Chapter 028

Ignatavicius: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7th Edition
Chapter 28: Care of Patients with Burns

Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The RN has assigned a client who has an open burn wound to the LPN. Which instruction
is most important for the RN to provide the LPN?
a. Administer the prescribed tetanus toxoid vaccine.
b. Assess wounds for signs of infection.
c. Have the client cough and breathe deeply.
d. Wash hands on entering the clients room.
ANS: D
Infection can occur when microorganisms from another person or from the environment
are transferred to the client. Although all of the interventions listed can help reduce the
risk for infection, handwashing is the most effective technique for preventing infection
transmission.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Applying or higher
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment (Safety and Infection
ControlStandard Precautions/Transmission-Based Precautions/Surgical Asepsis)
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Implementation)
2. When providing care for a client with an acute burn injury, which nursing intervention is
most important to prevent infection by autocontamination?
a. Avoid sharing equipment such as blood pressure cuffs between clients.
b. Change gloves between wound care on different parts of the clients body.
c. Use the closed method of burn wound management for all wound care.
d. Use proper and consistent handwashing by all members of the staff.
ANS: B
Autocontamination is the transfer of microorganisms from one area to another area of the
same clients body, causing infection of a previously uninfected area. Although all
techniques listed can help reduce the risk for infection, only changing gloves between
carrying out wound care on different parts of the clients body can prevent
autocontamination.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Safe and Effective Care Environment (Safety and Infection
ControlStandard Precautions/Transmission-Based Precautions/Surgical Asepsis)
Copyright 2013, 2010, 2006, 2002 Saunders, an imprint of Elsevier Inc. All rights reserved.
Test Bank
28-2
3. The nurse is teaching burn prevention to a community group. Which information shared
by a member of the group causes the nurse the greatest concern?
a. I get my chimneys swept every other year.
b. My hot water heater is set at about 120 degrees.
c. Sometimes I wake up at night and smoke.
d. I use a space heater when it gets below zero.
ANS: C
House fires are a common occurrence and often lead to serious injury or death. The nurse
should be most concerned about a person who wakes up at night and smokes. The nurse
needs to question this person about whether he or she gets out of bed to do so, or if this
person stays in bed, which could lead to falling back asleep with a lighted cigarette.
Although it is recommended to have chimneys swept every year, skipping a year does not
pose as much danger as smoking in bed, particularly if the person does not burn wood
frequently. Water heaters should be set below 140 F. Space heaters should be used with
caution, and the nurse may want to ensure that the person does not allow it to get near
clothing or bedding. But the most immediate concern is the persons smoking upon
waking up at night.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance (Lifestyle Choices)
MSC: Integrated Process: Teaching/Learning
4. The nurse is conducting a home safety class. It is most important for the nurse to include
which information in the teaching plan?
a. Have an escape route everyone knows about.
b. Keep a smoke detector in each bedroom.
c. Use space heaters instead of gas heaters.
d. Use carbon monoxide detectors in the garage.
ANS: B
Everyone should use smoke detectors and carbon monoxide detectors in their home
environment (just not in a garage). Recommendations are that each bedroom should have
a separate smoke detector. Smoke detectors should also be placed in the hallway of each
story, in the kitchen, in each stairwell, and by each entrance. Space heaters can be a cause
of fire if clothing, bedding, and other flammable objects are nearby. An escape route is
very important, but successfully escaping also depends on early recognition of a fire,
which is assisted by smoke detectors.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension/Understanding
REF: p. 520
TOP: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance (Health
Promotion/Disease Prevention)
Test Bank
28-3
5. A client with facial burns asks the nurse if he will ever look the same. Which response is
best for the nurse to provide?
a. With reconstructive surgery, you can look the same.
b. We can remove the scars with the use of a pressure dressing.
c. You will not look exactly the same but cosmetic surgery will help.
d. You shouldnt start worrying about your appearance right now.
ANS: C
Many clients have unrealistic expectations of reconstructive surgery and envision an
appearance identical or equal in quality to the preburn state. The nurse should provide
accurate information that includes something to hope for. Pressure dressings prevent
further scarring. They cannot remove scars. The client and the family should be taught
the expected cosmetic outcomes.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity (Grief and Loss)
6. The nurse has provided instruction on the facial pressure garment to a client with facial
burns. Which statement indicates that the client understands these instructions?
a. My scars should be less severe with the use of this mask.
b. The mask will help protect my skin from sun damage.
c. This treatment will help prevent infection.
d. Using the mask will keep scars from being permanent.
ANS: A
The purpose of wearing the pressure garment over burn injuries for up to 1 year is to
prevent hypertrophic scarring and contractures from forming. Scars will still be present.
Although the mask does provide protection of sensitive, newly healed skin and grafts
from sun exposure, this is not the purpose of wearing the mask. The pressure garment
will not alter the risk for infection.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity (Physiological AdaptationIllness
Management)
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Evaluation)
7. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a client with a burn injury has a positive
perception of his appearance?
a. Allowing family members to change the dressings
b. Discussing future surgical reconstruction
c. Performing morning care independently
d. Wearing the pressure dressings as ordered
Test Bank
28-4
ANS: C
Indicators that the client with a burn injury has a positive perception of his appearance
include his or her willingness to touch the affected body part. Self-care activities such as
morning care foster feelings of self-worth, which are closely linked to body image.
Allowing others to change the dressing and discussing future reconstruction would not
indicate a positive perception of appearance. Wearing the dressing will assist in
decreasing complications but will not enhance self-perception.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity (Coping Mechanisms)
8. Which statement best exemplifies a clients understanding of rehabilitation after a fullthickness burn injury?
a. I am fully recovered when all the wounds are closed.
b. I will eventually be able to perform all my former activities.
c. My goal is to achieve the highest level of functioning that I can.
d. Full recovery from a major burn injury never occurs.
ANS: C
Although a return to preburn functional levels is rarely possible, burned clients are
considered fully recovered or rehabilitated when they have achieved their highest
possible level of physical, social, and emotional functioning. The technical rehabilitative
phase of rehabilitation begins with wound closure and ends when the client returns to her
or his highest possible level of functioning.
REF: N/A
Management)
9. Which finding indicates to the nurse that a client understands the psychosocial impact of
a severe burn injury?
a. It is normal to feel some depression.
b. I will go back to work immediately.
c. I will not feel anger about my situation.
d. Once I get home, things will be normal.
ANS: A
During the recovery period, and for some time after discharge from the hospital, clients
with severe burn injuries are likely to have psychological problems that require
intervention. Depression is one of these problems. Grief, loss, anxiety, anger, fear, and
guilt are all normal feelings that can occur. Clients need to know that problems of
physical care and psychological stresses may be overwhelming.
Test Bank
28-5

REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Psychosocial Integrity (Grief and Loss)
10. A client is in the emergency department after being rescued from a house fire. After the
initial assessment, the client develops a loud, brassy cough. What intervention by the
nurse takes priority?
a. Apply oxygen and continuous pulse oximetry.
b. Allow the client to suck on small quantities of ice chips.
c. Request an antitussive medication from the physician.
d. Have the respiratory therapist provide humidified room air.
ANS: A
Brassy cough and wheezing are some of the signs seen with inhalation injury. The first
action by the nurse is to give the client oxygen. Clients with possible inhalation injury
also need continuous pulse oximetry. Ice chips and humidified room air will not help the
problem, and antitussives are not warranted.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity (Physiological Adaptation
Medical Emergencies)
MSC:
Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Analysis)
11. A client has burns on both legs. These areas appear white and leather-like. No blisters or
bleeding is present, and the client describes just a small amount of pain. How does the
nurse categorize this injury?
a. Partial thickness deep
b. Partial thickness superficial
c. Full thickness
d. Superficial
ANS: C
The characteristics of the wounds meet the criteria for a full-thickness injury: color that is
black, brown, yellow, white, or red; no blisters; minimal pain; and firm and inelastic outer
layer. Partial-thickness superficial burns appear pink to red and are painful. Partialthickness burns are deep red to white and painful, and superficial burns are pink to red
and are also painful.
REF: p. 513
Pathophysiology)
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Assessment)
12. A client has a large burned area on the right arm. The burned area appears pink, has
blisters, and is very painful. How does the nurse categorize this injury?
Test Bank
a.
b.
c.
d.
28-6
Full thickness
Partial thickness superficial
Partial thickness deep
Superficial
ANS: B
The characteristics of the wound meet the criteria for a superficial partial-thickness
injury: color that is pink or red; blisters; and pain. Blisters are not seen with full-thickness
and superficial burns and are rarely seen with deep partial-thickness burns. Deep partialthickness burns appear red to white.
REF: p. 513
Pathophysiology)
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Assessment)
13. A client with a new burn injury asks the nurse why he is receiving intravenous cimetidine
(Tagamet). What is the nurses best response?
a. Tagamet will stimulate intestinal movement so you can eat more.
b. Tagamet can help prevent hypovolemic shock, which can be fatal.
c. This will help prevent stomach ulcers, which are common after burns.
d. This drug will help prevent kidney damage caused by dehydration.
ANS: C
Ulcerative gastrointestinal disease (Curlings ulcer) may develop within 24 hours after a
severe burn as a result of increased hydrochloric acid production and a decreased
mucosal barrier. This process occurs because of the sympathetic nervous system stress
response. Cimetidine inhibits the production and release of hydrochloric acid. Cimetidine
does not affect intestinal movement and does not prevent hypovolemic shock or kidney
damage.
REF: p. 517
TOP: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity (Pharmacological and Parenteral
TherapiesExpected Actions/Outcomes)
MSC:
Integrated Process:
Teaching/Learning
14. A client who is burned is drooling and is having difficulty swallowing. Which action does
the nurse take first?
a. Assess level of consciousness and pupillary reactions.
b. Ascertain the time food or liquid was last consumed.
c. Auscultate breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi.
d. Measure abdominal girth and auscultate bowel sounds.
Test Bank
28-7
ANS: C
Inhalation injuries are present in 7% of clients admitted to burn centers. Drooling and
difficulty swallowing can mean that the client is about to lose his airway because of this
injury. Absence of breath sounds over the trachea and mainstem bronchi indicates
impending airway obstruction and demands immediate intubation. Knowing the level of
consciousness is important in assessing oxygenation to the brain. Ascertaining the time of
last food intake is important, in case intubation is necessary (the nurse will be more alert
for signs of aspiration). However, assessing for air exchange is the most important
intervention at this time. Measuring abdominal girth is not relevant in this situation.
REF: N/A
MSC:
Integrated Process: Nursing Process
(Implementation)
15. On assessment, the nurse notes that a client has burns inside the mouth and is wheezing.
Several hours later, the wheezing is no longer heard. What is the nurses next action?
a. Document the findings and reassess in 1 hour.
b. Loosen any constrictive dressings on the chest.
c. Raise the head of the bed to a semi-Fowlers position.
d. Gather appropriate equipment and prepare for intubation.
ANS: D
Clients with severe inhalation injuries may sustain such progressive obstruction that they
may lose effective movement of air. When this occurs, wheezing is no longer heard, and
neither are breath sounds. These clients can lose their airways very quickly, so prompt
action is needed. The client requires establishment of an emergency airway. Swelling
usually precludes intubation.
REF: N/A
MSC:
(Implementation)
16. A client who is receiving fluid resuscitation per the Parkland formula after a serious burn
continues to have urine output ranging from 0.2 to 0.25 mL/kg/hour. After the health care
provider checks the client, which order does the nurse question?
a. Increase IV fluids by 100 mL/hr.
b. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV push.
c. Continue to monitor urine output hourly.
d. Draw blood for serum electrolytes stat.
ANS: B
Test Bank
28-8
Postburn fluid needs are calculated initially by using a standardized formula such as the
Parkland formula. However, needs vary among clients, and the final fluid volume needed
is adjusted to maintain hourly urine output at 0.5 mL/kg/hr. Based on this clients
inadequate urine output, fluids need to be increased. The other orders are appropriate.
REF: N/A
Management)
17. A client is 24 hours post burn and has the following laboratory results. Which result does
the nurse report to the health care provider immediately?
a. Arterial pH, 7.32
b. Hematocrit, 52%
c. Serum potassium,7.5 mEq/L
d. Serum sodium, 131 mEq/L
ANS: C
The serum potassium level is changed to the degree that serious life-threatening
responses could result. With such a rapid rise in potassium level, the client is at high risk
for experiencing severe cardiac dysrhythmias and death. All the other findings are
abnormal but do not show the same degree of severity; they would be expected in the
emergent phase after a burn injury.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity (Reduction of Risk Potential
Laboratory Values) MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Analysis)
18. Ten hours after a client with 50% burns is admitted, her blood glucose level is 152
mg/dL. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Document the finding.
b. Obtain a family history for diabetes.
c. Repeat the glucose measurement.
d. Stop IV fluids containing dextrose.
ANS: A
Neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of the burn injury in the emergent phase
increases liver glucose production and release. An acute rise in the blood glucose level is
an expected client response and is helpful in the generation of energy needed for the
increased metabolism that accompanies this trauma. A family history of diabetes could
place her at higher risk for the disease, but this is not a priority at this time. The glucose
level is not high enough to warrant retesting. The cause of her elevated blood glucose is
not the IV fluid.
REF: N/A
Test Bank
28-9

Pathophysiology)
19. A client who was burned has crackles in both lung bases and a respiratory rate of 40
breaths/min and is coughing up blood-tinged sputum. Which action by the nurse takes
priority?
a. Administer digoxin.
b. Perform chest physiotherapy.
c. Document and reassess in an hour.
d. Place the client in an upright position.
ANS: D
Pulmonary edema can result from fluid resuscitation given for burn treatment. This can
occur even in a young healthy person. Placing the client in an upright position can relieve
lung congestion immediately before other measures can be carried out. Digoxin may be
given later to enhance cardiac contractility to prevent backup of fluid into the lungs.
Chest physiotherapy will not get rid of fluid.
REF: N/A
MSC:
(Implementation)
20. A client who is admitted after a thermal burn injury has the following vital signs: blood
pressure, 70/40; heart rate, 140 beats/min; and respiratory rate, 25 breaths/min. He is
pale, and it is difficult to find pedal pulses. Which action does the nurse take first?
a. Begin intravenous fluid resuscitation.
b. Check pulses with a Doppler device.
c. Obtain a complete blood count (CBC).
d. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
ANS: A
Hypovolemic shock is a common cause of death in the emergent phase of clients with
serious injury. Fluids can treat this problem. ECG and CBC will be taken to ascertain
whether a cardiac or bleeding problem is causing these vital signs. However, these are not
actions that the nurse would take immediately. Checking pulses would indicate perfusion
to the periphery, but this is not an immediate nursing action.
REF: N/A
MSC:
Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Analysis)
Test Bank
28-10
21. A client is brought to the emergency department by an emergency medical services

(EMS) squad after being burned with unknown chemicals. The clients body is covered
with a white, powdery substance, and the client cries out, Get this stuff off me! Its
burning me! Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Have the client take a shower, and bag all clothing.
b. Brush the substance off the client and remove clothes.
c. Call poison control to try to identify the chemical.
d. Start an IV line and prepare to administer analgesics.
ANS: B
A priority first action in burn care is to stop the burning process. Chemicals can continue
to burn the client even after they have been removed, so removing them from the client is
an important action. With unknown dry substances, adding water could potentiate their
action, so the best action is to brush off as much of the chemical as possible from the
client and clothing, then remove the clothing. Calling poison control would take too long
if the chemical could be identified, and analgesics should be given after the burning
process has been halted by removal of the offending substance.
REF: N/A
MSC:
(Implementation)
22. A client suffered a 45% total body surface area (TBSA) burn and was intubated. Twelve
hours later, bowel sounds were absent in all four abdominal quadrants. Which is the
nurses best action?
a. Administer a laxative.
b. Document the finding.
c. Prepare to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube.
d. Reposition the client on the right side.
ANS: C
Decreased or absent peristalsis is a frequent response during the emergent phase of burn
injury as a result of neural and hormonal compensation to the stress of injury. The result
is often a paralytic ileus. Clients who have burns greater than 25% TBSA or who are
intubated generally need to have an NG tube inserted.
REF: N/A
Potential for Alterations in Body Systems)
23. A client has experienced an electrical injury of the lower extremities. Which priority
assessment data should be obtained from this client?
Test Bank
a.
b.
c.
d.
28-11
Range of motion in all extremities

Heart rate, rhythm, and electrocardiogram (ECG)
Respiratory rate and pulse oximetry
Orientation to time, place, and person
ANS: B
The airway is not at any particular risk with this injury. Therefore, respiratory rate and
pulse oximetry are not priority assessments. Electrical current travels through the body
from the entrance site to the exit site and can seriously damage all tissues between the
two sites. Early cardiac damage from electrical injury includes irregular heart rate and
rhythm, and ECG changes. Range-of-motion and neurologic assessments are important;
however, the priority is to make sure that the heart rate and rhythm are adequate to
support perfusion to the brain and other vital organs.
REF: N/A
MSC:
Integrated Process: Nursing
Process (Assessment)
24. A client is receiving fluid resuscitation after a burn. Which finding indicates that fluid
resuscitation is adequate for this client?
a. Hematocrit = 60%
b. Heart rate = 130 beats/min
c. Increased peripheral edema
d. Urine output = 50 mL/hr
ANS: D
The fluid remobilization phase improves renal blood flow, increases diuresis, and restores
blood pressure and heart rate, as well as laboratory values, to more normal levels.
REF: N/A
Management)
MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Analysis)
25. The nurse provides wound care for a client 48 hours after a burn injury. To achieve the
desired outcome of the procedure, which action does the nurse perform first?
a. Apply silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) ointment.
b. Cover the area with an elastic wrap.
c. Place a synthetic dressing over the area.
d. Remove loose nonviable tissue.
ANS: D
Test Bank
28-12
All steps are part of the nonsurgical wound care for clients with burn injuries. The first
step in this process consists of removing exudates and necrotic tissue. This promotes
wound healing.
REF: N/A
Management)
26. Which nursing intervention is likely to be most helpful in providing adequate nutrition
while a client is recovering from a thermal burn injury?
a. Allowing the client to eat whenever he or she wants
b. Beginning parenteral nutrition high in calories
c. Including 3000 kcal/day of calories with meals
d. Providing a low-protein, high-fat diet
ANS: A
Clients should request food whenever they think they can eat, not just according to the
hospitals standard meal schedule. The nurse needs to work with a dietitian to provide a
high-calorie, high-protein diet to help with wound healing. Clients who can eat solid
foods should ingest as many calories as possible; they may need as many as 5000
kcal/day. Specific caloric requirements can be determined by the dietitian. Parenteral
nutrition may be given as a last resort because it is invasive and can lead to infectious and
metabolic complications.
REF: N/A
Potential for Complications from Surgical Procedures and Health Alterations)
27. The family of a client who has been burned asks when the client will no longer be at
greater risk for infection. What is the nurses best response?
a. As soon as the antibiotics have been finished.
b. As soon as albumin levels returns to normal.
c. When fluid remobilization has started.
d. When the burn wounds are closed.
ANS: D
Intact skin is a major barrier to infection and other disruptions in homeostasis. No matter
how much time has passed since the burn injury, the client remains at high risk for
infection as long as any area of skin is open.
REF: p. 512
MSC:
Integrated Process:
Test Bank
28-13
Teaching/Learning
28. A client with open burn wounds begins to have diarrhea. The client is found to have a
below-normal temperature, with a white blood cell count of 4000/mm3. Which action by
the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Continue to monitor the client.
b. Increase the temperature in the room.
c. Increase the rate of intravenous fluids.
d. Prepare to do a workup for sepsis.
ANS: D
These findings are associated with systemic Gram-negative infection and sepsis. To
verify that sepsis is occurring, cultures of the wound and blood must be taken to
determine the appropriate antibiotic to be started. Continuing just to monitor the situation
can lead to septic shock. Increasing the temperature in the room may make the client
more comfortable, but the priority is finding out whether the client has sepsis and treating
it before it becomes a shock situation. The rate of intravenous fluids may be increased to
replace fluid losses associated with diarrhea, but this is not the priority action.
REF: N/A
29. The nurse uses topical gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) on a clients burn injury. Which
laboratory value does the nurse monitor?
a. Creatinine
b. Red blood cells
c. Sodium
d. Magnesium level
ANS: A
Gentamicin is nephrotoxic, and sufficient amounts can be absorbed through burn wounds
to affect kidney function. Any client receiving gentamicin by any route should have
kidney function monitored. Topical gentamicin will not affect the red blood cell count or
the sodium or magnesium level.
REF: N/A
TherapiesAdverse Effects/Contraindications/Side Effects/Interactions)
30. The nurse has been teaching a client about skin grafting procedures. What statement
indicates that the client needs further education about allografts?
Test Bank
a.
b.
c.
d.
28-14
Because the graft is my own skin, there is no chance it wont take.

For a few days after surgery, the donor sites will be painful.
I will have some scarring in the area where the skin is removed.
I am still at risk for infection after the procedure until the burn heals.
ANS: A
Factors other than tissue type, such as circulation and infection, influence whether and
how well a graft will work. The client should be prepared for the possibility that not all
grafting procedures will be successful. Donor sites will be painful after surgery, scarring
can occur in the area where skin is removed for grafting, and the client is still at risk for
infection.
REF: N/A
Management)
31. Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate to reduce a clients pain after a burn
injury?
a. Administering morphine sulfate 4 mg intravenously
b. Administering morphine sulfate 4 mg intramuscularly
c. Applying ice to the burned area for 20 minutes
d. Avoiding tactile stimulation near the burned area
ANS: A
Drug therapy for pain management requires opioid and non-opioid analgesics. The IV
route is used because of problems with absorption from the muscle and the stomach.
Tactile stimulation can be used for pain management. For the client to avoid shivering,
the room must be kept warm, and ice should not be used. Ice would decrease blood flow
to the area.
REF: N/A
TherapiesExpected Actions/Outcomes)
32. The nurse assesses a client in the burn unit after the client was repositioned by the
nursing assistant. The nurse intervenes after finding the client repositioned in what
manner?
a. Supine with one pillow behind the head
b. Semi-Fowlers position with arms elevated
c. Wrists extended to 30 degrees in a splint
d. A towel roll placed under the neck or shoulder
Test Bank
28-15
ANS: A
Clients must be positioned to prevent contractures. The function that would be disrupted
by a contracture to the posterior neck is flexion. The client should not be positioned with
a pillow behind the head; this would increase flexion. The nurse must intervene and
position the client so that neck flexion does not occur. The other options include proper
positioning techniques that will help prevent contracture.
REF: N/A
33. A client has severe burns around the right hip. Which position does the nurse instruct the
nursing assistant to use to maintain maximum function of this joint?
a. Hip maintained in 30-degree flexion
b. Hip at zero flexion with leg flat
c. Knee flexed at 30-degree angle
d. Leg abducted with foam wedge
ANS: B
Maximum function for ambulation occurs when the hip and the leg are maintained at full
extension with neutral rotation. Although the client does not have to spend 24 hours in
this position, he or she should be in this position (in bed or standing) longer than with the
hip in any degree of flexion.
REF: Chart 28-6, p. 537
34. A client who suffered burns in a house fire reports a headache and is not consistently
oriented to time. Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Increase the clients oxygen and obtain blood gases.
b. Draw blood for a carboxyhemoglobin level.
c. Increase the clients intravenous fluid rate.
d. Perform a thorough Mini-Mental Status Examination.
ANS: B
These manifestations are consistent with moderated carbon monoxide poisoning. This
client is at risk for carbon monoxide poisoning because he or she was in a fire in an
enclosed space. The other options will not provide information related to carbon
monoxide poisoning.
REF: N/A
Test Bank
28-16
TOP: Client Needs Category; Physiological Integrity (Reduction of Risk Potential

Laboratory Tests) MSC: Integrated Process: Nursing Process (Analysis)
35. A client who has had a full-thickness burn is being discharged from the hospital. Which
information is most important for the nurse to provide before discharge?
a. How to maintain home smoke detectors
b. Joining a community reintegration program
c. Learning to perform dressing changes
d. Options available for scar removal
ANS: C
Critical for the goal of progression toward independence for the client is teaching clients
and family members to perform care tasks such as dressing changes. All of the other
options are important in the rehabilitation stage. However, dressing changes have priority.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Health Promotion and Maintenance (Self-Care)
36. An older adult client with burns has a white blood cell count of 10,000/mm3. The client is
afebrile with a heart rate of 110 beats/min, a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min, and blood
pressure of 112/68 mm Hg. The clients wound is pale, and edema is noted in the
surrounding tissues. Which intervention by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. Assess the clients skin for signs of adequate perfusion.
b. Calculate intake and output ratio for the last 24 hours.
c. Prepare to obtain blood and wound cultures.
d. Place the client in an isolation room.
ANS: C
Older clients have a decreased immune response, so they may not exhibit signs that their
immune system is actively fighting an infection such as fever or an increased white blood
cell count. They also are at higher risk for sepsis arising from a localized wound
infection. The wound shows signs of local infection, so the nurse should assess for this
and for systemic infection before the client manifests sepsis. The other options would
yield important data but do not take priority over determining whether the client has an
infection.
REF: N/A
MSC:
Integrated Process: Nursing
Process (Analysis)
SHORT ANSWER
Test Bank
28-17
1. A client who weighs 90 kg and had a 50% burn injury at 10 AM arrives at the hospital at
noon. Using the Parkland formula, calculate the rate that the nurse should use to deliver
fluid when the IV is started at noon.
ANS:
1500 mL/hr
The Parkland formula is 4 mL/kg/%total body surface area (TBSA) burn. This client
needs 18,000 mL of fluid during the first 24 hours post burn. Half of the calculated fluid
replacement needs to be administered during the first 8 hours after injury, and half during
the next 16 hours. This client was burned at 10 AM, and fluid was not started until noon.
Therefore, 9000 mL must be infused over the next 6 hours at a rate of 1500 mL/hr to
meet the criteria of receiving half the calculated dose during the first 8 post burn hours.
REF: N/A
Management)
OTHER
1. A client is in the emergency department with a burn calculated to be 35% TBSA. The
nurse prepares the client for an IV insertion in which location?
Test Bank
ANS:
A [subclavian vein]
28-18
Test Bank
28-19
Clients with burns greater than 25% TBSA are at great risk for hypovolemic shock and
need fluid resuscitation. The large volume of fluids this client needs will be delivered at a
very rapid rate, so the IV needs to be a central venous catheter instead of a peripheral IV.
All other sites are peripheral sites.
REF: N/A
TOP: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity (Physiological Adaptation-Medical
Emergencies)

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Ignatavicius: Medical-Surgical Nursing, 7th Edition

Chapter 28: Care of Patients with Burns

DIF: Cognitive Level: Application/Applying or higher

TOP: Client Needs Category: Physiological Integrity (Physiological Adaptation

21. A client is brought to the emergency department by an emergency medical services

Range of motion in all extremities

Because the graft is my own skin, there is no chance it wont take.

TOP: Client Needs Category; Physiological Integrity (Reduction of Risk Potential

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