I. Uniting large-area

parts
3. Welding a rod to a
flat surface
4. Fabrication of
nuclear reactor
components
5. Welding very thin
materials

'

'

B
3

Capstan lathe

(b)

Single-spindle automat

(c)

CNC turning centre (lathe)

.c

(a)

ce

xa

5
D

'
'

.e

B
3

69. Which one of the following methods

should be used for tuming internal
taper only?
(a)

Three

CNC machining centre

is the drilling time for

producing a hole in an MS sheet of
25 mm thickness using an HSS drill
of 20 mm di-ameter? The cutting
speed and feed for drill are
20 m{rnin and 025 mmfrevolution
respectively. Neglect time taken for
setting
up,
approaching
and
travelling of tools.

ra

A
5

(d)

(d)

w
w

(d)

Four

the manufacture of screw

fasteners on a mass scale, which is
the most suitable machine tool?

'

(c)

72. What

Six

71. For

Code:

(c)

(b)

om

2. Repairing large

weldmg
C. Ultrasonic
welding
D. Explosive
welding

(b)

Eight

sheets

B. Friction

(o}

(a}

Taper attachment

(c)

Form tool

(d)

Compound rest

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA

0314 min

(b)

0236 min

(c)

0438 min

(d)

0443 min

73. For machining, which one of the

following gang milling operations is
employed?

Tailstock offset

(b)

(a)

(a)

Thread&

(b)

Bores

(c)

Grooves

(d)

Steps on prismatic parts

,.

[P.T.O.

---

_ _ _ __ j

74. The arbor of a milling machine is

used to hold which one of the
following?

Spindle

(b)

Overarm

(d)

11460

(b)

5730

(c)

2865

Cuttmg tool
Mandrel

(d)

ra

78. In which of the following machining

manual part programming is done?

Milling machine

(b)

Slotting machine

{c)

Hobbing machine

(d)

Gear-shaping machine

.e

xa

{a)

w
w
{a)

material

CNC machining

(b}

NC machining

{c)

DNC machming

(d)

FMS machining

in

(a}

loading/unloading of jobs. on
machine

(b)

Loading/unloading of
from the tool changer

{c)

Axes of machine for contourmg

(d)

Coolant and miscellaneous

functions an machine

Aluminium oxide

{b)

Silicon carbide

{c)

Cubic boron nitride

(d)

Manganese oxide

(a)

79. Interpolation in the controller refers

to control of which one of the
following in a CNC machine?

76. Which one of the following is noe

used as abrasive
grinding whe~ls?

95

ce

75. By which one of the following

muchines the teeth of an internul
spur gear can be cut accurately?

.c

(c)

(a}

om

{a)

77. Given that the peripheral speed of

the grinding wheel of 100 mm
diameter for cylindrical grinding of
a steel workpiece is 30 mjs, what
will be the estimated rotational
speed of the grinding wheel m
revolution per minute (r.p.m.)?

0-FTF..,J-NFB/llA

,.

tools

To act as stand-by systems

(b)

To share the processing of

large-size NC programs

(c)

To serve
machines

(d)

To network with another DNC

group

of

10, 12, 8, 6, 15, 20, 3

NC

What does the angle 12 represent?

setup
which machining system, the
highest level of automation is
found?

(b)

Automatic transfer machines

(c)

Machine tools with electrohydraulic

positioning and
control
DNC machining system

xa

(d)

82. Consider the following statements

with respect to the effects of a large
nose radius on the tool :

It deteriorates surface finish.

2.

It increases the possibility of

chatter.

w
w

.e

I,

3.

Side cutting-edge angle

(b)

Side rake angle

(c)

Back rake angle

(d)

Side clearance angle

ra

CNC machine tools

84. Consider the following :

(a)

(a)

ce

81. In

om

(a)

83. The fo!Iowing tool signature is

specified for a single-point cutting
tool in American system :

.c

80. What is the purpose of satellite

computers
in
Distributed
Numerical Control machines?

1.

Tool life

2.

Cutting forces

3.

Surface finish

Which of the above is/are the

machinability criterion/criteria?

It improves tool life.

Which of the above statements

isfllle correct?
2 only

(b)

3 only

(c)

2 and 3 only

(d)

1, 2 and 3

(a)

0-FfF-J-NFB/llA

(a)

I, 2 and 3

(b)

1 and 3 only

(c)

2 and 3 only

(d)

2 only

[P.T.O.

85. A capstan lathe is used to massproduce, in batches of 200, a

particular component. The direct
material cost is Rs 4 per piece, the
direct labour <X>St is Rs 3 per piece
and the overhead costs are 400%
of the labour costs. What is the
production cost per piece?

{b)

Rs 23

(c}

Rs 16

(d)

Rs 15

86. Which

(a)

(c)

ono

ra

(b)

The tool material needs to be

harder than the job material

xa

The tool is never in <X>ntact

with the job
There has to be a relative
motion between the tool and
the job

.e

w
w

,,

=
(a)

Ultrasonic machining

(b)

Abrasive jet machining

(c)

(d)

Using two V-blocks

,,

"'

Which
following
measure of forecast e:rror?

,,

(o)

Mean absolute deviation

M
(;)

Trend value

(d)

Price fluctuation

"'

Movmg average

90. In
a
forecasting
situation,
exponential sm<.>othing with a
smoothing constant o: ~ 02 is to be
used. If the demand f<.>r nth period
is 500 and the actual demand for
the corresponding pei'iod tumcd
out to be 450, what is the forecast
for the (n + .Qth period?

which ono
fuo following
processes <ho metering holes in
injector nozzles of diesel engines
be suitably made?

(a)

450

(b)

470

Electron beam machining

(c)

490

Chemical machining

(d)

500

0-FTF-J-NFB/UA

hardened

ce
(d)

The cutting tool is in direct

contact with the job

" "'

="
Using ono
hardened
=o
ground plu,g and one V-block
<wo

ground plugs

(a)

(d)

Using two
hardened
and
ground plugs, the smaller one
having flats machined on euch
side

(o) Using

of
the
f<.>llowing
statements is correct in respect
of
unconventional
machining
processes?

(c)

om

Rs 19

.c

(a)

88. A lever having two precisely drilled

holes, <.>ne smaller than the other,
has to be located in a fucture using
hardened and ground plugs for
further machining in relation to the
holes. Select the correct method <.>f
locating the lever from the given
alternatives.

"

X has a fiXed cost of

Rs 40,000 per month and a variable
cost of Rs 9 per unit. Process Yhas
a fiXed cost of Rs 16,000 per month
and a variable cost of Rs 24 per
unit. At which value, total costs of
processes X and Y will be equal?

Functional

2.

Operational

3.

Aesthetic

93. P:rocess

Which of the above aspects is/ are

to be analyzed in connection with
the product development?

800

(b)

1200

(c)

1600

(d)

2000

1 and 2 only

(c)

2 and 3 only

{d)

3 only

ce

(b)

94. Consider the following statements

The break,even point increases

objective

of

xa

ihe irnmedJate
product is

92. Consider the following statements

to simulate sales function

2.

to
utilize
ilie
existing
equipment and power

3.

to monopolize the market

.e

w
w
!, 2 and 3

3.

<he nxed
"mcreases

unit

'"
if the variable cost
decreases
'" unit
<he selling price pee unit
"decreases

(a)

only

(b)

1 and 2 only

(b)

1 and 2

{c)

2 and 3 only

(c)

2 and 3

(d)

3 only

{d}

I and 3

0-FTF..,J-NFB/llA

cost

Which of the above statements

is/are correct?

Which of the above statements

is/are correct?

(a}

.c

1, 2 and 3

ra

(a)

(a}

om

91. Consider the following aspects

19

( P. T. 0.

95. An operations consultant for an

automatic car wash wishes to plan
for enough capacity to handle 60
cars per hour. Each car will have a
wash time of 4 minutes, hut there is
to be a 25% allowance for setup
time, delays and payment transactions. How many car wash stalls
should be installed?

(d)

(c)

Twice

(d)

Four times

93. Consider tbe following statements :

.,,

96.

M'
@]

aw matenal

The MRP
contains

.,,
f-

.,,
1200 IM4A
1200 IM4B

f-

I.

[ETIM2A

1275IM~B

weo

"'

ls6D I

inventory

2.

planned OTder

3.

planned order release

xa

(o(

i,2and3

(b)

' "nd

(c)

2 md

(d)

'

only

above

file

statements

2 only

'

only

w
w

.e

99. Consider the following

1.

A mass production schedule

2.

An inventory status file

3.

Bill of material

Which of the above are the inputs to

MRP systems?

(a)

380

(a)I.2=d3

(b)

475

(b)

1 and 2 only

(c)

522

(c)

2 and 3 only

(d)

532

(d)

1 and 3 only

0-FTF--J-NFB/llA

status

material on hand

Which of the
is/arc correct?

product 1s manufactured by
processing on the four workstations (WSJ. The capacity of each
machine on these work-stations is
given in the diagram as shown
above. In the diagram Ml, M2A,
M2B, M3, M4A and M4B are the
machines and 500, 275, 275, 560,
200 and 200 are their capacities in
number of products made per shift.
If the products made in this system
are 5% defective, then what wilt be
the output from this system?
A

Same

om

(c)

(b)

.c

Half

ce

(a)

ra

{a)

97. If demand is doubled and ordering

cost, unit cost and inventory
carrying cost arc halved, then what
wi1l be the EOQ?

20

103. If in a process on the shop floor, the

specifications are not met, but the
charts for variables show control,
then which of the following actions
should be taken?

100. Which one of the following is rwt a

work measurement technique?
(a)

Time study

(b)

Work sampling

(c)

Motion time data

Change the process

(b)

Change
the
measurement

(c)

Change the worker or provide

him training

(b)

0975 'min

(c)

099 min

(d)

103 min

(d)

Change the specifications or

upgrad" th" process

ra

082 min

of

(a)

method

ce

101. If in a time study, the observed time

is 075 min, rating factor ~ 110%
and allowances are 20% of nonnal
time, then what is the standard
time?

om

Micromotion study

.c

(d)

(a)

xa

102. For a confidence level of 95% and

accuracy 5%, the number of
cycles to be timed in a time study is
equal to

w
w

.e

104. An operating characteristic

(OC curve) is a plot between

where N- number of observations

taken; x~x1 , X 2 , ... , XN
are
individual observations. What is the
value of K?
(a)

10

(b)

20

(c)

30

(d)

40

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA

21

risk

=m

(a}

consumers'
producu's risk

~}

probability of acceptance =d
probability of rejection

(o}

percentage of defectives =d
probability of acceptance

(d)

average outgoing quality =d

probability of acceptance

=d

jP.T.O.

105. In a linear progr-amming problem,

108. Which one of the following is true in

which one of the following is correct

for gr-aphical method?

case of simplex method of linear

programming?
(a}

The constants of constraints

equation may be positive or
negative

(b)

Inequalities are not converted

into equations

(c)

It cannot be used for twovariable problems

(d)

The simplex algorithm

iterative procedure

(b)

One of the corner points of the

fea~ible
region is not the
optimum solution

-(c)

Any point in the positive

quadrant does not satisfy the
nonnegativity constraint

(d)

The lines correspm1ding to

different values of objective
functions are parallel

IS

an

ce

not a solution to the problem

om

A point in the feasible region is

.c

(a}

109. When solving the problem by Big-M

106. A linear programming problem with

method, if the objective functions

row
(evaluation
row)
shows
optimality but one or more srtificial
variables are still in the basis, what
type of solution does it show?

ra

mixed constraints (some constraints of :s; type and some of i':

type) can be solved by which of the
following methods?
Big-M method

(b)

Hungarian method

(c)

Branch and bound technique

107. While solving a linear programming

problem by simplex method, if all

w
w

ratios of the right-hand side lb;) to

the coefficient in the key row (<l;j)
become negative, then the problem
has which of the following types of
solution?

(a}

Optimal solution

(b)

Pseudooptima! solution

(c)

Degenerate solution

(d)

Infeasible solution

Least cost method

.e

(d)

xa

(a}

110. Which of the following distributions

is followed by the number of

arrivals in a given time in a singleserver queueing model?

(a)

Negative exponential
distribution

(a)

An unbound solution

(b)

Multiple solutions

(b)

Poisson distribution

(c)

A unique solution

(c)

Normal distribution

(d)

No solution

(d!

Beta distribution

Q.-FTF--.J-NFB/llA

111. If the arrivals at a service facility are

114. Which one of the following is used for

d1stributed as per the Poisson

data processing carried out by the

CPU of the computer?

040

(b)

050

(c)

067

(dJ

1 00

arrival rate and exponential service

a\>erage service time of 4 minutes.

(c)

040

(d)

024

(d)

Floppy disk drive

(b)

Reduced Instruction Set Chip

R~d

So<

Instruction

Computers

xa

067

Hard disk

(e)

What is the system utiLization?

(b)

(c}

ra

time has cars arriving at an average

rate of 10 minutes apart and an

100

RAM

115. What is the full form of RISC?

A single-bay car wash with a Poisson

(a)

(b)

ce

112.

(a}

ROM

.c

customer may have to wait to be

served?

(a)

om

distribution with a mean rate of

10 per hour and the services are
exponentially distributed with a
mean service time of 4 minutes,
what is the probability that a

(c)

Instruction
Reduced
Computers

Se<

(d)

Redundant
Chip

Se<

Instruction

.e

113. Consider the following :

L

A system-oriented approach
A
multidisciplined
approach

w
w

116. What is the size of the spreadsheet in

Lotus?

3.

A function-oriented approach

Which of the above refer to value

engineering?
(a)

1, 2 and 3

(b)

l and 2 only

(c)

2 and 3 only

(d)

1 and 3 only

0-FTF-J-NFB/llA

--

23

(a)

1028 rows and 256 columns

(b)

2048 rows and 1028 columns

(c)

1028 rows and 1028 columns

(d}

2048 rows ancl 256 columns

jP.T.O.

- - - - - - - _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ __j

Directions :

Reason (R) :

Each of the following four (41 items

consists of two statements, one labelled as
'Assertion (A]' and the other as 'Reason (R]'.
You are to examine these two statements
carefully and select the answers to these
items using the code given bdow :

om

Production of the correct gear

tooth profile employing formcutting principle would require
a separate cutter for cutting
different numbers of teeth even for
the same module and also errors
are associated with inaccurate
operation of indexing mechanism.

Code:
Both A and R are individually
true and R is the correct
explanation of A

(c}

A is true but R is false

(d)

A is false but R is true

.c

Both A and R are individually

true but R is rtDt the correct
explanation of A

ra

(b}

119. Assertion (A) :

117. Assertion (A)

Moving
avemge
method
of
forecasting demand gives an
account
of
the
trends
m
fluctuations and suppresses dayto-day insignificant fluctuations.

ce

(a)

.e

xa

Mohr's construction is possible for

stresses, strains and area moment
of inertia..

Reason (R)
Working out moving averages of
the demand data smoothens the
random day-to-day fluctuations
and represents only significant
variations.

Reason (R)

w
w

Mohr's circle
transformation
tensor.

represents
the
of second-order

120. Assertion (A)

Assembly line balancing increases
productivity.

118. Assertion (A) :

Reason (R) :

Gears produced by employing

form-cutting
principle
using
gear-milling cutter on a milling
machine are not very accurate.

O-FTF~-NFB/11A

Assembly line balancing reduces

in-process inventory.

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