Physics

ELECTROSTATICS
TEST 1.1
PART - I - Answer the following:-
15X3=45
1.What is electrostatics? Define its branches.

2.Define electric lines of force
3.What is meant by dielectric polarization?
4.Write a note on Microwave oven.
5.Define electric flux. Give its unit.
6.Define one farad.
7.Why it is safer to be inside a car than standing under a tree
during lightning?
8.What do you mean by quantization of charges?
9.Define electric dipole moment. Write its unit.
10.Define electric potential energy.
11.Define electric field intensity. Write its units.
12.Explain the principle of superposition.
13.Distinguish between electric potential and
potential difference.
14.Define unit of potential difference.
15.Define equipotential surface.
PART - II Answer all the questions:-
3X5=15
1.Derive an expression for electric potential at a point due to

a point charge.
2.Using gauss law derive an expression for electric field due
to two parallel charged sheet.
3.Derive an expression for effective capacitance of capacitors
connected in parallel.
PART - III - Answer all the questions:-
2X10=20
1.obtain an expression for electric potential at a point due to

an electric dipole.
2.Define Gauss law. using gauss law derive expression for
(i)field due to uniformly charged spherical shell.(ii)field due to
an infinite long straight charged wire
ELECTROSTATICS TEST 1.2

PART-I - Answer all the questions:-
15X3=45
1.State the applications of property of attraction or

repulsion between charged bodies.
2.What are the applications of capacitors?
3.State coulombs law in electrostatics.
4.Define electric field. How will you detect it?
5.Explain the principle of superposition.
6.Define electric lines of force.
7.State any four properties of electric lines of force.
8.What is an equipotential surface?
9.Define electric flux.give its unit.
10.What is meant by dielectric polarization?
11.Distinguish between electric potential and potential
difference
12.Write a note on microwave oven
13.Differentiate conductors and insulators.
14.What is carona discharge? What are its advantages?
15.Why it is safer to be inside a car than standing under a
tree during lightning?
PART - II - Answer all the questions:-
3X5=15
1.State and obtain expression for coulombs law in

electrostatics.
2.Define electric lines of force. State properties of electric
lines of force.
3.Derive an expression for effective capacitance of
capacitors connected in series
PART-III - Answer all the questions:-
2X10=20
1.Obtain an expression for electric field due to an electric

dipole at a point on its Equatorial line.
2.Derive an expression for capacitance of parallel plate
capacitor.(i)with dielectric (ii)without dielectric
ELECTROSTATICS
TEST1.3
15X3=45
1.Define electric field intensity. Write its units.

2.Define potential difference. Write its units.
3.Define electric potential energy.
4.Define gauss law.
5.What is electrostatic shielding.
6.Define capacitance of a conductor.
7.Define non-polar molecule. Give example.
8.Define one farad.
9.What is electrostatic induction.
10.What do you mean by quantization of charges?
11.Define one coulomb.
12.Define electric lines of force.
13.Define electric dipole moment. Write its unit.
14.Write a note on microwave oven

15.Define torque experienced by dipole in uniform electric
field.
PART- II - Answer all the questions:-
3X5=15
1.Using gauss law obtain an experssion for field due to

infinte charged plane sheet.
2.Write a note on lightning conductor.
3.What are dielectrics? Explain the effect of placingdielectric
slab in between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor.
PART-III - Answer all the questions:-
2X10=20
1.Obtain an expression for electric field due to an electric

dipole at a point on its axial line.
2.State the principal and explain the construction and
working of vande-graff generator.
ELECTROSTATICS
TEST1.4
15X3=45
1.State coulombs law in electrostatics

2.Define electric field. How will you detect it?
3.State any four properties of electric lines of force.
4.State the applications of property of attraction or
repulsion between charged bodies.
5.Define equipotential surface.
6.State of conservation of charges.

7.Define polar molecule. Give example.
8.Define gauss law.
9.Define one farad.
10.Define torque experienced by dipole in uniform electric
field.
11.Define capacitance of a conductor.
12.Define electric dipole and dipole moment. Write its units.
13.Define one coulomb.
14.Differentiate conductors and insulators.
15.What is carona discharge? What are its
advantages?
PART- II - Answer all the questions:-
3X5=15
1.Define electric lines of force. State properties of electric

lines of force.
2.State and obtain expression for coulombs law in
electrostatics
3.Write a note on lightning conductor.
PART
- III - Answer all the questions:-
2X10=20
1.Define Gauss law. using gauss law derive expression for (i)
field due to two parallel charged sheet.(ii) field due to infinte
charged plane sheet.
2.Derive an expression for effective capacitance of
capacitors connected in series and parallel.
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
TEST 2.1
15X3=45
1.Define Electromotive Force?

2.Define Electric Current?
3.State Ohms Laws?
4.Define Drift Velocity?
5.Define Mobility?
6.What Are Carbon Resistors?What Are Colour Code For
Carbon Resistors?
7.Define Resistance Of A Conductor?
8.Define Current Density ?
9.Define Tolerance?Give Examples ?
10Define Wattmeter?
11Define Internal Resiastance Of The Cell?
12Define Super Conductor And Super Conductivity?
13.State Any Four Application Of Super
Conductors?
14.Define Electrical Resistivity Of A Material?
15.Define Transition Or Critical Temperature ?
5-MARKS
7X5=35
1.State the application of super conductors ?

2.Obtain the relation between current and drift velocity?
3.Explain kirchoffs 1 law and it expression?
4.State and verify faradays 1 law of electrolysis ?
5.Explain the reaction of electrodes of Daniel cell?
6.Define electric power and electric energy?
7.Explain the reaction of electrodes of lachlanche
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
TEST 2.2
PART-I - Answer all the questions:15X3=45
1.Define conductor in terms of resistivity?
2.Define insulators in terms of resistivity?
3.Define semiconductors in terms of resistivity?
4.Define temperature coefficient of resistance?
5.What are the changes observed at transition
temperature?
6.State kirchoffs 1 law in current electricity?
7.State kirchoffs 2 law in current electricity?
8.Define mobility?
9.Explain equivalent resistance of resistor
connected in series?
10.Explain equivalent resistance of resistor connected in
parallel?
11. Define drift velocity?
12.Define faradays 1 law?
13.Define faradays 2 law?
14.Define wattmeter?
15.Electric energy and electric power?
5-MARKS
7X5=35
1.Explain kirchoffs 2 law and it expression?

2.State and verify faradays 2 law of electerolysis?
3.Explain the reaction of voltaic cell?
4.Explain the reaction of lead acid accumulator cell?
5.Explain wheatstones bridge and derive

expression for bridge balance?
6.Explain the principle of potentiometer .how can
emf of two cells be copared using
potentiometer?
7.Explain about superconductivity?
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
TEST 2.3
PART-I - Answer all the questions:1.Draw the circuit for wheatstones bridge?
2.Draw the circuit for metre bridge?
3.Draw the circuit for potentiometer?.differ
4.Difference between primary and secondary cell?
5.Difference between emf and potential
difference?
6.Define electromotive force ?
7.Define electrolysis?
8.Define kirchoffs current law?
9.Define kirchoffs voltage law?
10.Define sign convention of kirchoffs 1 law?
11.Define sign convention of kirchoffs 2 law?
12.Define resistance of a conductor?
13.State ohms law?
14.State any 4 applications of superconductors?
15.Define electric current?
15X3=45
5-MARKS
7X5=35
1.Define mobility and drift velocity and it

expression?
2.Define carbon resistors ?give examples?
3.Define resistors in series and it expression?
4.Define resistors in parallel and it expression?
5.Define internal resistance of a cell using
voltmeteter?
6.Define the term specific resistance .how will you
find this using a metre bridge?
7.Explain the reaction of Daniel cell?
CURRENT ELECTRICITY
TEST 2.4
15X3=45
1.Difference between electric energy and electric power?

2.Define temperature coefficient of resistance?
3.Define tolerance.Give example.
4.What are the changes observed at transition temperature?
5.Draw the circuit for wheatstone bridge?
6.Define current density?
7.What are carbon resistors.what are colour codes for carbon
resistors?
8.The effective resistance are 10ohm,2.4ohm.when two
resistors are connected in series and parallel what are the
resistances of individual resistors?
9.Define resistivity of a material

10.How are material classified based on resistivity?
11.Why is copper wire not suitable for a potentiometer?
12.The colour of a carbon resistors is
orange,orange,orange what is the value of resister?
13.Explain the flow of charges in a metallic
conductor?
14.10ohm resistance is connected in series with cell of
emf 10V.A voltmeter is connected in parallel to a cell and
it reads 9.9V.find
internal resistance of cell?
15.An incandescent lamp is operated at 240V and the
current is 0.5A what is the resistance of the lamp.
5 MARK
7X5=35
1.Explain and verification of faradays law of electrolysis?

2.Explain about superconductivity?
3. Find the current flowing across three resistor
3ohm,5ohm and 2ohm connected in parallel to
15V.supply.Also find the effective resistance and total
current drawn from the supply?
4.The resistance of a platinum wire at 0 degree Celsius is
4V.what will be the resistance of the wire at 100degree
celsius. If the temperature
coefficient of resistance
of platinum is 0.0038/
degree celsius.
5.How can emf of two cells be compared using
potentiometer?
6.Explain Wheatstonebridge and derive expression for bridge
balance.
7.Find expression for effective resistance of resistor
connected in parallel?
EFFECT OF ELECTRIC CURRENT

TEST 3.1
PART-1 - ANSWER ALL THE QUESTION: 5X3=45
1.State joule law of heating?
2.What is Nichrome? Why is it used as heating element?
3.State Seebeck effect?
4.Define peltier coefficient?
5.State Biot savart law?
6.What is magnetic lorentz force?
7.What is the principle of cyclotron.
8.State flemings left hand rule?
9.How will you convert galvanometer into voltmeter?
10.Define end rule.
11.Define gyromagnetic ratio.
12.Define magnetic moment.
13.Define current sensitivity of the galvanometer
14.Define amperes circuital law.
15.write note on thermopile.
Part-II - Answer all the question:
3x5=15
1.State and explain Thomson effect and Thomson coefficient .
2.Explain Biotsavart law
3.Explain with graph for Neutral & Inversion temperature
PART-III - Answer all the question:
2X10=20
1.Explain in detail the principle ,construction and theory of

moving coil galvanometer.
2.Obtain an expression for the magnetic induction at a point
due to an infinitely

TEST 3.2
Part-I-Answer all the question
15x3=45
1.write note on fuse wire.

2.define neutral temperature.
3.state peltier effect.
4.state biot savart law.
5.state right hand palm rule.
6.state Maxwell right hand corks screw rule.
7.define ampere by using force between two parallel
wires.
8.Define voltage sensitivity of the galvanometer
9.State flemings right hand rule
10.state limitation of cyclotron.
11.Define ampere.
12.How will you convert galvanometer into
voltmeter?
13.Define Thomson effect.
14.why ammeter is connected in series?
15.What is Nichrome? Why it is used as a heating element?
Part-II - Answer all the questions:
3x5=15
1.Explain the working of thermopile.

2.Explain seebeck effect.
3.Define magnetic lorentz force.
Part- III - Answer all the questions:
2x10=20
1.Explain in detail the principle ,construction and theory of

tangent coil galvanometer?
2.Explain the force experienced by a charged particle
moving in a uniform magnetic field?

TEST 3.3
PART-I - Answer all the questions:
15X3=45
1.Define Thomson coefficient?

2.What is magnetic lorentz force?
3.state limitation of cyclotron
4.How current sensitivity of the galvanometer is
increased?
5.State flemings left hand rule.
6.Define Inversion temperature.
7. state biot savart law.
8.Define magnetic moment.
9.state joules law.
10.State Seebeck effect.
11.write the note on thermopile?
12.state Maxwell right hand corks screw rule.
13.state right hand palm rule.
14.write note on fuse wire.
15 Define current sensitivity of the galvanometer .
Part-II - Answer all the questions
3X5=15
1.explain with graph for Neutral & Inversion temperature.
2.Explain how will you convert galvanometer into

ammeter?
3.explain Seebeck effect.
Part-III - Answer all the questions
2x10=20
1.explain principle , construction and theory of cyclotron.
2.explain joules calorimeter experiment to verify Joules law
of heating?

TEST 3.4
PART-I - Answer all the questions
15X3=45
1.Define Neutral Temperature.
2.Define Ampere.
3.State Right Hand Palm Rule.
4.How Will You Convert Galvanometer Into Voltmeter?
5.State Seebeck Effect .
6.Define Magnetic Moment.
7.Define Amperes Circuital Law.
8.Define End Rule.
9. Define Thomson Effect.
10.State Joules Law.
11.State Flemings Left Hand Rule.
12.Define Gyromagnetic Ratio.

13.State Maxwell Right Hand Corks Screw Rule.
14.State Peltier Effect.
15.Write Note On Fuse Wire.
Part-II - Answer all the questions
3X5=15
1.Explain Seebeck effect .

2.Explain the working of thermopile.
3.Explain with graph for Neutral & Inversion temperature.
Part-III - Answer all the questions
2X10=20
1. Deduce the relation for magnetic induction at a point
along the axis of a circular coil carrying current.
2.Explain the force between two long parallel current
carrying conductors.
LESSON-4
ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION AND ALTERNATING CURRENT
TEST-4.1
1.State flemmings right hand rule .
2.What is Q-factor?
3.Define rms value of AC.
15X3=45
4.What is eddy current?

5.What is the principle of AC generator?
6.Define mutual induction.
7.What is poly phase AC generator?
8.Why a dc ammeter cannot read ac?
9.State the methods of producing induced emf.
10.State lenz law.
11.What is inductive reactance?
12.A capacitor blocks dc but allows ac.-Explain
13Define power factor.
14.On which factors does the coefficient of mutual induction
between a pair of coils depends?
15.What is resonant frequency in LCR-circuit?
16.Define electro magnetic induction.
17.Distinguish step up and step down transformer.
18.Define the application of eddy current in induction
furnace.
19.What is alternating current?
20.Define efficiency of a transformer.
LESSON-4
TEST-4.2
15X3=45
1.Define magnetic flux.

2.What is capacitive reactance?
3.Define self inductance. Write its unit.
4.State faradays second law of electromagnetic
induction.
5.What happens to the value of current in RLC series
circuit if the frequency of the source is increased?
6.What is flux loss in transformer?
7.What is the coefficient of mutual induction?
8.What is the application of eddy current in
inductive motors?
9.state flemmings left hand rule.
10.Define one henry by self inductance.
11.What is self induction?
12.What is hysterisis loss?
13.HOw WILL YOU MINIMISE ENERGY LOSSES IN
TRANSFORMER?
14.What is the energy stored in a inductor?
15.Define armature of AC generator.
16.What is copper loss?
17.Define power in a capacitive circuit.
18.What is acceptor circuit?
19.Define choke coil.
20.Differentiate self induction and mutual induction.
LESSON-4
TEST-4.3
15X3=45
1.Define hysterisis loss.

2.Write the application of eddy current in dead beat
galvanometer?
3.State faradays law of em.
4.What is the coefficient of mutual induction?
5.What are the methods of producing induced emf?
6.What are the essential parts of an AC generator?
7.Write the working of speedo meter.
8.What is iron loss?
9.Differentiate self inductance and mutual
inductance.
10.Define quality factor.
11.Define phase voltage and line voltage in AC.
12.What is the purpose of using field magnets in AC.
13.Define self induction.
14.Define magnetic flux and write its expression.
15.Define one henry.
16.What is the power drawn by a pure inductive circuit from
ac mains? Explain it.
17.Explain the principle of transformer.
18.What are radio frequency chokes?
19.How is emf induced by changing the magnetic induction?
20.Define the coefficient of self induction?
LESSON-4
TEST-4.4
15X3=45
1.Define mutual induction.

2.The alternating current cannot produce chemical effects of
a current.Why?
3.What are the uses of a transformer?
4.Derive an expression for faradays law.
5.Write the advantages of AC over DC.
6.List out the various losses of energy in transformer.
7.Write the principle of AC generator.
8.What are the disadvantages of AC over DC?
9.What is acceptor circuit?
10.Define step-up transformer.
Define coefficient of self induction.
11.Draw the diagram of A.C. generator.
12.Write the application of eddy current in
electromagnetic brakes.
13.Write the factors depending on the coefficient of mutual
induction between a pair of coils.
14. Define rms value of AC.
15.Derive the expression for emf induced by changing the

magnetic induction.
16Draw the diagram of emf induced by changing the
orientation of the coil.
17.What is the use of brushes in AC generator?
18.What is copper loss?
19.Define choke coil.
5. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE AND WAVE OPTICS

TEST 5.1
PART-I - Answer all questions :-
15X3=45
1.what are electromagnetic waves?

2.state four characteristic of electromagneticwaves?
3. List the sources of electromagnetic wave spectrum?
4.List the various regions of electromagnetic spectrum?
5.What are the uses of radio waves?
6.What are the uses of infra redwaves?
7.What are the uses of ultra violetradiation?
8.What are the uses of x rays and gammarays?
9.Define emission spectra?
10Define spectrum of sodium?
11Define absorption spectra?
12.What are the sources of emission spectra?
13.What is fraunhofer lines?

14.Define fluorescence?
15.Define phosphorescence?
16.Difference between emission spectra and absorption
spectra?
PART-II - Answer all questions:-
4X5=20
1.State the characteristic of electromagnetic waves?

2.Explain emission and absorption spectra and its sources?
3.What are fraunhofer lines? Explain fluorescence and
phosphorescence?
4.Explain pile of plates?

TEST 5.2
PART-I - Answer all questions:15X3=45
1.What are the two modes of propagation of energy?
2.What are the demerits of corpuscular theory?
3.What is quantum or photon?
4.What is rayleigh scattering and scattering law?
5.Why the sky appear blue at noon?
6.Why the sky appear red at sunrise or sunset?
7.Define stokes line?

8.Define antistokes line?
9. Define raman effect?
10.Define raman spectrum?
11.Define raman shift or frequency?
12.Define tyndall scattering?
13.State the applications of raman spectrum?
14.Define wavefront?
15. Distinguish spherical and plane wavefront?
16.Write down demerits of wavetheory?
PART-II - Answer all questions:3X5=15
1 Explain corpuscular theory?
2.Explain the formation of stokes and antistokes
ramaneffect?
3.Explain scattering of light?
line by

TEST 5.3
PART-I - Answer all questions:-
15X3=45
1. Define Huygens principle?

2. Define superposition principle?
3. State the conditions for total internal reflection?
4. What is polarizing angle and critical angle?
5. Define coherent source?
6. Two monochromatic source cannot act as a coherent
source. Give reason?
7. Define constructive interference?
8. Define destructive interference?
9. Define sustained interference?
10.
Write the conditions for sustained interference?
11.
Explain band width?
12.
Write the conditions for obtain clear and broad
interference bands?
13.
What is newtons rings?
14.
Why the central fringes of newtons rings appears
dark?
15.
Distinguish fresnel and fraunhofer diffraction?
PART-II -Answer all questions:4X5=20
1.
2.
3.
4.
Difference between interference and diffraction?

Explain polarization by reflection and Brewster;s law?
Explain double refraction?
Explain the formation of newtons rings?

TEST 5.4
1. Distinguish between interference and diffraction?
2. Define polarization?
3. Define plane of polarization and plane of vibration?
4. Define diffraction?
5. State brewsters law?
6. State double refraction?
7. Define optic axis?
8. What are uni and biaxial crystal?
9. What is ordinary and extraordinary rays?
10.
Define polaroids?
11.
State any four uses of polaroids?
12.
Define optical activity?
13.
Explain the two types of optically active
substances?
14.
Define specific rotation?
15.
Explain the factors of optical rotation depends upon?
PART- II - Answer all questions:4X5=20
1. Explain nicol prism?
2. What is polaroids and uses of polaroids?
3. Explain optical activity and specific rotation?
4. Describe an experiment to demonstrate transverse nature
of light?
Lesson 6 Atomic
Physics
TEST 6.1
1. What Are Cathode Rays ?
2. What Are The Drawbacks Of Thomson Atom Model?
3. What Is Lyman Series?
4. What Is Pfund Series?
5. State 4properties Of Canal Rays?
6. What Are The Characteristics Of Anode Used In X-Ray
Production?
7. What Are Hard X-Rays?
8. What Are Continuous And Characteristic X-Rays?
9. State Medical Uses Of X-Rays?
10.
State How X-Rays Are Used In Scientific Research?
11.
What Is Normal Population?
12.
What Is Spontaneous Emission?
13.
State The Drawbacks Of Sommerfield Atom Model?
14.
Draw The Diagram Of Ruby Laser?
15.
Write The Application Of Moseleys Law?
5-Mark:
7X5=35
1. What Are The Application Of X-Rays ?
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Define Braggs X-Ray Spectrometer?

Derive The Radius Of The Electron In Nth Orbit?
What Are The Properties Of X-Rays?
Define Braggs Law For X-Ray Diffraction?
What Are The Properties Of Cathode Rays?
What Are The Production Of X-Rays?
10-Mark:
2X10=20
1. With The Help Of Energy Level Diagram Explain The

Working Of He-Ne Laser?
2. Describe Millikans Oil Drop Method To Determine The
Charge Of An Electron?
Lesson 6 Atomic
TEST 6.1
Physics
15X3=45
1. Draw The Diagram Of Discharge Tube Used In

Thomsons Experiment?
2. State The Applications Of Laser In Industrial
Field?
3. What Are The Conditions To Achieve Laser Action?
4. What Are Soft X-Rays?
5. State Moseleys Law?
6. What Is Known As Pumping?
7. What Are The Characteristics Of Anode Used In
Ray Production?
8. What Is Paschen Series?
X-
9. State The Four Properties Of Canal Rays?

10.
State The Postulates Of Bohr Atom Model?
11.
State The Drawbacks Of Thomson Atom Model?
12.
What Is Stimulated Emission?
13.
State How X-Rays Are Used In Scientific
Research?
14.
Draw The Diagram Of Coolidge Tube?
15.
What Are The Two Important Facts Of Laue
Experiment?
5-Mark:
7X5=35
1. What Are The Properties Of Cathode Rays?
2. What Are The Production Of X-Rays?
3. Define The Spectral Series Of Hydrogen Atom?
4. What Are The Applications Of Laser?
5. Write A Note On Braggs X-Ray Spectrometer?
6. Derive The Radius Of The Nth Orbit Of The
Electron?
7. What Are The Applications Of X-Rays?
10-Mark:
2X10=20
1. Describe The Millikans Oil Drop Method To Determine The
Charge Of An Electron?
2. Explain Laser And Laser Action?
Lesson 6 Atomic
TEST 6.3
Physics
15X3=45
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
How Electric Current Passed Through The Gas?

State 4 Properties Of Cathode Rays?
Principle Of Millikans Oil Drop Method ?
What Is Brackett Series?
Define (I)Ionization Potential Energy.
(II)Excitation Potential Energy.
6. What Are Soft X-Rays?
7. Draw The Diagram Of Coolidge Tube.
8. State Industial Application Of X-Rays?
9. What Are The Conditions To Achieve Laser Action?
10.
What Is Known As Pumping?
11.
State 4 Properties Of X-Rays?
12.
What Is Stimulated Absorption?
13.
State Moseleys Law?
14.
State The Postulates Of Bohr Atom Model?
15.
What Is Laser?State Its Characteristics?
5-Mark:
7X5=35
1. Write The Application Of Laser?
2. Define Braggs Law For X-Ray Diffraction?
3. Derive The Energy Of An Electron In Nth Orbit?
4. What Are The Application Of X-Rays?
5. What Are The Properties Of Cathode Rays?
6. What Are The Production Of X-Rays?
7. What Are The Spectral Series Of Hydrogen Atom?
10-Mark:
2X10=20
1. Explain The Working Of Ruby Laser With Neat
Sketch?
2. Explain The J.J.Thomson Method For Determining The
Specific Charge Of An Electron?
Lesson 6 Atomic
Physics
TEST 6.4
15X3=45
1. State The Difference Between Spontaneous And

Stimulated Emission?
2. Applications Of Laser In Medical Field?
3. List The 4 Properties Of X-Rays?
4. Write Note On Holography?
5. Draw The Diagram Of He-Ne Laser And Its Energy Level
Diagram?
6. State The Characteristics Of Laser?
7. Scientific And Engineering Applications Of Laser?
8. What Are Canal Rays?
9. What Is Balmer Series?
10.
How Electric Current Passed Through The Gas?
11.
How Will You Detect X-Rays?
12.
What Is Inverted Population?
13.
Draw The Diagram Of Coolidge Tube?
14.
State The Principle Of Millikans Oil Drop Method?
15.
State The Applications Of Moseleys Law?
5-Mark:
7x5=35
1. What Are The Properties Of Canal Rays?
2. What Are The Properties Of X-Rays?
3. Derive The Radius Of The Electron In The n th Orbit?
4. What Are The Applications Of X-Rays?
5. Define Spectral Series Of Hydrogen Atom?
6. Define Braggs Law For X-Ray Diffraction?
7. Derive The Energy Of Electron In Nth Orbit?
10-Mark:
2x10=20
1. Describe The J.J.Thomson Method For Determining The

Specific Charge (E/M)Of An Electron?
2. Describe The Working Of Ruby-Laser With Neat Sketch?
LESSON 7
DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER AND
RELATIVITITY
TEST 7.1
3 MARKS:
10*3=30
TOTAL = 50
1. What is photoelectric effect?

2. What is saturation current?
3. What is cut-off potential?
4. What is threshold frequency?
5. What are the laws of photoelectric emission?
6. What is work function of photoelectric emission?
7. What are the types of photoelectric cells?
8. Write any four applications of photoelectric cells?
9. What is the use of burglar alarm?
10.
What is the use of fire alarm?
5 MARKS:
4*5=20
1. Give an account on the effect of potential

difference on the photoelectric current.
2. Give a brief account on the effect of incident
radiation on stopping potential.
3. Derive Einsteins photoelectric equation.
4. Derive De Broglie wave length of matter waves.
LESSON 7
RELATIVITITY
TEST 7. 2
TOTAL=50
3 MARKS
10*3=30
1. What are matter waves?
2. What are the uses of electron microscope?
3. State the limitations of electron microscope.
4. What is the concept of space by Newtonian
mechanism?
5. Write the concept of time by Newtonian mechanics?
6. What is mean by frame of reference?
7. Define Inertial (or) unaccelerated frame?
8. What are Non-Inertial (or) accelerated frame?
9. What is special theory of relativity?
10.
What is lorentzfitzerald contraction?
5 MARKS
4*5=20
1. Give the laws of photoelectric emission? What is
photoelectric effect?
2. State all applications of photoelectric cells? What
is
photoelectric cell?
3. Give the De Broglie wavelength of electron?
4. What is an electron microscope? State its construction,
working, limitations and uses.
LESSON 7
RELATIVITITY
TEST 7.3
3 MARKS
1.
2.
3.
4.
TOTAL- 50
10*3=30
What is called time dilation?

What is meant by mass variation?
What are photons? Who discovered them?
Photon is neither particle nor a wave why?
5. How the energy of photon is used in photoelectric

effect?
6. Derive Einsteins photoelectric equation.
7. If a body moves with a velocity of light, what will
be its mass? Comment your result.
8. Give difference between inertial and non inertial
frames.
9. What are the factors of photoelectric effect?
10.
Give the diagram of electron microscope.
5 MARKS
4*5=20
1. Give the construction and working of photo

emissive cell.
2. Give Einsteins mass energy equivalence.
3. What is called length contraction?
4. What is called time dilation?
LESSON 7
RELATIVITITY
TEST 7.4
3 MARKS
TOTAL-50
10*3=30
1. Define saturation current.

2. What is a quanta?
3. Give mass variation.
4. What is photoelectric work function?
5. Give the diagram of length contraction.
6. Give the diagram of photo emissive cell.
7. Give the conformation of Bohrs postulates.
8. Give the effect of intensity of incident radiation
photoelectric current.
9. What is stopping potential?
10.
Give the photoelectric effect.
5 MARKS
4*5=20
1. Describe the Hallawachs experiment to show
photoelectric effect.
2. Derive De Broglie wavelength of electron.
3. Give the effect of intensity of incident radiation.
4. Explain the following:
(I)
Frame of reference.
(II) Types of frames.
(III) Postulates of special theory of relativity.
on
LESSON 7
RELATIVITITY
TEST
3 MARKS
7.5
TOTAL-80
10*3=30
1. Mention the limitations of electron microscope.

2. What is called threshold frequency?
3. Mention any three application of photoelectric
cells?
4. If a body moves with the velocity of light, what
will be its mass? Comment your result.
5. Explain the experimental verification of Einsteins
photoelectric equation.
6. Mention the uses of electron microscope.
7. State frame of reference.
8. State the concept of mass and time by Newtonian
mechanics.
9. Define work function of a photo metal.
10.
Define mass variation.
5 MARKS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
10*5=50
Derive Einsteins photoelectric equation.

Explain length contraction.
State law of photoelectric emission.
Derive Einsteins mass energy equivalence.
Explain construction and working of electron
microscope.
6. Derive expression for the wavelength of electron by using
De Broglie matter waves.
7. Derive an expression for De Broglie wave length of matter

waves.
8. Define work function. State the law of photoelectric
emission.
9. State photo electric effect and its laws.
10.
State the working and application of
photoelectric
cells.
8. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
Q.P.NO:8.1
I. 3 marks
1. What are Isotopes? Give example.
2. Write a note on Nuclear size.
3. What is Mass Defect?
4. What is Binding Energy?
5. State the properties of Nuclear force.
6. Define Half life period.Write the expression.
7. State the similar properties of alpha ,beta ,gamma rays?
8. Define curie.
9. Define the types of Neutrons.
10.
What are the effects of radiation to human organism?
11.
What are Particle accelerator?
12. What is Nuclear fission.Give example.
13. What is Nuclear Reactor? State its essential
components.
14. List some reactors and their fuel.
15. What are Cosmic rays?
16. Nuclear force is not electrostatic in nature Why?
II.5 marks
1. Draw and explain BE/A curve.
2. What are Nuclear force? State its properties.
3. Write the properties of alpha rays?

4. Explain how cosmic ray shower is formed?
5. Describe working of hydrogen bomb.
6. Write the properties of Neutron and its types?
7. How do you classify the elementary particle into four
groups?
8. Explain about Carbon-nitrogen cycle.
III.10 marks
1. What is Nuclear reactor? Explain its essential
components.
2. Explain Rutherford-Soddy law.obtain an
expression to
deduce the amount of radioactive substance present at any
moment.
I.3marks
8. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
Q.P.NO: 8.2
1. What are Isobars? Give example.

2. Write a note on Nuclear density?
3. What is energy equivalent of 1 AMU?
4. What is Nuclear force?
5. State four properties of alpha rays?
6. Write radioactive displacement law of beta decay?
7. State Radioactive law of disintegration?
8. What are Neutrons?
9. How will you group biological effects of nuclear
radiation?
10. Define types of particle accelerator.
11. What are control rods? Give example.
12. State the uses of reactor.
13. What is nuclear fusion?
14. What is Radioactivity?

15. What is pair production and annihilation?
II.5 marks
1. Write the properties of beta rays?
2. Describe the working of atom bomb?
3. List the uses of radioactive isotope in (i)Medical
(ii)agriculture
4. What are cosmic rays? Describe its latitude and altitude
effect.
5. What is nuclear reactor .explain fuel and
moderator.
6. Explain discovery of neutrons and its properties.
7. Explain Radio-carbon dating.
III.10 marks
1. Describe the principle,structure and working ofGM
counter with neat diagram.
2. Write about the uses of radioactive isotopes in various
fields.
8. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
Q.P.NO:8.3
I.3 marks
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
What are Isotones?

Define (amu) atomic mass unit?
Draw the diagram of Bainbridge mass spectrometer.
State four properties of alpha rays?
Write Radioactive displacement law for alpha decay?
6. Define mean life period. write expression.

7. State four properties of neutrons?
8. What are the methods of production of artificial radio
isotopes?
9. State the uses of radio isotope in medical field?
10.
How will you estimate that human organism is
damaged due to radiation?
11.
Differentiate types of chain reaction?
12.
Define Critical mass?
13.
How nuclear reactor fuel is prepared?
14.
Write a note on latitude effect of cosmic rays?
15.
What are mesons? Write its types.
II.5 marks
1. Write the properties of gamma rays?
2. Draw and explain BE/A curve.
3. What is nuclear reactor? Draw the schematic diagram.
Mention the name of the components?
4. Describe the working of Geiger-muller counter.
5. List the uses of radio isotopes in (i)Industry (ii)Molecular
biology (iii)Radiocarbon dating.
6. What are cosmic rays? Describe its latitude and
altitude
effect?
7. What are nuclear forces? State its properties.
III.10 marks
1. Discuss the principle, working of bainbridge mass
spectrometer to determine the isotropic masses.
2. Describe the properties of alpha, beta, gamma rays?
8. NUCLEAR PHYSICS
Q.P.NO:8.4
I.3 marks
1. State four properties of gamma rays?
2. What is artificial radioactivity?
3. State the uses of radio isotopes in industry.
4. State the precautions to be taken while working in
radiation lab?
5. Draw and write principle of GM counter?
6. What is chain reaction?
7. What are moderators?Give example.
8. Write a note on cooling system in reactor?
9. Draw the diagram of nuclear reactor?
10.
What are primary and secondary cosmic rays.
11.
Write a note on altitude effect of cosmic rays?
12.
What is pair production and annihilation?
13.
Write a note on leptons?
14.
Write radioactive displacement law of gamma rays?
15.
How radio nitrogen and radio phosphorus
produced?
II.5marks
1. With a neat sketch explain the working of nuclear reactor?
2. Explain how cosmic ray shower is formed?
3. Explain the variation of binding energy with mass number
by a graph and
discuss its feature.
4. List the uses of radioactive isotope in any three fields?
5. Describe the working of hydrogen bomb?
6. Describe the discovery of neutrons and write all
properties of neutrons.
III.10marks
1.
Discuss the principle and working of Bainbridge mass
spectrometer to determine the isotropic masses?
2.Explain Rutherford-soddy law.obtain an
expression
to
deduce the amount of radioactive substance present at any
moment?
LESSON 9
SEMI CONDUCTOR DEVICES AND THEIR APPLICATIONS
Test 9.1
Date :
B.
1.
What are semi conductor? Give examples.
2.
Describe Insulators on the basis of energy bands.
3.
Describe conductors on energy band basis.
4.
Describe semi conductors on energy band basis.
5.
Differentiate intrinsic & extrinsic semi conductors.
6.
What is doping?
7.
State the methods of doping a semi conductor.
8.
Differentiate N-type & P-type Semi conductors.
9.
Define depletion region.
10. Define potential barrier & width of barrier.
11. Define forward bias in P-N diode.
12. Define reverse in P-B Jun diode.
13. Differentiate Donor & Acceptor impurity.
14. Draw the circuit & graph for forward bias of P-N
Junction diode.
LESSON 9
Test 9.2
Date :
B.
1.
Define Rectification, Rectifier & Half wave
rectifier
2.
rectifier.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
Draw the circuit & graph (or) wave forms for half wave
Draw the circuit & wave forms for bridge rectifier.
State the advantages of bridge rectifier.
Define avalanche breakdown in diode.
Write a note on LED.
Write a note on LCD
What is a junction transistor.
What are the three layers of transistor?
What are biasing conditions in transistors?
Define input impedance of transistor?
Define output impedance of transistor.
Define current gain of transistor.
Define current gain in CB mode.
Define current gain in CE mode
Relate a and b
Why CE mode is advantage than other modes?
LESSON 9
Test 9.3
Date :
B. 1.
What is meant by transistor biasing?
2.
State the most commonly used methods of obtaining
transistor
Biasing?
3.
Define Lower cut off frequency and upper cut off
Frequency.
4.
Define band width of the amplifier
5.
Define feed back in amplifiers.
6.
Differentiate types of feed back.
7.
What are the advantages of negative feedback.
8.
State Barkhausen condition for oscillation.
9.
What are the essential parts of LC oscillator?
10.
Relate current gain in CB & CE mode.
11.
Define Input impedance of transistor.
12.
Define Current Gain of transistor.
13.
Define Output impedance of transistor.
14.
State the advantages of bridge rectifier.
15.
Why CE mode is more advantage than the other modes?
LESSON 9
Test 9.4
Date :
B.
1.
Draw the circuit of colpitts oscillator .
2.
State the advantages of ICs over the discrete
components.
3.
Write note on Logical Gates.
4.
What are universal gates? Why are they called so?
5.
State DE-Morgans theorems.
6.
State the Laws of Boolean algebra.
7.
Write note on OP-AMP
8.
Draw circuit symbol and pin-out configuration of an
OP-AMP.
9.
Draw the diagram of CRO
10. What is a multimeter?
LESSON 9
Test 9.5
Date :
B.
1.
What is Zener diode?
2.
What is Zener breakdown?
3.
Define rectifier efficiency.
4.
What is a junction transistor?
5.
In a transistor, emitter and collector cannot be
interchanged.
Why?
6.
What are the important parameter of an amplifier?
7.
What is a multistage amplifier?
8.
What is an oscillator?
9.
State condition at which an amplifier will work as an
oscillator.
10.
Differentiate linear & digital IC.
11.
What are monolithic & hybrid IC?
12.
Write notes on SSI
13.
Write notes on MSI
14.
Write notes on LSI & VLSI
15.
What are logic gates?
16.
What are universal gates? Why are they called so?
LESSON -10
COMMUNICATION SYSTEM
TEST10.1
1. What are the different types of radio wave propagation?
2. Explain ground wave propagation?
3. Explain space wave propagation?
4. Explain sky wave propagation?
5. What is meant by skip distance?
6. What is meant by skip zone?
7. Define modulation?
8. Define de modulation?
9. What are the types of modulation?
10.
What is amplitude modulation?
11.
Define modulation factor?
12.
Define band width?
13.
Define channel width?
14.
What are the limitations of Amplitude modulation?
15.
What are the advantages of Amplitude modulation?
16.
What is frequency modulation?
17.
Explain carrier swing?
18.
What are the advantages of frequency modulation?
19.
What are the disadvantages of frequency
modulation?
20.
What is phase modulation?
LESSON -10
TEST10.2
1. Define antenna?
2. What is meant by scanning?
3. Explain the wave propagation in ionosphere?
4. What is the necessity of modulation?
5. Define directivity?
6. Differentiate modulation and demodulation?
7. Sate the application of RADAR?
8. Define modem?
9. What are the advantages of digital signal?
10.
Draw the block diagram of AM radio transi1tter?
11.
Differentiate simple and interlaced scanning?
12.
Draw the block diagram of FM transmitter?
13.
State noisy reception?
14.
What are the advantages of fiber optic
communication?
15.
Define modulation factor?
16.
What are the types of propagation?
17.
What are the merits of satellite communication?
18.
What are the disadvantages of digital
communication?
19.
What is known as interlaced scanning?
20.
What is the principle of RADAR?
LESSON -10
TEST10.3
1. What are the demerits of satellite communication?
2. Define carrier swing?
3. Define ionospheric propagation ?
4. State the types of modulation?
5. Explain the principle of modem?
6. What is phase modulation?
7. Draw the block diagram of FM superheterodyne receiver?
8. Define directivity?
9. State low efficiency?
10.
State amplitude modulation?
11.
Write short note on antenna?
12.
Define small operating range?
13.
What is known as interlaced scanning?
14.
What is meant by channel width?
15.
State the application of RADAR?
16.
Define antenna impedence?
17.
Define loop antenna?
18.
What are the types of communication?
19.
What are the demerits of frequency modulation?
20.Define band width?
PHYSICS -+2 2012

PART-B
1) State Coulomb's inverse square law in electrostatics

2) Define coulomb
3) What is permittivity and relative permittivity? How are they
related?
4) What is an electric dipole? Define electric dipole moment.
5) What does an electric dipole experience when kept in a uniform
electric field and non uniform electric field
6) Distinguish between electric potential and potential difference
7) What is an equipotential surface
8) Define electric flux. Give its unit
9) What is a capacitor? Define its capacitance
10) What meant by dielectric polarization
11) Why is it safer to be inside a car than standing under a tree
during lightning?
12) Distinguish between polar and non polar molecules
13) What is electrostatic induction and define one farad
14) Define 1 volt
15) Why is copper wire not suitable for a potentiometer
16) Distinguish between drift velocity and mobility
17) Define current density
18) State ohm's law
19) Define resistivity of a material
20) Distinguish between electric power and electric energy
21) Define temperature coefficient of resistance
22) Compare emf and potential difference

23) Why automobile batteries have low internal resistance
24) Compare primary and secondary cell
25) State Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction
26) Define the unit of self-inductance
27) Define coefficient of mutual induction
28) State Fleming's right hand rule
29) Define rms value of a.c
30) State the methods of producing induced emf
31) What is inductive reactance
32) Define a.c and give its expression
33) What is capacitive reactance
34) What is resonant frequency in LCR circuit
35) Define power factor
36) Why a d.c ammeter cannot read a.c
37) Define quality factor
38) A capacitor blocks d.c but allows a.c why?
39) What happens to the value of current in RLC circuit if frequency
of the source is increased?
40) State Lenz's law
41) Differentiate between self inductance and mutual inductance
42) What are cathode rays
43) What are the drawbacks of Rutherford's atom model
44) State the postulates of Bohr
45) What are the drawbacks of Summerfields atom model
46) Define: excitation potential energy and ionization potential
energy
47) What are hard and soft X-rays
48) Why ordinary gratings cannot be used to produce diffraction
effects in X-rays
49) State Bragg's law
50) State Mosley's law
51) Write the differences between spontaneous emission and
stimulated emission
52) What is meant by normal population and population inversion
53) What are the important characteristics of laser
54) How does the laser light differ from ordinary light
55) Give the conditions to achieve laser action
56) Define mass defect and binding energy
57) Define amu
58) Define radioactivity
59) Define half life and mean life period
60) Define curie
61) What do you mean by artificial radioactivity
62) How do you classify neutrons in terms of kinetic energy
63) What is artificial transmutation
64) What is meant by breeder reactor
65) What are thermonuclear reactions
66) What are cosmic rays
67) What is pair production and annihilation
68) What do you mean by activity of a radioactive substance
69) What is critical size
70) What do you understand by intrinsic and extrinsic
semiconductor?
71) What is rectification?
72) What is zener breakdown?
73) Why is a transistor called as current amplification device?
74) Why CE configuration is preferred over CB configuration?
75) Define bandwidth of an amplifier
76) what is meant by feedback? Name the two types of feedback
77) what are the advantages of negative feedback
78) Give the Barkhausen criteria for oscillations
79) Give the function of OR and AND gates
80) what are universal gates? Why are they called so?
81) What is an EXOR gate? Give the Boolean expression for the
EXOR gate
82) What is an integrated circuit
83) Differentiate between linear ICs and digital ICs
84) What is meant by skip distance and skip zone
85) What is the necessity of modulation
86) Define modulation factor
87) Define bandwidth
88) What is phase modulation

89) What is meant by scanning and interlaced scanning
90) What are the applications of radar?
91) What are the different types of wire and cable used for
telecommunication system?
Part-C
1) Derive the relation between current and drift velocity
2) Write a note on superconductivity
3) Give the applications of superconductors
4) Derive expressions for effective resistance when the resistors are
connected in series and parallel
5) Explain how the internal resistance of a cell is determined using
a voltmeter
6) State and explain Kirchhoffs laws
7) Describe an experiment to find unknown resistance and
temperature coefficient of resistance using a meter bridge
8) Explain the principle of a potentiometer. How can emf of two cells
be compared using potentiometer
9) State and explain Faraday's laws of electrolysis. How the laws are
verified experimentally?
10) Explain the action of lead acid accumulator
11) Explain the reactions at the electrodes of (i) Daniel cell and (ii)
leclanche cell
12) Derive the condition for the balance of a whetstones network
13) Explain the variation of photoelectric current with applied
voltage
14) State the laws of photoelectric emission
15) Explain Einstein's theory of photoelectric effect
16) What are the applications of photoelectric cells
17) Derive an expression for de Broglie wavelength of matter waves
18) Draw a neat sketch of an electron microscope. Explain its
working
19) Explain length contraction
20) Explain time dilation
21) Derive Einstein's mass energy equivalence

22) Explain the effect of frequency of incident radiation on stopping
potential
23) Explain the wave propagation in ionosphere
24) Explain frequency modulation
25) Draw the block diagram of AM radio transmitter
26) Explain the function of FM transmitter with neat block diagram
27) Explain the principle of radar
28) What are the applications of radar
29) Explain the principle of modem
30) What are the advantages of fiber optic communication
Part-D
1) Derive an expression for the electric field due to an electric dipole

at a point on its axial line
at a point on its equatorial line
3) Derive an expression for the electric potential at a point due to an
electric dipole
4) State and explain Gauss's law and discuss its applications
5) Explain the principle of a capacitor. Derive an expression for the
capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor.
6) What is dielectric? Explain the effect of introducing a dielectric
slab between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor.
7) Derive the expressions for the effective capacitance when the
capacitors are connected (i) in series and (ii) in parallel
8) Explain the principle, construction and working of Van de Graff
generator
9) Discuss with theory the method of inducing emf in a coil by
changing its orientation with respect to the direction of the
magnetic field
10) What are eddy currents? Give their applications. How are they
minimized
11) Describe the principle, construction and working of a singlephase a.c generator
12) Describe the principle, construction and working of three-phase
a.c generator
13) Explain the principle of transformer. Discuss its construction
and working and the losses
14) Explain LCR circuit
15) Obtain an expression for the current in an ac circuit containing
a pure inductance. Find the phase relation between voltage and
current
16) Obtain an expression for the current flowing in the circuit
containing capacitance only to which an alternating emf is applied.
Find the phase relation between the current and voltage
17) Describe the J.J.Thomson method for determining the specific
charge of electron
18) Describe Millikan's oil drop experiment to determine the charge
of an electron
19) Obtain the expression for the radius of the nth orbit of an
electron based on Bohr's theory
20) Derive an expression for the energy of an electron in the nth
orbit based on Bohr's theory
21) Explain the working of Ruby laser with a neat sketch
22) With the help of energy level diagram explain the working of HeNe laser
23) Explain Bragg's spectrometer and give the uses of X-rays
24) Discuss the principle and action of a Bainbridge mass
spectrometer to determine the isotopic masses
25) Obtain an expression to deduce the amount of the radioactive
substance present at any moment
26) Explain the construction and working of a G-M counter
27) Explain the working of a nuclear reactor
28) What are the applications of radio isotopes
29) Explain (i) latitude effect (ii) altitude effect and (iii) cosmic ray
showers in cosmic rays
Optional
30) Explain the functions of a Videocon camera tube
31) Explain the functions of various units in the monochrome

television transmission
32) Explain the functional block diagram of a monochrome TV
receiver
33) Explain the monochrome picture tube
34) Write a note on satellite communication and discuss the merits
and demerits of it
35.Explain analysis of amplitude modulated wave with frequency
spectrum
Tamil Nadu State Board - Class XII
Physics
2011marchmodelexam-1
Time:3Hours
Max Marks : 150

Part - I
(30 1 = 30)
1. Answer all the questions.

2. Choose and write the correct answer.
3. Each question carries one mark.
1. A dipole is placed in a uniform electric field with its axis parallel

to the field. It experiences
1.only a net force
2 only a torque
3.both a net force and torque
4 neither a net force not a torque
2.The unit of permittivity is
1.NC-2m-2
2.Hm-1
3.C2N-1m-2
4.Nm2C-2
3.The number of lines of force that radiate outwards from one
coulomb charge is
1.1.13 1011
2.8.85 10-11
3.9 109
4.infinite
4.On moving a charge of 20 C by 2 cm, 2J of work is done, then the
potential difference between the points is
1. 0.5 V
2. 0.1 V
3.8 V
4.2 V
5.In the case of insulators, as the temperature decreases, resistivity
1.increases
2.decreases
3.becomes zero
4.remains content
6.In a tangent galvanometer, for a constant current, the deflection is
30o. The plane of the coil is rotated through 90o. Now, for the same
current, the deflection will be
1.0o
2.30o
3.60o
4.90o
7.In a thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction is 20oC,

the temperature of inversion is 520oC. The neutral temperature is
1.500oC
2.540oC
3.270oC
4.510oC
8.Electromagnetic induction is not used in
1.transformer
2.room heater
3.AC generator
4.choke coil
9.Which of the following devices does not allow D.C. to pass
through?
1.resistor
2 capacitor
3.inductor
4.all the above
10.The unit henry can also be written as
1.VA-1s
2.Os
3.wb A-1
4.all
11.In an AC circuit, the current I = Io sin (Ot - p/2) lags behind the
emf e = Eo sin (Ot + p/2) by
1.0
2.p/4
3.p/2
4.p
12.In an electromagnetic wave, the phase difference between
electric field and magnetic field is
1.0
2 p/4
3 p/2
4p
13.Of the following, which one is a biaxial crystal?
1.tourmaline
2.ice
3.calcite
4.mica
14.If the wavelength of the light is reduced to half, then the amount
of scattering will
1.increase by 16 times
2.decrease by 16 times
3.increase by 256 times
4.decrease by 256 times
15.A Nicole prism is based on the principle of
1 refraction
2.reflection
3.double refraction
4.diffraction
16.The ratio of radii of the first three Bhor orbits is
1.1 : 2 : 3
2. 1 : : ?
3. 1 : 8 : 27
4.1 : 4 : 9
17.In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions produce a
spectral line of maximum frequency?
1.
2.
3.
4.
2
6
4
5
->
->
->
->
1
2
3
2
18.In Millikan's experiment, an oil drop of mass 4.9 10-14 kg is

balanced by applying a potential difference of 2 kV between the two
plates which are 2 mm apart. The charge of the drop is
1. 1.96 10?18 C
2.1.602 10?19 C
3.12 C
4.9 10?19 C
19. If the potential difference between the cathode and the target of
coolidge tube is 1.24 105V, then the minimum wavelength of
continuous x-rays is
1.10
2.1
3.0.1
4.0.01
20. The photoelectric effect can be explained on the basis of
1.corpuscular theory
2.wave theory
3.electromagnetic theory
4.quantum thery
21.The wavelength of the matter wave is independent of
1.mass
2.velocity
3.momentum
4.charge
22.The time taken by the radioactive element to reduce to 1/e times
is
1.
2.
3.
4.
half life
mean life
half life/2
twice the mean life
23.The ionisation power is maximum for

1.
2.
3.
4.
neutrons
alpha particles
gamma rays
beta particles
24.When 5B10 is bombarded with neutron and a-particle is

emitted, the residual nucleus is
1.
2.
3.
4.
3Li7
1H2
1H3
2He4
25.In a nuclear reactor cadmium rods are used to

1. speed up neutrons
2. slow down neutrons
3. absorb neutrons
4. remove heat
26.In a Colpitt's oscillator circuit
1.
2.
3.
4.
capacitive feedback is used

tapped coil is used
no tuned LC circuit is used
no capacitor is used
27.An example of n-type semiconductor is

1.
2.
3.
4.
pure germanium
pure silicon
silicon doped with phosphorus
germanium doped with boron
28.What will be the input of A and B for the Boolean expression (A +

B ) . (A . B) = 1?
1.
2.
3.
4.
0,
1,
0,
1,
1
0
0
1
29.In T.V. transmission, the picture should not be scanned during

the return journey of the scanning. This is done by
1.
2.
3.
4.
blanking pulse
saw tooth potential
horizontal synchronising pulse
vertical synchronising pulse
30.Through which mode of propagation, the radio waves can be sent

from one place to another
1.
2.
3.
4.
Ground wave propagation

Sky wave propagation
Space wave propagation
All the above
Part - II (15 3 = 45 marks)
Answer any 15 questions.
31.State coulomb's law in electrostatics.

32.Why is it safer to be inside a car than standing under a tree
during lightning?
33.What are the advantages of secondary cells?
34.The resistance of a nichrome wire at 0oC is 10 O. If its
temperature coefficient of resistance is 0.004/oC, find its resistance
at boiling point of water.
35.What is called superconductivity?
36.Define; ampere in terms of force.
37.What happens to the value of current in RLC series circuit, if
frequency of the source is increased?
38.If the rate of change of current of 2 As-1 induces an emf of 10
mV in a solenoid, what is the self-inductance of the solenoid?
39.Why does the sky appear blue in color?
40.The refractive index of the medium is [.radical]3. Calculate the
angle of refraction if the unpolarised light is incident on it at the
polarising angle.
41.State the postulates of Bohr atom model.

42.In Bragg's spectrometer, the glancing angle for first order
spectrum was observed to be 8o. Calculate the crystal lattice
spacing, if the wavelength of the x-ray is 0.7849?
43.Mention any three applications of photo electric cells.
44.What is a ? decay? Give an example.
45.Define: Curie
46.Draw the block diagram of an oscillator and mention the
components.
47.The gain of the amplifier is 100. If 5% of the output voltage is
feedback into the input through a negative feedback network, find
out the voltage gain after feedback.
48.Mention the advantages of ICS.
49.Define the input impedance of a transistor in CE mode.
50.What is meant by skip distance?.
Part - III
Note : (i) Answer the question 60
compulsorily.(7 5 = 35)
(ii) Of the remaining 11 questions,
answer any six questions.
(iii) Draw diagrams wherever
necessary
51. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor have an area of 90 cm2
each and are separated by 2.5 mm. The capacitor is charged by
connecting it into a 400 V supply. How much electrostatic energy is

stored by the capacitor?
52.Obtain the condition for bridge balance in Wheatstones bridge.
53.Explain the method to compare the emfs of two cells using
potentiometer.
54.A circular coil of 50 turns and radius 25 cm carries a current of
6A. It is suspended in a uniform magnetic field of induction 10-3 T.
The normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 60o with the
field. Calculate torque of the coil.
55.Explain the various energy losses in a transformer.
56.Derive the expression for the radius of the nth dark ring.
57.Explain the spectral series of hydrogen atom.
58.Obtain Einsteins photo electric equation.
59.Establish Einsteins mass-energy equivalence, E = mc2.
60.Calculate the binding energy and binding energy per nucleon of
20Ca40 nucleus. Given, mass of 1 proton = 1.007825 amu; mass of
1 neutron = 1.008665 amu; mass of 20Ca40 nucleus = 39.96259
amu.
(Or)
Calculate the mass of coal in ton required to produce the same
energy as that produced by the fission of 1 kg of U235. Given : Heat
of combustion of coal = 33.6 ?106 J/kg ; 1 ton = 1000 kg ; Energy
per fission of U235 = 200 MeV ; Avogadro number = 6.023 ?1023.
61.Draw the frequency response curve of single stage CE amplifier
and discuss the results.
62.Draw the functional block diagram of AM radio transmitter.

PART - IV
40)
Note : (i) Answer any 4 questions in detail.(4 10 =

(ii) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
63.What is an electric dipole? Derive an expression for the electric

field due to an electric dipole at a point on its axial line.
64.Discuss the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic
field.
65.Discuss with theory, the method of inducing emf in a coil by
magnetic field.
66.What is known as interference? Derive an expression for
bandwidth of interference fringes in youngs double slit experiment.
67.With the help of energy level diagram explain the working of HeNe laser.
68.Describe Bainbridge mass spectrometer to determine the isotopic
masses of nuclei.
69.What is known as rectification? Explain the bridge rectifier.
70.With the help of block diagram, explain the monochrome TV
receiver.
Tamil Nadu State Board - Class XII

Physics
2011 march model exam -2
Time : 3
Hours
Max Marks : 150

Part (30 1 = 30)
1. Answer all the questions.

2. Choose and write the correct answer.
3. Each question carries one mark.
1. If a charge is to be moved between any two points on an equi

potential surface through any path, the work done is
a. Positive.
b. Infinity
c. Negative
d. Zero
2.The unit of permittivity is

a.NC-2m-2
b.Hm-1
c.C2N-1m-2
d.Nm2C-2
3.The number of lines of force that radiate outwards from one
coulomb charge is
a.1.13 1011
b.8.85 10-11
c.9 109
d.infinite
4. Number of electric lines of force from 0.5 C in a dielectric
medium of constant 10 is
a. 5.65x109
b. 1.13 x 1011
c. 9 x 109
d. 8.85 x 1012
5.In the case of insulators, as the temperature decreases, resistivity
a.increases
b.decreases
c.becomes zero
d.remains content
6. . The magnetic moment of a current loop is
a. M = IA
b. M = I/A
c. M = A/I
d. M = I2A
7.In a thermocouple, the temperature of the cold junction is 20oC,

the temperature of inversion is 520oC. The neutral temperature is
a.500oC
b.540oC
c.270oC
d.510oC
8.Electromagnetic induction is not used in
a.transformer
b.room heater
c.AC generator
d.choke coil
9.Which of the following devices does not allow D.C. to pass
through?
a.resistor
b capacitor
c.inductor
d.all the above
10.The unit henry can also be written as
a.VA-1s
b.Os
c.wb A-1
d.all
11.In an AC circuit, the current I = Io sin (Ot - p/2) lags behind the
emf e = Eo sin (Ot + p/2) by
a.0
b.p/4
c.p/2
d.p
12.In an electromagnetic wave, the phase difference between
electric field and magnetic field is
a.0
b p/4
c p/2
dp
13.Of the following, which one is a biaxial crystal?
a.tourmaline
b.ice
c.calcite
d.mica
14.If the wavelength of the light is reduced to half, then the amount
of scattering will
a.increase by 16 times
b.decrease by 16 times
c.increase by 256 times
d.decrease by 256 times
15.A Nicole prism is based on the principle of
a refraction
b.reflection
c.double refraction
d.diffraction
16.The ratio of radii of the first three Bhor orbits is
a.1 : 2 : 3
b. 1 : : ?
c. 1 : 8 : 27
d.1 : 4 : 9
17.In hydrogen atom, which of the following transitions produce a
spectral line of maximum frequency?
a. 2 -> 1
b. 6 -> 2
c. 4 -> 3
d. 5 -> 2
18.In Millikan's experiment, an oil drop of mass 4.9 10-14 kg is
balanced by applying a potential difference of 2 kV between the two
plates which are 2 mm apart. The charge of the drop is
a. 1.96 10?18 C
b.1.602 10?19 C
c.12 C
d.9 10?19 C
19. If the potential difference between the cathode and the target of
coolidge tube is 1.24 105V, then the minimum wavelength of
continuous x-rays is
a.10
b.1
c.0.1
d.0.01
20. The photoelectric effect can be explained on the basis of
a.corpuscular theory
b.wave theory
c.electromagnetic theory
d.quantum thery
21 A circular object will appear as _______ for a fast moving

observer
(a) Circular (b) Elliptical
(c) Spherical (d) Square
22.The time taken by the radioactive element to reduce to 1/e times
is
a. half life
b. mean life
c. half life/2
d. twice the mean life
23.The ionisation power is maximum for
a. neutrons
b. alpha particles
c. gamma rays
d. beta particles
24.When 5B10 is bombarded with neutron and a-particle is
emitted, the residual nucleus is
a. 3Li7
b. 1H2
c. 1H3
d. 2He4
25.In a nuclear reactor cadmium rods are used to
a. speed up neutrons
b. slow down neutrons
c. absorb neutrons
d. remove heat
26.In a Colpitt's oscillator circuit

a. capacitive feedback is used
b. tapped coil is used
c. no tuned LC circuit is used
d. no capacitor is used
27.An example of n-type semiconductor is
a. pure germanium
b. pure silicon
c. silicon doped with phosphorus
d. germanium doped with boron
28.What will be the input of A and B for the Boolean expression (A +
B ) . (A . B) = 1?
a. 0, 1
b. 1, 0
c. 0, 0
d. 1, 1
29.In T.V. transmission, the picture should not be scanned during
the return journey of the scanning. This is done by
a. blanking pulse
b. saw tooth potential
c. horizontal synchronising pulse
d. vertical synchronising pulse
30.Through which mode of propagation, the radio waves can be sent
a. Ground wave propagation
b. Sky wave propagation
c. Space wave propagation
d. All the above

Part - II (15 3 = 45 marks)
Answer any 15 questions.
31. Define coulomb
32. Define electric flux.Give its unit
33. State ohm's law

34.The resistance of a nichrome wire at 0oC is 10 O. If its
temperature coefficient of resistance is 0.004/oC, find its resistance
at boiling point of water.
35. State Faraday's laws of electrolysis
36.Define; ampere in terms of force.
37.What happens to the value of current in RLC series circuit, if
38.If the rate of change of current of 2 As-1 induces an emf of 10
mV in a solenoid, what is the self-inductance of the solenoid?
39.Why does the sky appear blue in color?
40.The refractive index of the medium is [.radical]3. Calculate the
angle of refraction if the unpolarised light is incident on it at the
polarising angle.
41. What are soft X- rays and hard X-rays?
42.In Bragg's spectrometer, the glancing angle for first order
spectrum was observed to be 8o. Calculate the crystal lattice

spacing, if the wavelength of the x-ray is 0.7849?
43.Mention any three applications of photo electric cells.
44.What is a ? decay? Give an example.
45.Define: Curie
46.Draw the block diagram of an oscillator and mention the
components.
47.The gain of the amplifier is 100. If 5% of the output voltage is
feedback into the input through a negative feedback network, find
out the voltage gain after feedback.
48.Mention the advantages of ICS.
49.Define the input impedance of a transistor in CE mode.
50.What is meant by skip distance?.
Part - III
Note : (i) Answer the question 60
compulsorily.(7 5 = 35)
(ii) Of the remaining 11 questions,
answer any six questions.
(iii) Draw diagrams wherever
necessary
51. Give the properties of electric lines of force
52. Write a note on superconductivity. List the applications of
superconductors
53. Explain the action of the lead-acid accumulator
54.A circular coil of 50 turns and radius 25 cm carries a current of

6A. It is suspended in a uniform magnetic field of induction 10-3 T.
The normal to the plane of the coil makes an angle of 60o with the
field. Calculate torque of the coil.
55.Explain the various energy losses in a transformer.
56.Derive the expression for the radius of the nth dark ring.
57.Explain the spectral series of hydrogen atom.
58. What are the applications of photo-cells?
59. Derive Einstein's mass energy equivalence

60.Calculate the binding energy and binding energy per nucleon of
20Ca40 nucleus. Given, mass of 1 proton = 1.007825 amu; mass of
1 neutron = 1.008665 amu; mass of 20Ca40 nucleus = 39.96259
amu.
(Or)
Calculate the mass of coal in ton required to produce the same
energy as that produced by the fission of 1 kg of U235. Given : Heat
of combustion of coal = 33.6 ?106 J/kg ; 1 ton = 1000 kg ; Energy
per fission of U235 = 200 MeV ; Avogadro number = 6.023 ?1023.
61.Draw the frequency response curve of single stage CE amplifier
and discuss the results.
62.Draw the functional block diagram of AM radio transmitter.
PART - IV
Note : (i) Answer any 4 questions in detail.(4 10 =
40)
(ii) Draw diagrams wherever necessary
63. State the principle construction and working of a Van de Graff

generator
64..
65.Discuss with theory, the method of inducing emf in a coil by
magnetic field.
66.What is known as interference? Derive an expression for
bandwidth of interference fringes in youngs double slit experiment.
67.With the help of energy level diagram explain the working of HeNe laser.
68.Describe Bainbridge mass spectrometer to determine the isotopic
masses of nuclei.
69.What is known as rectification? Explain the bridge rectifier.
70.With the help of block diagram, explain the monochrome TV
receiver.
One mark question
1. For communication purposes

(a) entire range of electromagnetic waves can be used
(b) any mechanical waves can be used

(c) radio waves and micro waves are used
(d) no carrier wave is required
2. Electronic communication refers to -------- of information
(a) processing
(b) receiving and processing
(c) receiving and sending
(d) sending, receiving and processing
3. Electronic communication was refined through the invention and
use of
(a) fiber optics
(b) satellites
(c) satellites and computers
(d) transistors, ICs and semiconductor devices
4. ----------propagation takes place when the transmitting and
receiving antennas are close to the ground
(a) sky wave (b) surface wave
(c) space wave (d) ionosphere
5. ------------ propagation is prime importance only for medium and
long wave signals
(a) sky wave (b) ground wave
(c) space wave (d) ionosphere
6. All medium wave signals received during the daytime use---------propagation.
(a)surface wave (b) space wave
(c) sky wave (d) troposphere
7. Space wave propagation is particularly suitable for the waves

having frequency
(a) less than 30 M Hz (b) above 30 M Hz
(c) above 30 K Hz (d) less than 30 K Hz
8. Radio waves propagated through the troposphere of the earth are
known as ----------- waves
(a) ground (b) surface
(c) space (d) sky
9. The upper portion of the atmosphere which absorbs large
quantities of radiant energy like u.v rays and cosmic rays is known
as
(a) troposphere (b) stratosphere
(c) ionosphere (d) atmosphere
10. Free electrons, positive and negative ions are present in the
---------- region of the atmosphere.
(a) troposphere (b) stratosphere
(c) mesosphere (d) ionosphere
11. Long distance radio communication is possible through the
-------------- propagation.
(a) sky wave (b) ground wave
(c) surface wave (d) space wave
12. High frequency waves follow
(a) the ground wave propagation
(b) the line of sight direction
(c) ionospheric propagation

(d) the curvature of the earth
13. In the sky wave propagation the radio waves are refracted by
------------ region
(a) troposphere (b) ionosphere
(c) mesosphere (d) stratosphere
14. Skip distance is the distance between

(a) point of transmission and the ionospheric region
(b) point of transmission and the point of reception
(c) point of reception and the point where there is no reception
(d) all the above
15. In which region there is no reception of radio waves due to
ground waves
(a) skip zone (b) skip distance
(c) surface region (d) all the above
16. Through which mode of propagation the radio waves can be sent
(a) ground wave propagation
(b) sky wave propagation
(c) space wave propagation
(d) all of them
17. The frequencies of electromagnetic waves employed in space
communication vary over a range of
(a) 30 Hz 300 Hz (b) 30 K Hz 300 K Hz
(c) 30 Hz 300 G Hz (d) 30 MHz 300 G HZ
18. The wavelength of em waves employed for space communication

lie in the range of
(a) 1 mm 107 mm (b) 1 mm 10-7 mm
(c) 1 m 107 mm (d) 1 m 10 -7 mm
19. The radio waves of frequency 300 MHz 3000 MHz belongs to
(a) high frequency band
(b) very high frequency band
(c) ultra high frequency band
(d) super high frequency band
20. The energy of a wave is directly proportional to its
(a) wavelength (b) frequency
(c) amplitude (d) phase angle
21. The audio signal frequency range is from

(a) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz (b) 20 Hz to 20,000 KHz
(c) 20 Hz to 20 KHz (d) 20 KHz to 20,000 KHz
22. The radiation of electrical energy is possible only at high
frequencies above
(a) 20 K Hz (b) 20 M Hz
(c) 20 Hz (d) 200 K Hz
23. If audio signal to be transmitted properly it must be
superimposed on
(a) low frequency wave (b) high frequency wave
(c) medium frequency wave (d) signal frequency
24. The process of superimposing the signal waves on the carrier
waves is called as
(a) modulation (b) demodulation
(c) detection (d) transmission
25. In radio broadcasting, an antenna is used for
(a) demodulation (b) transmission
(c) detection (d) modulation
26. The process of mixing AF signal and RF signal is known as
(a) modulation (b) demodulation
(c) oscillation (d) amplification
27. If fc and fs are the frequencies of carrier and signal waves then
amplitude variations of the carrier is at the frequency of
(a) fc (b) Fc + fs
(c) fc fs (d) fs
28. If fc and fs are the frequencies of carrier and signal waves then
frequency of the amplitude modulated wave is
(a) fc (b) Fc + fs
(c) fc fs (d) fs
29. For effective modulation the degree of modulation should

(a) be small (b) be large
(c) never exceed 100% (d) be more than 100%
30. Distortion is produced in the transmitted signal when the
modulation factor m is
(a) > 1 (b) < 1
(c) = 1 (d) = 0
31. The type of modulation used in the TV picture transmission is
(a) amplitude modulation (b) phase modulation
(c) frequency modulation (d) none of the above
32. In frequency modulation when the signal approaches its
negative peaks the frequency of the carrier wave
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains unaltered (d) becomes zero
33. In frequency modulation when the signal approaches its positive

peaks the amplitude of the carrier wave
(c) remains unaltered (d) becomes zero
34. The main advantage of frequency modulation over amplitude
modulation is
(a) that there will be no distortion
(b) that the complete information is contained in the side bands
(c) that it uses a wider band of frequencies
(d) the elimination of noises
35. In modulation which of the following undergoes a change
(a) amplitude (b) phase
(c frequency (d) any one of the above
36. The ratio of the signal amplitude to the carrier amplitude is

known as
(a) efficiency (b) amplitude modulation
(c) modulation factor (d) frequency modulation
37. Which of the following is true if the modulation factor m < 1
(a) the audio signal being transmitted will be very weak
(b) the audio signal being transmitted will be very strong
(c) distortion will be produced
(d) modulation will be effective
38. The upper side band of the amplitude modulated wave has a
frequency
(a) less than that of the carrier
(b) greater than that of the carrier
(c) equal to that of the carrier
(d) not specified
39. The magnitude of both LSB and USB is ------- times the carrier
amplitude
(a) 1/2 (b) Ec/2 (c) m/2 (d) m/4
40. The LSB and USB are located in the frequency spectrum on
either side of the carrier at a frequency interval of
(a) ?c (b) 2 ?c (c) ?s (d) 2 ?s
41. If the modulation factor m is equal to unity then each side band
has amplitude equal to
(a) Ec (b) Ec/2 (c) 2 Ec (d) Ec/4
42. The amplitude of LSB and USB are equal to
(a) m Ec/2 (b) Ec/2 (c) 2 m Ec (d) Ec/2m
43. The relationship between LSB and amplitude of the carrier wave
is
(a) v 2 Ec m (b) 0.5 m Ec
(c) 0.5 m2 Ec (d) 2m Ec
44. In an AM wave the bandwidth is equal to
(a) twice the signal frequency
(b) half of the signal frequency
(c) the signal frequency
(d) less than the signal frequency
45. Channel width of an AM wave is given by
(a) 2 (?s) max (b) (?s) max /2
(c) (?c - ?s ) (d) 2 (?c )
46. The side band power for an AM wave is
(a) zero (b) low
(c) medium (d) high
47. Which of the following is not true regarding an AM wave
(a) the amplitude of the carrier wave changes in accordance with
the signal
(b) the reception of AM wave is generally noisy
(c) the messages can be transmitted over long distances
(d) the messages cannot be transmitted over long distances

48. In amplitude modulation if the carrier wave amplitude is 10 V
and the modulation factor is 0.2 then the maximum amplitude of
the modulated wave is
(a) 9.8 V (b) 10.2 V
(c) 50 V (d) 12 V
49. In frequency modulation which of the following remains

constant
(a) frequency and amplitude
(b) frequency and phase
(c) frequency and energy
(d) amplitude and phase
50. The frequency of an FM transmitter without signal input is
called the ---------- frequency
(a) resting (b) threshold
(c) base (d) cut off
51. The shift in frequency above or below the resting frequency is
known as
(a) amplitude shift (b) frequency deviation
(c) phase shift (d) any one of the above
52. Frequency deviation is
(a) twice carrier swing
(b) thrice carrier swing
(c) half of carrier swing
(d) square of carrier swing
53. The internationally accepted maximum deviation for the
purpose of FM broadcasts is
(a) 7.5 K Hz (b) 75 K Hz

(c) 75 M Hz (d) 750 K Hz
54. IN phase modulation
(a) only the phase of the carrier wave varies
(b) only the frequency of the carrier wave varies
(c) both the phase and frequency varies
(d) there is no change in the frequency and phase of the carrier
wave
55. The phase modulation generally uses -------- bandwidth as
compared with that of FM
(a) greater (b) smaller
(c) equal (d) much larger
56. The RF channel in a radio transmitter produces
(a) audio signals
(b) high frequency carrier waves
(c) both audio and high frequency carrier waves
(d) low frequency carrier waves
57. In the AF section of a AM transmitter the modulating wave is
produced by
(a) the conversion of energy
(b) production of waves
(c) the RF waves
(d) all the above
58. A low frequency amplifier that isolates crystal oscillator from
phase modulator is known as
(a) separator (b) slit
(c) blockage (d) buffer
59. Frequency modulated systems are operated usually at a
frequency
(a) below 40 M Hz (b) above 0.040 G Hz
(c) below 40 K Hz (d) above 40 K Hz
60. The function of the pre-emphasis network in the FM transmitter
is
(a) to make all the frequencies in the modulating signal to have
equal power
(b) connecting microphone and AF amplifier
(c) to generate RF signals

(d) to modulate the signal
61. The RF amplifier in the radio receiver is used to
(a) generate RF signals
(b) extract audio signals from the radio waves
(c) amplify the audio signals
(d) select and amplify the desired radio wave
62. The function of a detector in the radio receiver is to
(a) generate RF signals
(b) extract audio signals from the radio waves
(c) amplify the audio signals
(d) select and amplify the desired radio wave
63. In a superhertrodyne receiver the output of the mixer circuit is
(a) always 455 M HZ (b) always 0.455 G Hz
(c) always 465 K Hz (d) sometimes 455 K Hz
64. In a superhetrodyne system the difference between the oscillator
frequency and radio frequency is known as
(a) intermediate (b) in determined
(c) intermittent (d) initial
65. If 600 K Hz station is to be tuned with a superhetrodyne
receiver then the local oscillator will produce a frequency of
(a) 455 K HZ (b) 1055 K HZ
(c) 1055 M HZ (d) 1550 K Hz
66.usually ------------ circuit is used as a detector for good audio
fidelity(reproducing ability)
(a) triode assembly (b) diode
(c) analog (d) digital
67. For FM superhetrodyne receiver the intermediate frequency is
(a) 10.7 M Hz (b) 10.7 K Hz
(c) 10.7 G Hz (d) 1.07 M Hz
68. In a FM superhetrodyne receiver the amplitude of the IF signals
is maintained constant using a
(a) buffer (b) filter
(c) limiter (d) detector
69. In a superhetrodyne receiver the radio frequency is converted
into
(a) a higher frequency
(b) an audio frequency
(c) an intermediate frequency
(d) a microwave frequency
70. A superhetrodyne receiver selects a radio wave of frequency 850
K Hz then the frequency of the local oscillator will be
(a) 1305 K Hz (b) 455 K Hz
(c) 850 K Hz (d) 445 K Hz
71. Superhetrodyne receiver has
(a) maximum stability,selectivity,and sensibility
(b) maximum stability ,selectivity,and minimum sensibility
(c) minimum stability,selectivity,and sensibility
(d) maximum stability and minimum ,selectivity, and sensibility
72. In a superhetrodyne receiver the frequency of the local oscillator
is 1500 K Hz the frequency of radio station is
(a) 1055 K Hz (b) 1045 K Hz
(c) 455 K Hz (d) 1500 K Hz
73. In radio broadcasting the sound waves are converted into AF
signals by
(a) loudspeaker (b) rectifier
(c) microphone (d) antenna
74. In TV transmission picture signals are ------- modulated and
sound signals are ------- modulated
(a) amplitude , frequency
(b) amplitude , amplitude
(c) frequency , frequency
(d) frequency , amplitude
75. In most of the television system the scanning frequency rate is
(a) 25 frames per minute
(b) 25 frames per second
(c) 250 frames per minute
(d) 250 frames per second
76. Which of the following potentials are used for scanning
(a) rectangular (b) square
(c) triangular (d) saw tooth
77. Saw tooth potentials are produced by using

(a) unijunction transistor and a R-C circuit
(b) unijunction transistor and a L-C circuit
(c) bijunction transistor and a R-C circuit
(d) oscillator
78. In a TV camera saw tooth potentials are applied to
(a) horizontal deflector plates
(b) vertical deflector plates
(c) control grid
(d) both (a) and (b)
79. In radio reception any desired amplitude modulated wave can be
selected with the help of
(a) RC circuit (b) LC circuit
(c) RL circuit (d) capacitance
80. Scanning is the process
(a) in which light audio frequency variations are converted into
voltage variations
(b) in which light intensity is converted into variations in potentials
(c) done by a beam of positive rays
(d) in which audio frequency variations are converted into
corresponding video frequency variations
81. The process scanning is equivalent to
(a) charging a capacitor
(b) discharging of a capacitor
(c) current flow through a conductor
(d) none of the above
82. The line synchronizing pulse is applied to
(a) the vertical deflector plates
(b) horizontal deflector plates
(c) control grid
(d) filament
83. The frame synchronizing pulse is applied to
(c) filament
(d) control grid
84. The banking pulse is applied to

(c) filament
(d) control grid
85. A blanking pulse is a
(a) high positive potential
(b) high negative potential
(c) low negative potential
(d) low positive potential
86. Interlaced scanning is used in order to
(a) increase the brightness of image
(b) decrease the brightness of image
(c) avoid flickering of image
(d) increase the contrast of the image
87. In interlaced scanning each frame is scanned twice to
(a) eliminate continuity
(b) remove flickering
(c) cause an illusion of continuity
(d) increase the speed of scanning
88. Which of the following is not an advantage of interlaced
scanning
(a) flicker effect is eliminated
(b) the speed of scanning need not be increased
(c) channel width need not be increased
(d) causes illusion of continuity
89. In a 625 line system, 25 frames per second the horizontal
frequency is --------- Hz
(a) 15625 (b) 1562
(c) 15265 (d) 156250
90. In interlaced scanning the number of fields scanned per second
is
(a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 250 (d) 625
91. In interlaced scanning the number of lines scanned per second

is
(a) 15625 (b) 50
(c) 625 (d) 312.5
92. In the scanning process the number of lines scanned per frame
is
(a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 625 (d) 312.5
93. In interlaced scanning each frame is scanned
(a) once (b) twice
(c) thrice (d) four times
94. In interlaced scanning vertical field scan time is
(a) 64 s (b) 20 ms
(c) 20 s (d) 64 ms
95. The purpose of dividing each frame into two fields so as to
transmit 50 views of the picture per second is
(a) to avoid fickler in the picture
(b) the fact that handling of higher frequencies is easier
(c) that 50 Hz is the power line frequency in India
(d) to avoid unwanted noises in the signal
96. India follows ---------- standard in television communication
(a) PAL (b) CCIR
(c) FCC (d) NTSC
97. Subcarrier is a
(a) low frequency carrier
(b) high frequency carrier
(c) part of the modulated wave
(d) all the above
98. Use of a subcarrier wave to m odulate a main carrier wave is
known as
(a) duplexing (b) monopoly
(c) multiplexing (d) modulation
99. For commercial broadcast the frequency deviation of a FM
signal is
(a) 25 K HZ (b) 75 K Hz
(c) 25 M Hz (d) 75 M Hz
100. In a monochrome picture tube the electron beam is accelerated

towards the screen by a very high voltage applied to an internal
metallic coating called
(a) aquadag (b) fluorescence coating
(c) aduadag (d) none of the above
101. The magnetic coils around the neck of a monochrome picture
tube is called as
(a) scanning channel (b) deflecting channel
(c)deflecting yoke (d) converging yoke
102. The Y signal or luminance is applied to the -------- of the
monochrome picture tube
(a) cathode (b) control grid
(c)electron gun (d)cathode or control grid
103. The control grid in the electron gun is ------ biased
(a) low positively (b) low negatively
(c) high negatively (d) high positively
104. In RADAR the transmitted pulse travels with a speed of -----m for a micro second
(a) 300 (b) 30
(c)3 (d) 0.3
105. In RADAR a single antenna can be used for both transmission
and reception with the use of
(a) DPDT switch (b) TR switch
(c) change over switch (d) dual action switch
106. In RADAR a single antenna is used for both transmission and

reception with the help of a switching arrangement called as
(a) duplexer (b) multiplexer
(c) RT switch (d) monoplexer
107. In RADAR the high power pulses that are transmitted are
generated by
(a) klystron oscillator (b) crystal oscillator
(c)magnetron oscillator (d) colpitt oscillator
108. The indicator in a RADAR is normally a
(a) cathode ray tube (b) light emitting diode

(c) speaker (d) counter
109. A continuously varying voltage or current is known as
(a) analog signal (b) digital signal
(c) varying signal (d) non-linear signal
110. Any form of information that has been put into digital format
is known as
(a) digital signals (b) data
(c) byte (d) all the above
111. Printed documents to be transmitted by fax are converted into
electrical signals by the process of
(a) reflection (b) scanning
(c) modulation (d) light variation
112. The simplest and lowest cost cable is
(a) twisted pair
(b) multiconductor flat cable
(c) coaxial cable
(d) all the above
113. The principle used for the transmission of light signals
through the optical fibre is
(a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) dispersion (d) total internal reflection
114. Satellite communication is basically a ----- link repeater
(a) uv (b) radio wave
(c)microwave (d) IR
115. In satellite communication the difference between the uplink
and downlink frequency is
(a) 2 M Hz (b) 2 G Hz
(c)20 M Hz (d) 20 G Hz
116. For a 625 line system ,25 frames per second the horizontal
scanning time for one line is
(a) 64 ms (b) 64 s
(c) 640ms (d) 640 s
PART-B
1) What are the different types of radio wave communication?
2) What is meant by skip distance?

3) What is the necessity of modulation?
4) Define amplitude modulation.
5) Define modulation factor.
6) Define bandwidth.
7) What are the limitations of amplitude modulation?
8) What is phase modulation?
9) Define directivity.
10) What is meant by scanning?
11) What is interlaced scanning?
13) What are the advantages of fiber optic communication system?
PART-C
1) Explain the ground wave propagation.
2) Explain the wave propagation in ionosphere.
3) Explain amplitude modulation.
4) Explain frequency modulation.
5) Draw the block diagram of AM radio transmitter.
6) Explain the function of FM transmitter with a neat block
diagram.
7) Explain a simple or straight radio receiver.
8) Give the advantages and disadvantages of digital communication.
9) Explain the principle of modem.
PART-D
1) Analyse the amplitude modulated wave and the frequency
spectrum.
2) Explain the working of superhetrodyne AM and FM receivers with
the block diagrams.
3) Explain the function of a vidicon camera tube.
4) Explain scanning and its types.
5) Explain the construction of monochrome picture tube.
television transmission.
receiver.
8) Explain the principle and working of radar and give its

applications.
9) Explain satellite communication. Give its merits and demerits.
BLUE-PRINT
2 X 1 = 2 1 X 3 = 3 1 X 5 = 5 1 X 10 = 10
TOTAL 20 MARKS
1. A material which has resistivity between conductors and
insulators is known as
(a) good conductors (b) bad conductors
a(c) semi conductors (d) any one of the above
2. At room temperature the resistivity of a semiconductor lie
approximately between
(a) 102 and 104 Om a(b) 10-2 and 104 Om
(c) 10-2 and 10-4 Om (d) 102 and 10-4 Om
3. With increase in temperature over a particular range the
resistance of a semiconductor
a(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
4. With decrease in temperature the resistance of a metallic
conductor
(a) decreases a(b) increases
(c) increases and then decreases
(d) remains constant
5. If copper and Germanium are heated by 500C from room
temperature then
(a) a resistance of copper increases while that of
germanium decreases
(b) resistance of copper decreases while that of germanium
increases
(c) resistance of both decreases
(d) resistance of both increases
6. Electrical conductivity of a semiconductor
(a) increases with the rise in its temperature

(b) decreases with the rise in its temperature
(c) does not change with the rise in temperature
(d) first increases and then decreases with the rise in its
temperature
7. The band having highest energy at 0 K is
(a) Valence band (b) conduction band
(c) core band (d) any one of the above
8. Which of the following is partially or completely filled
(a)conduction band (b) valence band
(c) core band (d) all the energy bands
9. Which of these electrons are responsible for conduction of
current in a conductor
(a) valence electrons (b) conduction electrons
(c) core electrons (d) all the electrons
10. The band which may be empty or partially filled is
(a) valence band (b) first band
(c) conduction band (d) any one of the above
11. For insulators the forbidden energy gap is
(a) >3 eV (b) < 3 eV
(c) > 3 M eV (d) < 3 M eV
12. The forbidden energy gap for germanium crystal at 0 K is
(a) 0.071 eV (b) 0.7 eV
(c) 1.1 eV (d) 10 eV
13. The forbidden energy gap for silicon crystal at 0 K is
(a) 0.071 eV (b) 0.7 eV
(c) 1.1 eV (d) 10 eV
14. The resistivity of an insulator is approximately lies between
(a) 10-11 and 1016 Om (b) 1011 and 1016 Om
(c) 102 and 1012 Om (d) 10-11 and 10-16 Om
15. The conductivity of semiconductor is of the order of
(a) 102 mho m-1 (b) 102 ohm m-1
(c) 10-2 mho m-1 (d) 102 ohm m
16. The resistivity of a pure semiconductor at absolute zero is
(a) zero
(b) infinity
(c) same as that of conductor at room temperature
(d) same as that of insulators at room temperature
17. In a semiconductor the forbidden energy gap between valence
band and conduction band is of the order of
(a) 1 Mev (b) 0.1 Mev
(c) 1 ev (d) 5ev
18. In a good conductor the energy levels in a valence band
(a) partially filled only
(b) overlap with conduction band
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
19. In insulators
(a) the valence band is partially filled with electrons
(b) the conduction band is partially filled with electrons
(c) the conduction band is partially filled with electrons and valence
band is empty
(d) the conduction band is empty and the valence band is filled with
electrons
20. At absolute zero Si acts as
(a) non-metal (b) metal
(c)insulator (d) none of these
21. Ina good conductor the energy gap between the conduction
band and the valence band is
(a) infinity (b) wide
(c) narrow (d) zero
22. A semiconductor is cooled from T1 K to T2 K Its resistance will
(a) decrease (b) increase
(c) first increases and then decreases
(d) will not change
23. The electrons in the atom of an element which determine its
chemical and electrical properties are called
(a) valence electrons (b) revolving electrons
(c) excess electrons (d) active electrons
24. The efficient and convenient method of making a semiconductor
more conducting is
(a) by heating
(b) by allowing the light to incident on it
(c) by adding impurity
(d) any one of the above
25. Usually doping material is
(a) pentavalent atoms
(b) trivalent atoms
(c) either (a) or (b)
26. Which of the following is a donar impurity
(a) aluminium (b) gallium
(c)indium (d) antimony
27. Which of the following is an acceptor impurity
(a) bismuth (b) phosphorous
(c) arsenic (d) boron
28. Doping is the process used to

(a) increase the electrical conductivity of the semiconductor
(b) making ions in the semiconductor
(c) make the semiconductor impure
(d) decrease the electrical conductivity of the semiconductor
29. An N-type semiconductor can be obtained by doping pure
germanium with
(a) sodium (b) arsenic
(c) boron (d) gallium
30. In an N-type semiconductor donor valence band is
(a) above the conduction band of the host crystal
(b) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(c) close to the conduction band of the host crystal
(d) below the valence band of the host crystal
31. In an N-type semiconductor there are
(a) immobile negative ions
(b) no majority carriers
(c) immobile positive ions

(d) holes are majority carrier
In an N-type semiconductor
(a) holes are minority carriers
(b) electrons are minority carriers
(c) no minority carriers
(d) there are immobile negative ions
32. An N-type semiconductor is
(a) negatively charged
(b) positively charged
(c) neutral
(d) negatively charged or positively charged depending upon the
amount of impurity
33. The number of electrons (ne) and number of holes (nh) in an
intrinsic semiconductor at ordinary temperature are related as
(a) (ne) >(nh) (b) (ne) <(nh)
(c) (ne) =(nh) (d) (ne) =(nh) = 0
34. The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes
because
(a) they are light
(b) they carry negative charge
(c) they mutually collide less
(d) they require low energy to continue their motion
35. When boron is added as an impurity to germanium the
resulting material is
(a) P-type conductor (b) P-type semiconductor
(c) N-type conductor (d) N-type semiconductor
36. In a P-type semiconductor the acceptor valence band is
(a) close to the valence band of the host crystal
(b) close to the conduction band of the host crystal
(c) below the conduction band of the host crystal
(d) above the conduction band of the host crystal
37. Valency of the impurity atom that is to be added to germanium
crystal so as to make it a N-type semiconductor is
(a) 6 (b)5 (c) 4 (d) 3
38. A donor impurity results
(a) production of N-type semiconductor

(b) production of P-type semiconductor
(c) increase in the resistance of the semiconductor
(d) energy bands just above the filled valency band
39. Due to the doping of a semiconductor its resistivity
(c)does not change
(d) increases or decreases depending upon the dopant
40. The intrinsic semiconductor behaves like an insulator at
(a) 0o C (b)-100o C
(c)100o C (d) 0 K
41. The ratio of electron and hole current in a semiconductor is 7/4
and the ratio of drift velocities of electrons and holes is 5/4 then
the ratio of concentrations of electrons and holes will be
(a) 5/7 (b) 7/5 (c) 25/49 (d) 49/25
42. In p-type semiconductors conduction is due to
(a) greater number of holes and less number of electrons
(b) only electrons
(c) only holes
(d) greater number of electrons and less number of holes
43. At room temperature a p-type semiconductor has
(a) large number of holes and few electrons
(b) large number of free electrons and few holes
(c) equal number of electrons and holes
(d) no electrons or holes
44. At 0 K a P-type semiconductor has
(a) no charge carriers
(b) few holes but no electrons
(c) few holes and few free electrons
(d) equal number of holes and electrons
45. When conductivity of a semiconductor is only due to breaking of
covalent bonds the semiconductor is called
(a) N-type (b) p-type
(c) extrinsic (d) intrinsic
46. In an extrinsic semiconductor the Fermi level is
(a) nearer to valence band than conduction band
(b) equidistance from valence and conduction band

(c) nearer to conduction band than valence band
(d) bisecting the conduction band
47. In a junction diode the diffusion current is
(a) from N-region to P-region
(b) from P-region to N-region
(c) from N-region to P-region if the junction is forward biased and
vice versa
(d) from P-region to N-region if the junction is forward biased and
vice versa
48. The depletion region in the P-N junction diode is caused by
(a) drift of holes
(b) diffusion of charge carriers
(c) migration of impurity ions
(d) drift of electrons
49. In P-N junction diode the barrier potential offers resistance to
(a) free electrons in N-region and holes in P-region
(b) free electrons in P-region and holes in N-region
(c) only free electrons in N-region
(d) only holes in P-region
50. In a junction diode the holes are due to
(a) protons (b) extra electrons
(c)neutrons (d) missing electrons
51. Region without free electrons and holes in a P-N junction diode
is
(a) P-region (b) N-region
(c) junction (d) depletion region
52. In a P-N junction having depletion layer of thickness 10-6 m the
potential across it is 0.1 V.The electric field is
(a) 106 (b) 10-6 (c) 10-5 (d) 105
53. In a P-N junction diode
(a) high potential at N-side and low potential at P side
(b) high potential at P side and low potential at N side
(c) P and N are at same potential
(d) Undetermined
54. The potential barrier in the depletion region is due to

(a) ions (b) holes
(c) electrons (d) forbidden band
55. Barrier potential of a P-N junction diode does not depend on
(a) diode design (b) temperature
(c) forward bias (d) doping density
56. In a P-N junction diode the barrier potential offers resistance to
(a) free electrons in N region and holes in P-region
(b) free electrons in P region and holes in N region
(c) only free electrons in N-region
(d) only holes in P-region
57. The barrier potential for silicon is approximately
(a) 0.6 V (b) 0.7 V (c) 0.3 V (d) 0.9 V
58. The barrier potential for germanium is approximately
(a) 0.6 V (b) 0.2 V (c) 0.3 V (d) 0.7 V
59. The width of the potential barrier depends on
(a) the nature of the material
(b) the method of doping
(c) the concentration of doping
(d) all the above
60. In a semiconductor hole is
(a) a space which is negatively charged
(b) a positively charged particle
(c) a space which was previously occupied by an electron
(d) a dense area of space which even absorb light
61. The depletion region of P-N junction diode in an open circuit
has
(a) electrons (b) holes
(c) immobile ions
(d) neutralised impurity ions
62. When a P-N junction diode is forward biased the potential
barrier
(a) decreases (b) increases
(c) remains the same
(d) may increase or decrease
63. When the P end of a P-N junction diode is connected to the

negative terminal of the battery and N end to the positive terminal
then the diode behaves like
(a) a conductor (b) an insulator
(c) a super conductor (d) a semiconductor
64. If no external voltage is applied across P-N junction there would
be
(a) no electric field across the junction
(b) an electric field pointing from N-type to P-type side across the
junction
(c) an electric field pointing from P-type to N-type side across the
junction
(d) a temporary electric field during formation of P-N junction that
would subsequently disappear
65. Reverse bias applied to a junction diode
(a) lowers the potential barrier
(b) rises the potential barrier
(c) increases the majority carrier current
(d) increases the minority carrier current
66. In the middle of the depletion region of a reverse biased P-N
junction, the
(a) the electric field is zero
(b) potential is maximum
(c) electric field is maximum
(d) potential is zero
67. In V-I characteristic of a PN junction reverse biasing results in
(a) leakage current
(b) the current which cannot be neglected
(c) no flow of current
(d) large current
68. On increasing the reverse voltage in a PN junction diode the
value of reverse current will
(a) gradually increase (b) suddenly increase
(c) remain constant (d) gradually decrease
69. PN junction diode can be used as
(a) amplifier (b) oscillator
(c) detector (d) modulator

70. The reverse saturation current in a PN junction diode is only
due to
(a) majority carriers (b) minority carriers
(c) acceptor ions (d) donor ions
71. When the PN junction diode is in the forward bias
(a) current flows through it due to the majority charge carriers
(b) current flows through it due to the minority charge carriers
(c) no current flows through it
(d) it acts as an insulator
72. When the PN junction diode is in the reverse bias
(a) current flows through it due to the majority charge carriers
(b) current flows through it due to the minority
charge carriers
(c) no current flows through it
(e) it acts as an insulator
73. The major source of the minority carriers in a P-N junction
diode when it is in the reverse biased condition is
(a) doped atoms (b) free electrons
(c) thermally broken covalent bonds
(d) all the above
74. Which of the following is correct regarding the V-I characteristic
of a P-N diode under forward bias
(a) the characteristic curve is a straight line
(b) the ratio V/I is a constant
(c) the diode obeys ohm's law
(d) the characteristic curve is not a straight line
75. In the forward bias condition the P-N diode will start conducting
(a) irrespective of the external voltage
(b) only when the external voltage overcomes the barrier potential
(c) when the external voltage is less than or equal to the barrier
potential
(d) without the external voltage
76. In the forward bias characteristic of a PN diode the voltage at
which the current starts to increase rapidly is known as
(a) cut-off voltage (b) zener voltage

(c) threshold voltage (d) knee voltage
77. In the forward bias characteristic curve the diode appears as
(a) a high resistance (b) a capacitor
(c) an OFF switch (d) an ON switch
78. Which of the following is not correct about the leakage current
(a) It is in the order of microamperes
(b) It is due to the minority charge carriers
(c) It does not depend on the junction temperature
(d) It is a very small current
79. When two semiconductors of P and N type are brought in
contact, it can be used as a
(a) rectifier (b) amplifier
(c) oscillator (d) conductor
80. Rectifier is a circuit used to
(a) convert a.c into d.c (b) convert d.c into a.c
(c) step up a.c (d) step down a.c
81. The efficiency of a rectifier is
(a) output d.c current/input d.c current
(b) output d.c voltage/input d.c voltage
(c) output d.c power/input d.c power
(d) output a.c power/input a.c power
82. Filter circuits are used to
(a) increase the d.c value
(b) avoid fluctuation in d.c voltage
(c) convert d.c into a.c
(d) all the above
83. Filter circuit
(a) eliminates a.c component
(b) eliminates dc component
(c) does not eliminate ac component
84. The electrical circuits used to get smooth dc output from a
rectifier circuit is called
(a) oscillator (b) full wave rectifier
(c) filter (d) amplifier

85. Avalanche breakdown in a semiconductor occours when
(a) forward current exceeds a certain value
(b) reverse bias exceeds a certain value
(c) forward bias exceeds a certain value
(d) the potential barrier is reduced to zero
86. Avalanche breakdown will occur if
(a) both sides of PN junction are lightly doped
(b) both sides of PN junction are heavily doped
(c) P side is lightly doped
(d) N side is lightly doped
87. Avalanche breakdown is primarily dependent on the
phenomenon of
(a) collision (b) ionization
(c) doping (d) recombination
88. Zener breakdown will occur if
(a) impurity level is low
(b) impurity level is high
(c) impurity is less in N side
(d) impurity is less in P side
89. Which of the following is not correct
Zener current is
(a) due to the strong electric field produced across the thin
depletion layer
(b) due to the large number of electrons due to breakage of covalent
bonds
(c) the reverse saturation current
(d) dependent on applied voltage
90. Zener diode is a
(a) PN junction diode
(b) Reverse biased lightly doped PN diode
(c) Reverse biased heavily doped PN diode
(d) Forward biased heavily doped PN diode
91. Zener diode is used as
(a) an amplifier (b) an oscillator
(c) a rectifier (d) a voltage regulator
92. GaAs is
(a) element semiconductor
(b) alloy semiconductor
(c) bad conductor (d) metallic conductor
93. The colour of light emitted by a LED depends on
(a) its reverse bias
(b) the amount of forward current
(c) its forward bias
(d) type of semiconductor material
94. When a N type semiconductor is sandwitched between two P
type semiconductors then the transistor formed is
(a) NPN (b) PNP (c) PPN (d) NNP
95. A transistor has.. PN junction
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
96. The number of terminals of a transistor is
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four
97. Which of the following region of a transistor is heavily doped
(a) base (b) emitter
(c) collector (d) BE junction
98. In a transistor the arrow head represents the flow of
(a) direct current (b) forward current
(c) conventional current (d) reverse current
99. In a transistor which region has more number of majority
charge carriers
(a) base (b) emitter
(c) collector (d) all the above
100. The thickness of the base region of a transistor is
(a) 20 micron (b) 25 micron
(c) 2 micron (d) 0.2 micron
101. Which of the following is true in a transistor
(a) collector region is larger then emitter region
(b) emitter region is larger than collector region
(c) collector region is smaller than base region
(d) emitter region is smaller than base region
102. In the normal operation of a transistor

(a) the CB junction is forward biased
(b) the EB junction is reverse biased
(c) the CB and EB junctions are reverse biased
(d) the CB junction is reverse biased
103. The transistor will never conduct any current if
(a) its EB junction is forward biased
(b) its EB junction is not forward biased
(c) its base region is thin
(d) its collector region is large
104. The most commonly used transistor configuration is
(a) CB (b) CC (c) CE (d) all the above
105. The CE mode circuit is more in use because of
(a) high input impedance
(b) low input impedance
(c) low power gain (d) low current gain
106. In CE configuration the input terminal is
(a) the collector (b) the emitter
(c)the base (d) either (a) or (b)
107. In CB configuration
(a) IE is the input current
(b) IE is the output current
(c) IB is the input current
(d) ICis the input current
108. In a transistor
(a) IB = IC + IE (b) IC = IB + IE
(c) IE = IC + IB (d) IE = IC - IB
109. IE = IC + IB This statement is true
(a) only in PNP transistor, CE mode
(b) only in NPN transistor
(c) only in PNP transistor in CB configuration
(d) regardless of transistor type or transistor configuration
110. If emitter current in a transistor is 1 mA the the collector
current is nearly
(a) 1 mA (b) 2 mA (c) 0.5 mA (d) 1.5 mA
111. Current gain in a CB configuration is
(a) IC/IE (b) IE/IC (c) IB/IC (d) IE/IB

112. The current gain in CE configuration is
(a) IC/IB (b) IE/IC (c) IB/IC (d) IE/IB
113. a value ranges from
(a) 1 to 2 (b) 0.95 to 0.999
(c) 0.8 to 0.99 (d) 0 to 1
114. The value of of a transistor
(a) is always less than one
(b) is always greater than one
(c) lies between 50 and 300
(d) is always infinity
115. The relation between a and of a transistor is
(a) a = /1 + (b) a = /1-
(c) a = 1 + / (d) = a/ 1 + a
116. In a transistor the collector is meant to collect
(a) majority carriers (b) minority carriers
(c) both majority and minority carriers
(d) electrons
117. In a transistor in operation under proper biasing
(a) IE ,IB, IC are of the order of mA
(b) , IC is very much greater than IE and IB
(c) IB is the order of A and IC is of the order of mA
(d) IE is smaller than IC
118. In a common configuration of a transistor IC = 13.08 mA and
IE = 14mA then the base current is
(a) 0.92 A (b) 0.92 mA
(c) 0.92 A (d) 0.0092 A
119. If IC and IE of a transistor are 1.4 mA and 1.5 mA then its
common base current gain is
(a) 0.95 (b) 0.93
(c) 1.07 (d) 0.1
120. In a CB configuration a=0.95 and IE= 2 mA then IC is
(a) 1.05 mA (b) 1.9 mA
(c) 2.1 mA (d) 0.475 mA
121. If the value of a of a transistor is 0.9 then the value of is
(a) 9 (b) 4.74

(c) 2.1 (d) 1.11
122. If the value of of a transistor is 50 then the value of a is
(a) 0.99 (b) 0.98
(c) 0.97 (d) 0.9
123. If the CE mode current gain is 9 ,its CB mode current gain is
(a) 90 (b) 9
(c) 0.9 (d) 1.125
124. The input impedance of a transistor is given as (in CE mode)
(a) ?VBE (b) ?VCE
?IB ?IB
(a) ?VBE (b) ?VCE
?IC ?IC
125. The unit of input impedance is
(a) ohm (b) mho
(c) nounit (d) ampere
126. The base emitter voltage of 250 mV is applied to a transistor in
CE configuration.If the base current is 150 A then the input
impedance is
(a) 1.66 kO (b) 2 kO
(c) 3 kO (d) 4 kO
127. In CE configuration the amount of collector current flows even
when IB = 0 is called
(a) reverse current (b) leakage current
(c) saturation current (d) conventional current
128. The input characteristic of a transistor shows how
(a) IC varies with change in VBE at constant VCE
(b) IBvaries with change in VBE at constant VCE
(c) IB varies with change in VCE at constant VBE
(d) IC varies with change in VCE at constant VBE
129. The slope of the input characteristic curve of a CE, NPN
transistor gives
(a) input impedance (b) output impedance
(c) reciprocal of the input impedance
(d) output admittance
130. The output characteristic of a transistor indicates the way in

which
(a) IB varies with change in VBE at constant VCE
(b) ICvaries with change in VCE at constant IB (c) IC varies with
change in IB at constant VCE
(d) IE varies with change in VBE at constant IB
131. The slope of the transfer characteristic of a transistor gives
(a) impedance (b) admittance
(c) voltage gain (d) current gain
132. The current gain and power gain in a transistor circuit are
high in the
(a) CB circuit (b) CC circuit
(c) CE circuit (d) CB and CC cicuit
133. The common emitter circuit has
(a) low input impedance and high power gain
(b) low input impedance and low power gain
(c) high input impedance and high power gain
(d) high input impedance and low power gain
134. The value of IE in a transistor for which = 50 and IB = 20 A
is
(a) 0.2 mA (b) 0.5 mA
(c) 1.02 mA (d) 1.02 A
135. A circuit capable of magnifying the amplitude of electrical
signals is called
(a) an amplifier (b) an oscillator
(c) a transistor (d) a diode
136. Resistors,inductors,capacitors and transformers are
(a) active components (b) key components
(c) passive components (d) ideal components
137. Which of the following is an active device

(a) transistor (b) capacitor
(c) transformer (d) inductor
138. Passive components are used to
(a) set the operating point
(b) coupling the signals into the amplifier
(c) coupling the signals out of the amplifier
(d) all the above
139. A good design of amplifier circuit must possess
(a) low input impedance
(b) low current gain
(c) low output impedance
(d) low power gain
140. Dynamic characteristic of a transistor is used to explain
(a) the working of an oscillator
(b) circuit configuration
(c) the amplifying action
(d) the principle of feedback
141. The phase difference between the input and output signal in
an amplifier using a single transistor in CE mode is
(a) 0 (b) 180o
(c) 2700 (d) 3600
142. Common emitter amplifier is more widely used because
(a) good current and voltage gain
(b) poor current and voltage gain
(c) good current and poor voltage gain
(d) poor current and good voltage gain
143. Current gain in common emitter configuration is more than 1

because
(a) Ic< IB (b) Ic > IE
(c) IC< IE (d) Ic > IB
144. operating point of a transistor is
(a) zero signal value of Vcc and IB
(b) zero signal value of Ic
(c) zero signal value of Vcc
(d) zero signal value of Ic and Vcc
145. A transistor is essentially
(a) a current operated device
(b) a voltage operated device
(c) power driven device
(d) resistance operated device
146. For any transistor configuration
(a) stabilisation is required
(b) stabilisation is not required
(c) stabilisation reduces losses
147. Main function of a transistor is to
(a) rectify (b) amplify
(c) simplify (d) produce
148. The current gain for a common emitter amplifier is 49. I f the
emitter current is 6 mA then the base current is
(a) 0.012 mA (b) 0.12 mA
(c) 0.24 mA (d) 1.2 mA
149. The current amplification factor a of a CB transistor and the
current amplification factor of a CE transistor are not related as
(a) a = /1 + (b) = a/1- a
(c) 1/ a 1/ = 1 (d) = a/1 + a
150. Least doped region in a transistor

(a) either emitter or collector
(b) base (c) emitter
(d)collector
151. In a properly biased transistor
(a) both depletion layers are equally large
(b) both depletion layers are equally small
(c) E-B depletion region is large but B-C depletion layer is small
(d) E-B depletion region is small but B-C depletion layer is large
152. A good design of anamplifier circuit must possess
(a) high input impedance,high output impedance,high current gain
(b) high input impedance,high output impedance,low current gain
(c) low input impedance,high output impedance,high current gain
(d) high input impedance,low output impedance,high current gain
153. In an amplifier if the Q point shifts near the saturation line or
cut off region of the output characteristic then
(a) the output will be low
(b) output will be distorted
(c) output will not be affected
(d) output will be high
154. The Q-point of an amplifier should be
(a) in the active region
(b) in the saturation region
(c) in the cut-off region
(d) anywhere
155. The E-B junction of a given transistor is forward biased and its
C-B junction is reverse biased.If the base current is increased then
its
(a) VCE increases (b) IC will decrease
(c) IC will increase (d) VCC will increase

156. Improper biasing of a transistor circuit produces
(a) heavy loading of emitter current
(b) distortion in the output signal
(c) excessive heat at collector terminal
(d) faulty location of load line
157. The most commonly used method of providing bias and
stabilisation to a transistor is
(a) base bias
(b) base bias with emitter feedback
(c) base bias with collector feedback
(d) voltage divider bias
158. In a single stage CE amplifier the coupling capacitor is also
called as
(a) condenser (b) bypass capacitor
(c) DC capacitor (d) blocking capacitor
159. The voltage gain of a single stage CE amplifier depends on
(a) value of the capacitance used
(b) value of the resistance used
(c) frequency range over which the amplifier operates
(d) all the above
160. In a single stage CE amplifier the voltage gain at mid frequency
range
(c) is a constant
(d) increases and then decreases
161. Single stage CE amplifier is used in

(a) current amplification
(b) voltage amplification
(c) power amplification
162. The gain of a single stage CE amplifier at low frequency range

(a) increases with increase of frequency
(b) decreases with increase of frequency
(c) remains constant
(d) increases and then decreases
163. At the high frequency range the gain of a single CE amplifier
(a) increases with increase of frequency
(b) decreases with increase of frequency
(d)increases and then decreases
164. The voltage gain of a single stage CE amplifier is maxmimum
at
(a) low frequency range
(b) high frequency range
(c) mid frequency range
(d) all the frequencies
165. The gain of a single stage CE amplifier at upper and lower cut
off frequencies is given by
(a) v2 times the mid frequency gain
(b) 2 times the mid frequency gain
(c) 1/v2 times the mid frequency gain
(d) 1/2 times the mid frequency gain
166. When two amplifiers of gains A1 and A2 are cascaded then the
overall gain is
(a) A1 + A2 (b) A1 A2
(c) A1 A2 (d) A1/ A2
167. Three amplifiers have gains 10,50,80.When they are cascaded
the overall gain is
(a) 140 (b) 500
(c) 400 (d) 4 x 104

168. In a two stage amplifier the output of the first stage if fed to
the input of the second stage through
(a) condenser (b) bypass capacitor
(c) DC capacitor (d) blocking condenser
169. When dc signals have to be amplified the simplest and the best
coupling is
(a) R-C coupling (b) transformer coupling
(c) direct coupling (d) L-C coupling
170. The characteristics of an amplifier depend on
(a) passive component (b) operating point
(c) input signal (d) transistor parameters
171. An amplifier becomes a feedback amplifier if
(a) a fraction of output voltage is fedback to the amplifier input
(b) A fraction of the output voltage is fed to the input of next stage
(c) A fraction of the input voltage is fed to the output of the amplifier
(d) A fraction of input voltage is fed to the input of the next stage
172. Overall performance of an amplifier circuit can be improved by
(a) using negative feedback
(b) using positive feedback
(c) removing the feedback
(d) increasing the input voltage
173. In amplifiers the feedback is said to be positive if the phase

difference between the input and the feedback signal is
(a) 0o (b) 90o
(c) 180o (d) 270o
174. When the input signal and the feedback signal are out of
phase by 180o then the feedback is called as
(a) positive (b) direct
(c) regenerative (d) degenerative
175. In a feedback amplifier if the feedback fraction is negative then
the feedback is
(a) direct (b) positive
(c) regenerative (d) degenerative

176. positive feedback is used in
(a) amplifiers (b) oscillators
(c) transistors (d) diodes
177. In an amplifier positive feedback is given such that A = 1
then the gain of the amplifier becomes
(a) zero (b) maximum
(c) infinity (d) minimum
178. The voltage amplification factor of an amplifier without
feedback is 20.When positive feedback is given with a feedback
fraction 0.01 then the gain with feedback is
(a) 30 (b) 25 (c) 20 (d) 16.7
179. The overall gain of a multistage amplifier is 140.When negative
feedback is applied the gain is reduced to 20.The feedback ratio is
(a) 1/7 (b) 1/20
(c) 6/7 (d) 7/8
180. Positive feedback is used in oscillators because it
(a) increases selectivity (b) reduces distortion
(c) increases stability (d) increases gain
181. The condition for an amplifier to work as an oscillator is that

the feedback fraction should be
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) one
(d) positive and equal to the reciprocal of the amplifier gain
182. For oscillatior the feedback and feedback fraction must be
(a) negative and 1/A (b) negative and 1/
(c) positive and 1/A (d) positive and 1/
183. A feedback amplifier becomes an oscillator when
(a) 1 - A< 1` (b) 1 A = 0
(c) 1 - A> 1 (d) A = 1/ 1- A
184. If A be the stage gain in an oscillator then the feedback ratio
should be equal to
(a) A (b) 1/A (c) A2 (d) vA

185. One of the following is the essential part of an oscillatory
circuit
(a) inductor and resistor in series
(b) resistor and capacitor in series
(c) resistor and capacitor in parallel
(d) inductor and capacitor in parallel
186. A circuit which converts energy from a DC source into a
periodically varying electrical input is called
(a) rectifier (b) oscillator
(c) CRO (d) amplifier
187. In feedback amplifiers the term A is called as
(a) feedback ratio (b) loopgain
(c) amplifier ratio (d) feedback fraction
188. In oscillators the net phase shift round the loop is

(a) 0o only
(b) 0o or integral multiples of ?
(c) 0o or integral multiples of 2?
(d) 0o or integral multiples of ?/2
189. An oscillator is
(a) an amplifier with feedback
(b) a convertor of ac to dc energy
(c) nothing but an amplifier
(d) an amplifier without feedback
190. Sinusoidal oscillators produce an output of
(a) sine waveform (b) square waveform
(c) Rectangular waveform (d) saw-tooth waves
191. Which of the following produces rectangular waveform
(a) Hartley oscillator
(b) Multivibrator
(c) Colpit oscillator
(d) Tuned collector oscillator
192. In sinusoidal oscillators the frequency determining device is
made up of
(a) an inductor and resistor
(b) an inductor and capacitor
(c) a resistor and capacitor
193. The oscillations produced in an LC circuit are
(a) non harmonic (b) damped
(c) undamped (d) non-sinusoidal
194. The frequency of oscillation produced in a LC circuit is f =

(a) 1/2?LC (b) 1/2?vLC
(c) 2?LC (d) 1/2?v L/C
195. In a colpitt's oscillator circuit
(a) capacitor feedback is used
(b) tapped coil is used
(c) no tuned LC circuit is used
(d) no capacitor is used
196. The frequency of colpitt's oscillator is given by
(a) 2? v C1+C2/LC1C2 (b) 2? vL C1C2/ C1+C2
(c) 1 v C1+C2/LC1C2 (d) 1 vL C1C2/ C1+C2
2? 2?
197. Monolithic IC s contain components on
(a) two silicon chip
(b) a single silicon chip
(c) a single gate chip
(d) two gate chips

198. Hybrid ICs contain the components mounted on a
(a) silicon chip (b) gate chip
(c) substrate (d) glass substrate
199. In the hybrid ICs the interconnection is made by
(a) wire bonds (b) metallisation
(c) neither (a) nor (b) (d) either (a) or (b)
200. Generally the size of ICs range from .. to ----------- mils
(a) 40 x 40 , 100 x 100 (b) 20 x 20 , 80 x80
(c) 40 x 40 , 300 x 300 (d) 40 x 40 , 400 x 400
201. One mil is equal to
(a) 0.001 mm (b) 0.001 cm
(c) 0.001 inch (d) 0.001 dm
202. Circuits which are used to process digital signals are called
(a) analog gates (b) logic gates
(c) digital gates (d) linear gates
203. Gate is a digital circuit with
(a) one input and one output
(b) one input and one or more outputs
(c) one or more inputs and one output
(d) any number of inputs and outputs
204. All the possible inputs and outputs of a logic circuit are
represented in a table called ------------- table
(a) truth (b) false
(c) verification (d) check
205. The Boolean expression to express the OR gate is given by Y =
(a) A . B (b) A + B
(c) A + B (d) A. B
206. The Boolean expression to represent AND gate is given by Y =
(a) A . B (b) A + B
(c) A + B (d) A. B
207. The Boolean expression to represent EXOR operation is
(a) AB + A .B (b) A .B
(c) AB (d) A B + A B
208. NAND gate is a combination of
(a) NOT and AND (b) NOT and OR
(c) NOT and NOR (d) AND and OR
209. NAND and NOR gates are called --------- gates
(a) complete (b) multipurpose
(c) universal (d) full
210. According to De- Morgans first theorem

A+B=
(a) A + B (b) A + B
(c) A B (d) AB
211. According to De-Morgans second theorem
AB =
(a) A + B (b) A + B
(c) A + B (d) A B
212. According to Boolean algebra the expression
( A + AB ) is equal to
(a) A (b) AB
(c) B (d) B
213. The Boolean expression ABC can be simplified as
(a) AB + C (b) A B C
(c) AB + BC + CA (d) A + B +C
214. Simplified form of (A + B ) (A + B) =
(a) A (b) B
(c) A + B (d) A + B
215. In the Boolean algebra which of the following is not equal to A
(a) A A (b) A + A
(c) A A (d) A + A
216. Operational amplifier is
(a) a linear IC
(b) a digital IC
(c) a logic gate
(d) an instrument used to measure voltage

217. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an Op-amp
(a) high input impedance
(b) high current gain
(c) high output impedance
(d) low output impedance
218. In an inverting amplifier if Rf = Rin then the output voltage
Vout =
(a) V in (b) Vin
Rin
(c) V in (d) _ Rf x Vin
Rin
219. The output voltage of a non-inverting amplifier is
(a) (1- Rf/Rin) Vin (b) (1 + Rin /Rf) Vin
(c) (1- Rin/Rf) Vin (d) ( 1+ Rf/Rin) Vin
220. If V1 = 2 V and V2 = 3V are the input voltages given to the
summing amplifier then the theoretical output of the amplifier
is( R1=R2=Rf=R)
(a) 5 V (b) 1 V
(c) -5V (d) -1V
221. The virtual representation of voltage and frequency in any
electronic circuit is given by
(a) CRO (b) multimeter
(c) ammeter (d) op-AMP
222. The main component of a multimeter is
(a) a shunt (b) a galvanometer
(c) a battery (d) a resistance in series
223. A multimeter is used to measure
(a) current (b) voltage
(c) resistance (d) all the above
224. The galvanometer is converted into an ohmmeter
by connecting
(a) a battery in series
(b) a resistance in series

(c) a battery and resistance in series
(d) a battery and resistance in parallel
225. A multimeter is used to measure
(a) Dc currents and voltages
(b) Ac currents and voltages
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Resistance only
226. To measure AC currents and voltages -------- circuit is
connected in series with the multimeter
(a) a rectifier (b) transformer
(c) an amplifier (d) an oscillator
PART-B
semiconductor?
2) What is doping? What are the methods of doping?
3) What do you mean by depletion region?
4) Define potential barrier
8) Why CE configuration is preferred over CB configuration for
operating transistor as an amplifier?
10) What is meant by feedback? Name types of feedback.
11) What are the advantages of negative feedback?
12) Give the Barkhausen criteria for oscillations.
13) Give the function of OR and NAND gates.
14) What are universal gates? Why are they called so?
EXOR operation.
16) What is an integrated circuit?
17) Differenciate between linear and digital IC s.
18) Explain the term virtual ground of an amplifier

19) Give the important parameters of an operational amplifier.
PART-C
1) Describe the valence band, conduction band forbidden energy
gap with the help of energy level diagram.
2) Describe the energy band structure of insulator, semiconductor
and conductor.
3) Explain the working of a half wave diode rectifier.
4) Explain with necessary circuit how zener diode can be used as a
voltage regulator.
5) Describe the working of PNP and NPN transistor
6) Deduce the relation between ? and of a transistor
7) Explain the voltage divider bias.
8) State and prove DeMorgan's theorems.
9) Explain how operational amplifier is used as a summer.
10) Describe the action of an operational amplifier as difference
amplifier.
PART-D
1) Explain the working of bridge rectifier.
2) Explain P-type and N-type semiconductors.
3) Explain an experiment to determine the characteristics of a
transistor in CE configuration. Explain how the transistor
parameters can be evaluated.
4) Describe the working of a transistor amplifier
5) Explain the working of a single stage CE amplifier.
6) Derive an expression for voltage gain of an amplifier with negative
feedback.
7) Explain the generation of sinusoidal waves by a tuned LC circuit.
8) Sketch the circuit of colpitt's oscillator. Explain its working.
9) Explain the functions of logic gates with their truth tables.
10) Describe an operational amplifier. Explain its action as (i)
inverting amplifier and (ii) non inverting amplifier.
11) Explain the construction and working of a CRO.
12) Explain the working of a multimeter.
BLUE PRINT
3 X 1 =3 4 X 3 = 12 1 X 5 = 5 1 X 10 = 10 TOTAL 30 MARKS
1. The Nucleus is believed to be composed of
(a) Protons
(b) Electrons only
(c) Protons and Electrons
(d) Protons and Neutrons
2. The charge of a Proton is
(a) Positive
(b) Negative
(c) No Charge
(d) No charge inside a nucleus.
3. The rest mass of a proton is
(a) 1836.1 times that of an electron
(b) 1836.1 times that of an electron
(c) 1/1836.1 times that of an electron
(d) 1/1836.1 times that of an neutron
4. The Neutron is
(a) Slightly lighter than proton
(b) Slightly heavier than proton
(c) Slightly heavier than an electron
(d) Slightly lighter than an electron
5. Which of the following are referred as Nucleons?
(a) Protons and Electrons
(b) Protons only
(c) Protons and Neutrons
(d) Neutrons and Electrons
6. Protons and neutrons have identical properties except for their
(a) Mass (b) Charge
(c) Size (d) Equivalent energy

7. The Nucleons are held together by some sort of strong attractive
forces called
(a) Electrostatic force
(b) Nuclear force
(c) Magnetic force
(d) Gravitational force
8. Nuclear term Z represents the number of
(a) Protons
(b) Electrons
(c) Protons or Electrons
(d) Protons and Electrons
9. A Nucleus is symbolically represented as zXA where A represents
the number of
(a) Neutrons (b) Protons
(c) Nucleons (d) Electrons
10. The mass number of an Element is equal to the

(a) Number of Protons
(b) Number of Electrons
(c) Sum of the number of protons and neutrons
(d) Number of protons and electrons
11. The Mean radius of an atomic nucleus is of the order of
(a) 10-13m (b) 10-11m
(c) 10-10m (d)10-14m
12. The Radius of a nucleus is lesser than the radius of an atom by
(a) 100 times (b) 1000 times
(b) 10 times (d) 10,000 times
13. The empirical formula for the Nuclear radius is
(a) R = r0A1/3 (b) R = (r0A)1/3

(c) R = r01/3A (d) R = r0/A1/3
14. The value of r0 in the empirical formula for the nuclear radius
is
(a) 1.5 F (b) 1.3 F
(c) 1.2 F (d) 1.7 F
15. One Fermi is equivalent to
(a) 10-10m (b) 10-12m
(c) 10-15m (d) 10-16m
16. Charge of the Nucleus is due to
(a) Protons in it
(b) Neutrons in it
(c) Both Protons and Neutrons in it
(d) Electrons
17. The ratio of the Nuclear radii of 79Au197 and 47Au107 is
(a) 1.32 (b) 1.23
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.4
18. The Nuclear radius of a nucleus of mass number 165 is 7.731
Fermi then the radius of 2He4 is
(a) 2.238fm (b) 2.328fm
(c) 2.5fm (d) 3 fm
19. The relation between Atomic number Z, neutron number N and
mass number A is
(a) A-Z = N (b) A+Z = N
(c) A+N = Z (d) 2A = Z-N
20. The assumed Nuclear mass is equal to

(a) (Zmp + Nmn) (b) (Zmp - Nmn)
(c) (Zmp / Nmn) (d) (Zmp + Nme)

21. The real Nuclear mass is
(a) Greater than (Zmp + Nmn)
(b) Less than (Zmn + Nmp)
(c) Less than (Zmp + Nmn)
(d) Greater than (Zmn + Nmp)
22. The mass defect ?m is equal to
(a) Real mass - (Zmp + Nmn)
(b) Real mass - (Zmp - Nmn)
(c) (Zmp + Nmn) Real mass
(d) Real mass + (Zmp + Nmn)
23. If mn is the average mass of a nucleon then the nuclear mass is
(a) Nmn (b) Amn
(c) Zmn (d) (A+Z)mn
24. The average mass of a Nucleon is
(a) 1.67X10-27kg (b) 1.67X1027kg
(c) 1.67X10-27g (d) 1.67X1027g
25. The Nuclear Volume is given by
(a) 4 p r0A3/3 (b) 4 p r03A /3
(c) 4 p (r0A)3/3 (d) 4 p r0A1/3/3
26. Nuclear density is equal to
(a) 1.816 x 1017 kg m3
(b) 1.816 x 1017 kg / m3
(c) 1.816 x 10-17 kg / m3
(d) 1.816 x 10-17 kg m3
27. The Charge of a proton is
(a) -1.6 x 10-19 c (b) +1.6 x 10-19 c
(c) -1.6 x 1019 c (d) +1.6 x 1019 c
28. The charge of the Nucleus is due to the

(a) Protons (b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons (d) Positrons
29. Nuclear charge is
(a) Ee (b) Ae
(c) Ze (d) Ne
30. If A is the mass number of the nucleus its volume is directly
proportional to
(a) A (b) A1/3
(c) A2/3 (d) A3
31. The mass number of a Nucleus is increased by a factor of 3. The

volume is expected to increase by
(a) 1.7 times (b) 3 times
(c) 6 times (d) 9 times
32. Energy of an Electron in atom and nuclear energy are
respectively in the order of
(a) Mev and ev (b) Mev and Mev
(b) ev and ev (d) ev and Mev
33. Which of the following is different for the isotopes of the same
element
(a) Atomic number (b) Mass number
(c) Atomic weight (d) Number of protons
34. Isotopes of the same element have
(a) Same number of protons and neutrons
(b) Same number of neutrons but different number of protons
(c) Same number of protons but different number of neutrons
(d) Same number of protons but different number of electrons
35. Pick out isotopes from the following

(a) 1H1,6c12 (b) 7N15,8O16
(c) 1H3,2He3 (d) 92U235 92U238
36. The Atomic mass unit is defined as 1/12th of the mass of
(a) 6c12 atom (b) 6c14 atom
(c) 6c11 atom (d) 6c13 atom
37. The mass of 6C12 is equal to
(a) 1 amu (b) 12 amu
(c) 6 amu (d) 2 amu
38. Mass of a Proton is
(a) 1.007277 amu (b) 1.008668 amu
(c) 1.07277 amu (d) 1.08665 amu
39. The mass of a Neutron is
(a) 1.66 X 1027 kg (b) 1.66 X 10-27 kg
(c) 1.66 X 1017 kg (d) 1.66 X 10-19 kg
40. 1 amu is equal to
(a) 1.66 x 1027 kg (b) 1.66 x 10-27 kg
(c) 1.66 x 1017 kg (d) 1.66 x 10-19 kg
41. 1 Electron volt is equal to
(a) 1.602 x 1019 J (b) 1.602 x 10-19 J
(c) 1.602 x 109 J (d) 1.67 x 10-19 J
42. The Energy equivalence of 1 amu is equal to

(a) 913 ev (b) 931 ev
(c) 931 Mev (d) 913 Mev
43. The mass of the Nucleus is less than the sum of the masses of
the constituents. This mass difference is called as
(a) Mass difference (b) Mass defect

(c) Binding energy (d) Packing fraction
44. Energy equivalence of mass defect is known as
(a) Energy equivalent of 1 amu
(b) Energy of the nucleus
(c) Binding energy
(d) Atomic energy
45. Electron volt is the unit of
(a) Charge (b) Potential difference
(c) Current (d) Energy
46. If a mass of ?m is converted into energy, then the energy
released is
(a) ?E = (?m) / c2
(b) ?E = (?m) c2
(c) ?E = ?m + c2
(d) ?E = ?m-c2
47. Binding energy of Helium is
(a) Less than that of hydrogen
(b) Less than that of Lithium
(c) More than that of Lithium
(d) Equal to that of hydrogen
48. In BE/A curve cyclic recurrences of peaks exist corresponding
to those nuclei whose mass numbers are
(a) Multiples of four
(b) Greater than 28
(c) Less than 28
(d) Multiples of three
49. The BE/A curve shows that iron nucleus is
(a) Most stable (b) Unstable
(c) Radioactive (d) Heavy
50. The BE/A value reaches a maximum of

(a) 8.5 Mev (b) 8.8 Mev
(c) 8.9 Mev (d) 9.8 Mev
51. The BE/A value is maximum for
(a) Helium (b) Oxygen
(c) Uranium (d) Iron
52. The BE/A value is maximum at

(a) A = 26 (b) A = 66
(c) A = 56 (d) A = 102
53. The average B.E for moderate nuclei having the mass number
range from 40 to 120 is
(a) 8.8 Mev (b) 8.5 Mev
(c) 7.8 Mev (d) 7.6 Mev
54. For higher mass numbers, the value of BE/A decreases and fall
to
(a) 8.6 Mev (b) 7.7 Mev
(c) 7.6 Mev (d) 8.5 Mev
55. The value of BE/A falls to 7.6 Mev for
(a) Gold (b) Silver
(c) Brass (d) Uranium
56. In a nuclear reaction, there is a decrease of mass by 0.04 amu.
Then the energy released in that nuclear reaction is
(a) 37.24 ev (b) 23275 Mev
(c) 37.24 Mev (d) 23275 ev
57. It is not possible to express amu interms of
(a) ev (b) Joule
(c) erg (d) kilowatt hour

58. The particle which can be added to the nucleus of an element
without changing its chemical properties is
(a) Proton (b) Positron
(c) Neutron (d) Electron
59. The energy released in a nuclear reaction is
5.586 Mev. The mass defect in amu is
(a) 5.586 (b) 0.06 (c) 0.006
(d) Not determinable as data given is not enough
60. A particle moving with a velocity of 1/100th of that of light will
cross a nucleus in about
(a) 10-8 s (b) 10-12s
(c) 10-17s (d) 10-20s
61. The nuclear radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is
3x10-15m. With nuclear number 128, radius is
(a) 3x10-15m (b) 1.5x10-15m
(c) 6x10-15m (d) 4.5x10-15m
62. The mass number of a nucleus is

(a) Always less than its atomic number
(b) Always more than its atomic number
(c) Sometimes equal to its atomic number
(d) Sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic
number
63. When the number of nucleons in nuclei increase, the binding
energy per nucleon
(a) Increases with mass number
(b) Decreases with mass number

(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases and then decreases with the mass number
64. Which of the following are isobars
(a) 6C14, 8O16 (b) 17Cl35, 17Cl37
(c) 8O16, 7N16 (d) 6C12, 6C14
65. Which of the following are isotones?
(a) 6C12, 6C14 (b) 6C14, 8O16
(c) 92U235, 92U238 (d) All the above
66. A device used to determine the Atomic masses is called
(a) Spectrometer
(b) Bragg spectrometer
(c) Mass spectrometer
(d) GM counter
67. If the ratio of Nuclear radius of two nuclei is 2:3 then the ratio
of their mass numbers is
(a) 21/3 : 31/9 (b) 3 : 2
(c) 27 : 8 (d) 8 : 27
68. The velocity selector in a Bainbridge mass spectrometer consists
of
(a) Electric field only
(b) Uniform electric and magnetic fields at right angles to each other
(c) Uniform electric and magnetic fields parallel to each other
(d) Non-uniform electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each
other
69. A positive ion of charge q is moving with a velocity v in a
magnetic field of induction B acting at right angles to the motion of
the ion. The force exerted by the field on the ion is
(a) Bq/v (b) B/vq
(c) Bqv (d) vq/B
70. In a Bainbridge mass spectrometer a potential difference of

2000 v is applied between the plates which are 1 cm apart a
magnetic field of induction 0.5 T is applied in a perpendicular
direction. Then the velocity of ions which are not deflected by these
two fields is
(a) 4000 m/s (b) 1000 m/s
(c) 105 m/s (d) 4x105 m/s
71. Nuclear force is the force of
(a) Attraction between a proton and an electron
(b) Repulsion between protons
(c) Repulsion between electrons
(d) Attraction between the nucleons
72. Nuclear forces are
(a) Electrostatic
(b) Force between proton and electron
(c) Force between two electrons
(d) Charge independent
73. The ratio of strength of gravitational and nuclear force is
(a) 1 : 1040 (b) 1 : 10-40
(c) 1040 : 1 (d) 10-40 : 1
74. Nuclear force exits between
(a) (n-n) only (b) (p-p) only
(c) (p-n) only
(d) (n-n), (p-p) and (p-n)
75. The Nuclear force is a
(a) Long range force
(b) Short range force
(c) Charge dependent

(d) Gravitational force
76. The Nuclear force is very strong between two Nucleons when
they are separated by a distance of
(a) 10-15m (b) 10-15cm
(c) 10-15mm (d) 1015m
77. The Nuclear force between two Nucleons arises due to the
continuous exchange of particles called mesons. This was suggested
by
(a) Yukawa (b) Becquerel
(c) Strassman (d) Chadwick
78. Radioactivity was discovered by
(a) Madame Curie (b) Joliet
(c) Henry Becquerel (d) Ruther ford
79. A radioactive element emits certain radiation. By increasing the

temperature its radioactivity
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) First increases and then decreases
(d) Remains the same
80. The phenomenon of radioactivity is exhibited by elements
having atomic number
(a) Less than 62 (b) Greater than 82
(c) Greater than 45 (d) Less than 40
81. ? particle is
(a) An electron (b) A proton
(c) A helium nucleus
(d) Positive charge
82. Ionising power of ? rays is ________ times greater than that of
rays and ______ times greater than that of ? rays

(a) 1000, 10000 (b) 10000, 100
(c) 1000,100 (d) 100, 10000
83. rays are nothing but
(a) Protons (b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons (d) Positrons
84. The velocity of particle range from
(a) 3c 9c (b) 0.3c 0.99c
(c) 30c 990c (d) None of the above
85. Which of the following has the highest penetrating power
(a) a rays (b) rays
(c) ? rays (d) X-rays
86. Which of the following has the least ionising power
(a) a rays (b) rays
(c) ? rays (d) x-rays
87. The displacement laws governing radioactivity were given by
(a) Ruther ford (b) Soddy
(c) Ruther ford and Soddy
(d) Soddy and Fajans
88. The laws of Radioactive disintegration were given by
(a) Ruther ford
(b) Soddy
(c) Ruther ford and Soddy
(d) Soddy and Fajans
89. When a radio-active nucleus disintegrates by emitting an a

particle, then
(a) Atomic number decreases by four mass number decreases by
two
(b) Atomic number decreases by two mass number decreases by
four
(c) Atomic number increases by two mass number decreases by four
(d) Atomic number decreases by two mass number increases by four
90. When Radium is converted into Radon
(a) An ? particle is released
(b) A particle is released
(c) ? rays are emitted
(d) x rays are emitted
91. The particle emitted in the following reaction is zxA ? z-2 x A-4 +
zHe4 + _______
(a) a particle (b) - Particle
(c) ? rays (d) Electron
92. When Thorium is converted into Protactinium
(a) An a particle is released
(b) particle is released
(c) ? rays are emitted
(d) x rays are emitted
93. When a particle is emitted the resulting new atom has
(a) Same Z and A + Z
(b) Same z and A-2
(c) Same Z and A +1
(d) Z+1 and A
94. zxA ? z+1Y A + x then X is 2
(a) 2 He 4 (b) 1 e 0
(c) -1 e 0 (d) 0 n -1
95. When ? - rays emitted by a radioactive nuclei, then
(a) Atomic number changes, mass number remains the same
(b) Atomic number remains the same mass number changes
(c) Both atomic and mass number changes

(d) The energy level of the nucleus
under goes a change
96. A parent nucleus 92 U 238 emits an alpha particle, followed by

a beta emission from its daughter. The final product nucleus will
have Z and A equal to
(a) 91, 236 (b) 92, 236
(c) 91, 234 (d) 90, 234
97. A target of magnesium 12 Mg 24 is bombarded by an alpha
particle and a neutron is ejected. The atomic number of the
resulting nucleus is
(a) 14 (b) 13
(c) 12 (d) 11
98. Three radioactive substances have their activity in the ratio 1 : 3
: 5. The substances are heated to double its temperature. Then
activities will be
(a) 5 : 3 : 1 (b) 3 : 1 : 5
(c) 3 : 5 : 1 (d) 1 : 3 : 5
99. If a radioactive nucleus decays by emitting a particle, the
ratio of number of neutrons to that of protons
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains same
(d) Some times increases and other time decreases depending on
mass number A
100. If 92 U 238 decays step by step with the emission of 8?
particles and 6 particles the stable product is

(a) 81 Pb 207 (b) 82 Pb 207
(c) 81 Pb 206 (d) 82 Pb 206
101. The sequence of stepwise decay of radioactive nucleus is R1 a?
R2 ? R3 a? R4 ? R5 if Z = 71 and A = 176 for R3, then that of R1
respectively are
(a) 72, 180 (b) 70, 176
(c) 69,172 (d) 72, 176
102. In a Radioactive element the number of atoms that
disintegrate in unit time is
(a) Directly proportional to the number of atoms present initially
(b) Directly proportional to the number of atoms present at that
instant
(c) Inversely proportional to the number of atoms present initially
(d) Inversely proportional to the number of atoms present at that
instant
103. Let N be the number of atoms at a particular time t, let dN

atoms disintegerate in a time dt, then
(a) dN / dt a N0 (b) dN / dt a N
(c) dN / dt a N (d) dN / dt a 1/N
104. If N0 is the initial number of atoms and N is the number of
atoms present, the law of radioactive disintegeration is given by
(a) N = N 0 e?t (b) N = N 0 (1+e?t)
(c) N = N 0 (1+e-?t) (d) N = N 0 e-?t
105. A Radio active sample completely decays in a time of
(a) Half life period (b) Zero
(c) Mean life period (d) Infinity
106. The half life period of a Radioactive element is

(a) T = 0.6931/? (b) T = ?/0.6931
(c) T = 6.931/? (d) T = 0.6931 ?
107. If T is the half life period and ? is the decay constant then
(a) Ta ? (b) Ta 1/?
(c) Ta ?2 (d) T a 1/?2
108. The mean life of a radio active element t is related to its decay
constant ? by the equation
(a) t = 1/? (b) t = ?
(c)t = 0.6931 ? (d) t = 0.6931/?
109. The half life period T and mean life period t are related as
(a) T = 0.6931 / t (b) T = t / 0.6931
(c) T = 0.6931t (d) T =1/ 0.6931 t
110. The activity of a radioactive substance is given by
(a) R = dN / dt (b) R = dt / dN
(c) R = -dN / dt (c) R = -dt / dN
111. The unit of activity is
(a) Disintegration per second
(b) Becquerel
(c) Roentgen
(d) Any one of the above
112. Curie is defined as the quantity of a radioactive substance

which gives_______ disintegerations per second
(a) 3 x 109 (b) 3.7 x 1010

(c) 3.7 x 109 (d) 3.7 x 108
113. 1 Curie is equal to
(a) 3.7 x 109 becqurel
(b) 1 / 3.7 x 109 Becquerel
(c) 37 x 109 Becquerel
(d) 37 x 1010 Becquerel
114. The half life period of a radioactive element is 15 hours. At the
end of 30 hours the fraction of the radioactive element remaining is
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/2
(c) 1/3 (c) 0
115. A Radioactive substance has half life period 30 days. Then the
Radioactive disintegration constant is
(a) 0.0231 per day (b) 0.0231 per day
(c) 0.0231 day (d) 0.231 day
116. The half life of Au198 is 2.7 days. The mean life period is
(a) 3.896 days (b) 3.986 days
(c) 3.896 day (d) 3.986 days
117. The disintegeration constant ? of a radioactive element is
0.00231 per day. Then the half life period is
(a) 30 days (b) 3 days
(c) 300 days (d) 0.3 days
118. The half life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. What
fraction of the sample will remain undecayed after 90 minutes
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/6
(c) 1/8 (d) 1/16
119. If 7/8 of an artificial Radioactive element decays in 168
seconds, its half life will be
(a) 684 s (b) 56 s
(c) 336 s (d) 42 s
120. The half life of a radioactive sample is 30 hrs. This contains

100 nuclei in the beginning. How much time is required for the
decay of 87.5 % of the sample
(a) 26 hrs and 15 min
(b) 52 hrs and 30 min
(c) 120 hrs
(d) 90 hrs
121. The mass of a radioactive substance reduces to 1/32 of the
original mass in 21/3 hours. The half life is approximately
(a) 1.4 hrs (b) 28 min
(c) 40 min (d) 75 min
122. Half life period of a substance is 15 years. The time taken for
100 g of the substance to decay completely is
(a) 30 years (b) 105 years
(c) Infinity (d) 1.2 x 105 years
123. The average life of radioactive element t and its half life (T) are
compared as
(a) t > T (b) t < T
(b) t = T (d) t = 1+T
124. A Radioactive substance has half-life period of 2 hours and
another has half life period of
3 hours. Initial mass of the two substances is same. After 6 hours,

the ratio of the masses of the two substances is
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 2 : 3
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 3
125. When Beryllium was bombarded by a particles a highly
penetrating type of radiation was emitted. This was observed by
(a) Chadwick (b) Curie and Joliot
(c) Bothe and Becker
(d) Yukava
126. Pick out the wrong statement
When beryllium was bombarded by a particles, the emitted
radiation was
(a) Capable of traversing through a thick layer of lead
(b) Highly penetrating
(c) Affected by electric and magnetic fields
(d) Capable of knock out protons from substances that are rich in
hydrogen
127. Neutrons were named by

(a) Bothe (b) Curie and Joliot
(c) Chadwick (d) All the above
128. The particle emitted in the following reaction is 4Be9 + 2He4 ?
6c12 + _____
(a) Proton (b) Electron
(c) Neutron (d) a particle
129. Neutrons are neutral particles with zero charge and mass
slightly greater than that of
(a) Proton (b) Electron
(c) Positron (d) Meson

130. Neutrons are constituents of
(a) All Nuclei
(b) Light Nuclei only
(c) Heavy Nuclei only
(d) All Nuclei except hydrogen
131. The half life of a neutron is
(a) 13 seconds (b) 13 hours
(c) 13 days (d) 13 minutes
132. A free neutron decays into
(a) An electron and proton
(b) An electron a proton and a anti-neutrino
(c) An electron, a proton and positron
(d) An electron, a proton and an a - particles
133. A free neutron decays as follows 0n1 ? 1 H1 + -1e0 + ? Here ?
is
(a) Photon (b) Anti-neutrino
(c) Muon (d) p-meson
134. When a Neutron changes into a proton, the particle emitted is
(a) Electron (b) Pion
(c) Meson (d) Positron
135. Neutrons with energies between 0.5Mev to 10 Mev are called
(a) Fast neutrons (b) slow neutrons
(c) Thermal neutrons (d) Unstable neutrons
136. Slow neutrons have energies between
(a) 1000 ev and 0.5 Mev
(b) Zero and 1000 ev
(c) Zero and 1000 Mev
(d) Zero and 100 ev
137. Fast neutrons can be slowed down by allowing them to pass

through
(a) Moderators (b) Control rods
(c) Coolant (d) Reflectors
138. The Moderators are rich in
(a) Hydrogen atoms
(b) Protons
(c) Electrons
(d) Mesons
139. The slowing down of fast neutrons in moderators is due to
(a) Absorption of neutrons by the moderator
(b) Reflection of neutrons by the stationary H atoms in the
moderator
(c) The sharing of KE between fast neutrons and stationary H atoms
in the moderator
(d) Repulsion of neutrons by the hydrogen atoms of the moderator
140. The reactivity of an element becomes 1/64 th of its original
value in 60 seconds. Then the half life period is
(a) 5 s (b) 10 s
(c) 20 c (d) 30 s
141. The decay constant of a radioactive sample is ?. The half life
and mean life of the sample are respectively given by
(a) 1/? and loge2 / ? (b) loge2 / ? and 1/?
(c) ? (loge2) and 1/? (d) ? / loge2 and 1/?
142. Artificial radioactivity was discovered by
(a) Henry Becquerel (b) Curie and Joliot
(c) Bothe and Becker (d) Marie and Curie

143. Artificial radioactivity is the disintegration of
(a) Heavy elements
(b) Light elements
(c) Both heavy and light elements
(d) Neither heavy nor light elements
144. The particle carries one unit positive charge with mass equal
to that of an electron is
(a) Neutron (b) Proton
(c) Neutrino (d) Positron
145. Half life period of 7N13* is

(a) 10.1 s (b) 10.1 minutes
(c) 10.1 hours (d) 10.1 days
146. In the following nuclear reaction 13 Al 27 + 2 He 4 ? 15 p 30*
+ x x is a
(a) Positron (b) Neutron
(c) a particle (d) ? rays
147. Positron is denoted as
(a) -1 e 0 (b) 1 e 0
(c) 0 e 1 (d) 0 e -1
148. Which of the following is not emitted in artificial radioactivity
(a) Electrons (b) Positrons
(c) a particles (d) ? rays
149. The half life of radio phosphorous is

(a) 3 sec (b) 3 minutes
(c) 13 minutes (d) 3 hours
150. CO 60 is used for the treatment of
(a) Cancer (b) Heart disease
(c) Brain tumor (d) Skin diseases
151. The radio isotope used for locating brain tumor is
(a) Phosphorous (b) Iodine
(c) Cobalt (d) Sodium
152. Which of the following is used to find out the extent of the
enlargement of the Thyroid gland
(a) Iodine-131 (b) Iodine-130
(c) Sodium-24 (d) Cobalt-60
153. Which of the following is used to check effective functioning of
the heart in pumping blood and maintaining circulation
(a) Cobalt-60 (b) Radium
(c) Radio Iodine (d) Radio Sodium
154. Which of the following is used in the treatment of skin diseases
(a) p32 (b) Fe59
(c) Na24 (d) I131
155. Carbon-14 is formed in the atmosphere by
(a) Caron reacts with oxygen

(b) High energy cosmic rays
(c) Collision between molecules
(d) None of the above
156. The ratio of radioactive Carbon-14 and Carbon-12 that is
present in living tissues is about
(a) 1:106 (b) 106:1
(c) 1:109 (d) 109:1
157. The radio active element used to estimate to the age of a
specimen is
(a) C-12 (b) C-6
(c) C-14 (d) C-16
158. Which of the following is a radio active clock for
Anthropologists?
(a) C-14 (b) U-236
(c) Pb-205 (d) C-12
159. To evaluate the age of Ancient object, which one of the
following is adopted?
(a) Nuclear fission
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Radiocarbon dating
(d) Artificial Radioactivity
160. The half life period of Carbon-14 is
(a) 3600years (b) 5570years
(c) 7600years (d) 9600years
161. If initially the number of disintegration per minute of Carbon14 be 15.3, when will it be reduced to 3.83 per minute?
(a) After 5570 years
(b) After 6500 years
(c) After 11140 years
(d) After 16710 years

162. The safe limit of receiving the radiations for a person is
(a) 250 R/week (b) 250 mR/week
(b) 250 mR /day (d) 250 R/day
163. Anaemia can be diagnonised by
(a) 15p31 (b) 15p32
(c) 26Fe59 (d) 11Ne24
164. The time taken by the radioactive element to reduce 1/e times
is
(a) Half life (b) Mean life
(c) Half life / 2 (d) Twice the mean life
165. The half life period of 7N13 is 10.1 minute. Its life time is
(a) 5.05 minutes (b) 20.2 minutes
(c) 10.1/0.6931 minutes (d) Infinity
166. The first successful artificial transmutation was carried out by
(a) Chadwick (b) Ruther ford
(c) Roentgen (d) Curie and Joliot
167. Which is not true in a nuclear reaction?
(a) Conservation of energy is satisfied
(b) Conservation of charges is satisfied
(c) Conservation of nucleons is satisfied
(d) Initial rest mass is not equal to the final rest mass
168. Choose the wrong statement
(a) Van de Graff generator belongs to electrostatic accelerator
(b) Electrostatic accelerators can accelerate particles upto G ev

(c) Cyclotron belongs to synchronous accelerator type
(d) Synchrotron belongs to cyclic accelerator type
169. Which acts as anode in the GM counter?
(a) Tungsten (b) Glass tube
(c) Mica window (d) Copper
170. The potential difference applied between the electrodes of a GM
counter is about
(a) 100 v (b) 10000 v
(c) 105 v (d) 103 v
171. The resistance that is used in the GM counter to take the
output is about
(a) 100 ohm (b) 1003 ohm
(c) 108 ohm (d) 1000 ohm
172. When a uranium nucleus is bombarded with a neutron it

exploded into two nearly equal fragments. This was discovered by
(a) Otto Hahn and strass man
(b) Yukawa
(c) Chadwick
(d) Bothe and Becker
173. When a Uranium nucleus is bombarded with a neutron it
exploded into two nearly equal fragments of
(a) Barium and Thorium

(b) Barium and Krypton
(c) Uranium and Thorium
(d) Uranium and Krypton
174. The splitting up of heavy elements into two or more lighter
elements resulting in the release of considerable amount of energy
is known as
(a) Electrolysis (b) Ionisation
(c) Nuclear fission (d) Nuclear fusion
175. When a Uranium nucleus splits up into fission products
Ba141 and Kr92 then the number of neutrons released is
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
176. When a Uranium nucleus splits up into fission products Xe140
and Sr94 then the number of neutrons released is
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
177. When a Uranium nucleus is bombarded with a neutron the
fission products are
(a) Barium and Krypton only
(b) Barium and Thorium only
(c) Xenon and Stransium only
(d) Isotopes of different elements in the atomic number range from
34 to 58
178. During the fission process the most probable mass number of
the fission fragments are centered around
(a) 95 140 (b) 34 58
(c) 90 14 (d) 80 110
179. The amount of energy released during the fission of 92U235

with a neutron is approximately
(a) 200 ev (b) 200 x 106 ev
(c) 200 x 103 ev (d) 200 x 109 ev
180. Chain reaction is produced by
(c) Photons (d) Neutrons
181. A chain reaction can be set up
(a) In all the fissionable material
(b) If the mass of the fissionable material is equal to the critical
mass
(c) If the mass of the fissionable material is less than the critical
mass
(d) If the mass of the fissionable material is greater than the critical
mass
182. Uncontrolled chain reaction takes place in
(a) Atom bomb (b) Cyclotron
(c) Nuclear reactor (d) Breedor reactor
183. Natural uranium consists of
(a) 99.28% U 238 and 0.72% of U 235
(b) 99.28% U 235 and 0.72% of U 238
(c) 98.28% U 238 and 1.72% of U 235
(d) 98.28% U 235 and 1.72% of U 238
184. The fissionable material used in Atom bomb is
(a) U238 (b) U235
(c) Radium (d) Thorium
185. U238 is fissionable

(a) Only by slow neutrons
(b) Only by fast neutrons
(c) By the neutrons of all energies
(d) Only by thermal neutrons
186. Plutonium 239 can be used in an Atom bomb because
(a) It is fissionable by fast neutrons
(b) It is fissionable by slow neutrons only
(c) It is fissionable by the neutrons of all energies
(d) Chain reaction can be induced in it
187. In a controlled chain reaction

(a) On the average, only one neutron from each fission is left to
initiate further reaction
(b) On the average more than one neutron per fission produce
further fission
(c) All the neutrons emitted in the reaction are absorbed
(d) A tremendous amount of energy is released in a very short
interval of time leading to an atomic explosion
188. In a Nuclear reactor
(a) Uncontrolled chain reaction takes place
(b) A controlled chain reaction takes place
(c) There is no arrangement for absorption of extra neutrons
(d) There is continuous increase in the number of neutrons and in
the number of fissions
189. The Moderator is a material which is used to

(a) Absorb the neutrons emitted
(b) Absorb the hazardous radiations
(c) Slow down the neutrons
(d) Reflect the escaping neutrons
190. In a Nuclear reactor Heavy water is used as
(a) A moderator (b) Fuel
(b) Control rods (d) Source of neutron
191. In a Nuclear reactor Graphite is used to
(a) Absorb the radiation
(b) Absorb the heat produced
(c) Absorb the neutrons
(d) Slow down the neutrons
192. Which of the following is used to absorb excess of neutron and
control chain reaction in Nuclear reactors?
(a) Cadmium (b) Calcium
(b) Heavy water (d) Tungsten
193. A substance which has the property of absorbing the neutron
is
(a) Heavy water (b) Graphite
(c) Boron (d) Heavy hydrogen
194. Cadmium rods are used in the reactors to
(a) Absorb neutrons
(b) Accelerate neutrons
(c) Retard neutrons
(d) Prevent heating
195. In a nuclear reactor heavy water is used as a
(a) Source of neutron
(b) Absorber of neutrons
(c) Neutron reflector

(d) Coolant
196. Which of the following is used as a Coolant in a Nuclear
Reactor?
(a) Cadmium (b) Boron
(c) Liquid sodium (d) Uranium
197. Nuclear energy is the result of conversion of
(a) Light into heat
(b) Helium into hydrogen
(c) Neutrons into protons
(d) Mass into energy
198. In Nuclear fission, large amount of energy is released because
(a) Uranium nucleus is highly radioactive
(b) The change difference before and after fission is large
(c) The mass difference before and after fission is large
(d) More neutrons are emitted
199. When a Positron is emitted
(a) Charge conservation is violated
(b) The atomic number of the parent decreases
(c) The atomic number of the daughter is more than the parent
(d) Mass number of the parent is less than that of the daughter
nucleus
200. Other than U235 __________ are also used as fuel in some of
the reactors
(a) U238 and pu239 (b) U236 and pu239
(c) U233 and pu239 (d) U233 and pu238
201. The average energy of the thermal neutrons in the nuclear
reactor is about
(a) 2 Mev (b) 0.025 Mev
(c) 0.025 ev (d) 2 ev
202. Which of the following is not commonly used as a source of

neutron in the nuclear reactor?
(a) A mixture of uranium with plutonium
(b) A mixture of beryllium with plutonium
(c) Radium
(d) Polonium
203. In our country all the power reactors use _________ as control
rod
(a) Boron (b) Cadmium
(c) Graphite (d) Boron carbide
204. The reactor which converts fertile material into Fissile material
is called
(a) Research reactor (b) Breedor reactor
(c) Fast reactor (d) Power reactor
205. Breedor reactors
(a) Produce their own fuel
(b) Do not use moderators
(c) Cannot produce radio isotopes
(d) Do not use coolants
206. A Breedor reactor converts
(a) U235 into plutonium 239
(b) U238 into plutonium 239
(c) U235 into U 238
(d) U238 into U 235
207. The process of combining two or more lighter Nuclei to form a
heavier nucleus is called as
(a) Nuclear fission (b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Ionisation (d) Annihilation
208. The energy liberated during the nuclear fusion is called as
(a) Stellar energy (b) Nuclear energy

(c) Thermal energy
(d) Thermo-nuclear energy
209. Fusion reaction takes place in
(a) Atom bomb (b) Breedor reactor
(c) Hydrogen bomb (d) Power reactor
210. The fusion process can be carried out, only at an extremely
high temperature of the order of
(a) 105k (b) 106k
(c) 107k (d) 108k
211. The fusion reaction between Deuteron and Triton placed at the
site of an atom bomb produces
(a) 2He4 and energy
(b) 2He4 and 0n1
(c) 2He4 and 1e0
(d) 2He4 + 0n1 + energy
212. Stellar energy is due to the process of
(a) Fission
(b) Fusion
(c) Explosion
(d) Burning of large carbon atoms
213. The interior temperature of the sun is about
(a) 1.4x10-7K (b) 14x107K
(c) 14x106K (d) 1.4x106K
214. The total energy radiated by the sun is
(a) 3.6x1026J/s (b) 3.8x1026J/s
(c) 36x1026J/s (d) 3.8x1028J/s
215. Heat and Light energies from the sun are due to
(a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Nuclear fission

(c) Nuclear radiation
(d) Lighting
216. Proton Proton cycle takes place in
(a) A cyclotron (b) The sun
(c) Venus (d) Moon
217. The energy released in a Proton-proton cycle is
(a) 26.7 ev (b) 267 ev
(c) 24.7x106 ev (d) 267 Mev
218. Nuclear reaction that is taking place in stars is
(a) Neutron Proton cycle
(b) Carbon carbon cycle
(c) Carbon Nitrogen cycle
(d) Proton Proton cycle
219. The total energy released in Carbon nitrogen cycle is
(a) 24.7 ev (b) 247 ev
(c) 24.7 Mev (d) 247 Mev
220. Nuclear fission is possible
(a) Only between light nuclei
(b) Only between heavy nuclei
(c) Between both heavy and light nuclei
(d) Only between nuclei which are stable against decay
221. Two deuterons each of mass m fuse to form helium resulting in
release of energy E. The mass of helium formed is
(a) 2m + E/c2 (b) 2m E/c2
(c) m + E/c2 (d) E/c2
222. The energy released in an Atomic bomb explosion at Hiroshima
was 7.4 x 1013 J. If on the average 200 Mev energy was released on
fission of one U235 atom, then, the number of atoms fissioned is
(a) 3.7 x 1011 (b) 2 x 1024

(c) 20 x 1024 (d) 37 x 1011
223. The primary cosmic rays mostly consists of
(a) Proton (b) a particles
(c) Electrons (d) Positrons
224. The energy of the primary cosmic rays is of the order of
(c) 108Mev (d) 109Mev
225. The cosmic ray intensity is quite constant from the poles until
a latitude of about
(a) 10o (b) 42o
(c) 45o (d) 90o
226. The intensity of cosmic rays is minimum at
(a) The equator (b) The North Pole
(c) The south pole (d) Latitude of 45o
227. The intensity of cosmic ray is
(a) Minimum at the poles
(b) Maximum at the equator
(c) Maximum at the poles
(d) Zero at the equator
228. The intensity of cosmic rays increases with increasing altitude
and maximum at a height of about
(a) 10 km (b) 12 km
(c) 24 km (d) 20 km
229. Intensity of Cosmic rays increases with altitude because
(a) More cosmic rays reach the earth
(b) Secondary cosmic rays are produced
(c) Cosmic rays are produced at that latitude
(d) No production of cosmic rays at higher altitude
230. The energy released in an Atomic bomb explosion at Hiroshima

was 7.4 x 1013 J. If on the average 200 Mev energy was released on
fission of one U235 atom, then, the number of atoms fissioned is
(a) 3.7 x 1011 (b) 2 x 1024
(c) 20 x 1024 (d) 37 x 1011
231. The energy loss during the collision of an Energetic electron or
Positron present in Cosmic rays appears as
(a) Positron (b) Electron positron pair
(c) Photon (d) High energy photon
232. Cosmic ray shower contains
(a) Photons, electrons and positrons
(b) Protons, electrons and positrons
(c) Photons, protons and positrons
(d) Electrons, Protons and positrons
233. Pair production in cosmic rays showers refers to
(a) Electron positron pair
(b) Positron Proton pair
(c) p meson - Meson pair
(d) Electron proton pair
234. Pair production is an example of conversion of
(a) Mass into energy
(b) Potential energy into kinetic energy
(c) Nuclear energy into electrical energy
(d) Energy into mass
235. Annihilation is an example for conversion of
(a) Atomic energy into kinetic energy
(b) Kinetic energy into nuclear energy
(c) Mass into energy
(d) Energy into mass
236. An Electron and Positron, each having a mass of 1/2000 amu
annihilate each other and a photon is produced. Then the minimum
energy of that photon is

(a) 0.8 Mev (b) 0.465 Mev
(c) 1.862 Mev (d) 0.933 Mev
237. The antiparticle of Electron is
(a) Antiproton (b) Antineutron
(c) Positron (d) p meson
238. The converse of the pair production is called as
(a) Cosmic ray showers
(b) Anti pair production
(c) Annihilation of matter
(d) Induced radioactivity
239. When a positron combines with an Electron both disappear
producing
(a) A photon
(b) Two quanta of ? rays
(c) A positron (d) Neutron
240. The antiparticle of Proton is
(a) Electron (b) Neutron
(c) Anti proton (d) Positron
241. Antineutron is the anti particle of
(a) Neutron (b) Neutrino
(c) Electron (d) Proton
242. The quantum of radiation with no charge and no mass is
known as
(a) Leptons (b) Baryons
(c) Photons (d) Measons
243. The particles having mass equal to or less than about 207
times the mass of an electron are called as
(a) Photons (b) Leptons
(c) Baryons (d) Measons

244
hich of the following is a lepton?
(a) Electron (b) Proton
(c) Neutron (d) p meson

245. Which of the following is not a lepton?
(a) Electron (b) Positron
(c) Neutrino (d) Neutron
246. Which of the following particle is the exception from the lepton
group when compared with the electron mass?
(a) Neutrino
(b) Electron
(c) Positron
(d) Positive and negative mesons
247. Neutrinos and anti-neutrinos are
(a) Mass less but charged particles
(b) Having mass but chargeless particles
(c) Massless and chargeless particles
(d) In the baryons group
248. If me and mp and mm are the mass of an electron and mass of
a proton and mass of meson, then mesons are represented as
(a) me < mm < mp
(b) me > mm > mp
(c) me < mm > mp
(d) me = mm < mp
249. The particles whose rest mass varies between 250 me and
1000 me are called as
(a) Protons (b) Baryons
(c) Mesons (d) Photons
250. The name meson was given by

(a) Newton (b) Yukawa
(c) Einstein (d) Millikan
251.Particles having mass greater than or equal to the mass of a
proton are called as
(a) Leptons (b) Neutrons
(c) Baryons (d) Muons
252. Particles having mass greater than the mass of nucleons are
called as
(a) Kaons (b) Neutrons
(c) Muons (d) Hyperons
253. The elementary particles have masses smaller
than that of a pion are called as
(a) Photons (b) Hyperons
(c) Leptons (d) Baryons
PART-B
1) What is mass defect and binding energy
2) Define atomic mass unit
5) Define activity
6) Define curie
7) What do you mean by artificial radioactivity?
8) Give the methods of producing artificial radio-isotopes
9) How do you classify the neutrons interms of its kinetic energy?
10) What is artificial transmutation?
11) What is critical mass?
12) What is meant by breeder reactor?
13) What are thermonuclear reactions?
14) What are cosmic rays?
PART-C
1) Calculate the energy equivalence of 1 amu
2) Show that the nuclear density is almost constant for all the
nuclei
3) Explain the variation of binding energy with mass number by a
graph and discuss its features.
4) Explain the different characteristics of nuclear forces.
5) Explain Soddy-Fajan's radioactive displacement law.
6) Obtain the relation between half-life period and decay constant
7) Explain how liquid drop model of the nucleus can account for
nuclear fission.
8) Explain chain reaction
9) Explain the function of an atom bomb
10) Explain how proton-proton and carbon-nitrogen cycle can
account for the production of stellar energy.
11) Explain how cosmic ray shower is formed
12) How do you classify the elementary particles into four groups?
PART-D
spectrometer to determine the isotopic masses.
substance present at any moment(Rutherford-Soddy law)
3) What are the applications of radio isotopes?
4) Explain the construction and working of a Geiger-Muller counter.
5) Explain the working of a nuclear reactor.
6) Explain how the intensity of cosmic rays varies with (i) latitude
and (ii) altitude
7) Explain neutron discovery and their properties.
BLUE-PRINT
4 X 1 = 4 2 X 3 = 6 1 X 5 = 5 1 X 10 = 10
TOTAL 25 MARKS
1. The particle wave duality for matter was given by

(a) Einstein (b) Newton
(c) De Broglie (d) Maxwell
2. Photo electric effect is the
(a) Emission of electrons from metals when heated.
(b) Emission of electrons from metals when cooled.
(c) Emission of electrons from metals when exposed to x-rays.
(d) Emission of electrons from metals when exposed to UVradiations.
3. Photoelectric effect was discovered by
(a) Einstein (b) De Broglie
(c) Heinrich Hertz (d) Halls wachs
4. Photoelectric effect was experimentally proved by
(a) Hall Wachs (b) Hertz
(c) Einstein (d) Newton
5. The photoelectric current is
(a) Directly proportional to intensity of the incident light
(b) Directly proportional to number of photoelectrons emitted per
second
(c) Directly proportional to number of
Photons incident per unit area
(d) All the above
6. The minimum negative potential given to the anode for which the
photoelectric current becomes zero is called
(a) Cut in potential (b) Stopping potential
(c) Threshold potential (d) All the above
7. The relational ship between the stopping potential V0 and KE of
the photoelectrons is
(a) eV0 = mv2max (b) e = mv2max/2V0
(c) Vo = 2emv2max (d) e = 1/2 mv2maxV0
8. The stopping potential depends upon
(a) Intensity of the incident radiation
(b) The number of electrons emitted

(c) The velocity of the fastest electron
(d) All the above
9. The stopping potential is

(a) Directly proportional to the intensity of the incident light
(b) Directly proportional to the frequency of the incident light
(c) Inversely proportional to the frequency of the incident radiation
(d) Inversely proportional to the intensity of the incident radiation
10. For frequencies ?3<?2
(a) (V0)3>(V0)2>(V0)1 (b) (V0)3>(V0)2<(V0)1
(c) (V0)3<(V0)2<(V0)1 (d) (V0)1<(V0)2<(V0)3
11. The minimum frequency below which there is no emission of
photoelectrons is known as
(a) Cut off frequency (b) Threshold
(c) Basic frequency (d) Cut in frequency
12. The threshold frequency
(a) Depends on the intensity
(b) Is different for different metals
(c) Is the same for all metals
(d) Is independent of the frequency
13. Maximum KE of the photoelectrons is independent of
(a) Frequency (b) Wave length
(c) Energy (d) Intensity
14. Photoelectric effect was explained by
(a) Wave theory (b) Corpuscular theory
(c) Quantum theory (d) All the above
15. At the threshold frequency the velocity of the electrons is
(a) Zero (b) Maximum
(c) Minimum (d) Infinity
16. A photon of frequency ? is incident on a metal surface of

threshold frequency ?0, the kinetic energy of the emitted photon is
(a) h(?-?0) (b) h?
(c) h?0 (d) h(?+?0)
17. If ?0 is the threshold frequency then the work function of a
metal is (W=)
(a) h? (b) h?0
(c) h(?-?0) (d) h(?+?0)
18. Work function of a metal is
(a) Work done required to remove an electron
(b) The KE of the emitted electron
(c) Total energy incident on the metal
(d) Minimum energy required to remove an electron
19. E is the incident energy and W is the work function of a metal
then photoelectric emission is possible when
(a) E < W (b) E = W
(c) E = W (d) E = W
20. If E is the incident energy and W is the work function of a metal
then the maximum KE of the photoelectrons is equal to
(a) E + W (b) E W
(c) W E (d) E/W
21. Einstein's photoelectric equation is
(a) mv2=h (?-?0) (b) mv2=h(?0-?)
(c) mv2=h?/h?0 (d) All the above
22. Photoelectric effect is ________ process
(a) Instantaneous (b) a stimulated
(c) an induced (d) a delayed
23. The Photoelectric effect confirms
(a) Dual nature of radiation
(b) Wave nature of radiation

(c) Electromagnetic nature of radiation
(d) Corpuscular nature of radiation
24. The Photoelectric current is found to depend on
(a) The intensity of the incident light
(b) The frequency of the incident light
(c) The potential difference between the plates
(d) All the above
25. In Photoelectric effect, the Electrons are emitted due to
(a) Electric field
(a) Electromagnetic radiation
(c) Thermal energy
(d) Applied Potential difference
26. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Photo electric current does not occur below the threshold
frequency
(b) The photoelectric current increases with the frequency of
incident light
(c) Threshold frequency does not depend on the metal used
(d) The emission of photo electrons is an instantaneous process
27. When the frequency of the incident light is less than the
threshold frequency
(a) A small photoelectric current is produced
(b) A large photoelectric current is produced
(c) No photoelectric current is produced
(d) The velocity of the photo electrons is large
28. The cut-off potential is a function of
(a) The frequency of incident light
(b) The intensity of incident light
(c) The angle of incidence of incident light
(d) The nature of the photo sensitive substance used
29. The best metal to be used for photo emission is

(a) Potassium (b) sodium
(c) Cesium (d) lithium
30. Einstein's photoelectric equation states that h? = EK + W in this
equation EK refers to
(a) Kinetic energy of all emitted electrons
(b) Mean kinetic energy of the emitted electrons
(c) Maximum kinetic energy
(d) Minimum kinetic energy
31. Sodium surface is illuminated by ultraviolet and visible
radiation successively and stopping potential is determined. The
stopping potential is
(a) Equal in both cases
(b) More with UV rays
(c) More with visible lights
(d) Varies randomly
32. UV radiation of 6.2 ev falls on an aluminium surface (work
function 4.2 ev). The kinetic energy in joule of the fastest electron
emitted is approximately
(a) 3x10-21 (b) 3x10-19
(c) 3x10-17 (d) 3x10-15
33. If the work function of the metal is F and the frequency of the
incident light is ? there is no emission of photoelectrons when
(a) ? < F/h (b) ? = F/h
(c) ? > F/h (d) ? = F/h
34. The threshold wavelength for lithium is 5250A0. For photo
emission to take place the wavelength of the incident light must be
(a) More than 5250 A0
(b) Exactly equals to 5250 A0
(c) Equal to or more than 5250 A0
(d) Equal to or less than 5250 A0

35. The work function of a metal surface is 4.2 ev. The maximum
wavelength which can eject electrons from this metals surface is
(a) 3076 A0 (b) 4116 A0
(c) 2956 A0 (d) 5088 A0
36. A metal surface eject electrons when hit by green light but none
when hit by yellow. The electrons will be ejected when the surface is
hit by
(a) Blue light (b) Heat rays
(c) IR light (d) Red light
37. Radiations of two photons energy twice and ten times the work
functions of metal are incident on the metal surface successively
the ratio of maximum velocity of photo electrons emitted in two
cases is
(a) 1:2 (b) 1:3
(c) 1:4 (d) 1:1
38. In order to increase the KE of ejected photo electrons, there
should be an increase in
(a) Wavelength of radiation
(b) Intensity of radiation
(c) Both 'a' and 'b'
(d) Frequency of radiation
39. Threshold frequency for photo electric effect on sodium
corresponds to a wavelength 5000 A0. Its work function is
(a) 4x10-18 J (b) 4x10-19J
(c) 16x10-14 J (d) 15 J
40. For a certain metal ? = 2?0 and the electrons come out with a
maximum velocity of 4x106ms-1. If the value of ?=5?0, the

maximum velocity of the photoelectrons will be
(a) 2x107ms-1 (b) 8x106ms-1
(c) 2x106ms-1 (d) 8x105ms-1
41. In a photoelectric experiment the stopping potential for incident
light of wavelength 4000 A0 is 2 volt. If the wavelength be changed
to 3000 A0 the stopping potential will be
(a) 2v (b) Zero
(c) Less than 2v (d)More than 2v
42. The wavelength of the photoelectric threshold for silver is ?0.
The energy of the electron ejected from the surface of the silver by
an incident light of wavelength ?(?
(a) hc( ?0 - ?) (b) hc/?0 ?
(c) h/c(1/? 1/ ?0) (d) hc(?0 ? / ?0 ?)
43. The maximum energy of photoelectrons emitted in a photo cell
is 2ev. For no photoelectrons to reach the anode the, the stopping
potential should be
(a) 2 V (b) -2 V
(c) 4 V (d) -4 V
44. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold frequency is incident
on photosensitive material. If the frequency is halved and intensity
is double the photo electric current becomes
(a) Zero (b) Double
(c) Quadrapled (d) Halved
45. The frequency of the incident light falling on a photosensitive
metal plate is doubled then the KE of the emitted photoelectrons is
(a) Double the early value
(b) Unchanged
(c) More than doubled
(d) Less than doubled
46. The photo electrons emitted from a metal surface are such that
(a) They are all of same velocity

(b) They have the same kinetic energy
(c) They have the same de- Broglie wave length
(d) They have their speeds varying from zero to a certain maximum
47. Photons of energy 1eV and 2.5eV successively illuminate a metal
whose work function is 0.5eV. The ratio of maximum speeds of
emitted electrons is
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2
(c) 3:1 (d) 1:3
48. Photoelectric current can be increased by using
(a) Higher frequency
(b) Higher intensity radiation
(c) Higher work function metal plates
49. Stopping potential is the _______ potential given to the anode
(a) Maximum positive
(b) Maximum negative
(c) Minimum positive
(d) Minimum negative
50. The stopping potential V0 is given by the expression
(a) V0 = h(?0 ?)/e (b) V0 = h(? ?0)/e
(c) V0 = he(? ?0) (d) V0 = he(?0 ?)
51. Photoelectric cell is a device which converts
(a) Electrical energy into light energy
(b) Kinetic energy into light energy
(c) Light energy into electrical energy
(d) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
52. Moving particles should possess wave like properties under
suitable conditions. This was suggested by
(a) Einstein (b) De broglie
(c) Roentgen (d) Millikan
53. Waves associated with moving particles are called as

(a) Energy waves (b) Matter waves
(c) HF waves (d) All the above
54. The wavelength of Matter waves associated with a particles
moving with a velocity v is
(a) ? = h/mv (b) ? = mv/h
(c) ? = hm/v (d) ? = hv/m
55. The matter waves will have appreciable wavelength only for
(a) Very light particles
(b) Heavy particles
(c) Particles with charge
(d) All the above
56. The De Broglie wavelength of an electron of mass m, accelerated
by potential of V is given by
(a) ? = h / v2meV (b) ? = 12.27 / v V A0
(c) ? = h / v2mE (d) All the above
57. The wavelength associated with an electron accelerated by 100
volts is
(a) 12.27 A0 (b) 122.7 A0
(c) 0.1227 nm (d) 1.227 nm
58. The circumference of a stationary orbit in an atom and the
wavelength of the de Broglie waves associated are related as
(a) 2p = n ? (b) 2p r = (n ?)
(b) 2p r = (2n+1) ?/2 (d) All the above
59. A proton and ? particles are accelerated through the same
potential difference. The ratio of their de Broglie wavelength will be
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:2
(c) 2:1 (d) 2v2:1
60. A particle with rest mass m0 is moving with speed of light c.

The de Broglie wavelength associated with it will be
(a) 8 (b) Zero
(c) m0 c/h (d) h?/m0 c
61. The velocity of a body of mass 10gm is 2x104ms-1. The value of
de Broglie wavelength associated with it will be
(a) 3.3x10-33m (b) 3.3x10-34m
(c) 3.3x10-35m (d) 3.3x10-36m
62. The ratio of wavelengths of proton and deuteron accelerated
through the same potential difference will be
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1
(c) v2:1 (d) 1: v2
63. The wavelength of an electron of energy 10 kev will be
(a) 0.12 A0 (b) 1.2 A0
(c) 12 A0 (d) 120 A0
64. If E and p are the energy and momentum of a photon

respectively then on increasing the wavelength of the photon.
(a) Both p and E will increase
(b) Both p and E will decrease
(c) p will increase and E will decrease
(d) p will decrease and E will increase
65. If a photon and an electron have same de Broglie wavelength
then
(a) Both have same kinetic energies
(b) Proton has more kinetic energy than electron
(c) Electron has more kinetic energy than proton
(d) Both have same velocity
66. An electron and proton are moving with the same speed, mass
of proton = 1836 times mass of electron. The ratio of their de
Broglie wavelength will be
(a) 1 (b) 1836
(c) 1/1836 (d) 918
67. Dual nature of radiation is shown by
(a) Diffraction and reflection
(b) Refraction and diffraction
(c) Photoelectric effect alone
(d) Photoelectric effect and diffraction
68. The momentum of a photon of an em wave is 3.3x10-29kgms-1.
Then the frequency of the associated waves is
(a) 1.5x1013Hz (b) 7.5x1012Hz
(c) 6x103Hz (d) 3x103Hz
69. For electrons accelerated by a potential of about 60,000 volts
the wavelength is about
(a) 5x10-2m (b) 5x10-12m
(c) 5x10-12cm (d) 50x10-12m
70. Electrons be easily focused by
(a) Electric fields only
(b) Magnetic fields only
(c) Lenses
(d) Both electric and magnetic fields
71. The wave nature of electron is applied in

(a) Electron microscope
(b) Fusion reactors

(c) Artificial radioactivity
(d) Satellite launching
72. The special feature of an Electron Microscope is its
(a) High resolving power
(b) Compactness
(c) Low cost
(d) Resolving power is being equal to that of an optical microscope
73. The resolving power of a Microscope
(a) Directly proportional to the wavelength
(b) Inversely proportional to the wavelength
(c) Independent of wavelength
(d) Depends on the lenses used
74. The focal length of the Magnetic lens in an Electron microscope
depends upon
(a) The velocity of electrons only
(b) Magnitude of the current passing through the coils only
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Both (a) and (b)
75. In Electron microscope, the Electron beam is focused by varying
the
(a) Wavelength of electron
(b) Current through the energising coils
(c) Velocity of electron
(d) Thickness of colloidal film
76. In an Electron Microscope, Electrons are focused by means of
(a) Convex lens (b) Concave lens
(c) Liquid lens (d) Magnetic lens
77. A Magnetic lens can focus
(a) Sound waves (b) Micro waves
(c) A light beam (d) An electron beam

78. Electron Microscope works in
(a) Vacuum (b) High pressure
(c) Low pressure (d) Any pressure
79. In an Electron microscope, the object enclosed in

(a) Liquid (b) A glass plate
(c) Colloidal film (c) Water
80. According to Newton's mechanics
(a) Mass length and times are absolute
(b) Space exists without any reference to objects
(c) Space was absolute and at rest
(d) All the above
81. The special theory of relativity was given by
(a) Michelson (b) Morley
(c) Einstein (d) Max Planck
82. The concept of ether and absolute space becomes meaningless
according to experiment
(a) Frank and Hertz
(b) Davisson and Germer
(c) Michelson and Morley
(d) Lorentz and Fitzeald
83. In classical mechanics the mass of the body
(a) Is absolute
(b) Is constant
(c) Is independent of motion of the body
(d) All the above
84. Frame of reference is a system of co-ordinate axes which defines
the position of a particle in

(a) One dimensional space
(b) Two dimensional space
(c) Three dimensional space
(d) Two or three dimensional space
85. A circular object will appear as _______ for a fast moving
observer
(a) Circular (b) Elliptical
(c) Spherical (d) Square
86. An inertial frame of reference is one
(a) Which remains at absolute rest
(b) Which remains in absolute motion
(c) Which does not accelerate
(d) Which may be attached to an observer
87. Which of the following is not assumed to be absolute in

Newtonian mechanics
(a) Mass (b) Time
(c) Space (d) State of rest or motion
88. An event can be described by an observer in a Cartesian frame
of reference moving along x-axis with number of coordinates as
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 6
89. In which of the following frames of reference the acceleration of
the particles is zero in the absence of the applied force
(a) Inertial (b) Non-inertial
(c) Cartesian (d) Non Cartesian
90. A source of light moves with velocity c/2 towards a stationary

observer. The observed speed of light is
(a) c (b) c/2
(c) 3c/2 (d) 2c
91. The kinetic energy of a particle moving with very high speed V is
given by
(a) m0c2/ v1-v2/c2 (b) m0v2
(c) m0v2/ v1-v2/c2 (d)m0c2.( 1 -1)
v 1-v2/c2
92. The apparent length of a meter stick, as measured by an
observe at rest when the stick is moving along its length with a
velocity 86.6% of velocity of light will be
(a) 0.02m (b) 0.35m
(c) 0.5m (d) 6.5m
93. At what velocity the kinetic energy of a particle is equal to the
rest mass energy
(a) c (b) c/2
(c) 2c/3 (d) v3c/2
94. The rest mass of a photon of energy E is
(a) E/c2 (b) Ec2
(c) Zero (d) None
95. When a particle and its antiparticle are annihilated the energy
released is E. What is the mass of each particle
(a) E/c (b) E/2c
(c) E/c2 (d) E/2c2
96. At what speed the mass of an object will be double of its value
at rest
(a) 1.2x108ms-1 (b) 2.2x108ms-1
(c) 2.6x108ms-1 (d) 2.8x108ms-1
97. At what speed the mass of an object will be raised by two times
its rest mass
(a) 2.6x108ms-1 (b) 2.83x108ms-1
(c) 2x108ms-1 (d) 2.52x108ms-1
98. If the rest mass of a particle is m0, then its mass when it moves
with a velocity 0.8c is
(a) 6 m0 /5 (b) 5 m0 /3
(c) 3 mo /2 (d) 2m0
99. At what speed a clock be moved so that it may appear to lose 2
minutes in each hour
(a) 5.5x107ms-1 (b) 6.6x107ms-1
(c) 7.7x107ms-1 (d) 8.8x107ms-1
100. The theory of relativity shows that Newtonian mechanics is
valid for
(a) Very small velocities
(b) Velocities up to velocity of light
(c) Velocities equal to velocity of light
(d) Velocities greater than the velocity of light
101. Whose experiment work proved that the velocity of light is a
universal and natural constant
(a) Michelson and Morley
(b) Lorentz
(c) Maxwell
(d) Einstein
102. The total energy generated in a country in a year amounted to
7.5x1011kwh. Then its mass equivalent is
(a) 30kg (b) 30g
(c) 3kg (d) 300kg
103. The velocity with which a space ship has to fly so that every
day spent on it may correspond to three days of the earth's surface
(a) 2.282x108ms-1 (b) 2.828x108ms-1

(c) 3x108ms-1 (d) 3.828x108 ms-1
104. According to relativity, the length of the rod in motion

(a) Is same as its rest length
(b) Is more that its rest length
(c) Is less than its rest length
(d) May be more or less than equal to rest length depending upon
the speed of the rod
105. If 1 kg of substance is fully converted into energy, then the
energy produced is
(a) 9x1016K J (b) 9x1024J
(c) 9x1010M J (d) 9x1016MJ
106. If t is the time interval in a frame at rest and t0 in motion,
then according to relativity
(a) t < t0 (b) t > t0
(c) t = t0 (d) t = t0
107. If length of the rod moving with a velocity v relative to the
observer at rest
(a) Is lengthened by a factor v1-v2/c2
(b) Is contracted by a factor 1/v1-v2/c2
(c) Is contracted by a factor v1-v2/c2
(d) Is lengthened by a factor 1/v1-v2/c2
108. If l0 is the length of a rod in fixed frame and l is the length in a
moving frame then
(a) l < l0 (b) l > 0
(c) l = l0 (d) l=2 l0
109. A moving clock appears to be ________ to stationary observer
(a) Increased (b) Slowed down
(c) Equal (d) increased twice
110. Photon has

(a) Infinite mass and energy
(b) Zero mass and has energy
(c) Zero mass and no energy
(d) Mass but no energy
111. When an electron meets its antiparticle positron, both of them
annihilate and form
(a) Two protons (b) Two neutrons
(c) Two photons (d) Two electrons
PART-B
1) What is photoelectric effect?
2) Define stopping potential
3) Define threshold frequency
4) Define work function
5) What are photo-cells?
6) What are matter waves?
7) Mention the applications of electron microscope
8) Define frame of reference
9) What are inertial and non-inertial frames?
10) State the postulates of special theory of relativity
11) If a body moves with the velocity of light' what will be its mass?
Comment on your result
PART-C
1) Explain the variation of photoelectric current with applied voltage
potential
5) What are the applications of photo-cells?

working
BLUE-PRINT
2 x 1= 2 1 X 3 = 3 2 X 5 = 10
TOTAL 15 MARKS
1. Which of the following are bad conductors in general?

(a) Solids (b) Liquids
(c) Fluids (d) Gases.
2. Electric current may be passed through a gas by
(a) Applying a large potential difference across a gas column at high
pressure.
(b) Applying a potential difference across a gas column at high
pressure.
(c) Applying a large potential difference across a gas column at low
pressure.
(d) Not possible to make a gas to conduct electricity.
3. Study of Electric discharge through gases gives information
about the structure of
(a) Crystals (b) Solids
(c) Atoms (d) Molecules
4. An arrangement to study the conduction of Electricity through

rarified gases is called
(a) Coolidge tube (b) Vacuum tube
(c) Discharge tube (d) Cathode ray tube
5. Most gases conduct Electricity at
(a) Low pressure (b) Normal pressure
(c) Very high pressure (d) Any pressure.
6. The potential difference maintained in a discharge tube is about
(a) 50 V (b) 50,000 V
(c) 5000 V (d) 500 V
7. The very high Potential applied for a discharge tube is obtained
from a
(a) Transformer (b) An oscillator
(c) The primary of an induction coil
(d) The secondary of an induction coil
8. No discharge passes through the discharge tube when the
Pressure is
(a) Above 10 cm of mercury
(b) Above 100 cm of mercury
(c) Above 0.1 mm of mercury
(d) Above 1 mm of mercury.
9. At a Pressure of about 100 mm of Mercury sparkling occurs
which is accompanied by
(a) Positive Column (b) Crackling sound
(c) Faraday's dark space
(d) Crooke's dark space.
10. Positive column that is produced in a discharge tube is

(a) A band with uniform intensity
(b) A band with non uniform intensity

(c) Irregular streaks broaden out in a luminous column
(d) A bright band at the anode.
11. In a discharge tube, the black discharge is observed at a
Pressure of
(a) 0.001 cm of Hg (b) 0.1 mm of Hg
(c) 0.1 cm of Hg (d) 0.01 cm of Hg
12. Which of the following phenomenon is observed when black
discharge occurs in a discharge tube.
(a) The Wall of the tube opposite to the cathode glows.
(b) The Wall of the tube opposite to the anode glows.
(c) Positive column is splited
(d) Striations are seen.
13. Cathode rays are nothing but
(c) a Particles (d) Neutral particles.
14. The Cathode rays in a discharge tube are produced by
(a) Heating the cathode.
(b) Heating the gas in a discharge tube.
(c) The ionization of the gas by a large electric field
(d) By cooling the anode.
15. Which of the following produce heat when they strike a material
surface
(a) X rays (b) UV rays
(c) Cathode rays (d) Gamma rays.
16. When cathode rays are passed through a Magnetic field, they
(a) Are absorbed (b) Are undeflected
(c) Produce electrons (d) Are deflected
17. The Cathode rays are deflected from their straight line path by
an electric field shows that they are

(a) Charged particles
(b) Negatively charged particles
(c) Positively charged particles
(d) Neutral particles.
18. Velocity of Cathode rays is

(a) Equal to the velocity of light
(b) Equal to that of canal rays
(c) Very large (d) Very low.
19. Canal rays were discovered by
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Millikan
(c) Goldstein (d) Einstein.
20. A luminous stream of positive rays is observed at a pressure of
(a) 1 mm of mercury (b) 0.1 mm of Hg
(c) 0.01 mm of Hg (d) 10 mm of Hg.
21. The mass of each positive ion in the positive rays is equal to the
(a) Mass of a proton
(b) Mass of an electron
(c) Mass of the gas atom
(d) Mass of an alpha particle.
22. The velocity of Positive rays is
(a) Equal to the velocity of cathode rays
(b) Greater than the velocity of cathode rays
(c) Much smaller than the velocity of the cathode rays
(d) Zero.
23. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to Positive
rays.
i. They travel in straight lines.
ii. They cause fluorescence
iii. They can penetrate moderate thickness of aluminum foil

iv. They ionise the gases.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv).
24. Specific charge of an Electron was measured by
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Millikan
(c) Rutherford (d) Bohr.
25. The specific charge of an Electron is
(a) Charge per unit mass of an electron
(b) Mass per unit charge of an electron
(c) Charge of the electron
(d) Mass of the electron.
26. The value of e/m of an Electron

(a) Depends on the gas used but independent of the electrodes
(b) Independent of the gas used but depends on the electrodes
(c) Independent of the gas used and independent of the electrodes
(d) Depends only on the gas used
27. In Thomson's method the Velocity of the Cathode rays is
(a) V = B/E (b) V = E/B
(c) V = Ee (d) V = Ee/m.
28. The unit of Specific charge is
(a) C/Kg (b) Kg/C
(c) N/Kg (d) Nm/Kg2
29. The e/m value for the Electron calculated by Thomson's method
is
(a) 1.7952 x 1011 c/Kg-1
(b) 1.7952 x 10-11 c/Kg

(c) 1.7592 x 1011 c/Kg
(d) 1.9752 x 1011 c/Kg
30. Specific charge of a Proton is 9.6 x 107 C/kg Specific charge of
an Alpha particle is
(a) 4.8 x 107 c/kg (b) 2.4 x 107 c/kg
(c) 8.4 x 107 c/kg (d) 4.2 x 107 c/kg.
31. Millikan's experiment is used to measure
(a) Mass of an electron
(b) e/m of the electron
(c) Charge of the electron
(d) Velocity of the electron.
32. Charge of an Electron was determined by
(a) Thomson (b) Millikan
(c) Goldstein (d) Einstein.
33. The Millikan's oil drop method uses
(a) Faraday's Law (b) Stoke's law
(c) Bragg's law (d) Ohm's Law.
34. In Millikan's experiment the potential applied between the two
plates is
(a) 100V (b) 1000V
(c) 10000V (d) 10V
35. As the oil drop moves down wards in the absence of the Electric
field in the Millikan's apparatus.
(a) Its velocity gradually increases.
(b) It attains terminal velocity soon

(c) Its velocity becomes infinite
(d) Its velocity becomes zero.
36. The downward force acting on the oil drop in the absence of the
Electric field is
(a) Gravitational force (b) Viscous force
(c) Coulomb force (d) Repulsive force.
37. In Millikan's experiment as the oil drop moves under gravity the
upward force acting on it is
(a) Viscous force (b) Buoyant force
(c) Both viscous force and Buoyant force
(d) Neither viscous force nor buoyant force.
38. In Millikan's experiment., when the oil drop is moving under
gravity, after attaining the terminal velocity the net down ward force
acting on the oil drop is equal to the
(a) Gravitational force (b) Viscous force
(c) Buoyant force (d) Weight of the oil drop
39. If V is the Potential between the plates of Millikan's apparatus
and d is the distance between them then the Electric field E is
(a) d/v (b) V.d (c) V/d (d) V+d
40. The charge of an Electron is found to be
(a) 1.602x10-19c (b) 1.60x1019c
(c) 9.11x10-31c (d) 1.602x10-31c
41. The mass of a charged oil drop is 1 mg if the oil drop is
stationary in an Electric field of 500 v/cm the charge on the oil
drop is
(a) 1.96 c (b) 0.196 c
(c) 1.96 x 10-15c (d) 0.196 x 10-3(c)
42. An oil drop of mass 0.48 mg is held stationary by applying a
Potential difference of 1 KV between two plates which are 4mm

apart. The Number of Elementary Charge on the drop is (g =
10m/s2)
(a) 12 (b) 12x1010 (c) 3x1016 (d) 12x1013
43. If the total change on the oil drop in Millikan's experiment is
48.06 x 10-20C, then the number of Electrons in that drop is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
44. An oil drop is found to fall through air medium with a terminal
speed of 10cm/s If the radius of the drop in doubled, its terminal
speed would be
(a) 80cm/s (b) 40cm/s
(c) 20cm/s (d) 10cm/s.
45. An electric field of intensity 6x104 V/m is applied perpendicular
to the direction of motion of the electron. A magnetic field of
induction 8x10-2 T is applied perpendicular to both the electric
field and direction of motion of electron. Then the velocity of the
electron when it passes undeflected
(a) 7.5 x 105 ms-1 (b) 7.5 x 10-5 ms-1
(c) 48 x 10-2 ms-1 (d) it is never possible.
46. The momentum of a charged particle moving in a perpendicular
magnetic field depends on
(a) Its charge
(b) The strength & the magnetic field
(c) Radius of its path
(d) All the above.
47. A charged oil drop of mass 9.75 x 10-15 kg and charge 30 x 1016 c is suspended in a uniform electric field existing between two
parallel plates. The field between the plates (taking g = 10 m/s2) is
(a) 3.25 V/m (b) 300 V/m
(c) 325 V/m (d) 32.5 V/m.

48. Who suggested that all elements are made up of hydrogen?
(a) Dalton (b) Prout
(c) J.J. Thomson (d) Ruther ford
49. An atom may be considered as positively charged sphere in
which electrons are embedded This was proposed by
(a) Prout (b) Dalton
(c) Thomson (d) Rutherford
50. Which of the following is similar to the Solar system?
(a) Prout atom model
(b) Ruther ford atom model
(c) Dalton atom model
(d) Thomson atom model.
51. According to Rutherford, the Electrons are revolving around the

Nucleus. For this the centripetal force is provided by.
(a) Nuclear force
(b) Gravitational force
(c) Electrostatic force of attraction between electrons and nucleus
(d) Mechanical force.
52. The radius of the atom is of the order of
(a) 10-8 cm (b) 10-10 cm
(c) 10-8 m (d) 1010 m.
53. According to Thomson, if there is a single electron in the atom
the electron must be situated
(a) At the centre
(b) At a distance of r/2 from the centre

(c) Any where inside the atom
(d) Not mentioned
54. According to Thomson's atom model, energy is emitted from an
atom due to the
(a) Jumping of electrons from higher to lower orbits
(b) Simple harmonic motion of the electrons
(c) Circular motion of the electrons
(d) Any one of the above.
55. The wave length of the spectral line emitted by hydrogen atom
according to Thomson's atom model is
(a) 3100 Ao (b) 1400 Ao
(c) 1300 nm (d) 1300 Ao
56. An a particle directed towards the centre of the nucleus will
move close upto a distance of r0 where its kinetic energy will appear
as
(a) Electrostatic kinetic energy
(b) Electrostatic potential energy
(c) Thermal energy
(d) Electromagnetic energy.
57. In the a particle scattering experiment when the particle is at
the closest approach then
(a) Initial KE is equal to the PE
(b) Initial KE is greater than the PE
(c) Initial KE is less than PE
(d) Any one of the above.
58. According to Rutherford's atom model the diameter of the
nucleus is of about
(a) 10-10m (b) 10-14cm (c) 10-14m (d) 10-11m
59. Which of the following is not correct according to Rutherford's

atom model
(a) Electrons are revolving around the nucleus in circular orbits
(b) The centripetal force is provided by the electrostatic force of
attraction between the electron and nucleus
(c) Almost the entire mass of the atom is concentrated in the
nucleus
(d) Mass is uniformly distributed
60. According to Rutherford's atom model the atom should emit
____________ spectrum
(a) Continuous (b) Line
(c) Band (d) absorption.
61. According to Bohr's postulate, the electrons can revolve only in
allowed orbits for which
(a) Angular momentum of electrons is h/2p
(b) Angular velocity of electrons is nh/2p
(c) Angular momentum of electrons is nh/2p
(d) Angular acceleration of electrons is nh/2p.
62. Which of the following is Bohr's quantization condition
(a) mvr = h/2p (b) mv2r = nh/2p
(c) mvr = nh/2p (d) mvr = 2pnh
63. When an electron jumps from an orbit of energy E1 to an orbit
of energy E2, the energy emitted is
(a) E1 E2 (b) E2 E1
(c) E1 + E2 (d) E1 / E2
64. Bohr's frequency condition is
(a) hv = E1 + E2 (b) hv = E1 / E2
(c) v = E1 E2 / h (d) hv + E1 = E2
65. The radius of the nth orbit is
(a) n2h2 / pmze2e0 (b) n2h2e0 / pmze2
(c) pmze2 / n2h2e0 (d) n2h2e0 / pm2ze2

66. The radii of the orbits are in the ratio
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 1:3:5
(c) 1:4:9 (d) 2:4:8
67. The value of the Bohr radius is
(a) 0.52 A0 (b) 0.53 A0
(c) 0.53 m (d) 0.53 nm
68. The radius of the nth orbit is

(a) Directly proportional to the principal quantum number
(b) Inversely proportional to the principal quantum number
(c) Directly proportional to the square of the quantum number
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of the principal quantum
number.
69. The energy of an electron in the nth orbit is given by
(a) me4 / 8e02n2h2 (b) z2me4 / 8e02n2h2
(c) z2me4 / 8e02n2h2 (d) -me4 / 8e02n2h2
70. The energy of the electron in its orbit
(a) Increases as n increases
(b) Decreases as n increases
(c) Does not depend on n
(d) Remains constant as n increases.
71. If the radius of the first orbit of a Hydrogen atom is 0.53 A0, the
radius of third orbit is
(a) 59 A0 (b) 4.77 A0
(c) 1.06 A0 (d) 21.12 A0
72. The total energy of an Electron in any atom is
(a) Zero (b) Negative

(c) Positive (d) infinite.
73. The Potential energy of an Electron in a given orbit is
(a) Equal to its kinetic energy
(b) One half of its kinetic energy
(c) Twice its kinetic energy
(d) Twice its kinetic energy but negative.
74. Ratio between KE and total energy of the Electron in H atom is
(a) 1 : -1 (b) 1:1 (c) 1:2 (d) 2:1 .
75. For Hydrogen atom the energy of an Electron in the nth orbit is
(a) 13.6 / n2 ev (b) -13.6 / n ev
(c) -13.6 / n2 ev (d) 13.6 / n ev
76. The Energy required to remove an Electron from the orbit of
Hydrogen atom is called
(a) Ionisation energy (b) Potential energy
(c) Kinetic energy (d) Excitation energy
.
77. The Ionisation Potential of Hydrogen atom is

(a) 13.6 ev (b) -13.6 ev
(c) 3.4 ev (d) 1.51 ev.
78. For Ionising an excited Hydrogen atom, the energy required in
ev will be
(a) A little less than 13.6 ev (b) 13.6ev
(c) More than 13.6 (d) 3.4 ev or less.
79. The Energy of the Electron in the Second orbit is
(a) 54.4ev (b) -6.8ev
(c) -13.6ev (d) -3.4ev
80. The Energy required to remove an Electron from the second
orbit of an Hydrogen atom is

(a) -13.6ev (b) -3.4ev
(c) 3.4ev (d) 1.51ev
81. Energy required to excite an Electron from the First orbit to the
second orbit is
(a) 10.2ev (b) 13.6ev
(c) 3.4ev (d) 10.2J
82. Ionisation energy in H-atom corresponding to a transistion
between the 3rd and 4th orbit is
(a) 3.4ev (b) 1.15ev
(c) 0.85ev (d) 0.66ev
83. The ratio of Ionisation energy of second excited state and fourth
excited state of Hydrogen atom is
(a) 1:4 (b) 1:2
(c) 2:1 (d) 4:1
84. The Wave number is
(a) The reciprocal of wavelength
(b) The reciprocal of frequency
(c) The reciprocal of atomic number
(d) The number which gives the ionization energy of the hydrogen
atom.
85. The Wave number is the number
(a) Of waves that cross in one second
(b) Associated with the orbit
(c) Of waves per unit length
(d) Of spectral lines produced
86. The unit of Wave number is
(a) m (b) m-1
(c) No unit (d) m2
87. Wave number of radiation having wavelength 2000 A0 is
(a) 5000 Ao (b) 50,000 cm

(c) 50000 cm-1 (d) 20,000 cm
88. Energy required to remove an Electron in a Hydrogen atom from
n = 10 state is
(a) 13.6 ev (b) -0.136 ev
(c) 0.136 ev (d) 0.0136 ev
89. Rydberg constant R is equal to
(a) me2 / 8e02ch2 (b) me4 / 8e02ch3
(c) me4 / 8e02ch2 (d) m2e4 / 8e02ch3
90. The value of Rydberg's constant is
(a) 1.094 x 107 m-1 (b) 1.094 x 10-7 m-1
(c) 1.094 x 107 m (d) 1.094 x 10-7 m
91. Wave number of a light radiation having a frequency 600 HZ is
(a) 2 x 10-6 m (b) 2 x 10-6 m-1
(c) 0.5 x 106 m-1 (d) 18 x 1010 m-1
92. An Electron jumps from the 4th to 2nd orbit of Hydrogen atom.
The frequency of the emitted radiation is ( R = 10+7 m-1 )
(a) (3/16) 105 s-1 (b) (16/3) 105 s-1
(c) (9/16) 1015 s-1 (d) (3/4) 1015 s-1
93. In hydrogen atom when the Electron jumps from any of the
outer orbits to the first orbit the series of spectral lines emitted is
called
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series (d) Pfund series
94. The series of Hydrogen spectral lines given by the expression
1 / ? = R (1/12 1/n2)
n = 2,3,4,..is
(a) Balmer series (b) Lyman series
(c) Paschen series (d) Pfund series.
95. Which of the following Spectral series of Hydrogen atom occurs

in the ultraviolet region?
(a) Bracket series (b) Balmer series
(c) Lyman series (d) Paschen series.
96. The Balmer series in Hydrogen atom is obtained when Electrons
jump from higher orbit to the
(a) First orbit (b) Second orbit
(c) Third orbit (d) Fourth orbit
97. The Wavelength of Balmer series occurs in the
(a) UV region (b) IR region
(c) Visible region (d) Far IR region
98. The Third line of Balmer series in the Hydrogen Spectrum

occurs due to the transition of Electrons form the
(a) Fourth, to the third orbit
(b) Third to the second orbit
(c) Fourth to the second orbit
(d) Third to the first orbit.
99. The lines of Paschen series are obtained for transition of
Electrons from higher orbits to the orbits of Quantum number
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
100. Paschen series is in the region of
(a) Infra red (b) Ultra violet
(c) Visible (d) Far infrared
101. Brackett series of Hydrogen atom are emitted when Electrons
jump from higher orbit to
(a) Second orbit (b) Third orbit
(c) Fourth orbit (d) Fifth orbit
102. The lines of the series are obtained in the H-atom when the
Electron Jumps from any state n2 > 5 to n1 = 5 is
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series
(c) Paschen series (d) Pfund series
103. The Wavelength of Balmer first line is 6563 Ao, then the
Wavelength of second line is
(a) 486.1 Ao (b) 4861 Ao
(c) 48.61 Ao (d) 4500 Ao
104. The ratio between shortest and longest Wavelengths of Lyman
series is
(a) 4:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 1:2 (d) 2:1
105. The Wavelength of the first member of the Balmer series in
Hydrogen spectrum is 5454 Ao. Then the Wavelength of the first
member in Lyman series is
(a) 2020 Ao (b) 1010 Ao
(c) 4040 Ao (d) 6060 Ao
106. Which of the following transition "n2 to n1" gives Paschen
series of Spectral line in Hydrogen atom
(a) 4?3 (b) 5?3
(c) 6?3 (d) All the above.
107. When a Hydrogen atom excited to n = 4, state, falls to ground
state, the Energy released is
(a) 0.85 ev (b) 12.75 ev
(c) 13.6 ev (d) 14.45 ev
108. In an atom, the two electrons move round the nucleus in

circular orbit of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the times taken by
them to complete one revolution is
(a) 1/4 (b) 4/1 (c) 8/1 (d) 1/8.
109. The ratio of the energies of the hydrogen atom in its first and
second excited states is
(a) 1/4 (b) 4/9 (c) 9/4 (d) 4
110. If the electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from an orbit with
level n1 = 3 to an orbit with level n2 = 2 the emitted radiation has a
wavelength given by
(a) 36/5R (b) 5R/36
(c) 6/R (d) R/6
111. With increasing quantum number the energy difference
between adjacent energy levels in atom
(d) decreases for low Z and increases for high Z
112. The series limit wavelength of the Lyman series for the
hydrogen atom is given by
(a) 1/R (b) 4/R (c) 9/R (d) 16/R
113. In a hypothetical Bohr hydrogen atom, the mass of the electron
is doubled. The energy E0 and radius r0 of the first orbit will be (a0
is the Bohr radius )
(a) E0 = -27.2 ev; r0 = a0/2
(b) E0 = -27.2 ev; r0 = a0
(c) E0 = -13.6 ev; r0 = a0/2
(d) E0 = -13.6 ev; r0 = a0
114. The angular momentum of electron in hydrogen atom is
proportional to
(a)vr (b) 1/r (c) r2 (d) 1/vr
115. Which one of the following is not true according to Bohr's
theory
(a) It could not account for the spectra of atoms more complex than
hydrogen
(b) It does not explain the variation in intensity of the spectral lines
of the element
(c) It gives the information regarding the distribution and
arrangement of electrons in an atom
(d) It could not explain Zeeman effect
116. When an electric field is applied to the atom, each of the

spectral line split into several lines. This is known as
(a) Zeeman effect (b) Stark effect
(c) Raman effect (d) splitting effect
117. The elliptical orbits of electron in the atom were proposed by
(a) J.J. Thomson (b) Bohr
(c) Sommerfeld (d) de Broglie
118. The fine structure of spectral lines was explained by __________
atom model.
(a) Thomson's (b) Ruther ford's
(c) Sommerfeld's (d) Prout's
119. According to Sommerfeld's atom model, the mass of the
electron is
(a) Constant (b) Increases (c) Decreases
(d) Increases at some point and decreases at some other points
120. In Bohr's theory the principal quantum number determines
__________ of an electron
(a) Mass (b) Velocity
(c) Charge (d) Energy
121. The orbital or azimuthal quantum number characterizes the
(a) energy of the electrons
(b) velocity of the electrons
(c) the angular momentum of electron in an orbit

(d) mass of the electron
122. The values of orbital quantum number varies from
(a) 0 to (n-1) (b) n to (n-1)
(c) 0 to (n+1) (d) n to (n+1)
123. Which is not correct according to Sommerfeld atom model
(a) For any principal quantum number, one elliptical and (n-1)
circular sub shells are there
(b) The possible sub shells possess slightly different energies
(c) For n =1 the sub shell is designated as 1 s.
(d) All the above.
124. The total energy of an electron in the elliptical orbit obtained
by sommerfeld is
(a) Twice than that of obtained by Bohr
(b) Less than that of obtained by Bohr
(c) Greater than that of obtained by Bohr
(d) Equal to that of obtained by Bohr
125. According to sommerfeld's theory the path of the electron is

(a) An ellipse (b) Circular
(c) Rosette (d) Any one of the above
126. Pick out the wrong statement sommerfeld atom model
(a) Could not predict the correct number of fine structure of spectral
lines
(b) Was able to explain the spectra of alkali metals
(c) Could not explain zeeman effect
(d) Does not give any explanation for the intensities of spectral lines
127. X-rays were discovered by
(a) Thomson (b) Rutherford
(c) Roentgen (d) Coolidge
128. The wave length range of X-rays is

(a) 0.5 Ao 15 Ao (b) 0.5 nm 10 nm
(c) 0.5 Ao 10 Ao (d) 0.1 Ao 10 Ao
129. Which of the following is not a basic requirement for the
production of X-rays
(a) A source of electrons
(b) Provision to accelerate the electrons
(c) A tube to collect the X-rays
(d) A suitable target material
130. The pressure inside the Coolidge tube is about _________
mercury
(a) 106 mm (b) 10-7 mm
(c) 106 cm (d) 10-6 cm
131. _________ is used as a cathode in a Coolidge tube
(a) Copper (b) Molybdenum
(c) Tungsten (d) Any one of the above
132. In a Coolidge tube the electrons are emitted from the cathode
by the process of
(a) Thermionic emission
(b) Photoelectric emission
(c) Spontaneous emission
133. Which one of the following is not the characteristic of the
anode used in the Coolidge tube
(a) High atomic weight (b) High melting point
(c) High thermal conductivity
(d) Low thermal conductivity
134. The potential applied between the filament and the target in a
Coolidge tube is
(a) 20 v (b) 20000 v (c) 20 Mv (d) 200 Kv
135. The intensity of the X-rays emitted from a Coolidge tube
depends on
(a) The velocity of the electrons striking the target
(b) The potential applied between the filament and target
(c) The number of electrons emitted from the cathode
(d) The number of electrons striking the target
136. The wavelength of soft X-rays is about
(a) 1 Ao and above (b) 4 Ao or above
(c) 1 Ao (d) less than 4 Ao
137. Which of the following is not the property of soft X-rays
(a) Lesser frequency (b) Higher energy
(c) low penetrating power (d) Higher wavelength
138. Hard X-rays have the wavelength of the order of
(a) 2 Ao (b) 4 Ao (c) 1 Ao (d) less than 1 Ao
139. The wavelength of the X-rays does not depend upon
(a) The number of electrons striking the target
(b) The K.E of the electrons striking the target
(c) The velocity of the electrons striking the target
(d) The potential difference between the filament and target
140. X- ray is
(a) Phenomenon of conversion of kinetic energy into radiation
(b) Conversion of momentum
(c) Conversion of energy into mass
(d) Principle of conservation of charge
141. In an X-ray tube, the intensity of the emitted X-ray beam is
increased by
(a) Increasing the filament current

(b) Decreasing the filament current
(c) Increasing the target potential
(d) Decreasing the target potential
142. X-rays cannot pass through
(a) Wood (b) Human bone
(c) Flesh (d) Skin
143. X-ray are not deflected by Electric and Magnetic fields because
they are
(a) Of short wave length
(b) Invisible
(c) Not charged particle
(d) Having high penetrative power
144. Characteristic X-ray Spectrum is
(a) A line spectrum
(b) A band spectrum
(c) A continuous spectrum
(d) An absorption spectrum
145. Ordinary grating cannot be used for diffraction of X-rays
because
(a) The wavelength is very high
(b) The wavelength is very small
(c) Grating reflects X-rays
(d) Grating absorbs X-rays
146. Any plane containing an arrangement of atoms is known as
(a) 2-D plane (b) Clevage plane
(c) Atomic plane (d) Diffracting plane
147. X-rays are diffracted by

(a) Grating (b) Electric field
(c) Magnetic field (d) Crystals
148. For X-rays, the Crystals acts like a
(a) Plane grating
(b) 2-Dimensional grating
(c) 3-Dimensional grating
(d) N-Dimensional grating
149. X-ray diffraction was observed by
(a) W.L. Bragg (b) Roentgen
(c) Debroglie (d) Thomson
150. If a beam of X-rays of intensity I passes through a length dx of
any material, the decrease in intensity dI =
(a) I dx (b) -I dx
(c) -I / dx (d) I / dx
151. A crystal can act as a three dimensional grating for an X-ray
beam. This was suggested by
(a) Von laue (b) W.L. Bragg
(c) W.H. Bragg (d) Roentgen
152. The crystal used in Laue's experiment is

(a) Cus (b) Zns
(c) Nacl (d) NH4cl
153. The crystal used by Bragg for X-ray diffraction is
(a) Zns (b) Nacl
(c) Nacl2 (d) any one of the above
154. According to Bragg's law, for maximum intensity
(a) 2d sin ? = n?/2 (b) d sin ? = n?/2

(c) 2d sin ? = (2n+1)?/2 (d) d sin ? = n?
155. In Bragg's law the angle ? is called
(a) Angle of diffraction (b) Critical angle
(c) Polarising angle (d) Glancing angle
156. The device used to measure the wave length of X-rays is
(a) Bainbridge spectrometer
(b) Mass Spectrometer
(c) Bragg Spectrometer
(d) Spectrometer
157. When X-rays of wavelength 1.5 Ao diffracted at an angle of 30o
for the third order in Bragg's spectrometer, then Bragg's spacing is
(a) 4.5 m (b) 3.5 m (c) 5.4 m (d) 4.5 Ao
158. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) X-rays are electromagnetic and visible
(b) X-rays are invisible but electromagnetic wave
(c) X-rays are not electromagnetic wave but visible
(d) X-rays are invisible and not electro magnetic
159. If the Bragg's angle for second order diffraction in a crystal of
spacing 2.8Ao is 30o, the wavelength of light used is
(a) 2.8 Ao (b) 4.1 Ao (c) 1.4 Ao (d) 2.4 Ao
160. A crystal of Lattice spacing 4Ao diffracts Monochromatic Xrays of Wavelength 1.732Ao. The angle of diffraction for fourth order
is
(a) 90o (b) 45o (c) 30o (d) 60o
161. A crystal diffracts Monochromatic X-rays. If the angle of
diffraction for first order is 30o, Then that for second order will be.
(a) 90o (b) 60o (c) 45o (d) 15o
162. The minimum wavelength of the X-rays produced depends on

(a) Velocity of the electrons
(b) Hardness of the target
(c) The anode voltage
(d) All the above
163. The minimum wavelength of the continuous X-ray spectra is
given by ? min =
(a) h / ev (b) ev / hc
(c) hc / ev (d) h? / ev
164. The minimum wavelength of the continuous X-ray spectra
emitted is given by. ? min =
(a) 1240/V Ao (b) 12400/V Ao
(c) V/12400 Ao (d) 12400V Ao
165. The minimum wavelength of the X-ray emitted
(a) Depends upon the operating voltage
(b) Is not same for all metals for a fixed voltage
(c) Is same for all metals for any voltage
(d) All the above
166. The energy of a photon of characteristic X-ray from a Coolidge
tube comes from
(a) The kinetic energy of the free electrons of the target
(b) The kinetic energy of ions of the target
(c) The kinetic energy of the striking electron
(d) An atomic transition in the target
167. A Coolidge tube operates at 24800 V. The maximum frequency
of X-radiation emitted from Coolidge tube is
(a) 6x1018 Hz (b) 3x1018 Hz
(c) 6x1018 Hz (d) 3x108 Hz
168. In characteristic X-ray spectra, Ka line is due to the

(a) Transition of electron from M shell to K shell
(b) Transition of electron from K shell to L shell
(c) Transition of electron from L shell to K shell
(d) Transition of electron from any one of the outer shell to K shell
169. When an electron jumps from N shell to L shell then the
emitted wavelength of X-ray corresponds to
(a) Ka line (b) La line
(c) L line (d) Ma line
170. If ? is the frequency of the spectral line and z atomic number

of the element then according to Moseley's law.
(a) ? a vZ2 (b) ? a vZ
(c) ? a Z2 (d) ? a Z
171. According to Moseley's law
(a) ? = a(z-b) (b) ? = va(z-b)
(c) v? = a2 (z-b) (d) v? = a (z-b)
172. The law that has been helpful in determining the atomic
number of rare earths and thereby fixing their position in the
periodic table is
(a) Bragg's law (b) Moseley's law
(c) Radiation law (d) de Broglie law
173. If the X-ray tube is working at 20 KV then the minimum
wavelength of X-rays will be
(a) 0.31 Ao (b) 0.62 Ao (c) 0.93 Ao (d) 0.47 Ao
174. The maximum distance between inter atomic lattice planes is
15Ao. The maximum wavelength of X-rays which are diffracted by

this crystal will be
(a) 15Ao (b) 20Ao (c) 30Ao (d) 45Ao
175. For which of the following voltage will be wavelength of emitted
X-rays will be minimum
(a) 10 KV (b) 20 KV (c) 30 KV (d) 40 KV
176. The potential difference between the cathode and anticathode
in a Coolidge tube is 120 KV. The maximum frequency of X-rays
emitted by it will be.
(a) 1.9x109 Hz (b) 2.9x1018 Hz
(c) 2.9x1019 Hz (d) 3.9x1019 Hz
177. X-rays of wavelength ? are incident normally on a crystal and
the second order diffraction is observed at an angle of 45o. Then
the wavelength of the X-rays used is
(a) ? / v2 (b) v2 ? (c) ? (d) 2?
178. Bragg's equation will have no solution if
(a) ? > 2d (b) ? < 2d (c) ? > d (d) ? = d
179. The X-rays beam coming from an X-ray tube will be
(a) Monochromatic
(b) Having all wavelength smaller than a certain minimum
wavelength
(c) Having all wavelengths larger than a certain minimum
wavelength
(d) Having all wavelengths between certain minimum and maximum
wavelength
180. During X-ray formation if voltage is increased
(a) Minimum wavelength decreases
(b) Minimum wavelength increases
(c) Intensity decreases
(d) Intensity decreases
181. For production of characteristic K X- rays, the electron

transition is
(a) n = 2 to n = 1 (b) n = 3 to n = 2
(c) n = 3 to n = 1 (d) n = 4 to n = 2
182. The potential difference applied to an X-ray tube is 5 KV and
the current through it is 3.2 m A. Then the number of electrons
striking the target per second is
(a) 2x1016 (b) 5x1016 (c) 1x1017 (d) 4x1015
183. Characteristic X-rays are produced due to
(a) Transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with target atoms
(b) Transition of electrons from higher to lower electronic orbits in
an atom
(c) Heating of the target
(d) Transfer of energy in collision of electrons with atoms in the
target
184. Laser is a light that produces
(a) Polarised light
(b) Intense, coherent and monochromatic light
(c) Penetrating X-rays
(d) White light
185. Which of the following characteristics of Laser is / are true.
The Laser beam
i. is coherent ii. Is monochromatic
iii. Does not converge
iv. Is extremely intense
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) & (iv)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iv)
186. An atom in an Excited Energy level E1, while returning to the
ground level E0, the Energy of the Photon emitted is

(a) E1 E0 (b) E0 E1
(c) E1 + E0 (d) Zero
187. A Photon produced by stimulated Emission is called
(a) Emitted photon (b) Stimulated photon
(c) Primary photon (d) Secondary photon
188. The Phase difference between a Photon and stimulated Photon

is
(a) 90o (b) 180o (c) 0o (d) 45o
189. Stimulated Emission term depends on
(a) No of atoms in the higher energy level
(b) No of photons
(c) Number of photons with relevant energy in the environment of
the atoms
190. An atom in the ground level E0 absorbing the Energy from a
Photon and goes to higher Energy level E1. This is called as
(a) Absorption of energy
(b) Induced absorption
(c) Secondary absorption
(d) Stimulation
191. In Normal Population, the number of atoms in the
(a) Excited state is more
(b) Excited state is equal to the ground state
(c) Ground state is more
(d) Intermediate state is more
192. The very important phenomenon in LASER is
(a) Spontaneous emission
(b) Stimulated emission

(c) Ordinary emission
193. The process of population inversion is to increase the number
of atoms in the
(a) Excited state (b) Ground state
(c) Intermediate state (d) None of the above
194. The life time of atoms in the Excited state is normally
(a) 10-6s (b) 10-4s
(c) 10-8s (d) 10-3s
195. The life time of atoms in the Excited state in the case of laser is
(a) 10-6s (b) 10-3s
(c) 10-8s (d) 10-4s
196. The life time of atoms in the excited state in the case of laser is
more. Such long lived states are called as
(a) Excited state (b) Super excited state
(c) Meta stable state (d) Stable state
197. One of the method to produce Population inversion is

(a) Mechanical pumping
(b) Optical pumping
(c) Excitation
198. Which of the following is necessary to achieve Laser action.
(a) There must be an inverted population
(b) The excited state must be a meta stable state
(c) The emitted photon must stimulate further emission
(d) All the above
199. In Ruby Laser.
(a) One end of the ruby is highly silvered and the other end is
transparent
(b) Both the ends of ruby are silvered
(c) Both the ends of ruby are transparent
(d) One end of ruby is highly silvered and the other end is semi
transparent
200. In Ruby Laser, the Ruby is surrounded by a Pump in the form
of a Spiral. The pump is a
(a) Neon flash tube
(b) Krypton flash tube
(c) Xenon flash tube
(d) Sodium flash tube
201. A Ruby crystal is made up of
(a) Al2o3 (b) Al2o2
(c) Alo3 (d) Cr2o2
202. The ions which absorb Green light are
(a) Cr3+ions (b) Al2O3 ions
(c) Al3+ions (d) xe+ ions
203. In Ruby Laser the atoms are Excited by
(a) Ruby rod (b) Flash tube
(c) Silvered mirror
(d) Semi-transparent mirror
204. In Ruby Laser, a large number of atoms occupy
(a) Ground state (b) Excited state
(c) Meta Stable state (d) Normal state
205. In Ruby Laser the Stimulated emission is by the
(a) Photons emitted by the xenon flash tube
(b) Reflected photons
(c) Secondary photons
(d) None
206. The colour of the Laser Light emitted by Ruby is

(a) Red (b) Green (c) Blue (d) Yellow
207. The Light from a Laser source is Monochromatic because all
Photons
(a) Are in phase (b) Have same energy
(c) Have same amplitude
(d) Are in the same direction
208. Laser Light is intense because
(a) It has very less number of photons that are in phase
(b) It has very less number of photons that are not in phase
(c) It has very large number of photons that are in phase
(d) It has very large number of photons that are not in phase
209. The resultant intensity of a Laser beam interms of amplitude
'a' and the number of photons 'n' is proportional to
(a) na (b) n2a (c) n2a2 (d) na2
210. The wavelength of the light emitted from a Ruby Laser is
(a) 5943 Ao (b) 6943 Ao
(c) 9643 Ao (d) 4693 Ao
211. He - Ne Laser is a type of
(a) Solid Laser (b) Liquid Laser
(c) Gas Laser (d) None
212. The ratio of the He and Ne in a He-Ne Laser is
(a) 1:4 (b) 4:1 (c) 1:6 (d) 6:1
213. In a He-Ne Laser the gas mixture is maintained at a pressure
of about
(a) 1 cm of Hg (b) 10 cm of Hg
(c) 1/10 cm of Hg (d) 10 mm of Hg
214. The presence of He atoms in He-Ne Laser is

(a) To produce Laser beam
(b) To excite the Ne atoms
(c) To help in achieving a population inversion in Ne atoms
(d) All the above
215. The energy of the atoms in the meta stable state of a He-Ne
Laser is
(a) 20.61 ev (b) 18.70 ev
(c) 20.66 ev (d) 20.6 ev
216. The wavelength of Laser emitted form a He-Ne Laser is
(a) 6238 Ao (b) 6328 Ao
(c) 6828 Ao (d) 6832 Ao
217. Hologram is a photograph on which ______ of the light waves is
/ are recorded
(a) Amplitude (b) Phase
(c) Amplitude and phase
(d) Either phase or amplitude
218. _______ are used as Maser materials
(a) Diamagnetic ions
(b) Paramagnetic ions
(c) Ferromagnetic ions
(d) All the above
219. The impurity doped with the ionic crystals to get Maser is
(a) Gadolinium (b) Arsenic
(c) Antimony (d) Vanadium
220. Which of the following is a Maser material
(a) NH3 (b) NH4
(c) CH4 (d) N2
PART-B
1) What are cathode rays?
2) What are the drawbacks of Thomson's atom model?
3) What are the drawbacks of Rutherford's atom model?
4) State the postulates of Bohr atom model.
5) What are the drawbacks of Sommerfeld atom model?
6) Define: excitation potential energy and ionization potential energy
7) What are x-rays?
8) What are soft X- rays and hard X-rays?
9) Why ordinary plane transmission gratings cannot be used to
produce diffraction effects in X-rays?
stimulated emission
12) What is meant by normal population?
13) What are the important characteristics of laser?
14) How does the laser light differ from ordinary light?
15) What are the conditions to achieve laser action?
PART-C
1) Write the properties of cathode rays
2) Explain Rutherford ?-particle scattering experiment and explain
the results
3) Write the properties of X-rays
4) State and obtain Bragg's law
5) Explain how Bragg's spectrometer can be used to determine the
wavelength of X-rays
6) Explain the origin of continuous X-rays
7) Explain the origin of characteristic X-rays

8) What are the various applications of laser in medical fiels?
9) Derive an expression for the distance of closest approach for
an ?-particle towards a nucleus
10) Explain the spectral series of hydrogen atom
11) Explain laser action
12) What are the applications of X-rays?
PART-D
1) Describe J.J.Thomson method for determining the specific charge
of an electron
of an electrion
3) Obtain an expression for the radius of the nth orbit of an electron
based on Bohr's theory
4) Derive an expression for the energy of an electron in the nth orbit
based on Bohr's theory
6) With the help of energy level diagram, explain the working of HeNe laser
7) Explain the Sommerfeld atom model
BLUE-PRINT
4 X 1 = 4 2 X 3 = 6 1 X 5 = 5 1 X 10 = 10
TOTAL 25 MARKS
1. Changing electric field with time at a point produces a magnetic
field at that point. This idea was given by
(a) Faraday (b) Oersted
(c) Maxwell (d) Newton
2. Maxwell in arriving at the electromagnetic equations introduced a
new concept called
(a) displacement current
(b) eddy current

(c) electromagnetic current
(d) critical current
3. Electromagnetic waves were suggested by
(a) Newton (b) Huygens
(c) Maxwell (d) Planck
4. Accelerated electric charges produce
(a) electromagnetic waves
(b) sound waves
(c) mechanical waves
(d) stationary waves
5. Due to the oscillation of an electric charge
(a) electrical disturbances are produced
(b) magnetic disturbances are produced
(c) linked electric and magnetic disturbances are produced
6. When electric charges oscillate the electric and magnetic
components produced are
(a) parallel to each other
(b) in opposite direction
(c) inclined to each other
(d) perpendicular to each other
7. The waves that can be propagated in vaccum are
(a) sound waves (b) mechanical waves
(c) longitudinal waves (d) e.m waves
8. The nature of the em waves are
(a) longitudinal (b) transverse
(c) stationary (d) both (a) and (b)
9. Electromagnetic waves are propagated with a velocity of
(a) 3x108 ms-1 (b) 3x108 cms-1

(c) 3x108 kms-1 (d) 3x108 mms-1
10. In an electromagnetic wave, variations in electric and magnetic

fields occur
(a) simulataneously in the same plane
(b) at different instants in the same plane
(c) at different instants at the perpendicular planes
(d) All the above
11. In an em wave the angle between electric field vector and
magnetic field is
(a) 0o (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800
12. The velocity of an em radiation in free space is given by the
relation C=
(a) 1/?o ?o (b)?o?o (c) v?o?o (d) 1/v?0?0
13. The energy in an em wave is
(a) stored only in electric field
(b) stored only in magnetic field
(c) equally divided between electric and magnetic fields
(d) zero
14. The em waves are
(a) not deflected by electric and mag.fields
(b) deflected by electric fields
(c) deflected by magnetic fields
15. The amplitudes of electric and magnetic fields in free space are
related as C=
(a) E0B0 (b) E0/B0
(c) B0/E0 (d) 1/vE0B0
16. In a plane em wave the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a

frequency 3x1010 Hz. Then the wavelength of the wave is
(a) 0.01 cm (b) 1 cm (c) 1 m (d) 0.01 mm
17. In a plane em wave the electric field oscillates at a frequency of
2x1010 Hz and amplitude 48 V m-1. Then the amplitude of the
oscillating mag. field is
(a) 1.6x10-7 T (b) 1.6x107 T
(c) 16x10-7 T (d) 16x107 T
18. Electromagnetic waves travel in a medium at a speed of 2x108
ms-1.The relative permeability of the medium is 1 then the relative
permittivity is
(a) 1.15 (b) 2.25 (c) 22.5 (d) 1
19. Dimensions of 1/?0?o is

(a) L2/T2 (b) T2/L2 (c) T/L (d) L/T
20. Speed of em waves is the same
(a) for all wavelengths
(b) for all frequencies
(c) in all media
(d) for all intensities
21. The existence of em waves confirmed experimentally by
(a) Maxwell (b) Hertz
(c) Newton (d) Huygens
22. The energy of the em waves is due to the
(a) kinetic energy of the oscillating charge
(b) potential energy of the oscillating charge
(c) rotational energy of the oscillating charge
(d) vibrational energy of the oscillating charge
23. The distance of separation between the metal plates in the Hertz
experiment is
(a) 60 m (b) 6 cm (c) 600 cm (d) 0.6 m
24. The frequency of em waves produced by Hertz experiment is
(a) 6x107 Hz (b) 5x107 Hz
(c) 5x10-7 Hz (d) 6x10-7 Hz
25. The wavelength of em waves produced in Hertz experiment was
(a) 6 m (b) 6 mm (c) 6 cm (d) 1 m
26. In Hertz experiment the frequency of charges is given by ?=
(a) 1/vLC (b) 1/2?vLC
(c) 2?/vLC (d) vLC/2?
27. The physical properties of em waves are determined by their
(a) frequency (b) method of excitation
(c) wavelength (d) all the above
28. The overlapping in certain parts of the em spectrum shows that
(a) the spectrum has sharp boundaries
(b) the particular wave canbe produced by particular method
(c) the particular wave can be produced by different methods
(d) all the above
29. Displacement current is

(a) continuous when electric field is changing in the circuit
(b) continuous when magnetic field is changing in the circuit
(c) contiuous in both type of fields
(d) continuous through wires and resistance only
30. The nature of electric field in the region between the two plates
of a capacitor while charging is
(a) always constant
(b) varying
(c) depends on the value of C

(d) depends on the emf of battery
31. If E and B are the electric and magnetic fields vectors of em
waves then the direction of propagation of em waves is along the
direction of
(a) E (b) B (c) ExB (d) none
32. which of the following relation is correct
(a) E0v?0=B0v?o (b) E0v?0?0=B0
(c) E0=B0v?o?0 (d) E0v?0=B0v?o
33. The wavelength of X-rays ranges from
(a) 10-14 m-10-10 m (b) 4x10-7-8x10-7
(c) 8x10-7-3x10-5 m (d) 10-10-3x10-8 m
34. The wavelength of X-rays is of the order of
(a) 1 m (b) 1 cm
(c) 1 micron (d) 1 angstrom
35. Which of the following has the largest wavelength
(a) x-rays (b) ?- rays
(c) microwaves (d) radio waves
36. The structure of solids is investigated by using
(a) cosmic rays (b) x-rays
(c) ?-rays (d) IR rays
37. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength
(a) x-rays (b) ?-rays
(c) microwaves (d) radio waves
38. The waves which have revolutionized telecommunication in
recent times are
(a) microwaves (b) radiowaves
(c) light waves (d) x-rays
39. The frequency of visible light is of the order of

(a) 1014 Hz (b) 1010 Hz
(c) 106 Hz (d) 104 Hz
40. The wavelength range of uv rays is
(a) 6x1010-4x10-7 m (b) 6x10-10-4x107 m
(c) 6x10-10-4x10-7 m (d) 6x10-10-0.4x10-7 m
41. The frequency range of IR rays is
(a) 4x1014-1x1013 Hz (b) 4x10-14-10-13 Hz
(c) 4x1014-1x10-13 Hz (d) 4x10-14-1x1013 Hz
42. The frequency range of AM band is
(a) 54 MHz-1710 MHz (b) 530 kHz-1710 kHz
(c) 54 MHz-890 MHz (d) 88 MHz-108 MHz
43. Frequency of radiowaves ranging from 88 MHz to 108 MHz
corresponds to
(a) FM band (b) short wave band
(c) UHF band (d) AM band
44. Pick out the correct statement
(a) uv photographs are used in weather forecasting
(b) microwaves are used to take photographs
of long distance objects
(c) IR lamps are used in physiotherapy
(d) ?-rays are used to preserve the food items
45. _______ are used to detect forged documents
(a) microwaves (b) ?-rays
(c) uv-rays (d) IR rays
46. The atmospheric layer that is close to the earth is
(a) mesosphere (b) stratosphere
(c) troposphere (d) thermosphere
47. The layer that is responsible for the weather phenomena

affecting our environment is
(a) ionosphere (b) troposphere
(c) stratosphere (d) mesosphere
48. The lower layer of stratosphere that is from 15 km-30 km is
(a)mesosphere (b) ionosphere
(c) ozone layer (d) troposphere
49. The ionosphere region exists at aheight of
(a) 50 km (b) 90 km
(c) 90 m (d) 60 km
50. Spectrum is a
(a) group of colours
(b) group of wavelengths
(c) group of dark images
(d) group of bright images
51. If the slit is illuminated with sodium vapour lamp two images of
the slit are obtained in the _________ region of the spectrum
(a) yellow (b) green
(c) red (d) blue
52. The sodium vapour lamp is capable of emitting light of
wavelengths
(a) 6870 A0 and 6970 A0
(b) 6560 A0 and 6590 A0
(c) 5890 A0 and 5896 A0
(d) 5980 A0 and 5986 A0
53. The spectrum of sodium has
(a) well defined wavelength
(b) discrete wavelength

(c) band of wavelengths
(d) none
54. Difference in wavelengths between the two sodium lines is
(a) 6 m (b) 6x10-15 m
(c) 90 A0 (d) 6x10-10 m
55. As the temperature of the solid gradually increases the
spectrum emitted by it
(a) is red
(b) remains the same
(c) spreads from violet to red end
(d) spreads from red to violet end
56. Every source has its characteristic_____spectra
(a) emission (b) absorption
(c) continuous (d) line
57. Every substance has its characteristic ________ spectra
(a) emission (b) absorption
(c) line (d) band
58. Continuous spectra are due to
(a) atoms in gaseous state
(b) molecules in gaseous state
(c) solids at high temperature
(d) solids at low temperature
59. Colours present in a continuous spectra depends on

(a) mass of the solid
(b) volume of the solid
(c) shape of the solid
(d) temperature. of the solid
60. A carbon arc lamp gives a _______ spectrum

(a) line (b) band
(c) continuous (d) absorption
61. Which of the following gives continuous spectra
(a) sodium vapour lamp
(b) mercury vapour lamp
(c) calcium salt on Bunsen burner
(d) electric filament lamp
62. Atoms in the gaseous state emit ______ spectra
(a) absorption (b) line
(c) continuous (d) band
63. The spectra used to identify the element is
(a) line (b) band
(c) continuous (d) absorption
64. Which of the following emit line spectra
(a) carbon arc lamp
(b) incandescent solids
(c) co2 in vaccum tube
(d) mercury vapour lamp
65. Band spectra are obtained from
(a) incandescent solids
(b) electric lamps
(c) atoms in gaseous state
(d) molecules in the gaseous state
66. Band spectra can be obtained from
(a) cabon-di-oxide
(b) nitrogen
(c) barium salt in the Bunsen burner
(d) all the above
67. A pure green glass placed in the path of white light gives
_________ spectrum
(a) continuous absorption
(b) continuous emission
(c) line absorption
(d) band absorption
68. If the light from the carbon arc lamp is made to pass through
sodium vapour and then examined we will get
(a) continuous absorption spectrum
(b) band absorption spectrum
(c) line absorption spectrum
69. If white light is passed through dilute solution of blood it gives
_______ spectrum
(a) band emission (b) band absorption
(c) line emission (d) line absorption
70. Solar spectrum is an example for _______ spectrum
(a) line emission (b) line absorption
(c) band emission (d) band absorption
71. Which of the following is/are true
i. continuous spectra consists of unbroken luminous bands of all
wavelengths
ii. The line spectra has sharp lines of definite wavelengths
iii. band spectra consists of series of bands with uniform intensity
iv. when a band spectra is examined by a high resolving power
spectrometer the bands are found to contain large number of lines
very close to each other
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i),(ii),(iv) and not(iii)
(c) (i),(ii),(iii) and not (iv)
(d) (i),(iii) and (iv)

72. The central core of the sun is called
(a) chromosphere (b) stratosphere
(c) troposphere (d) photosphere
73. The temperature of photosphere is
(a) 10 million K (b) 1x106 K
(c) 14x105 K (d) 14x106 K
74. The Sun's atmosphere is called as
(a) photosphere (b) stratosphere
(c) chromosphere (d) troposphere
75. The temperature of chromosphere is
(a)14x106 K (b) 6x103 K
(c) 600 K (d) 14x105 K
76. The dark lines found in the solar spectrum are called
(a) solar lines (b) absorption lines
(c) fraunhofer lines (d) stoke's lines
77. Fraunhofer lines are
(a) continuous lines
(b) emission lines in solar spectrum
(c) absorption lines in solar spectrum
(d) emission lines from the chromosphere
78. The elements in the Sun's atmosphere have been identified
using
(a) Fraunhofer lines (b) Stoke's lines
(c) Anti stoke's lines (d) Raman lines
79. Photosphere emits __________ spectrum

(a) line (b) continuous
(c) band (d) all the above
80. Any atomic or molecular system returns back to lower energy
state in a time
(a) less than 10-5 s (b) greater than 10-5 s
(c) 108 s (d) less than 108 s
81. When uv light incident on certain substances they emit visible
light. This phenomenon is called
(a) fluorescence (b) phosphorescence
(c) scintillation (d) luminescence
82. Emission of light continues from some substances even after
the exciting radiation is removed. This is known as
(a) fluorescence (b) phosphorescence
(c) luminescence (d) any of the above
83. Light is propagated in the form of
(a) longitudinal waves
(b) transverse waves
(c) pressure waves
(d) shear waves
84. Propagation of light is
(a) transfer of energy (b) storage of energy
(c) loss of energy (d) none
85. The corpuscular theory was given by
(a) Newton (b) Huygens
(c)Einstein (d) Maxwell
86. According to corpuscular theory a source of light emits
(a) light waves

(b) particles with appreciable mass
(c) tiny massless particles
(d) quantas
87. Corpuscles are
(a) tiny particles
(b) massless particles
(c) perfectly elastic spheres
(d) all the above
88. Due to emission of light energy the mass of the source
(c) remains same (d) none
89. Light energy is the kinetic energy of the corpuscles.This is
according to______ theory
(a) Newton's (b) Maxwell's
(c) Huygen's (d) Einstein's
90. According to corpuscular theory, the sensation of different
colours is due to different _________ of copuscles
(a) velocities (b) masses
(c) sizes (d) colours
91. According to corpuscular theory the reflection of light is due to
(a) attraction (b) reflection
(c) deviation (d) dispersion
92. According to corpuscular theory the refraction of light is due to
(a) attraction (b) repulsion
(c) deviation (d) dispersion
93. Corpuscular nature of light was proved by
(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) polarisation
(d) photo electric effect
94. The velocity of the corpuscle is
(a) less than the velocity of light
(b) greater than the velocity of light
(c) equal to the velocity of light
(d) none
95. According to the corpuscular theory the velocity of light is

(a) more in denser medium
(b) less in rarer medium
(c) more in rarer medium
(d) constant in all media
96. Newton's theory failed to explain
(a) interference of light
(b) diffraction of light
(c) polarisation of light
(d) all the above
97. Wave theory of light was suggested by
(a) Newton (b) Maxwell
(c) Huygens (d) Einstein
98. The hypothetical medium assumed by Huygens was
(a) ether (b) air
(c) gaseous (d) all the above
99. Huygens assumed that waves are
(a) transverse (b) longitudinal
(c) (a) or (b) (d) (a) and (b)
100. According to wave theory the velocity of light is
(a) more in denser medium
(b) less in denser medium

(c) less in rarer medium
(d) a constant in all media
101. Rectlinear propagation of light on the basis of wave theory, was
explained by
(a) Maxwell (b) Huygens
(c) Fresnel and Young (d) Michelson
102. The velocities of light in glass, water and air are V1,V2,V3
respectively, then
(a) V1>V2>V3 (b) V2>V3>V1
(c) V1<V2V1>V3
103. Huygen's theory successfully explained
(a) reflection (b) refraction
(c) interference (d) all the above
104. According to Maxwell light waves are
(a) transverse waves
(b) longitudinal waves
(c) electromagnetic waves
(d) made up of corpuscles
105. Maxwell showed that light waves convey

(a) electrical energy (b) mechanical energy
(c) thermal energy (d) em energy
106. According to Maxwell for the propagation of lightwaves
(a) a solid medium is necessary
(b) a liquid medium is necessary
(c) a gaseous medium is necessary
(d) no medium is required
107. Electomagnetic theory failed to explain

(a) interference
(b) diffraction
(c) rectilinear propagation of light
(d) photoelectric effect
108. Quantum theory was proposed by
(a) Newton (b) Planck
(c) Maxwell (d) Huygens
109. According to quantum theory, light wave consists of
(a) corpuscles (b) small packets of energy
(c) quanta (d) (b) and (c)
110. The energy associated with each photon is
(a) h? (b)h/? (c) ?/h (d) h-?
111. Light has
(a) wave nature (b) particle nature
(c) quantum nature (d) dual nature
112. Blue colour of the sky is due to the
(a) scattering of light (b) reflection of light
(c) refraction of light (d) natural colour
113. Blue colour of the sky is due to the scattering of
(a) longer wavelengths
(b) all wavelengths
(c) smaller frequencies
(d) shorter wavelengths
114. Which of the following wavelength will be scattered more
(a) 4560 A0 (b) 5560 A0
(c) 4450 A0 (d) 4650 A0
115. If the atmosphere does not exist then the colour of the sky will
be
(a) white (b) black
(c) blue (d) red
116. Which of the following will travel longer distance
(a) blue (b) yellow
(c) green (d) orange
117. The ratio of amount of scattering by two waves of 6000 A0 and
9000 A0 is around
(a) 1.5 (b) 2.25 (c) 5.1 (d) 0.667
118. According to Rayleigh's scattering law, the amount of
scattering is proportional to
(a) 1/? (b) ?-4 (c) ?4 (d) 1/ ?-4
119. If the wavelength of light is reduced to one third, then the
amount of scattering
(a) increased by 3 times
(b) decreased by 3times
(c) increased by 81 times
(d) decreased by 81 times
120. The scattering ratio of two wavelengths x and y is 81. If the
wavelength of x is 2000 A0 then the wavelength y is
(a) 3000 A0 (b) 5000 A0
(c) 6000 A0 (d) 4000 A0
121. Pick out the wrong statement
(a) the basic process in scattering is absorption of light
(b) the strength of scattering depends on the wavelength of the light
and also the size of the particle
(c) scattering of light by air molecules is Rayleigh's scattering
(d) scattering of light by colloidal particles is Tyndall scattering
122. In Raman effect frequency of Stoke's lines is
(a) lower than incident frequency
(b) greater than incident frequency

(c) equal to incident frequency
(d) zero
123. The spectral lines formed in the scattering of light by the
atoms and molecules is known as
(a) Fraunhofer liens (b) atomic spectrum
(c) molecular spectrum (d) Raman spectrum
124. Raman shift or Raman frequency is given by
(a) ??=?0-?s (b) ??=?0+?s
(c) ??=?0.?s (d) ??=?0/?s
125. Raman shift does not depend upon

(a) frequency of the incident radiation
(b) wavelength of the incident radiation
(c) energy of the incident radiation
(d) all the above
126. For Stoke's lines Raman shift is
(a) negative (b) positive
(c) zero (d) infinity
127. Which of the following is not true
(a) Raman shift ?? is negative for Anti stoke's lines
(b) the spectral line that has lower frequency is called Stoke's line
(c) the intensity of stoke's line is always less than the corresponding
antistoke's line
(d) when the scattered photon gains energy the line obtained is a
antistoke's line
128. The substances are classified according to the molecular
structure using
(a) interference spectra
(b) diffraction spectra

(c) Raman spectra
(d) All the above
129. The locus all points having the same state of vibration is
(a) ray (b) half period zone
(c) wavefront (d) collinear points
130. when a source of light is at infinity the nature of the wavefront
is
(a) circular (b) plane
(c) spherical (d) elliptical
131. If the source of light is at finite distance the nature of the
wavefront is
(a) circular (b) plane
(c) spherical (d) elliptical
132. A linear source of light gives_____ wavefront
(a) spherical (b) cylindrical
(c) plane (d) semi circular
133. The medium in which light travels with the same speed in all
directions is known as
(a) an isotopic medium
(b) an anisotropic medium
(c) an isotropic medium
(d) a heterogeneous medium
134. According to Huygen's principle each point on the given
wavefront
(a) becomes a secondary source emitting secondary wavelets
(b) becomes a primary source of light
(c) is to be in a different state of vibration
(d) is to have a phase difference of ?
135. When a light beam enters from one medium to another its
(a) wavength changes (b) frequency changes
(c) velocity changes (d) both (a) and (c)
136. During the reflection of light its wavelength
(c) remains constant (d) none
137. When light passes from one medium to another which one of
the following does not change?
(a) wavelength (b) frequency
(c) velocity (d) refractive index
138. The refractive index of a medium is not given as
(a) ?m = Ca/Cm (b) ?m= sin i/sinr
(c) ?m = ?a/ ?m (d) ?m = ?m/ ?a
139. The refracted wavefront is possible for which the angle of
refraction is
(a) less than 900 (b) equal to 900
(c) greater than 900 (d) all the above
140. The angle of incidence at which the angle of refraction is 900 is
called
(a) total reflecting angle
(b) critical angle
(c) glancing angle
141. When the angle of incidence is beyond the critical angle
(a) a refracted wavefront is possible
(b) a refracted wavefront is just possible
(c) no refracted wavefront is possible
(d) refracted wavefront is possible at times
142. For a given angle of incidence a refracted wavefront is possible
if
(a) sin r > 1 (b) sin r = 1
(c) sin r < 1 (d) sin r =8
143. For a given angle of incidence no refracted wavefront is

possible if
(a)sin r > 1 (b) sin r = 1
(c) sin r < 1 (d) sin r =8
144. A beam of monochromatic light enters from vacuum into a
medium of refractive index ? the ratio of the wavelengths of the
incident and refracted waves is
(a) ?:1 (b) 1: ?
(c) ?2:1 (d) 1: ?2
145. Time taken by Sun light to pass through a window of thickness
4 mm whose refractive index is 3/2 is
(a) 2x10-4 s (b) 2x108 s
(c) 2x10-11 s (d) 2x1011 s
146. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and having
refractive index ?. If C is the velocity of light in vaccum, the time
taken by the light to travel this thickness of glass is
(a) ? t/C (b) t/? C
(c) ? tC (d) t C/?
147. If the speed of red light is Vr and the speed of violet light is Vv
then for vaccum
(a) Vr> Vv (b) Vr = Vv
(c) Vr< Vv (d) none
148. If the speed of red light is Vr and the speed of violet light is Vv
then for glass
(a) Vr> Vv (b) Vr= Vv
(c) Vr< Vv (d) none

149. If the speed of light in vaccum is C then the speed of light in a
medium of refractive index 1.5 is
(a) 1.5 C (b) C
(c) C/1.5 (d) can have any velocity
150. The angle of incidence corresponding to which the angle of
refraction is rightangle is called
(a) angle of reflection
(b) angle of refraction
(c) critical angle
(d) polarising angle
151. Two sources are said to be coherent if they have same

amplitude
(a) but different periods
(b) but different phase
(c) but different period and same phase or constant difference in
phase
(d) same frequency and phase
152. Two sodium vapour lamps placed close to each other are
(a) coherent sources
(b) incoherent sources
(c) giving out maximum light
(d) giving out minimum light
153. At points where the waves arrive at out of phase by ? radians,
the resultant displacement is
(a) minimum
(b) maximum
(c) difference of displacements
(d) both (a) and (c)
154. Two wave trains are out phase. If Y1 and Y2 are the individual
displacements the the resultant displacements is
(a) Y = Y1+ Y2 (b) Y = Y1- Y2
(c) Y1= Y-Y2 (d) Y2 = Y- Y2
155. The interference of two light is nothing but the redistribution
of
(a) amplitude (b) frequency
(c) phase (d) intensity
156. If two separate identical sources of light are used to produce
interference then
(a) number fringes will increase
(b) no fringes will be formed
(c) fringes will be dark
(d) fringes will be brighter
157. If the resultant intensity at points decreases due to the
superposition of waves is known as
(a) destructive interference
(b) constructive interference
(c) diffraction
(d) polarisation
158. For constructive interference, the path difference between the
interfering waves must be
(a) any integer x ?/2
(b) any integer x ?
(c) any odd integer x ?
(d) anyoddintegerx ?/2
159. For destructive interference, the path difference between the
interfering waves must be
(a) any integer x ?/2

(b) any integer x ?
(c) zero
(d) any odd integerx ?/2
160. Two light waves can produce constructive interference if the
phase difference between them is
(a) 2? (b) ?/2
(c) ? (d) 3?/2
161. Two light waves can produce destructive interference if the
phase difference between them is
(a) 2? (b) ?
(c) ? /2 (d) 3?
162. The relation between the path difference d and phase
difference ? between any two light waves is given by
(a) ? = ?/2 ? d (b) ? = 2 ? d/ ?
(c) ? = 2 ? ?/ d (d) ? = 2 ? d
163. The path difference between two monochromatic light waves of
wavelength 4000 A0 is 2x10-7 m. The phase difference between
them is
(a) ? (b) 2?
(c) 3?/2 (d) ?/2
164. The light waves from two coherent sources of same intensity I
produce interference.At minimum, intensity of light is zero. What is
the intensity of light at the maximum
(a) I (b) 4I
(c) I2 (d) 4I2
165. Two coherent sources of intensities I1 and I2 produce an
interference pattern.The maximum intensity in the interference
pattern will be
(a) I1+I2 (b) I12+I22
(c) (I1+I2)2 (d) (vI1+vI2)2

166. Two waves having the intensities in the ratio of 9:1 produce
interference. The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity is equal
to
(a) 10:8 (b) 9:1
(c) 4:1 (d) 2:1
167. Let two interfering beams have intensities 9:4. The intensity
ratio in the interference pattern would be
(a) 25:1 (b) 13:5
(c) 5:1 (d) 1:25
168. In Young's double slit experiment the separation between the
slits is halved and the distance between slits and screen is doubled.
The fringe width is
(a) unchanged (b) halved
(c) doubled (d) quadrupled
169. The fringe width for red colour as compared to
that of violet colour is approximately
(a) 3 times (b) double
170. Intensity of light depends on
(a) amplitude (b) frequency
(c) wavelength (d) velocity
171. Two sources of light of wavelengths 2500 A0 and 3500 A0 are
used in Young's double slit experiment simultaneously.Which
orders of fringes of two wavelengths patterns coincide
(a) 3 rd order of 1st and 5th of the second
(b) 7 th order of 1st and 5th of the second
(c) 5 th order of 1st and 3rd of the second
(d) 5 th order of 1st and 7th of the second
172. In Young's double slit experiment if the width of 3rd fringe is

10-2 cm, then the width of the 5th fringe will be
(a) 5x10-2 cm (b) 10-2 cm
(c) 2x10-2 cm (d) 4x10-2 cm
173. In Young's double slit experiment one slit is covered with red
filter and another slit is covered by green filter the the interference
pattern will be
(a) red (b) green
(c) yellow (d) invisible
174. In Young's double slit experiment the seventh maximum with
wavelength ?1 is at a distance d1 and the same maximum with
wavelength ?2 is at a distance d2. Then d1/d2=
(a) ?1/ ?2 (b) ?2/ ?1
(c) ?12/ ?22 (d) ?22 / ?12
175. The Young's double slit experiment is shifted from air to

water.Assuming that the water is still and clear the fringe pattern
(a) remain unchanged (b) disappear
(c) shrink (d) be enlarged
176. In Young's double slit experiment 10 fringes are observed
when a light of wavelength 4000 A0 is used.If a light of 5000 A0 is
used the number of fringes observed is
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 40 (d) 50
177. The fringe width at a distance of 50 cm from the slits in
Young's double slit experiment for light of wavelength 6000 A0 is
0.048 cm.The fringe width at the same distance for ? = 5000 A0 will
be
(a) 0.04 cm (b) 0.4 cm
(c) 0.14 cm (d) 0.45 cm

178. In Young's double slit experiment ? = 5000 A0 ,
d= 0.2 mm and D=200 cm. The central maximum is at x=0.The
third maximum will be at
(a) 1.67 cm (b) 1.5 cm
(c) 0.5 cm (d) 5.0 cm
179
n Young's double slit experiment
(a) fringes will not be formed
if the slits are of unequal width
(b) the positions of minimum intensity will not be completely dark

(c) bright fringe will not be formed at the centre of the screen
(d) distance between two consecutive bright fringes will not be equal
to the distance between two consecutive dark fringes
180. In Young's double slit experiment the 3rd bright band for
wavelength 6000 A0 coincides with the 4th bright band for another
source in the same arrangement. The wavelength of the another
source is
(a) 4500 A0 (b) 6000 A0
(c) 5000 A0 (d) 4000 A0
english medium physics
181. The colours of thin films depends on
(a) thickness of the film
(b) angle of inclination of light
(e)
182. The colours of thin films are due to
(a) reflection of light
(b) refraction of light
(c) interference of light
(d) polarisation of light
183. In the case of thin films for reflected light if the path difference
between the light waves is n? then
(a) constructive interference occurs
(b) destructive interference occurs
184. At any point on a thin film for refracted light the path
difference is 3 ?/2, then that point will be
(a) dark (b) bright
(c) a or b (d) a and b
185. A ray of light travelling in air and getting reflected at the
surface of a denser medium
(a) there will be a change in wavelength
(b) there will be a change in velocity
(c) there will be a phase change of ?
(d) there will be an additional path difference of ?
186. To form sustained interference pattern
(a) the two sources should be coherent
(b) the two sources should be narrow
(c) the two sources should lie very close
(d) all the above
187. Newton's rings are formed due to
(b) reflection of light
(c) diffraction of light
(d) polarisation of light
188. Newton's rings when viewed with white light
(a) alternate dark and bright fringes are seen
(b) only darkness
(c) coloured fringes are seen
(d) no fringes
189. In Newton's rings experiment the condition for darkness is

(a) 2t = (2n+1) ?/2 (b) 2t = (2n-1) ?/2
(c) 2t = n ?/2 (d) 2t = n ?
190. The centre of Newton's rings appears dark because

(a) the thickness of the film is not zero
(b) the thickness of the film is zero
(c) there is an additional path difference of ?/2
(d) there is an additional path difference of ?
191. The radius of the nth dark ring in Newton's rings is
(a) nR? (b) Rvn ?
(c) nvR ? (d) vnR ?
192. In Newton's rings if radius of curvature and wavelength of the
light are constant then the radius of the n th dark ring is
(a) directly proportional to n
(b) directly proportional to vn
(c) directly proportional to ?
(d) inversely proportional to vn
193. In Newton's rings experiment the ratio of radii of the 16 th and
25 th dark ring is
(a) v16:25 (b) 16: v25
(c) 4:5 (d) 4:25
194. The ratio of radii of Newton's rings are in the ratio of
(a) 1:2:3 (b) v1: v3: v5
(c) v2: v4: v6 (d) v1: v2: v3
195. If a white light is used the centre of Newton's rings will be
(a) bright (b) red
(c) violet (d) dark

196. In Newton's rings as the order of the ring increases
(a) rings are moving away from each other
(b) rings get closer and closer
(c) no change in the rings
(d) the thickness of the fringes increases
197. The diameter of the 10 th dark ring in Newton's rings is 0.6 cm
and the wavelength of the monochromatic light is 9x10-5 cm then
the radius of curvature of the lens is
(a) 100 cm (b) 1/100 cm
(c) 100 m (d) 100 mm
198. The plano convex lens of radius 3 m is placed on a optically

flat glass plate and is illuminated by a monochromatic light ,the
radius of the 8 th dark ring is 3.6x10-3 m.The wavelength of light
is
(a) 6000 A0 (b) 5400 A0
(c) 4890 A0 (d) 5900 A0
199. In Newton's rings experiment the radii of m th and (m+4) th
dark rings are respectively v5 mm and v7 mm. What is the value of
m
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 10
200. In Newton's rings experiment the radius of the n th dark ring
is rn.When the set up is immersed in water then the radius of the n
th dark ring will be
(a) equal to rn (b) greater than rn
(c) less than rn (d) infinity
201. In Newton's rings experiment radius of the 8 th dark ring is v4
mm and it is v3 mm when immersed in water then the refractive

index of water is equal to
(a) v4 /v3 (b) v3 /v4
(c) 1.33 (d) 0.75
202. The bending of light waves round the edges of obstacles is
called
(a) dispersion (b) interference
(c) diffraction (d) refraction
203. Diffraction of light supports
(a) corpuscular theory
(b) electromagnetic theory
(c) quantum theory
(d) wave theory
204. Diffraction is more for the sound waves than light waves
because
(a) the wavelength of the sound waves is less than that of light
waves
(b) the velocity of sound is less than the velocity of light
(c) sound waves are longitudinal and light waves are transverse
(d) the wavelength of sound waves is greater than that of light waves
205. The diffraction effects of the light waves are not pronounced
because it has
(a) less velocity (b) less wavelength
(c) large wavelength (d) none of the above
206. The source used in the case of Fresnel's diffraction is a
(a) point source
(b) illuminated narrow slit
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
207. In Fresnel's diffraction the distance between the source and
the screen from the obstacle is
(a) finite
(b) infinite
(c) zero
(d) twice the width of the obstacle
208. In Fresnel's diffraction the wavefront undergoing diffraction is
(a) spherical or cyliderical
(b) plane
(c) circular
(d) elliptical
209. Which is true in Fresnel diffraction
(a) a convex lens is used
(b) the distance between the source and screen from the obstacle
infinite
(c) the wavefront undergoing diffraction is a plane wavefront
210. In fraunhofer diffraction the wavefront is
(a) spherical (b) plane
(c) cylindrical (d) elliptical
211. In Fraunhofer diffraction the distance between the source and
the screen from the obstacle is
(a) finite
(b) infinite
(c) zero
(d) equal to the width of the obstacle
212. The diffraction of light waves are more pronounced if
(a) the obstacle has smaller size than the wavelength of light
(b) the obstacle has larger size than the wavelength of the light
(c) the wavelength of light decreases
(d) the distance of the obstacle from the source of light is very less
213. The diffracted rays which are parallel to one another are
brought to focus using a convex lens. These diffracted rays interfere
to produce
(a) Fresnel diffraction pattern
(b) Fraunhofer's diffraction pattern
(c) Newton's rings
(d) Interference pattern
214. In diffraction grating large number of parallel slits are there,
due to this
(a) the maxima obtained are sharper and more intense
(b) the maxima obtained are weaker
(c) no diffraction is observed
(d) the maxima are broader
215. The rulings on the diffraction grating are
(a) opaque (b) transparent
(c) semi-transparent (d) none
216. In a diffraction grating
(a) the width of a slit and a ruling are equal
(b) the width of a slit and a ruling are unequal
(c) width of a slit is greater than the width of a ruling
(d) width of a ruling is greater than the width of a slit
217. In a diffraction grating grating element is
(a) the total number of rulings drawn
(b) the number of slits
(c) the combined width of a ruling and a slit
(d) the total width of the grating
218. The corresponding points are the points
(a) on the extreme positions
(b) which are separated by a distance equal to a grating element
(c) lying on either side of a slit

(d) lying on either side of a ruling
219. In a plane diffraction grating the condition for maximum is
(a) sin? = m? (b) sin? = 1/m?
(c) sin? = Nm? (d) sin? = ?
220. When a plane transmission grating is used,the equation for
the wavelength is
(a) ? = sin?/m (b) ? = sin?/N
(c) ? = Nm/sin? (d) ? = sin?/Nm
221. If a composite light is used in a plane diffraction grating, then

(a) the screen becomes dark
(b) the central white and alternate bright and dark images of
different colours on either side
(c) the screen becomes bright
(d) the centre is dark and alternate dark and bright images of
different colours on either side
222. In a diffraction grating maximum available number for order of
diffraction is
(a) proportional to the number of lines per unit width
(b) independent of the grating element
(c) inversely proportional to ?
(d) depends on the number of slits on the grating
223. In a diffraction grating experiment if a blue light is replaced by
yellow light, the diffraction pattern will
(a) remain the same (b) be wider
(c) disappear (d) be narrower
224. A plane diffraction grating has 5000 lines/cm and illuminated
by a light of wavelength 5x10-7 m. The highest order of diffraction
maximum obtained is
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 10
225. A parallel beam of monochromatic light incident normally on a
grating having
5000 lines/cm and a second order maximum is observed at an
angle of 300 .Then the wavelength of the light used is
(a) 2500 A0 (b) 5000 A0
(c) 10000 A0 (d) 5500 A0
226. In the diffraction grating experiment the angle between the two
first order diffracted image on either side is equal to
(a) ? (b) 2?
(c) ?/2 (d) ?/4
227. What will be the angle of diffraction for first secondary
maximum due to the diffraction at a single slit of width 0.55 mm,
using light of wavelength 550 mm
(a) 0.0015 rad (b) 0.00015 rad
(c) 0.003 rad (d) 0.0010 rad
228. Which of the following undergo maximum diffraction
(a) ? rays (b) ? rays
(c) radio waves (d) light waves
229. A slit of width a is illuminated by white light The first
minimum for red light (?=650 nm) will fall at ?=300 when a will be
(a) 3250 A0 (b) 6.5x 10-4 cm
(c) 1.3 micron (d) 2.6x10-4 cm
230. Light of wavelength 6328 A0 is incident normally on a slit
having a width of 0.2 mm The angular width of the central
maximum measured from minimum to minimum of diffraction
pattern on a screen 9 m away will be about
(a) 0.360 (b) 0.180
(c) 0.720 (d) 0.09 0

231. The correct relation between the size of the obstacle and
wavelength of light inorder to observe the diffraction event is
(a) a/?=1 (b) a/?=0
(c) a/?=8 (d) a/?=150
232. A slit of width 12x10-7 m is illuminated by light of wavelength
6000 A0 .The angular width of the central maximum is
(a) 300 (b) 600
(c) 900 (d) 00
233. If white light is used in diffraction at a single slit, the central
maximum will be
(a) white (b) coloured
(c) black (d) none
234. In a diffraction pattern the width of any fringe is
(a) directly proportional to slit width
(b) inversely proportional to slit width
(c) has no dependence on slit width
(d) all are true
235. A light of wavelength 6000Ao is incident normally on a grating
0.005 m wide with 2500 lines. Then the maximum order is
(a) 3 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 4
236. The phenomenon which proves that light waves are transverse
waves is
(a) interference (b) diffraction
(c) polarisation (d) dispersion
237. The phenomenon interference and diffraction prove that
(a) light is propagated in the form of waves
(b) light is propagated in the form of longitudinal waves
(c) light is propagated in the form of transverse waves
(d) light is propagated in the form of particles
238. The property that differenciates transverse and longitudinal

waves is
(c) refraction (d) polarisation
239. Which one of the following cannot be polarised
(a) X- rays (b) gamma rays
(c) uv rays (d) sound waves
240. Polarisation is
(a) superposition of waves
(b) bending of light
(c) restricting the vibrations of light to a single direction
(d) making the light to propagate only in one direction
241. The device which produces the polarised light is called as
(a) polariser (b) analyser
(c) grating (d) grating element
242. Which of the following produces polarised light
(a) grating (b) tourmaline crystal
(c) Fresnel's prism (d) small angled prism
243. A Tourmaline crystal acts as a
(a) polariser (b) analyser
(c) both a and b (d) neither a nor b
244. Plane of polarisation is the plane
(a) in which vibration of the particles takeplace
(b) which contains optic axis
(c) in which no vibration occur
(d) parallel to the plane of vibration
245. Plane of vibration is the plane
(a) in which vibration occur
(b) which contains optic axis

(c) which is perpendicular to the plane of polarisation
(d) all the above
246. The angle between plane of polarisation and the plane of
vibration is
(a) 00 (b) 600
(c) 900 (d) 1800
247. On rotating the analyser if the intensity of light coming out of
it remains same then the incident beam is
(a) polarised (b) unpolarised
(c) plane polarised (d) partially polarised
248. On rotating the second crystal if the intensity of light coming
out of it varies between maximum and zero then the incident light
is
(a) unpolarised (b) polarised
(c) plane polarised (d) partially polarised
249. On rotating the second crystal if the intensity of light coming
out of it varies between maximum and minimum then the incident
light is
(a) unpolarised (b) plane polarised
(c) polarised (d) partially polarised
250. Polarisation by reflection was discovered by
(a) Malus (b) Bartholinus
(c) Brewster (d) Nicol
251. The angle of incidence for which the reflected beam is
completely plane polarised is called as
(a) critical angle (b) angle of incidence
(c) polarising angle (d) acute angle
252. The polarising angle for glass is
(a) 570 (b) 52.50
(c) 59.50 (d) 57.50

253. Which of the following statement(s) is /are true
i. The vibrations which are parallel to the reflecting surface can be
easily reflected
ii. The vibrations which are perpendicular to the reflecting surface
can be easily reflected
iii. If the light is allowed to incident on a glass plate at an angle of
57.50 the reflected light will be a plane polarised light
iv. The incident and reflected beam are polarised
(a) i and iv (b) i and iii
(c) i and iv (d) ii and iii
254. According to Brewster's law

(a) ? = 1/ tan ip (b) tan ip = 1/?
(c) tan ip= ? (d) ? = tan -1 (ip)
255. If the polarising angle for a glass plate 600 , then the refractive
index of the glass plate is
(a) 0.5 (b) v3/2
(c) v3 (d) 1/v2
256. Light is incident on a surface at a polarising angle of about
570 . Then the angle of reflection is
(a) 570 (b) 330
(c) 900 (d) 600
257. The light which cannot be completely plane polarised by
reflection is
(a) red colour (b) white colour
(c) green colour (d) blue colour
258. The polarising angle for a glass plate is 57.50. Then the angle
of refraction is
(a) 57.50 (b) 900

(c) 32.5 0 (d) 37.50
259. If the speed of light and the polarising angle for a medium are
Cm and ip respectively then according to Brewster's law, Cm is
proportional to
(a) tan ip
(b) cot ip
(c) i
(d) refractive index of the medium
260. In a medium of refractive index 1.7, if the reflected ray is
completely plane polarised then the angle of reflection is
(a) 300 (b) 450
(c) 600 (d) 900
261. In a medium of refractive index 1.5, if the reflected ray is
completely plane polarised then the angle of refraction is
(a) 56.30 (b) 33.70
(c) 32.70 (d) 57.5 0
262. When a light enters inside a medium it covers a distance of
8x105 km in 4 sec. Then the polarising angle for the medium is
(a) 57.50 (b) 56.30
(c) 600 (d) 580
263. The phenomenon used in the construction of pile of plates is

(b) diffraction of light
(c) polarisation
(d) polarisation by reflection
264. The pile of plates are inclined at an angle of ________ to the
axis of the tube
(a) 72.5 0 (b) 32.50
(c) 57.50 (d) 600

265. Pile of plates is used to produce
(a) polarised light
(b) plane polarised light
(c) reflected light
(d) partially polarised light
266. When the polarised light is produced by reflection then the
reflected light has the vibrations in a plane
(a) perpendicular to the plane of incidence
(b) perpendicular to the plane of the reflecting medium
(c) parallel to the plane of propagation of polarised light
(d) parallel to the plane of incidence
267. Double refraction was discovered by
(a) Malus (b) Brewster
(c) Bartholinus (d) Nicol
268. When a ray of light is incident on the surface of certain crystal
two refracted rays are produced. This phenomenon is known as
(a) diffraction (b) refraction
(c) polaristion (d) double refraction
269. Double refraction is exhibited by
(a) calcite (b) tourmaline
(c) glass (d) liquids
270. During double refraction which one of the following statement
is correct
(a) only one refracted ray is produced
(b) ordinary ray obey's the law's of refraction
(c) extraordinary ray obey's the laws of refraction
(d) ordinary image revolves around the extraordinary image
271. The velocity of the extraordinary and the ordinary ray in

calcite crystal are
(a) same in all directions
(b) different in all directions
(c) minimum in one direction and maximum in other directions
(d) same only in one direction
272. Along the direction of the optic axis of a calcite crystal the
ordinary ray travel with
(a) the same velocity as that of the extraordinary ray
(b) half the velocity of the extraordinary rays
(c) two times the velocity of the extraordinary rays
(d) v3 times the velocity of the extraordinary ray
273. A point source inside a refracting crystal corresponding to
ordinary ray produces
_____________ wave front
(c) plane (d) none
274. A point source inside a refracting crystal corresponding to
extraordinary ray produces
_____________ wave front
(c) elliptical (d) none
275. In a doubly refracting crystal which of the following statement
is correct
(a) extraordinary ray only obey's Snell's law
(b) ordinary ray only obey's Snell's law
(c) refractive index is same in all directions for extraordinary ray
(d) ordinary ray revolves around the extraordinary image
276. Tourmaline crystal is
(a) an uniaxial crystal
(b) a biaxial crystal

(c) an opaque crystal
(d) a singly refracting cystal
277. An example for biaxial crystal is
(a) quartz (b) calcite
(c) tourmaline (d) mica
278. Example for uniaxial crystal is
(a) mica (b) topaz
(c) selenite (d) calcite
279. Which of the following acts as a polariser and an analyser

(a) calcite crystal (b) Nicol prism
(c) liquid prism (d) crystal of diamond
280. Nicol prism is made up of
(a) tourmaline (b) topaz
(c) calcite (d) mica
281. The face angle of a Nicol prism are
(a) 720 and 1080 (b) 780 and 1020
(c) 740 and 1060 (d) 700 and 1100
282. In the construction of Nicol prism, the calcite crystal is cut
into two halves diagonally and joined together by
(a) polyvinyl alcohol
(b) Canada balsam
(c) Quinine iodosulphate
(d) Any adhesive
283. When unpolarised light passes through one face of a Nicol
prism, the light that is coming out through the other face is
(a) ordinary ray (b) extraordinary ray
(c) both a and b (d) either a or b
284. The light emerging from a Nicol prism

(a) has vibrations in all directions
(b) has vibrations in only one direction
(c) has no vibration at all
(d) has vibration in two mutually perpendicular directions
285. In Nicol prism the phenomenon that takes place at the Canada
balsam layer is
(a) reflection only
(b) total internal reflection for ordinary ray and refraction for
extraordinary ray
(c) total internal reflection for extra ordinary ray and refraction for
ordinary ray
(d) refraction only
286. Modern polaroids are made up of
(a) quinine iodosulphate
(b) polyvinyl alcohol
(c) Nicol prism
(d) calcite crystal
287. H-polaroids and K-polaroids are prepared using

(a) Nicol prisms
(b) quinine iodosulphate
(c) a thin film of polyvinyl alcohol
(d) calcite crystal
288. The production of 3-dimensional motion picture uses the
principle of
(c) polarisation (d) reflection
289. The optical component used to produce 3-D moving picture is

(a) gratings (b) polaroids
(c)filters (d) interferometers
290. Polaroids are used in aeroplanes to
(a) reduce pressure
(b) increase incoming radiations
(c) reduce incoming radiations
(d) increase pressure
291. Polaroids are used to
(a) increase glare (b) avoid glare
(c) filter the entire light (d) none
292. Polaroids are used in
(a) polarising sun glasses
(b) in wind shield of automobiles
(c) window panes of a train
(d) all the above
293. What changes on polarisation of light
(a) frequency (b) wavelength
(c) phase (d) intensity
294. When plane polarised light is passed through optically active
substances
(a) the polarised light is not affected
(b) the plane of polarisation has been rotated through some angle
(c) plane of vibration is rotated through some angle
(d) all the above
295. Which of the following is/are optically active substances
(a) quartz (b) sugar crystals
(c) sodium chloride (d) all the above
296. Which of the following is correct

(a) dextro-rotatory substances rotate the plane of polarisation in the
anticlockwise direction
(b) laevo-rotatory substances rotate the plane of polarisation in the
clockwise direction
(c) when an optically active substance is placed between a polariser
and analyser which are perpendicular, light is coming out of the
analyser
(d) the amount of optical rotation does not depend on the thickness
of crystal
297. The amount of optical rotation depends on
(a) density of the crystal
(b) wavelength of light used
(c) temperature of the solutions
(d) all the above
298. The term used to compare the rotational effect of all optically
active substances is
(a) revolution (b) specific rotation
(c) rotation (d) all the above
299. The specific rotation is given by the formula

(a) S?t = ?/l.c (b) S?t = l?/c
(c) S?t = l.c/ ? (d) S?t = ?l.c
300. The instrument used to determine the optical rotation produed

by a substance is
(a) pyrheliometer (b) polariser
(c) polarimeter (d) polometer
301. The most common active substance is
(a) quartz (b) sodium chloride
(c) turpentine oil (d) sugar
302. 80 gm of impure sugar when dissolved in a litre of water gives
an optical rotation of 9.90 when placed in a tube of length 20 cm. If
the specific rotation of sugar is 660, then the concentration of sugar
solution will be
(a) 80 gm/litre (b) 75 gm/litre
(c) 65 gm/litre (d) 50 gm/litre
PART-B
1) What are electromagnetic waves?
2) What is fluorescence and phosphorescence?
3) Distinguish between corpuscle and photon
4) What is Tyndal scattering?

5) How are Stoke's and Anti-stoke's line formed?
6) Why the sky appears blue in colour?
7) What is the principle of superposition of waves?
8) Give the conditions for sustained interference.
9) What are Newton's rings? Why the centre of the Newton's rings is
dark?
10) What is meant by optical rotation? On what factors does it
depend?*
11) What are Fraunhofer lines?
12) What is Rayleigh's scattering law?
13) Sun appears reddish at sunrise and sunset why?
14) What is grating element and corresponding points?
15) Give the differences between interference and diffraction.
16) What is polarization?
17) What is plane of vibration and plane of polarization ? What is
the relation between them?
18) Define optic axis.
19) Define specific rotation
PART-C
1) Mention the characteristics of electromagnetic waves.
2) Give the source and uses of electromagnetic waves
3) State and explain Huygen's principle
4) Distinguish between Fresnel and Fraunhofer diffraction
5) Describe an experiment to demonstrate transverse nature of light
6) State and explain Brewster's law
7) Bring out the difference's between ordinary and extraordinary
light
8) Write a note on (a) Nicol prism (b) Polaroid.*
9) Explain polarization by refection
10) Explain pile of plates
11) Explain double refraction.
12) Give the uses of polaroids.
13) Explain optical activity
PART-D
1) Explain emission and absorption spectra.

2) Explain the Raman scattering of light.
3) On the basis of wave theory of light explain total internal
reflection.
4) Derive an expression for bandwidth of interference fringes in
Young's double slit experiment.
5) Discuss the theory of interference in thin film due to reflected
light and obtain condition for the intensity to be maximum and
minimum
6) Discuss the theory of plane transmission grating*
7) Explain the various theories of light
8) Explain the reflection of a plane wavefront at a plane surface
using Huygen's principle.
9) Explain the refraction of a plane wavefront at a plane surface
using Huygen's principle.
10) Explain Newton's rings experiment and derive an expression for
the radius on the nth dark ring
BLUE-PRINT
4 X 1 = 4 2 X 3 = 6 1 X 5 =5 1 X 10 = 10
Total 25 marks
1. Current carrying conductor is associated with a magnetic field.

This was demonstrated by
(a) Christian Huygens (b) Christian oersted
(c) Maxwell (d) Coulomb
2. When a magnetic flux linked with a conductor changes
(a) An emf is produced
(b) No change is observed
(c) A potential is produced

(d) Any of the above
3. Electro magnetic induction is
(a) Production of emf when electric flux changes
(b) Production of emf when magnetic flux changes
(c) Production of current when electric flux changes
(d) Production of current when magnetic flux changes
4. Electromagnetic induction was demonstrated by
(a) Oersted (b) Joule
(c) Faraday (d) coulomb
5. The number of magnetic lines of force crossing a closed area is
defined as
(a) Electric flux (b) Magnetic flux
(c) Flux density (d) Magnetic induction
6. If A is the closed area placed inside a magnetic field of induction
B & ? is the angle between the field & the normal to the area then ?
=
(a) BA Cos ? (b) BA Sin ?
(c) BA Cot ? (d) BA tan ?
7. Magnetic flux ? in vector form is
(a) B x A (b) A x B
(c) A . B (d) A.B Cos?
8. The emf may be produced by
(a) Chemical action
(b) A thermo couple
(c) Electromagnetic induction
(d) All the above
9. The method used for commercial generation of power is

(a) Static induction
(b) Electromagnetic induction
(c) Chemical action
(d) Using large number of thermo couples
10. The angle between the area vector and the plane of the area is
(a) ?/2 (b) ?
(c) 2? (d) Zero
11. A coil of 100 turns and area 0.5 m2 has its plane perpendicular
to a uniform magnetic field of 0.2 wb/m2. The magnetic field
through the coil is
(a) Zero (b) 10 wb
(c) 1 wb (d) 0.1 wb
12. A coil of 10 turns and area 0.5 m2 has its plane parallel to a
magnetic field of 0.4 T. Then the magnetic flux through the coil is
(a) Zero (b) 0.2 wb
(c) 2 wb (d) 0.02 wb
13. All the following are units of magnetic flux except
(a) T- m 2 (b) T/volt.m
(c) weber (d) Volt.second
14. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly, then
induced emf is
(a) Larger in case (i)
(b) Smaller in case (i)
(c) Equal in both cases
(d) Larger (or) smaller depending upon the radius
15. The induced current in a coil when a magnet is moved towards
it is dependent on
(a) The number of turns of the coil
(b) Strength of the magnet
(c) Speed of the magnet
(d) All the above
16. According to Faraday's law the emf induced in a coil of wire is
(a) Inversely proportional to the rate of change of flux
(b) Directly proportional to the rate of change of flux
(c) Directly proportional to the total flux linked with the coil
(d) Equal to the flux
17. According to Faraday's law
(a) An emf can be produced by time varying magnetic flux
(b) A magnetic field is produced by time varying electric field
(c) The charge is conserved
(d) The magnetic field associated with the conductor is equal to the
flux
18. An emf can be induced in a coil
(a) When a magnet is moved towards the coil
(b) When a magnet is moved away from the coil
(c) By making a neighbouring circuit on and off
(d) All the above
19. A coil has N number of turns. If the flux linked with the coil
changes from ?1 to ?2 in t seconds then the emf produced in the
coil is
(a) d?1 / dt (b) d (?1 - ?2) / dt
(c) N (?1 - ?2) / t (d) d?2 / dt
20. The current induced in a coil of 100 turns and of resistance 10
ohm when the magnetic flux decreases from 1 wb to 0.5 wb in 0.1 s
is
(a) 0.5A (b) 50A
(c) 500A (d) 5A
21. The unit of induced emf is

(a) Volt (b) Ampere
(c) Ohm (d) Weber
22. Volt is equivalent to
(a) wb/s (b) wb.s
(c) wb/s2 (d) wb/m
23. Weber is equivalent to
(a) volt/s (b) volt.sec
(c) volt/m (d) volt/s2
24. Whenever an emf is induced, the induced current is in such a
direction as to oppose the change inducing the current. This is
(a) Lenz's law
(b) Faraday's second law
(c) Faraday's first law
(d) Ohm's law
25. According to Lenz's law, the induced emf is given by, e =
(a) d. (N?) /dt (b) -d. (N?) /dt
(c) d. (N2?) /dt (d) -d. (N/?) /dt
26. e = -d?/dt . The negative sign is the consequence of

(a) Faraday's law (b) Lenz's law
(c) Ohm's law (d) Biot savart law
27. The Lenz's law is an excellent example of the law of conservation
of
(a) Linear momentum (b) velocity
(c) energy (d) Charge
28. According to lenz's law e=-d? / dt. The (-ve) sign indicates that
(a) The induced current opposes the cause
(b) The induced current supports the cause

(c) There is no relation between the induced current and the cause
(d) The induced current flows in opposite direction
29. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil.
The magnet is rotated about its axis such that north pole faces the
coil. The induced current in the coil
(a) Is zero
(b) Is clockwise from magnet side
(c) May be clockwise or anticlockwise
(d) Is anti clockwise from magnet side
30. 5 x 10-4 magnetic flux lines are passing through a coil of 1000
turns. If the emf induced through the coil is 5V, the time interval
will be
(a) 1s (b) 0.1s
(c) 0.01s (d) 0.001s
31. A coil of cross sectional area 102 cm2 is placed in the magnetic
field, which changes to 4 x 10-2 wb/cm2 within 5 sec. What will be
the current across 5? resistance
(a) 0.016A (b) 0.16A
(c) 1.6A (d) 16.0A
32. A coil having 500 square loops each of side 10 cm is placed
normal to a magnetic field which increases at the rate of 1 wb/m2 .
The induced emf is
(a) 0.1V (b) 5.0V
(c) 0.5V (d) 1V
33. A metallic ring is attached to the wall of a room. When the

north pole of a magnet is brought near the ring, the induced
current is
(a) Zero
(b) Infinite
(c) In the clockwise direction
(d) In the anti clockwise direction
34. A circular coil & a bar magnet placed nearby are made to move
in the same direction. If the coil covers a distance of 1m in 0.5s &
the magnet a distance of 2m in 1s. The induced emf produced in
the coil is
(a) zero (b) 0.5V
(c) 1V (d) 2V
35. A conductor is moving in the magnetic field B, the induced
current is I. If the magnetic field is doubled the induced current will
(a) Remain the same (b) Be half
(c) Be double (d) Be four times
36. The property of a coil which enables to produce an opposing
induced emf in it when the current in the coil changes is called
(a) Self induction
(b) Mutual induction
(c) Static induction
(d) Dynamic induction
37. When a current I flows through a coil, the magnetic flux linked
with the coil ? =
(a) L/I (b) I/L
(c) LI (d) L + I
38. A current of 1A is passing through a coil, then the self
inductance of the coil is
(a) Equal to the flux linked with it
(b) Equal to LI
(c) Equal to the emf induced in the coil

(d) All the above
39. The self inductance of a straight conductor is
(a) zero (b) Infinity
(c) Very large (d) Small
40. Unit of self inductance
(a) Ampere (b) Henry
(c) Coulomb (d) A/s
41. The unit of henry can also be written as

(a) VSA-1 (b) Wb A-1
(c) O s (d) All
42. An emf of 12V is induced when the current in the coil changes
at the rate of 40 As-1. The coefficient of self induction of the coil is
(a) 0.3 H (b) 0.003 H
(c) 30 H (d) 4.8 H
43. The emf induced in a coil due to the change in the current in
the same coil is
(a) e = L x dI/dt (b) e = - L x dI/dt
(c) e = L / (dI/dt) (d) e = - L / (dI/dt)
44. The self inductance of a solenoid is given by (L= )
(a) ?oN2A /l (b) ?oN2l/A
(c) ?olA /N2 (d) ?oN2A l
45. Energy stored in an inductor is (quantitatively)
(a) L I o 2 / 2 (b) 2L I o 2
(c) 2L / I o 2 (d) 2/LI o 2
46. A magnetic flux ? is given by ? = 8t2 2t + 8 in a closed circuit

varies with time. The magnitude of the induced current at time t =
0.25 s is
(a) 0.25 A (b) 0.5 A
(c) 2A (d) 8A
47. An inductor may store energy in
(a) An electric field
(b) A magnetic field
(c) In both (a) and (b)
(d) None
48. When the rate of change of current is unity, induced emf is
equal to
(a) Thickness of the coil
(b) No. of turns
(c) Coefficient of self induction
(d) Total flux linked with the coil
49. If N is the no. of turns in a coil, the value of self inductance
varies as
(a) N (b) No
(c) N2 (d) N-2
50. The current passing through a choke coil of 5H is decreasing at

the rate of 2 A s-1 . The emf induced in the coil is
(a) -10 V (b) 10 V
(c) 2.5 V (d) -2.5 V
51. Magnetic flux ? in weber in a closed circuit of resistance 10?
varies with time t as ? = 6t2 5t + 1. The magnitude of induced
current at t = 0.25 s is
(a) 0.2 A (b) 0.6 A
(c) 1.2 A (d) 0.8 A
52. An emf of 5V is produced in a coil when current changes at
steady rate from 3A to 2A in one millisecond. The value of self
inductance is
(a) 5 x 102 H (b) 5 x 10 H
(c) 5 x 10-3 H (d) 0.05 mH
53. A 10H inductor is carrying a current of 2A. At what rate should
the current be changed so that an emf of 100 V is induced?
(a) 5 A s-1 (b) 10 A s-1
(c) 15 A s-1 (d) 20 A s-1
54. If coefficient of self induction of a coil is 1H, an emf of 1V is
induced, if
(a) Current flowing is 1A
(b) Current variation rate is 1 As-1
(c) Current 1A flows for 1 s
(d) None of these
55. R/L has the dimensions of
(a) Time (b) mass
(c) Length (d) Frequency
56. A coil of wire of a certain radius has 100 turns & a self
inductance of 15mH. The self inductance of a second similar coil of
500 turns will be
(a) 75 mH (b) 375 mH
(c) 15 mH (d) 150 mH
57. Dimensions of self inductance is
(a) MLT-2A-2 (b) ML2T-1A-2
(c) ML2T-2A-2 (d) ML2T-2A-1
58. A coil of wire is kept stationary in a non uniform magnetic field

then
(a) An emf is induced in the coil
(b) No emf is induced in the coil
(c) emf is induced in some part
(d) None is true
59. Two solenoids of same cross-sectional area have their lengths
and number of turns in ratio 1:2. The ratio of self inductance of two
solenoids is
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4
60. A coil is wound on a core of rectangular cross-section. If all the
linear dimensions of core are increased by a factor 2 and number of
turns per unit length of coil remains same, the self inductance
increases by a factor of
(a) 16 (b) 8
(c) 4 (d) 2
61. An air cored coil has a self inductance of 0.1H. A soft iron core
of ?r , 1000 is introduced and number of turns is reduced to
1/10th. The value of self inductance now becomes
(a) 1 mH (b) 10 mH
(c) 1 H (d) 10 H
62. Production of induced emf in one coil when the flux linked with
other coil changes is known as
(a) Self induction
(b) Dynamic induction
(c) Static induction

(d) Mutual induction
63. If Ip is the current in coil p and ?s is the magnetic flux linked
with the coil s due to the current in p is
(a) ?s = M/Ip (b) ?s = MIp
(c) ?s = M+Ip (d) ?s = M2Ip
64. The magnetic flux linked with one coil when unit current flows
through the neighbouring coil is equal to
(a) Mutual induction of two coils
(b) Mutual inductance of two coils
(c) Magnetic flux density
(d) Unit magnetic flux
65. The value of mutual inductance is

(a) M= -es (dIp/dt) (b) M= (-dIp/dt) / es
(c) M= es / -(dIp/dt) (d) M = -es (d?/dt)
66. A change of current of 1AS-1 in one coil produces an opposing
emf of 1V in the other coil then the coefficient of mutual induction
between the pair of coils is equal to
(a) 1 henry (b) 2 henry
(c) 3 henry (d) 4 henry
67. The coefficient of mutual induction between a pair of coils does
not depend on
(a) Size and shape of the coils
(b) Length of the coils
(c) Number of turns of the coils
(d) Permeability of material
68. In which of the following case the coefficient of mutual
induction is small
(a) Two coils have their axes perpendicular to each other
(b) Two coils have a common axis
(c) Two coils wound on a soft iron core
(d) All the above
69. The mutual induction is very high when the core is
(a) wood (b) bakelite
(c) copper (d) Soft iron
70. The coefficient of mutual induction between two long solenoids
S1 & S2 ,whose core is filled with a magnetic material of
permeability ? is
(a) ?oN1N2A / l (b) ?oN1N2AI1 / l
(c) ?N1N2A / l (d) ?N1N2AI1 / l
71. Two coils, a primary of 400 turns and a secondary of 20 turns
are wound over an iron core of length 20? cm and cross section of 2
cm radius, If ?r = 800 then the M is approximately
(a) 1.6x107 H (b) 1.6x10-4 H
(c) 1.6x103 H (d) 1.6 H
72. Two coils A and B have 200 and 400 turns respectively. A
current of 1A in coil A causes a flux per turn of 10-3 wb to link with
A and a flux per turn of 0.8 x 10-3 wb through B. The ratio of
mutual inductance of A and B is
(a) 0.625 (b) 1.25
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.625
73. A coil of resistance 20 ? and inductance 5H has been connected

to a 100 V battery. The energy stored in the circuit is
(a) 31.25 J (b) 62.5 J
(c) 125 J (d) 250 J
74. Mutual inductance of two coils can be increased by
(a) Decreasing the number of turns in the coils

(b) Increasing the number of turns in the coils
(c) Winding the coils on wooden coves
(d) All the above
75. A 100 mH coil carries a current of 1A. Energy stored in it is
(a) 0.5 J (b) 1 J
(c) 0.05 J (d) J
76. The coefficient of mutual inductance when the magnetic flux
changes by 2 x 10-2 wb and change in current is 0.01 A
(a) 2 H (b) 3 H
(c) H (d) Zero
77. In a current carrying solenoid the field produced does not
depend on
(a) No. of turns per unit length
(b) Current flowing
(c) Radius of solenoid
(d) All the above
78. A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of 0.3 m. The
area of cross section is 1.2 x 10-3 m2. Around its central section a
coil of 300 turns is wound. If an initial current of 2A in the solenoid
is reversed in 0.25 s, then the emf induced in the coil is equal to
(a) 6 x 10-4V (b) 4.8x10-2V
(c) 6x10-2V (d) 48 KV
79. An emf of 6V is induced in one coil when the current in the
other changes at the rate of 1.5 A/s. The mutual inductance of the
pair of coils is
(a) 9 H (b) 2.5 H
(c) 4 H (d) 7.5 H
80. A current of 0.2 A passing through a coil is cut off in 10-3 s.
Another coil has a coefficient of mutual induction of 20 mH with
the first one. The emf induced in the second coil is

(a) 20 V (b) 40 V
(c) V (d) 2000 V
81. Combining Faraday's law and Lenz's law the induced emf in a
closed circuit is
(a) e=d (NBA Cos?) /dt
(b) e=-d (NAB Cos?) /dt
(c) e= d(NBA Sin?) /dt
(d) e= -d (NAB Sin?) /dt
82. An induced emf can be produced in a conductor by changing
(a) The magnetic induction
(b) Area enclosed by the coil
(c) The orientation of the coil with respect to the magnetic field
(d) All the above
83. The emf induced in a coil due to a change in magnetic induction
B is given by
(a) e=N(dB) A Cos? /dt
(b) e=-N(dB) A Cos? /dt
(c) e=-NB Cos?(dA/dt)
(d) e=-NBA d (Cos?) /dt
84. In which of the following case emf is induced
(a) By moving a magnet towards the coil
(b) By moving a magnet away from the coil
(c) By changing the current in the neighbouring coil
(d) All the above
85. The change in flux in a closed loop due to a change in area
which is placed perpendicular to the magnetic induction is
(a) d?/dt = -B x change in area / per sec
(b) d?/dt = -NA Cos ? x dB/dt
(c) d?/dt = -NA d (Cos ?) /dt
(d) d?/dt = -B Cos ? dA/dt
86. The emf induced in a closed loop due to a change in area which
is placed normal to a magnetic induction B is
(a) e=-dA/dt (b) e=Blv
(c) e= - Blv (d) e= -Bv/l
87. When a straight conductor of length l and of resistance R
forming a closed circuit, moves perpendicular to a uniform magnetic
field B with a velocity V then the induced current will be
(a) BlR/V (b) VlR/B
(c) BlV/R (d) BVR/l
88. A coil of area 10 cm2 and 10 turns in a magnetic field directed

perpendicular to the plane and changing at a rate of 104 T. The
resistance of the coil is 2 Ohm. The current in the coil will be
(a) 0.5A (b) 5 x 10-3 A
(c) 0.05 A (d) 5 A
89. The two rails of a railway track insulated from each other and
the ground are connected to with voltmeter. What is the reading in
the mV when a train travels at a speed of 180km/hr along the
track, given that the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field
is 0.2 x 10-4 wb/m2 and the rails are separated by 1 m.
(a) 10-2 mv (b) 10 mv
(c) 100 mv (d) 1 mv
90. A horizontal wire 0.8 m long is falling at a speed of 5 m/s
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 1.1T. The magnitude of
the induced emf is
(a) 0 (b) 4V
(c) 4.4 V (d) 8.8 V
91. A magnetic field of 2 x 10-2 T acts at right angles to a coil of
area 100 cm2, with 50 turns. The average emf induced in the coil is
0.1 V when it is removed from the field in t s. The value of t is
(a) 10 s (b) 0.1 s
(c) 0.01 s (d) 1 s
92. A copper rod of length l is rotated about the end perpendicular
to the uniform magnetic field B with constant angular velocity ?.
The induced emf between the ends is.
(a) B ? l2 (b) B ? l2
(c) B ? l2 / 2 (d) B ? l2 / 4
93. A circular copper disc 10 cm in diameter rotates at 1800
rev/min about an axis passing through its centre and at right
angles to disc. A uniform field of induction B of 1 T is perpendicular
to disc. What potential difference is developed between the axis of
the disc and the rim?
(a) 0.023 V b) 0.23 V
(c) 23 V (d) 230 V
94. The emf induced by changing the orientation of the coil with
respect to the magnetic field is
(a) e= - NAB d Cos(?t) /dt
(b) e= NAB Sin ? d?/dt
(c) e= NA Cos? dB/dt
(d) e= NB Cos? dA/dt
95. The emf induced by changing the orientation of the coil with
respect to the magnetic field is
(a) e=NAB d/dt (Cos ?)
(b) e=2??NAB 2??t
(c) e= 2?NAB 2??t
(d) e= - 2??NAB 2??t
96. The maximum value of induced emf in a coil rotated in a

magnetic field is
(a) NBA (b) NB?
(c) NBA? (d) NBA? Cos ?t
97. When a coil is rotated inside a magnetic field the emf induced is
(a) e= Eo Sin ?t (b) e= Eo Cos ?t
(c) e= - Eo Sin ?t (d) e= - Eo Cos ?t
98. When the plane of the coil is parallel to the direction of
magnetic field during rotation the induced emf in the coil is
(a) Minimum (b) maximum
(c) Constant (d) Zero
99. During the rotation of the armature coil in the magnetic field if
the plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field, the induced emf is
(a) Constant (b) minimum
(c) Zero (d) Maximum
100. emf induced in a coil rotating in a magnetic field is maximum
when
(a) ?t = 0 (b) ?t = ?/2
(c) ?t = ? (d) ?t = 2?
101. If ? is the angular velocity of the coil, then the frequency of the
induced emf is
(a) 2?/? (b) ?/2?
(c) ?2 /4?2 (d) ?/2?2
102. When an armature is rotated in a magnetic field with a
constant speed then
(a) A periodic emf is induced
(b) A non-periodic emf is induced
(c) Unidirectional emf is induced
(d) No emf is induced
103. An armature which has the number of turns 50 and area of

cross section 0.5 m2 rotating inside the magnetic field of induction
1x10-5T with an angular velocity 20 rad/s. Then the emf induced in
the coil when it makes an angle 30 with the magnetic field is
(a) 0.25 x 10-2V (b) 2.5 x 10-2V
(c) 25 x 10-5 V (d) 250 x 10-4V
104. A coil of 100 turn and area of cross section 0.3 x 0.2 m2
rotating inside a magnetic field of induction 3 x 10-5 T with an
angular velocity 10 rad/s. Then the maximum value of emf induced
in the coil is
(a) +0.18 x 10-2 V (b) -0.18 x 10-2 V
(c) 0.18 x 10-2 V (d) 1.8 x 10-2 V
105. When a wire loop is rotated in a magnetic field, the direction of
induced emf changes in every
(a) 1 Revolution (b) revolution
(c) revolution (d) 2 revolution
106. A coil of area 500 cm2 and having 1000 turns is held
perpendicular to uniform field of 0.4 x 10-4 T. The coil is turned
through 180 in 1/10 second. The emf induced is
(a) 4V (b) 0.4V
(c) 4mV (d) 0.04V
107. The emf produced in a wire by its motion across a magnetic
field does not depend on
(a) The length of the wire
(b) The composition of the wire
(c) The diameter of the wire
(d) The orientation of the wire
108. A dynamo is a machine which converts
(a) Chemical energy into electrical energy
(b) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(c) Electrical energy into mechanical energy
(d) Electrical energy into chemical energy

109. A generator works on the principle of
(a) Magnetic induction
(b) Electromagnetic induction
(c) Self induction
(d) Mutual induction
110. In generators the strength of the current produced is

(a) Directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic field
(b) Directly proportional to the speed with which the conductor
moves
(c) inversely proportional to the strength of the magnetic field
(d) Directly proportional to the strength of the magnetic field and
the speed with which the conductor moves
111. The direction of current produced by electro magnetic
induction is given by
(a) Fleming's left hand rule
(b) Fleming's thumb rule
(c) Generator rule
(d) Ampere's swimming rule
112. An AC generator consists of
(a) Armature
(b) Slip rings and brushes
(c) Field magnets
(d) All the above
113. In an AC generator the armature coil is wounded on a soft iron
core. This is to
(a) Support the coils

(b) Increase the magnetic lines of force
(d) Either (a) or (b)
114. In high power dynamos the magnetic field is produced by
(a) Bar magnets
(b) Horse-shoe magnets
(c) Any permanent magnet
(d) An electromagnet
115. In an AC generator the emf is induced in the coil by
(a) Changing the magnetic flux linked with the coil
(b) Changing the area of the armature coil
(c) Changing the orientation of the coil with the magnetic field
(d) Changing any one of the above
116. In an AC generator the direction of the current changes for

every half revolution of the coil. This change in direction is
(a) Only in armature coil
(b) Only in external circuit
(c) Either in the armature or in the external circuit
(d) Both in the armature and in the external circuit
117. When the coil in an AC generator rotates with an angular
velocity of 100? rad/s. Then the frequency of the induced emf is
(a) 100 Hz (b) 50 Hz
(c) 25 Hz (d) 1000 Hz
118. An AC generator consists of a coil of 50 turns and area 2.5 m2
rotating at an angular speed of 60 rad/s in a field of B = 0.30 T . If

the resistance of the circuit is 500 Ohm, the maximum current
drawn from the generator is
(a) 45A (b) 0.45A
(c) 4.5A (d) 360A
119. The alternators that are widely preferred for transmitting large
amount of power with less cost and high efficiency is
(a) Single phase generator
(b) Three phase generator
(c) Two phase generator
(d) Poly phase generator
120. In a three phase generator the three coils are inclined at an
angle of
(a) 60 (b) 90
(c) 120 (d) 180
121. The phase difference between the emf's induced in the coils of
a three phase generator is
(a) 60 (b) 120
(c) 90 (d) 0
122. Which is not true in the case of a three phase AC generator
(a) Three coils are mounted on the same shaft
(b) Three separate pairs of slip rings are used
(c) The emf's induced in all the three coils are equal in magnitude
and of different frequency
(d) The phase difference between the emf's is 120
123. If e = Eo Sin ?t is the emf induced in the first coil of three

phase AC generator, then the emf in the second coil is given by
(a) e= Eo Sin ?t
(b) e= Eo Sin (?t-?/2)
(c) e= Eo Sin (?t-?/3)

(d) e= Eo Sin (?t-2?/3)
124. The induced emf of a generator when the flux of poles is
doubled and speed is doubled
(a) Becomes half (b) Remains same
(c) Becomes double (d) Becomes 4 times
125. Eddy currents was first observed by
(a) Faraday (b) Oersted
(c) Lenz (d) Focault
126. Eddy currents are produced
(a) When a conducting substance moves in a magnetic field
(b) When a conducting substance is placed in a high frequency
magnetic field
127. The eddy current produced in a moving substance
(a) Will oppose the motion
(b) Will support the motion
(c) Has no effect on the moving substance
(d) Sometimes supports and sometimes opposes the motion
128. When eddy currents are produced in a solid mass there will
be
(a) Energy loss in the form of mechanical energy
(b) Energy loss in the form of electrical energy
(c) Energy loss in the form of heat energy
(d) No energy loss
129. Core of dynamo and electric motors are laminated in order to
(a) Increase the loss of energy
(b) Decrease its efficiency
(c) Decrease loss of energy
(d) Protect it from over loading
130. The galvanometer coil is wound on some metal like brass or

copper to
(a) Make the oscillation for long time
(b) Bring it immediately to rest
(c) Support the coil
(d) Reduce the eddy current losses
131. In a galvanometer electromagnetic damping is produced by
(a) Self induction
(c) Eddy current
(d) Electromagnetic induction
132. The brakes that are used in stopping the electric trains are
(a) Hydraulic brakes
(b) Air brakes
(c) Manual brakes
(d) Eddy current brakes
133. The induction furnace is used
(a) To produce more heat
(b) To form an alloy
(c) To separate a metal from its ore
(d) To mix a metal and its ore
134. In induction furnace the substance to be heated is placed in
(a) A uniform magnetic field
(b) Varying magnetic field
(c) A non-uniform magnetic field
(d) A high frequency magnetic field
135. Working of speedometer is based on
(a) Eddy currents
(b) Self induction
(c) Mutual induction
(d) Electromagnetic induction

136. The principle of electromagnetic induction is used in
(a) Thermocouple (b) Photo cell
(c) Transformer (d) Pyrometer
137. Induction motors are used in
(a) Grinders (b) Mixie's
(c) Fans (d) Fridges
138. The type of induction that takes place in a transformer is
(a) Self induction
(c) Dynamic induction
(d) Electrostatic induction
139. A transformer
(a) Transfer energy (b) Transfers voltage
(c) Transfers current (d) Transfers power
140. A transformer works on

(a) Only AC
(b) Only DC
(c) Both AC and DC
(d) Neither AC nor DC
141. When an AC voltage is applied to the primary of a transformer,
the voltage induced in the secondary will be
(a) A DC with the same frequency
(b) An AC with the same frequency
(c) A DC with different frequency
(d) An AC with different frequency
142. In an ideal transformer, voltage, current and number of turns
are related as
(a) Vs/Vp = Is/Ip =Np/Ns

(b) Vs/Vp = Is/Ip =Ns/Np
(c) Vs/Vp = Ip/Is =Np/Ns
(d) Vs/Vp = Ip/Is =Ns/Np
143. The transformer ratio (K) is given by
(a) Ns/Np (b) Np/Ns
(c) Vp/Vs (d) Ip/Is
144. Which is not true in case of a step up transformer
(a) Ep < Es (b) Ip > Is
(c) Ns > Np (d) K < 1
145. Which is not true for a step down transformer
(a) K < 1 (b) Np > Ns
(c) Vp > Vs (d) Ip > Is
146. Choose the wrong statement
(a) The voltage in the secondary is greater in a step up transformer
(b) The current in the secondary is greater in a step down
transformer
(c) The power in the secondary coil is greater in a step up
transformer
(d) The transformer ratio is less than one for a step down
transformer
147. In a step up transformer, the turn ratio is 3 : 2 battery (emf
4.5V) is connected across the primary. The voltage developed in the
secondary would be
(a) 4.5V (b) 30V
(c) 1.5V (d) 0
148. The efficiency of a transformer is given as
(a) EsIs/EpIp (b) EpIp/EsIs

(c) EsIp/EpIs (d) EpIs/EsIp
149. If number of turns in primary and secondary coils increased to
two times each, the mutual inductance
(a) Becomes 4 times
(b) Becomes 2 times
(c) Becomes times
(d) Remains unchanged
150. A transformer is used to light 140W, 24W lamp from 240 V a c
mains. The current in the mains is 0.7 A. The efficiency of the
transformer is
(a) 90% (b) 80%
(c) 70% (d) 60%
151. In a step down transformer, use of 120V line, provides a p.d of
2400V. If the primary coil has 75 turns, number of turns in the
secondary coil is
(a) 150 (b) 1500
(c) 1200 (d) 1575
152. An alternating current of 2A is flowing in primary coil. The
number of turns in the primary and secondary coil are 100 and 20.
The secondary current is
(a) 0.4A (b) 5A
(c) 0.08A (d) 10A
153. A transformer connected to 220V line shows an output of 2A at
11000V. The efficiency of the transformer is 100%. The current
drawn from the line is
(a) 100A (b) 200A
(c) 22A (d) 11A
154. The ratio of primary and secondary turns in a transformer is
1:200. If a 220V a.c is fed to primary, voltage across the secondary
will be
(a) 44V (b) 220V
(c) 220/200V (d) 44KV
155. The ratio of number of turns in primary and secondary coils of
a transformer is 1:20. The ratio of currents in primary and
secondary coils will be
(a) 1:20 (b) 20:1
(c) 1:400 (d) 400:1
156. The coefficient of mutual induction of primary and secondary

of an induction coil is 6H and a current of 5A is cut off in 2 x 10-4s.
The induced emf produced in secondary coil is
(a) 1.5x10-4V (b) 1.5x10-5V
(c) 1.5x105V (d) 1.5x104V
157. The number of turns of primary and secondary of a
transformer are 1000 and 3000. If 80 V a.c is applied to the
primary, the p.d per turn across the secondary would be
(a) 0.08V (b) 24V
(c) 240V (d) 2400V
158. In a step up transformer the transformer ratio is 100. If the
number of turns in primary is 100 then the number of turns in
secondary is
(a) 1 (b) 10000
(c) 200 (d) 0
159. In a transformer copper losses is due to
(a) Joule's heating effect
(b) Seebeck effect
(c) Electromagnetic induction
(d) Flux leakage
160. In a transformer, copper loss can be minimised by using
(a) Thin wires (b) Thick wires

(c) Laminated core (d) A shell type of core
161. By making the core of a transformer laminated
(a) Rusting of the core may be avoided
(b) Flux leakage can be minimized
(c) Hysterisis loss can be minimized
(d) Energy loss due to eddy currents may be minimized
162. The alloy used to make the core of the transformers to
minimize the eddy current losses is
(a) mumetal (b) stelloy
(c) nichrome (d) Any one of the above
163. The repeated magnetization and demagnetization of the iron
core caused by the alternating input current produces loss in
energy known as
(a) Hysterisis loss (b) Eddy current loss
(c) Iron loss (d) Copper loss
164. Hysterisis loss can be minimized using

(a) Mumetal or silicon steel
(b) Stelloy or silicon steel
(c) Thick wires of low resistance
(d) Thin wires of high resistance
165. Mumetal is a
(a) Diamagnetic alloy
(b) Paramagnetic alloy
(c) Ferromagnetic alloy
(d) Non-magnetic alloy
166. A shell type core is used to minimise
(a) Copper loss

(b) Eddy current loss
(c) Hysterisis loss
(d) Loss due to flux leakage
167. Which of the following is not a cause for energy loss in a
transformer
(a) The heat energy produced by the currents flowing in the primary
and secondary windings
(b) The varying magnetic flux
(c) The vibration of the core
(d) Flux in the primary is completely linked with the secondary
168. Efficiency of an ideal transformer is
(a) >1 (b) <1
(c) =1 (d) ?
169. When electric power is transmitted over long distances, there
is
(a) Power loss which cannot be minimized
(b) No power loss
(c) Power loss which can be minimized
(d) Power loss which can be made zero
170. The power loss in electric power transmission can be
minimized by transmitting the power at
(a) Very high voltage
(b) Very low voltage
(c) Very high current
(d) Cannot be minimized
171. An electric power P has to be delivered at a potential difference
V by supply lines of total resistance R then the power loss is equal
to
(a) IR2 (b) I/R2
(c) (P/V)2 R (d) (V/P)2 R
172. When the voltage of electric power transmitted over long

distance is doubled, the loss of power will be
(a) Doubled (b) half
(c) One fourth (d) Same
173. The power loss in a line of resistance 33 ohm carrying a
current of 5A is
(a) 165W (b) 825W
(c) 82.5W (d) 330W
174. 420KW electric power is supplied to a small town at a distance
80 km away from the power plant. The transmission wire has a total
resistance of 0.33 ohm. What is the power loss if the power is
transmitted at 21,000 V
(a) 0.132 KW (b) 0.825KW
(c) 1.32x104 KW (d) 1.32KW
175. An alternating current has
(a) Only positive values but changes in magnitude
(b) Only negative values
(c) Both positive and negative values
(d) A steady value
176. Which of the following changes with time in an a.c
(a) Magnitude only
(b) Direction only
(c) Phase angle only
(d) Both magnitude & direction
177. The frequency of AC required for radio transmission is
(a) 100 Hz-100 KHz (b) 100 KHz-100 MHz
(c) 10 KHz-100 KHz (d) 10 MHz-100 MHz
178. The instantaneous value of an alternating emf is
(a) e = Eo Sin ?t (b) e = Eo Sin2 ?t

(c) e = Eo Cos ?t (d) e = Eo Cos2 ?t
179. The alternating current corresponding to an emf e = Eo Sin ?t
is
(a) I = Io Sin ?t (b) Io = I Sin ?t
(c) I = Io Cos ?t (d) I = Io / Sin ?t
180. In the equation e = Eo Sin ?t, ?t is the
(a) Peak value of the emf
(b) RMS value of the current
(c) Alternating emf
(d) Phase angle
181. An alternating emf is represented by e = 412 Sin 100 ?t. The

amplitude of the sine wave is
(a) 100? (b) 206
(c) 412 (d) 412v2
182. The total amount of heat produced in the resistance coil in one
complete cycle of alternating current I = Io Sin ?t is
(a) H=I2Rt (b) H=Io2Rt
(c) H=Io2Rt/2 (d) H=Io / v2
183. The heat produced by RMS value of AC in the resistance coil R
is
(a) I2RMSRt (b) I2RMSRt/2
(c) Io2Rt (d) Io2Rt/2
184. The peak value Io of AC current in terms of its effective value
is given by
(a) Irms/v2 (b) Irmsv2
(c) 2Irms (d) Irms/2
185. The effective value Erms of a sinusoidal alternating current is
given by
(a) Eo/v2 (b) Eov2
(c) Eo/2 (d) 2Eo
186. The effective value Ieff of a sinusoidal alternating current is
given by
(a) Iov2 (b) 0.707 Io
(c) 0.707/ Io (d) Io /0.707
187. If the instantaneous current in a circuit is I = 4 Cos(?t+?) rms
value of current in ampere is
(a) v2 (b) 2v2
(c) 1/v2 (d) 1/2v2
188. RMS value of an a.c is _____ of the peak value
(a) 7% (b) 7.07%
(c) 70.7% (d) 0.707%
189. A fuse having a current rating of 7A indicates that the current
through the fuse wire can have a peak value of
(a) (7/v2) A (b) 9.898 A
(c) 8.48A (d) (v2/7) A
190. A voltmeter reads V volt in a a.c circuit. Then V is
(a) Peak value of voltage
(b) Peak value of current
(c) Rms value of current
(d) Rms value of voltage
191. If an alternating current of frequency 50Hz is flowing through

a conducting wire, then how many times does the current become
zero in one second
192. A DC of 5A produces the same heating effect as an ac of

(a) 50 A rms current (b) 5A peak current
(c) 5 A rms current (d) None of these
193. Alternating voltage V=400 Sin (500 ?t) is applied across a
resistance of 0.2 K?. The rms value of current will be equal to
(a) 14.14 A (b) 1.414 A
(c) 0.1414 A (d) 2.0 A
194. The equation of alternating current is given by E= 158 Sin 200
?t. The value of voltage at time t = 1/400 sec. is
(a) -158 V (b) -79V
(c) 79V (d) 158V
195. The instantaneous values of current and voltage in an A.C
circuit are respectively I = 4 Sin ?t and E = 100 Cos (?t+?/3). The
phase difference between voltage and current is
(a) 7? / t (b) 6? / t
(c) 5? / 6 (d) / 3
196. The effective value of the current Ieff, in an AC circuit
containing only resistor is
(a) Eeff R (b) Eeff / R
(c) R / Eeff (d) Eeff - R
197. In an AC circuit containing resistance only the phase
difference between the current and voltage is
(a) 0 (b) 90
(c) 45 (d) 180
198. In an AC circuit with inductance only the instantaneous emf is
given by
(a) e=L?Io Cos ?t (b) e=L?Io Sin ?t
(c) e=Io Cos ?t/L? (d) e=Io Sin ?t/L?
199. In an AC circuit with inductance only the peak value of the
emf is given by
(a) Eo = L?/Io (b) Eo = - L? Io
(c) Eo = Io / L? (d) Eo = Io L?
200. The reactance of an inductance is

(a) L? (b) ?/L
(c) L/? (d) 1/L?
201. With the increase in frequency, the inductive reactance
(a) Decreases
(b) Increases
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases and then decreases
202. The frequency at which a 1H inductor has a reactance of 314
Ohm is
(a) 500 Hz (b) 5 Hz
(c) 50 Hz (d) 0.05 Hz
203. The inductance which offeres a reactance of 942 Ohm to an
AC supply of frequency 50 Hz is
(a) 2 H (b) 3 H
(c) 1 H (d) 4 H
204. The unit of inductive reactance is
(a) No unit (b) mho
(c) ohm (d) 1 / ohm
205. In an AC circuit with inductance only the current
(a) Leads the voltage by a phase angle p / 2
(b) Leads the voltage by a phase angle p
(c) Lags behind the voltage by a phase angle p /2
(d) Is in phase with the voltage
206. The reactance given by an inductor to a DC is

(a) Zero (b) 2 p?L
(c) Maximum (d) 2pL
207. If the frequency of source is an inductive circuit is tripled then
the reactance will increase by a factor
(a) 1 /9 (b) 1 / 3
(c) 3 (d) 9
208. An inductance of 2mH is connected to a circuit of 220V, 50Hz,
then the peak current in the circuit
(a) 3.5 x 102A (b) 3.5 x 103A
(c) 350 v2 A (d) 350 / v2A
209. In an AC circuit the applied emf e = EoSin(?t+p/2) leads the

current I = IoSin(?t - p/2) by
(a) p/2 (b) p/4
(c) p (d) 0
210. The reactance offered by a capacitor is
(a) ?c (b) 1/?c
(c) c/? (d) ?/c
211. The unit of capacitive reactance is
(a) Farad (b) Hertz
(c) Ohm (d) Henry
212. When the frequency of AC supply is doubled the capacitive
reactance will increase by a factor
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) (d) 1/4
213. All the following have same unit except

(a) inductance (b) impedance
(c) resistance (d) Reactance
214. As the frequency of the AC voltage across a capacitor
approaches zero, the capacitive reactance
(a) ?0 (b) ?1
(c) ?8 (d) Becomes large but finite
215. In an AC circuit with capacitance only the instantaneous
current
(a) Leads the voltage by p/2
(b) Leads the voltage by p
(c) Lags behind the voltage by p/2
(d) Is in phase with the voltage
216. The reactance offered by a capacitor of capacitance 10F to
DC voltage is
(a) 0 (b) 10x10-6O
(c) 102 O (d) Infinity
217. The value of capacitance of a capacitor offering a reactance of
1000 O to AC supply of 50 Hz
(a) 4.831 F (b) 3.84 F
(c) 5 F (d) 3.184 F
218. A voltage of V=VoSin?t is applied to purely capacitive circuit.
The current is then
(a) IoSin ?t (b) Io/sec?t
(c) Iocos(?t+900) (d) Iosin(?t-900)
219. If X is the reactance and Z is the impedance of a LCR circuit

then
(a) X2 = Z2 + R2 (b) X2 = Z R
(c) X2 = (Z R)2 (d) X2 = Z2 R2

220. In an LCR circuit the effective voltage V is
(a) vVR2 + (VL VC)2 (b) vVR2 + (VL2 VC2)
(c) vVR2 - (VL VC)2 (d) vVR2 - (VL2 VC2)
221. In an LCR circuit the voltage leads the current by a phase
angle, if
(a) XL = XC (b) XL > XC
(c) XL < XC (d) XC = 2XL
222. In an LCR circuit the voltage lags the current by a phase
angle, if
(a) XL = XC (b) XL > XC
(c) XL < XC (d) XC = 2XL
223. The phase angle between the current and voltage in an LCR
circuit is given by
(a) F = tan(XL-XC/R)
(b) F = tan-1 (XL-XC/R)
(c) F = tan-1 (XC-XL/R)
(d) F = tan-1 (R/XL-XC)
224. The instantaneous current flowing through an LCR circuit is I
=
(a) Iosin?t (b) Iosin(?t+ F)
(c) Iosin(?t F) (d) Zero
225. If the frequency of AC is such that XL = XC then the current in
the LCR circuit is
(a) Zero (b) Minimum
(c) Maximum (d) Negative
226. In an LCR circuit at resonance
(a) R = XL (b) R = XC
(c) R = XL-XC (d) XL = XC
227. An LCR circuit has an inductor L and a capacitor C. Its

resonant frequency is
(a) 2 p LC (b) 1/2 pvLC
(c) 1/2 pLC (d) 1/2 vLC
228. In an LCR circuit at resonant frequency
(a) ?rL = 1/ ?rC (b) ?rL = ?rC
(c) ?r = 1/ LC (d) 1/?rL = 1/ ?rC
229. The phase angle between the voltage and current in an LCR
circuit at resonance is
(a) F = tan-1 (XL-XC/R) (b) F = 0o
(c) F = 45o (d) F = 900
230. The impedance of an LCR circuit at resonant frequency is Z =
(a) v R2 + (XL-XC) 2 (b) R2 + (XL-XC) 2
(c) (XL-XC) 2 (d) R
231. The phenomenon of resonance is used in
(a) Radio (b) Capacitor
(c) Transformer (d) Amplifier
232. The ratio of inductive and capacitive reactance of an AC circuit
is
(a) 1 (b) Zero
(c) ?2L (d) ?2LC
233. In an LCR circuit inductance is changed from L to L/2. To keep
the same resonant frequency C should be changed to
(a) 2C (b) C/2
(c) 4C (d) C/4
234. In an LCR circuit having L=8H, C=0.5F and R=100 ohm in
series the resonance frequency in hertz is
(a) 600 (b) 600 p
(c) 250/p (d) 5000

235. The amplitude of current oscillations in LCR circuit will be
Maximum when ? is
(a) as large as possible
(b) Equal to natural frequency of LCR system
(c) vLC
(d) 1/vLC
236. Resonance frequency of a circuit is f. If the capacitance is
made 4 times the initial value then the resonant frequency will
become
(a) f/2 (b) 2f
(c) f/4 (d) f
237. The series resonant circuit is often called as
(a) Acceptor circuit (b) donar circuit
(c) Detector circuit (d) impedance circuit
238. In radio receivers the resonant frequency of the circuit is tuned
by varying
of the LCR circuit
(a) Inductance (b) Resistance
(c) Capacitance (d) All the above
239. The Q factor of a resonant circuit is the measure of

(a) Selectivity (b) Stability
(c) Sensitivity (d) All the above
240. Q factor is defined as
(a) Voltage across L/applied voltage
(b) Voltage across C/applied current

(c) Current through L/applied voltage
(d) Charge in C/applied voltage
241. The expression for Q factor is
(a) vC/Lx1/R (b) 1/RvLC
(c) vL/Cx1/R (d) RvLC
242. At resonance the applied voltage is the potential d
across
(a) Resistor (b) Inductor
(c) Capacitor (d) Sum of the three
243. For normal frequencies Q values lie between

(a) 0-100 (b) 10-100
(c) 10-1000 (d) 0-1000
244. Circuits responding to a very narrow frequency range have
(a) Low Q values (b) 0-Q values
(c) High Q values (d) Moderate Q values
245. An LCR circuit has low Q value then
(a) Its selectivity will be good
(b) It has a sharp resonance
(c) Its resistance is high
(d) All the above
246. Q factor of an LCR circuit can be increased by having a coil of
(a) Large inductance, small ohmic resistance
(b) Large inductance, large ohmic resistance
(c) Small inductance, small ohmic resistance
(d) Small inductance, large ohmic resistance
247. One of the following is not the power consumed by an AC
circuit in one complete cycle
(a) EoIo cosF/2
(b) EoIo cosF/v2

(c) ErmsIrms cosF
(d) Apparent power x power factor
248. The average power of an inductance is also called as

(a) rms power (b) Virtual power
(c) True power (d) Instantaneous power
249. Which of the following is not a property of a choke coil
(a) It has very small resistance
(b) It is used to control the current in an a.c. circuit
(c) There is wastage of power due to Joules heating effect when
current flows
(d) There is no dissipation of power when a current flows through
250. The average power consumed by a choke coil over a complete
cycle is
(a) ErmsIrms( r/vr2+?2L2) (b) EoIo (r/vr2+?2L2)
(c) EoIo /rvr2+?2L2 (d) ErmsIrms / rvr2+?2L2
251. Chokes used in low frequency ac circuits are called as
(a) RF chokes (b) HF chokes
(c) AF chokes (d) UHF chokes
252. The core used in AF chokes is
(a) Copper (b) Iron
(c) Stelloy (d) Mumetal
253. The chokes used in wireless receiver circuits are called as

(a) AF chokes (b) RF chokes
(c) WC chokes (d) All the above
254. For reducing high frequency ac's_______are used
(a) Iron cored chokes
(b) Air cored chokes
(c) Combination of L and C
(d) All the above
255. In an a.c. circuit V and I are given by V=100 sin(100t) V, I =
100 sin(100t+p/3) mA. The power dissipated in the circuit is
(a) 104 w (b) 10 w
(c) 2500 w (d) 5 w
256. A series combination of R,L,C is connected to an a.c. source. If

the resistance is 3 O and reactance is 4O, the power of the circuit is
(a) 0.4 (b) 0.6
(c) 0.8 (d) 1.0
PART-B
1) What is electromagnetic induction?
3) Define self inductance. Give its unit
4) Define the unit of self inductance
8) State methods of producing induced emf
9) What is a poly phase a.c generator
11) Define alternating current and give its expression
12) What is capacitive reactance?
13) What is resonant frequency in LCR circuit?
15) Why a d.c ammeter cannot read a.c?
17) A capacitor blocks d.c but allows a.c. Explain.
18) What happens to the value of current in RLC series circuit, if
19) Differenciate between self-inductance and mutual inductance
PART-C
1) State Lenz's law and illustrate through an experiment. Explain
how it is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy
2) Obtain an expression for the self inductance of a long solenoid
3) Explain the mutual inductance between two long solenoids.
Obtain an expression for the mutual inductance.
4) Explain how an emf can be induced by changing the area
enclosed by the coil.
5) Explain how power can be transmitted efficiently to long
distance.
6) Obtain an expression for the current flowing in a circuit
containing resistance only to which alternating emf is applied. Find
the phase relationship between voltage and current.
7) Obtain an expression for the current in an ac circuit containing a
pure inductance. Find the phase relationship between voltage and
current.
Find the phase relationship between the current and voltage.
9) Derive an expression for the average power in an ac circuit.
10) Obtain an expression for energy associated with an inductor
11) Describe the principle, construction and working of a choke coil
12) Mention the difference between a step up and step down
transformer
13) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of a.c over d.c.
PART-D
magnetic field.
minimized?
4) Describe the principle, construction and working of a threephase a.c generator
5) Explain the principle of transformer. Discuss the construction ,
working and the energy losses.
6) Explain LCR circuit.
BLUE-PRINT
4 X 1 = 4 2 X3 = 6 1 X 5 = 5 1X 10 = 10
Total 25 marks
1. When a voltage V is applied between the ends of a conductor, I is
the flow of current, then the energy gained by the electrons per
second is
a) V/I b) VI
c) V2I d) VIt
2. For a steady current I, flowing through a resister R, for a time t,
the amount of heat produced is
a) H = VIT b) H = I2RT
c) H = V2/R T d) all the above
3. According to Joule's Law of heating, for a given V, the heat

produced in a resistor
a) H a R b) H a 1/R
c) H a R2 d) H a 1/R2
4. Joule's Law is verified using
a) Joule's Barometer
b) Joule's thermometer
c) Joule's Calorimeter
d) None
5. According to Joule's Law H a I2. This is the
a) Law of heat b) Law of voltage
c) Law of current d) Law of resistance
6. Joule's law states that H a R. This is the
a) Law of heat b) Law of resistance
c) Law of time d) Law of current
7. The law of time states that
a) H a 1/t b) H a t2
c) H a t d) H a 1/t2
8. Which of the following is not working on the heating effect of
current
a) electric iron b) electric heater
c) electric toaster d) electric motor
9. Heating element used in the appliances such as electric iron etc.
is
a) nickel b) nichrome
c) chromium d) iron
10. Nichrome is an alloy of
a) nickel and iron b) nickel and lead
c) chromium and lead
d) nickel and chromium
11. Nichrome is used as an heating element because
a) It has high specific resistance
b) It has low melting point
c) It is easily oxidized
d) all the above
12. Fuse wire is an alloy of

a) 37% lead and 63% tin
b) 37% tin and 63% lead
c) 37% nickel and 63% chromium
d) 37% chromium and 63% nickel
13. A fuse wire has
a) high resistance b) low melting point
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
14. The melting point of tungsten used in the electric bulb is
a) 3380 C b) 338 C
c) 380 C d) 3380 C
15. Electric arc and electric welding are working on the principle of
a) thermoelectric effect of current
b) magnetic effect of current
c) heating effect of current
d) all the above
16. In which of the following case Joule's law of heating is
undesirable
a) electric iron b) toaster
c) heater d) dynamos
17. During the current flow through a conductor the heat is
produced by
a) free electrons b) bound electrons
c) nature d) all the above
18. In a current carrying conductor ______ energy of the electron is
converted into heat
a) potential b) thermal
c) kinectic d) rotational
19. Two metallic wires of the same material and same length have
different diameters. If we connect them in series across a battery
the heat produced is H1. If we connect them in parallel, the heat
produced during the same time is H2, then
a) H1 = H2 b) H1 > H2
c) H1 < H2
d) it depends upon the voltage of the battery
20. Two metallic wires of same material and same length have
different diameters when the wiresaare connected in parallel to a
battery the heat produced in thinner wire is H1 and that in thicker
wire is H2, then
a) H1 = H2 b) H1 > H2
c) H1 < H2
21. 1 Joule is equal to
a) A-1V s b) A V s-1
c) AV-1s d) A V s
22. What is immaterial for an electric fuse?
a) its specific resistance
b) its length
c) its radius
d) current flowing through it
23. Resistance of a conductor is doubled keeping the potential

difference across it constant. The rate of generation of heat will
a) become one fourth b) be halved
c) be doubled d) become four times
24. A constant p.d. is applied across the ends of a wire. Which one
of the following operations will reduce the rate of heat generation to
half?
a) both length and diameter are halved
b) both length and diameter are doubled
c) diameter is doubled and length is halved
d) diameter is halved and length is doubled
25. The p.d. across a conductor is doubled, the rate of generation of
heat will
26. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio 1:3 are
connected in parallel to a constant voltage source. The powers
dissipated in them have the ratio
a) 1:3 b) 1:1
c) 3:1 d) 1:9
27. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio of 2:3 are
connected in series to a voltage source then power dissipated in
them have the ratio
a) 2:3 b) 3:2
c) 1:2 d) 2:1
28. The electric bulbs have tungsten filaments of same length. If
one of them gives 60W and the other 100W then
a) 100W bulb has thicker filament
b) 60W bulb has thicker filament
c) both filaments are of same thickness
d) it is possible to get different wattage unless the lengths are
different
29. According to Joule's law, if p.d. across a conductor having a

material of specific resistance ? remains constant, then the heat
produced in the conductor is directly proportional to
a) ?2 b) 1/v?
c) ? d) 1/?
30. A current of 2A passing through a conductor produces 80J of
heat in 10s the resistance of the conductor in ohm is
a) 0.5 b) 2
c) 4 d) 20
31. Joule's heating effect is ______ process.
a) reversible b) irreversible
c) both a) & b) d) none
32. In a circuit consisting of two dissimilar metals an emf is
developed when the junctions are maintained at different
temperatures. This is known as
a) Seebeck effect b) Peltier effect
c) Thomson effect d) Joule's effect
33. Two dissimilar metals connected to form two junctions is called
a) couple b) twin metal
c) thermo couple d) all the above
34. The current produced in a thermocouple is known as

a) induced current b) electric current
c) thermal current
d) thermo electric current
35. Seebeck effect is
c) both(a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
36. In Cu-Fe thermocouple the direction of the current is from
a) Cu Fe at the hot junction
b) Cu Fe at the cold junction
c) Fe Cu at the hot junction
d) Fe Cu at the cold junction
37. Magnitude and sign of thermo emf depends on
a) material of the two conductors
b) temperature of hot junction
c) temperature of cold junction
d) all the above
38. A thermocouple is made up of Zn Bi then the current flows
from
a) Bi Zn at cold junction
b) Zn Bi at cold junction
c) Bi Zn at hot junction
d) Zn Bi at hot junction
39. In which of the following thermocouple, the thermo emf
produced is greater
a) Bi, Sb b) Bi, Fe
c) Cu, Fe d) Bi, Pb
40. The thermo emf of any thermo couple has the temperature
dependence given by the relation
a) V = a ?V + 2 ?2 b) V = a ?2 + ?2
c) V = a ?2 + ? c) V = a? + ?2
41. For small temperature difference between the junctions, the
graph between, temperature and emf is a
a) curved line b) parabola
c) hyperbola d) straight line
42. For large difference in temperature, the graph between
temperature and thermo emf is a

a) straight line b) parabola
c) curve d) hyperbola
43. When the temperature of the hot junction is gradually
increased, the thermo emf rises to a maximum at a temperature
called
a) neutral temperature
b) critical temperature
c) temperature of inversion
d) maximum temperature
44. The thermo emf becomes zero at
45. Beyond the temperature of inversion, the thermo emf
a) increases
b) increases and decreases
c) changes sign and then increases
d) decreases
46. For a given thermo couple, which of the following is a constant
b) temperature of inversion
c) temperature of hot junction
d) temperature of cold junction
47. For a given thermocouple
a) neutral temperature is a constant
b) temperature of inversion depends upon the temperature of cold
junction
c) magnitude of the emf is proportional to the difference in
temperatures
d) all the above
48. The relation between neutral temperature and temperature of
inversion and the temperature of cold junction is
a) ?i = 2?c - ?n b) ?c = 2?n - ?i
c) ?n = (?c + ?i)2 d) ?n = 2?c - ?i

49. If one junction of a thermocouple is heated, and
other junction is cooled continuously in the
same steps, the emf will
a) increases and then decrease
b) increase then decrease and finally reverse
c) no change at all
d) change appreciably
50. Thermocouple is an arrangement of two different metals to
convert
a) heat energy into electrical energy
b) electrical energy into chemical energy
c) electrical energy into heat energy
d) heat energy into chemical energy
51. At neutral temperature, thermo electric power is
a) infinite b) zero
c) minimum d) maximum
52. In a thermo couple minimum current flows at
c) twice the neutral temperature
d) twice the temperature of inversion
53. Temperature of inversion of Cu Fe thermo couple when
temperature of cold junction is0o and neutral temperature is 270 C
a) 270 C b) 540 C
c) 0 C d) 0 K
54. The emf in a thermo couple changes sign at 600 K. If the
neutral temperature is 210 C, the temperature of cold junction is
a) 180 K b) 117 K
c) 93 C d) 90 C
55. In the seebeck series Bi occurs first followed by Cu and Fe
among others. The Sb is last in the series. If E1, is the thermo emf
for Cu-Fe and E2 is for Bi Sb, then
a) E1 = E2 b) E1 > E2
c) E1 < E2 d) E1 = 2E2
56. When an electric current is passed is through a thermo couple
then
a) heat is evolved b) heat is absorbed
c) heat is evolved and then absorbed at the same junction
d) heat is absorbed at one junction and evolved at other junction
57. Peltier effect is the Converse of
a) Seebeck effect b) Thomson effect
c) Joule's heating effect
d) Faraday effect
58. For a thermo couple, the temperature of cold junction neutral
temperature and temperature of inversion are 0 C, 285 C and
570 C respectively. If the temperature of cold junction is raised to
10 C then
a) Tn = 275 C and Ti = 570 C
b) Tn =275 C and Ti = 560 C
c) Tn =285 C and Ti = 560 C
d) Tn= 295 C and Ti = 580 C
59. When a number of thermo couple are joined in series, the
thermo emf
a) is decreased b) is increased
c) becomes zero d) remains same
60. The temperature of the thermocouple which is independent of
the temperature of cold junction is called
a) zero temperature b) neutral temperature
d) none of these
61. A battery is connected to a thermocouple of copper and iron.
The two junctions will be
a) at the same temperature
b) heated up
c) neither heated up nor cooled
d) undergoing thermoelectric effect leading to the heating of one
junction and cooling of the other
62. Peltier effect is
a) reversible process b) irreversible process

c) thermal process d) electric process
63. The unit of Peltier coefficient is
a) ampere b) volt
c) joule d) coulomb
64. Amount of heat energy absorbed or evolved when 1A current

passes for one second through junction of two metals is called
a) Peltier coefficient b) thermo emf
c) Thomson coefficient
d) Thermo electric poweer
65. If p be the Peltier coefficient, the heat evolved or absorbed at the
junction, when a current of I ampere is passed through for a time t
will be
a) pIt2 b) pIT
c) pI2t d) pI2t2
66. The peltier coefficient of a thermo couple depends on
a) pair of metals in contact
b) temperature of the junction
c) both a) and b) d) neither a) and b)
67. Peltier coefficient for the junction of a pair of metals is
proportional to
a) T b) T2
c) 1/T d) 1/T2
68. The unit of peltier coefficient is
a) J. C b) Joule
c) J/C d) J/C2
69. Peltier effect takes place
a) throughout the conductor
b) only at the junctions
c) at some of the portions
d) none
70. When current flows through an unequally heated conductor,
a) heat is absorbed at one end
b) heat is evolved at one end
c) heat is absorbed or evolved at the ends

d) heat is absorbed or evolved throughout the conductor
71. Which of the following shows positive Thomson effect?
a) Bi b) Ni
d) Co d) All
72. Which of the following shows negative Thomson effect?
a) Fe b) Sn
c) Ag d) Zn
73. Which of the following shows zero Thomson effect
a) Cu b) Fe
c) Pb d) Co
74. The amount of heat energy absorbed or evolved when 1A
current flows for 1s in a metal between two points which differ in
temperature by 1 C is called
a) Seebeck coefficient
b) Peltier coefficient
d) Joule coefficient
75. Thomson coefficient is denoted by
a) p b) ?
c) S d) d
76. If E is the Thomson emf between two points in a metal which
differ in temperature by 1 C when q coulomb of charge passes,
then
a) ?= qE b) ?= E
c) ? = q/E d) ?= E/q
77. Peltier coefficient is
a) more at hot junction
b) more at cold junction
c) same at hot and cold junction
d) none of the above
78. In a metal with positive Thomson coefficient current is passed

from the lower temperature to higher temperature side the heat will
be
a) absorbed b) constant
c) evolved d) either b) or c)
79. The thermo emf generated in a thermo couple is usually of the
order of
a) volts b) micro volts
c) milli volts d) kilo volts
80. Thermal radiation is measured using
a) thermometer b) thermopile
c) Potentiometer d) voltmeter
81. Thermopile works on the principle of
a) Joule effect b) peltier effect
c) Seebeck effect d) Thomson effect
82. Magnetic field is associated with a current carrying conductor.
This was given by
a) Kirchoff b) Ampere
c) Oersted d) Faraday
83. The direction of the magnetic field around a current carrying
conductor is given by
a) end rule b) Biot-Savart law
c) Maxwell's right hand rule
d) Tangent law
84. Which of the following equation represents Biot-savart law?
a) b)
c) d)
85. Which of the following is used to determine the factors on which
the magnetic field due to current in a conductor depends

a) Biot-Savart Law
b) Maxwell's right hand rule
c) Ampere's swimming rule
d) end rule
86. Permeability of a medium =
a) b)
c) 0r d) r + 0
87. Permeability of free space 0 =
a) 4p x 10-7 A/m b) 4 p x 10-7 H/m
c) 4p x 10-7 C/m d) 4p x 10-7 Hm
88. The unit of magnetic induction is
a) A/m2 b) wb/m2
c) wbm2 d) Am2
89. Magnetic induction at a point due to an infinitely long straight
conductor is B=
a) b)
c) d)
90. Magnetic induction at a point due to a long straight conductor
in a medium is B=
a) b)
c) d)
91. Magnetic induction at a point on the axis of a current carrying

circular coil (B) having n turns is
a) b)
c) d)
92. Magnetic induction at the centre of a current carrying circular
coil is
a) b)
c) d)
93. A moving charge will produce
a) no field b) an electric field
c) a magnetic field d) both b) and c)
94. The magnetic field induction at a point 4 cm from a long current
carrying wire is 10-3T. The field of induction at a distance of 1.0 cm
for the same current will be
a) 2 x 10-4T b) 3x10-4T
c) 4x10-3T d) 1.11 x 10-4T
95. If B, is the magnetic field induction at a point on the axis of a
circular coil of radius R situated at a distance R and B2 is the
magnetic field at the centre of the coil, then ratio of B1/ B2 is equal
to
a) 1/3 b) 1/8
c) 1/4 d)
96. A current is passed through a straight wire.The magnetic field
established around it has its lines of forces
a) elliptical b) circular
c) oval d) parabolic
97. A circular coil A of radius r carries a current I. Another circular

coil B of radius 2r carries current of I.The magnetic fields at the
centres of the circular coils are in the ratio
a) 3:1 b) 4:1
c) 1:1 d) 2:1
98. The unit of current element is
a) Am b) Am-1
c) Am2 d) Am-2
99. If we double the radius of a current carrying coil keeping the
current unchanged,the magnetic field at its centre will
a) remain unchanged b) become double
c) be halved d) become four times
100. The strength of the magnetic field around an infinite current
carrying conductor is
a) same everywhere
b) directly proportional to distance
c) inversely proportional to distance
d) inversely proportional to square of distance
101. 1 Tesla is equal to
a) N Am b) NA-1m
c) NAm-1 d) NA-1m-1
102. A current flowing north along a power line. The direction of the
magnetic field above it, (neglecting the earth's field) is towards
a) north b) east
c) west d) south
103. Magnetic induction at the centre of a coil of 50 turns, radius
0.5m and carrying a current of 2A is
a) 0.5 x 10-5T b) 1.25 x 10-4T
c) 1.25 x 104T d) 1.25 x 10-14T
104. The magnetic field of given length of wire for single turn coil at
its centre is B, then its value for two turn coil for the same wire is
a) B/4 b) 2B
c) 4B d) B/2
105. Which of the following is used for measuring current?
a) Voltmeter b) Magnetometer
c) tangent galvanometer d) lactometer
106. The tangent galvanometer works on the principle of
a) tangent law b) Ohm's law
c) Kirchoff's law d) Ampere's law
107. T.G consists of a circular coil of wire wounded over a non
magnetic frame of
a) iron b) brass
c) nichrome d) copper
108. The levelling screws in a TG are used to adjust
a) circular coil b) circular table

c) compass box d) plane of the coil
109. The plane of the compass box of a TG should be
a) along the magnetic meridian
b) parallel to the turn table
c) parallel to the plane of the coil
d) vertical
110. The angle between the magnet and the pointer in a compass
box is
a) 00 b) 450
c) 600 d) 900
111. The magnetic needle of a TG is kept small because the
magnetic field is
a) very small b) very large
c) considered to be small and uniform over its entire length
d) such that is is convenient to handle small needle
112. According to tangent law

a) B = BH/tan? b) B = BHtan?
c) B = tan?/BH d) BH = Btan?
113. In a TG experiment the plane of the coil should be adjusted to
be along the
a) magnetic axis b) magnetic meridian
c) equator
d) north-south direction
114. In TG experiment one of the magnetic field is due to the
current in the coil and the other is
a) the earth's magnetic induction
b) vertical component of earth's magnetic induction
c) horizontal component of earth's magnetic induction
d) field due to the pivoted magnet in the compass box
115. In a TG experiment the expression to calculate the current is I
=
a) b)
c) d)
116. If the radius of the coil is halved the number of turns doubled
then the magnetic induction at the centre of coil for the same
current will be
a) get doubled b) get halved
c) become four times d) remain unchanged
117. In a TG for a constant current, the deflection is 300. The plane
of the coil is rotated through 900. now, for the same current, the
deflection will be
a) 300 b) 600
c) 900 d) 00
118. The equation used to calculate the current in a TG experiment

is
a) I = K sin? b) I = K cos?
c) I = K sin?/cos? d) I = K cos?/sin?
119. The reduction factor K of a TG is equal to
a) b)
c) d)
120. The unit of reduction factor is
a) ampere/degree b) ampere meter
c) ampere d) no unit
121. If a current of 1A produces a deflection of 450 in a TG then,
the current that produces a deflection of 600 is
a) 17.32A b) 1.732A
c) 14.14A d) 1.414A
122. If the reduction factor of a TG is 900mA then the current that
produces a deflection of 300 in it is
a) 400mA b) 520A
c) 450A d) 520mA
123. The coil of a TG has a 5 turn coil of radius 11cm. If Bh = 3 x
10-5T and p = 22/7, the current through the TG which produces a
deflection of 450 is nearly
a) 100A b)10-3A
c) 1A d) 100mA
124. TG is more sensitive when the deflection is around
a) 00 b) 300
c) 900 d) 450
125. In a TG the deflections are adjusted to be between
a) 300 400 b) 300 450
c) 300 600 d) 00 450
126. The diameters of the coils of two TG are in the ratio 2:1. If for
the same current, the deflection in the two TG are same, the
number of turns are in the ratio
a) 1:2 b) 2:1
c) 1:1 d) 1:4
127. Bio-Savart law expressed in an alternate way is called
a) B-S law b) Induction law
c) Ampere's circuital law
d) Kirchoff's law
128. Ampere's circuital law is written as
a) b)
c) d)
129. Ampere's circuital law is true
a) only for straight conductor
b) only for circular loops
c) for conductors and paths of any shape
d) only under certain conditions
130. A solenoid is a
a) device to measure current
b) metal coated loops
c) short spaciously round coil
d) long closely wound helical coil
131. At the interior mid point, of a solenoid the magnetic field is
a) parallel to the axis
b) perpendicular to the axis

c) zero
d) curved lines
132. Field outside the solenoid is
a) strong b) weak
c) very weak d) zero
133. The direction of the magnetic field due to a solenoid is given

by
a) right hand cork screw rule
b) ampere's swimming rule
c) end rule
d) right hand palm rule
134. An ideal solenoid is one whose
a) length and radius are same
b) length is small compared to radius
c) radius is small compared to length
d) length is half of its radius
135. The magnetic field within the solenoid having n turns per
metre length and carrying a current of I ampere is given by
a) nI b) 0nI
c) 4p0nI d) 0nI/e
136. When a soft iron core is inserted inside a solenoid, the
magnetic field
a) decreases
b) does not change
c) increases by r times
d) increase by 0 times
137. When a current carrying solenoid is freely suspended it comes
to rest
a) along north-south b) along east-west
c) vertical direction d) and oscilates
138. The magnetic polarity of the current carrying solenoid is given

by
a) End rule
b) right hand thumb rule
c) Biot-Savart law
d) Swimming rule
139. A solenoid of length 1.5m and 4cm diameter having 10 turns

per cm. A current of 5A is flowing through it. The magnetic
induction at axis inside the solenoid is
a) 4p x 10-5 T b) 2p x 10-5 T
c) 2p x 105 T d) 4p x 105 T
140. A current of I ampere flows along an infinitely long straight
thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction at any point inside
the tube is
a) 8 b) zero
c) d)
141. The force on a charged particle moving inside a magnetic field
is known as ______ force
a) Lorentz b) Coulomb's
c) Thomson d) repulsive
142. The magnetic Lorentz force
a) b) F=v(q x B)
c) F=B(q x v) d) F=q(B x V)
143. The force experienced by a stationary charge in a magnetic
field is
a) attractive b) repulsive
c) very high d) zero
144. The force experienced by a charge moving along the direction
of the magnetic induction is
a) high b) low
c) zero d) none
145. The magnitude of the force acting on a charge moving in a

direction perpendicular to the magnetic induction is
a) zero b) BqV
c) d) -BqV
146. A positively charged particle moving with velocity v enters a

region of space having a constant induction B. The particle will
experience the maximum deflection when the angle between the
vectors v and B is
a) 450 b) 900
c) 1800 d) 300
147. A charge moving with velocity v in x-direction is subjected to a
field of induction in the negative x-direction, the charge will
a) retard along x axis
b) move along a circular path
c) remain unaffected
d) starts moving in a elliptical path
148. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are
pointed in the same direction. If an electron is projected in the same
direction, the electrons
a) velocity will increase
b) velocity will decrease
c) will turn to its left
d) will turn to its right
149. The work done by a magnetic field, on moving charge is
a) zero because F and V are parallel
b) positive because F and V are perpendicular
c) zero because F and V are perpendicular
d) negative because F and V are parallel
150. When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its KE
always
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) increases or decreases depending upon the projection of particle
151. A proton enters a magnetic field of flux density 2wb/m 2 with

a velocity 2x10 7 m/s at an angle 300 with the field the force on the
proton is
a) 0.032x10 -12 N b) 0.32x10 -12 N
c) 3.2x10 -12N d) 32x10 -12 N
152. When a charged particle enters inside a magnetic field
perpendicular to the field it traces
a) an elliptical path b) a circular path
c) a curved path d) a straight line path
153. The radius of the circular path traced by a particle moving
inside a magnetic field is
a) Bq/mv b) B/mqv
c) m/Bqv d) mv/Bq
154. If the velocities of two charged particles V1 and V2 moving
inside a magnetic field such that V1 > V2 then their radius of the
circular path will be
(a) r1 > r2 (b) r1 < r2
(c) r1 =r2 (d) r1 << r2
155. The angular frequency of the circular motion of charged
particle in a uniform magnetic field depends upon
(a) Its velocity
(b) Radius of the circular path
(c) Mass of the particle
156. The angular frequency of the charged particle moving inside a
uniform magnetic field is
(a) ?=B/mq (b) ?=Bm/q

(c) ?=Bq/m (d) ?=Bqm
157. The period of circular motion of the charged particle in a
(a) T=2?/mBq (b) T=2?m/Bq
(c) T=2?Bq/m (d) T=2?q/Bm
158. The angular frequency and period of rotation of a particle in a

magnetic field do not depend upon
(a) Velocity of the particle
(b) Magnitude of the charge
(d) Magnetic induction
159. Cyclotron is a device used to
a) Measure charges
b) Measure current
c) Accelerate particles
d) Accelerate charged particles
160. Cyclotron was deviced by
(a) Maxwell (b) Lorentz
(c) Lawrence (d) Ohm
161. The dees of a cyclotron are connected to
(a) An AF amplifier
(b) A low frequency oscillator
(c) A high frequency oscillator
(d) An RF amplifier
162. In a cyclotron, perpendicular to the plane of the dees
(a) A varying magnetic field is applied
(b) A varying electric field is applied
(c) A magnetic field produced by an electromagnet is applied
(d) A constant potential is applied
163. A cyclotron is a
(a) Linear accelerator

(b) Spiral type accelerator
(c) counter
(d) High frequency oscillator
164. In a cyclotron, the centripetal force on a particle of mass m,

charge q and moving with a velocity v is equal to
(a) Bqv (b) Bq
(c) Bq/v (d) Bv/q
165. In a cyclotron
(a) Particle velocity is constant
(b) Radius of the circular path is constant
(c) Frequency of rotation is constant
(d) Both velocity and radius of the circular paths are constant
166. In a cyclotron, the time taken by a particle to describe the semi
circular path
a) ?B/mq b) ?m/Bq
c) ?Bq d) ?q/mB
167. In a cyclotron, the frequency of rotation is given by
a) Bq/2?m (b) B/2?mq
c) 2?m/Bq (d) ?m/2Bq
168. The particle that can be accelerated by a cyclotron is
(a) electron (b) Neutron
(c) a-particle (d) -particle
169. In a cyclotron the frequency of rotation will not be a constant
at high velocities. This is due to the variation of
(a) Mass with velocity
(b) Charge with velocity
(c) Mass with charge (d) Magnetic field
170. Electrons cannot be accelerated in a cyclotron because the
electrons have
(a) Large relativistic mass variation

(b) Small relativistic mass variation
(c) No mass variation (d) Negative charge
171. An electron (m=9x10-31kg, e=1.6x10-19c) moving with a

velocity of 106m/s enters a magnetic field. If it describes a circle of
radius 0.1 m, then strength of magnetic field must be
(a) 4.5x10-5T (b) 1.4x10-5T
(c) 5.5x10-5T (d) 2.6x10-5T
172. The frequency of a charged particle, moving at right angle to
the magnetic field, is independent of
(a) The radius of the circular path
(b) The speed of the particle
(d) The magnetic induction B
173. A uniform magnetic field acts at right angles to the direction of
motion of electron. As a result of this, the electron describes a
circular path of radius 2 cm. If the speed of the electron is doubled,
the radius of the circular path becomes
(a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm
(c) 1 cm (d) 8 cm
174. Radius of curvature of path of a charged particle, in a uniform
magnetic field is directly proportional to
(a) Momentum of the particle
(b) Intensity of the field
(c) Charge on the particle
(d) Energy of the particle
175. A cathode ray beam is bent in a circle of radius 2 cm by a
magnetic induction 4.5 x 10-3 T the velocity of electron is
(a) 3.43 x 107 m/s (b) 5.37 x 107 m/s
(c) 1.23 x 107 m/s (d) 1.58 x 107 m/s
176. A proton, a deuteron and an a-particle enter a magnetic field
perpendicular to the field with the same velocity. Then the ratio of
their radii of circular paths will be
(a) 1 : 2 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 1
177. An electric field of 1500 v/m and magnetic field of 0.4 T acts
on a moving electron to produce no force. What is the electron
speed ?
(a) 600 m/s (b) 1/600 m/s
(c) 3750 m/s (d) 1/3750 m/s
178. The velocities of two ?-particles A and B in a uniform magnetic
fields is in the ratio of 1 : 3. They move in different circular orbits in
the magnetic field. The ratio of radius of curvatures of their paths is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
179. A proton and an ?--particle enter a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular with the same speed. If proton takes 20 ms to make 5
revolutions then the periodic time for the ?--particle would be
(a) 5 ms (b) 8 ms
(c) 10 ms (d) 16 ms
180. An electron is moving with a speed of 108 m/s perpendicular
to a uniform magnetic field of induction B. Suddenly induction of
magnetic field is reduced to B/2. The radius of the path becomes
from the original value of r
(a) No change (b) Reduces to r/2
(c) Increases to 2r (d) Stops moving
181. If a charged particle is describing a circle of radius r in a
magnetic field with a time period T, then
(a) T ? r3 (b) T ? r
(c) T ? r2 (d) T ? r0
182. The force experienced by a current carrying conductor placed
in a magnetic field is
a) F = Il x B (b) F = B x Il
(c) F = B . Il (d) F = Bil

at an angle of ? with the direction of magnetic field is
a) F = BIl b) F = BIl Cos?
c) F = BIl Sin? d) F = Bqv
184. If the current carrying conductor is placed parallel to the
magnetic field the force experienced by it is
(a) maximum (b) minimum
(c) zero (d) None
at an angle 30 with the direction of magnetic field is
(a) F=BIl Sinq (b) F=BIl/2
(c) F=2BIl (d) F=BIl /v2
186. A straight conductor carrying current is placed in an uniform
magnetic field experiences
(a) Mechanical force only
(b) Mechanical couple
(c) Both couple and force
(d) Neither a force nor a couple
187. The direction of the force experienced by a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by
(a) Fleming's right hand rule
(b) Fleming's left hand rule
(c) Ampere's swimming rule
(d) Cork screw rule
188. Two parallel conductors carrying 1A current separated by 1m
apart will experience a force of
(a) 2 x 10-8 N (b) 2 x 10-6 N
(c) 2 x 10-7 N (d) Zero
189. The force between two long parallel current carrying conductor
is
(a) Directly proportional to one of the current

(b) Inversely proportional to the distance between them
(c) Directly proportional to the products of the currents passing
through the conductors
(d) Both (b) and (c)
190. Two parallel wires carrying same current in the same direction
will experience
(a) An attractive force (b) Repulsive force
(c) No force (d) None of the above
191. Two parallel conductors carrying currents in the opposite
direction then the force between them is
(a) attractive (b) Repulsive
(c) No force (d) None
192. Torque experienced by current carrying loop of n turns placed
(a) nBIA Cos? (b) nBIA Sin?
(c) nBIl Sin? (d) nBIl Cos?
193. Torque on a current carrying loop is maximum when it is
placed in a magnetic field at an angle of
(a) 30 (b) 0
(c) 45 (d) 90
194. When a current carrying loop is placed perpendicular to the
magnetic field the torque experienced by it is
(c) zero (d) Infinity
195. A straight wire of length 1m and carrying a current of 7.2A is
placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 2T. The magnetic
field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire
is
(a) 2N (b) 1.2N
(c) 3N (d) 2.4N
196. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction
attract each other because of

(a) Mutual inductance between them
(b) Potential difference between them
(c) Electric forces between them
(d) Magnetic forces between them
197. If the distance between two current carrying wires is doubled
the force between them becomes
(c) times (d) times
198. The current in a wire is directed towards east and the wire is
placed in magnetic field directed towards north. The force on the
wire is
(a) Vertically upwards
(b) Vertically downwards
(c) Due south (d) Due east
199. If a coil carrying current is placed in a uniform magnetic field,
then
(a) Emf is produced (b) Torque is produced
(d) Torque is not produced
200. The forces existing between two parallel current carrying
conductors is F. If the current in each conductor is doubled, then
the value of the force will be
(a) 2F (b) 4F
(c) 5F (d) F/2
201. Two long parallel wires are placed 10 cm apart. 10A of current
is flowing through each of them in same direction. The force exerted
on each other per unit length is
(a) 2 x 10 -7N attractive
(b) 2 x 10 -4 N repulsive
(c) 2 x 10 -7N repulsive
(d) 2 x 10 -4 N attractive
202. Galvanometer is a device used to

(a) Measure the current in a circuit
(b) Indicate the flow of current in a circuit
(c) Measure the voltage across the conductor
(d) Measure the resistance
203. The most commonly used galvanometers are
(a) Moving magnet galvanometer
(b) Moving spring galvanometer
(c) Moving coil galvanometer
(d) Not specified
204. The magnet used to produce the magnetic field in the moving
coil galvanometer is
(a) Bar magnet (b) Horse shoe magnet
(c) Cylindrical magnet (d) Either (a) or (b)
205. The wire used to suspend the coil of a moving coil
galvanometer is
(a) Phosphor (b) Phosphor bronze
(c) Iron (d) Copper
206. In the galvanometers horse-shoe magnets are used to provide
(a) Uniform magnetic field
(b) Non uniform magnetic field
(c) Radial magnetic field
207. In a radial magnetic field
(a) Plane of the coil is always parallel to the field
(b) Plane of the coil is always perpendicular to the field
(c) All the sides of the coil is parallel to the field
(d) All the sides of the coil is perpendicular to the field
208. The galvanometer constant K is
(a) CA/nB (b) C/nAB

(c) nAB/C (d) nB/CA
209. In the moving coil galvanometer the deflection is
(a) Inversely proportional to the current
(b) Inversely proportional to the square of the current
(c) Directly proportional to the current
(d) Directly proportional to the square of the current
210. The torque on a rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic
field is large, when
(a) The number of turns is large
(b) The number of turns is less
(c) The plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field
(d) The area of the coil is small
211. Phosphor-Bronze wire is used for suspension in a moving coil
galvanometer because it has
(a) High conductivity
(b) High resistivity
(c) Large couple per unit twist
(d) Small couple per unit twist
212. The moving coil galvanometers can measure currents of the
order of
(a) 108 A (b) 10-8 A
(c) 108 mA (d) 10-8 mA
213. The type of galvanometer used in experiments where
sensitivity is not required
(a) Moving magnet
(b) Moving coil
(c) Pointer type
214. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as

(a) The deflection produced when a current of I ampere passes
through
(b) The deflection produced when unit current flows through

(c) The deflection is within 45
(d) The 0 deflection
215. Current sensitivity of a galvanometer is given as
(a) C/nBA (b) nBA/C
(c) nA/CB (d) nCA/B
216. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by
(a) Increasing number of turns
(b) Increasing the magnetic induction
(c) Decreasing the couple per unit twist
(d) All the above
217. The voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer is given as
(a) ?V (b) ?/V
(c) V/? (d) V/I
(a) CG/nBA (b) nBA/C
(c) nBA/G (d) nBA/CG
219. When the number of turns of a galvanometer is doubled then
(a) Current sensitivity doubled, voltage sensitivity remains same
(b) Current sensitivity doubled, voltage sensitivity doubled
(c) Current sensitivity halved, voltage sensitivity doubled
(d) Current sensitivity doubled, voltage sensitivity halved
220. A low resistance is connected in parallel with the galvanometer

(a) To by pass a major part of the current through the resistance
(b) To allow small fraction of current through the galvanometer
(d) None
221. Shunt is a
(a) Low resistance connected in parallel with the galvanometer
(b) High resistance connected in parallel with the galvanometer
(c) Low resistance connected is series with the galvanometer
(d) High resistance connected in series with the galvanometer

222. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter
(a) A low resistance is connected in series
(b) A low resistance is connected in parallel
(c) A high resistance is connected in series
(d) A high resistance is connected in parallel
223. The value of shunt to be connected with the galvanometer is
given by
(a) S = G (Ig / I Ig) (b) S = G (Ig / Ig I)
(c) S = G (Ig / Is Ig) (d) S = G (I / I Ig)
224. The effective resistance of an ammeter is
(a) GS/G+S (b) G+S/GS
(c) G(G+S)/S (d) S(G+S)/G
225. A galvanometer of resistance G O is shunted with SO. The

effective resistance of the combination is Ra. Then which of the
following statement is true?
(a) G is less than S
(b) S is less than Ra but greater than G
(c) Ra is less than both G and S
(d) S is less than both G and Ra
226. In any electrical circuit the ammeter should be connected in
(a) parallel (b) series
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) Any where
227. The resistance of an ideal ammeter is
(a) Low (b) High
(c) Infinity (d) Zero
228. The instrument used to measure p.d between the two ends of a
current carrying conductor is

(a) galvanometer (b) ammeter
(c) voltmeter (d) Wattmeter
229. To convert a galvanometer in to voltmeter
230. The value of resistance (R) to be connected with a
galvanometer to convert it into voltmeter of range V is
(a) (V/Ig) - G (b) (I/Vg ) - G
(c) G - (V/Ig) (d) (V/Ig) + G
231. The effective resistance of a voltmeter is given as (Rv)
(a) G+R (b) G-R
(c) GR (d) G/R
232. In the electrical circuit the voltmeter should be connected in

233. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
(a) zero (b) high
(c) infinite (d) Low
234. Of the following devices, which has small resistance
(a) Moving coil galvanometer
(b) Ammeter of range 0 1 A
(c) Ammeter of range 0 10 A
(d) Voltmeter
235. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohm and a range of I
ampere. The value of resistance used in parallel to convert it into an
ammeter of range nI ampere is
(a) nG (b) (n-1)G
(c) G/n (d) G/n-1
236. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohm and range V volt. The

value of resistance used in series to convert it into a voltmeter of
range nV volt is
(a) nG (b) (n-1)G
(c) G/n (d) G/n-1
237. The sensitivity of a galvanometer does not depend upon
(a) A very strong magnetic field in the permanent magnet
(b) The current it measures
(c) A very thin, weak suspension
(d) A large number of turns in the coil
238. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 10ohm and
shows full scale deflection for 0.01 A. It can be converted in to a
voltmeter of 10 V by connecting a resistance of
(a) 990 O in series (b) 990 O in parallel
(c) 99 O in series (d) 99 O in parallel
239. The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends on

(a) The angle of deflection
(b) Earth's magnetic field
(c) Torsional constant of the spring
(d) The moment of inertia of the coil
240. The deflection in moving coil galvanometer is reduced to half,
when it is shunted with a 40W coil. The resistance of the
galvanometer is
(a) 60 O (b) 10 O
(c) 40 O (d) 20 O
241. When a current is passed through a moving coil galvanometer,
the coil gets deflected because
(a) Current in the coil produces an electric field
(b) A couple acts on it
(c) The current deflects anything
(d) Current in the coil produces magnetic field
242. A galvanometer of resistance 100 O gives a full scale deflection
for a current of 10-5 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1A,
the resistance to be connected

(a) 1 O in parallel (b) 10-3 O in parallel
(c) 10-3 O in series (d) 105 O in series
243. In a shunted ammeter only 10% of current passes through the
galvanometer of resistance G. The resistance of the shunt is
(a) 9G (b) 10G
(c) G/9 (d) G/10
244. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
(a) Directly proportional to the torsional constant
(b) Directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) Inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) Inversely proportional to the current flowing
245. A simple current loop behaves like a

(a) Bar magnet (b) A solenoid
(c) Magnetic material (d) Galvanometer
246. All the magnetic phenomeno is due to circulating electric
current. This is
(a) Coulomb's hypothesis
(b) Ampere's hypothesis
(c) Joule's hypothesis
(d) Maxwell's hypothesis
247. The magnetic moment of a current loop is
(a) M = IA (b) M = I/A
(c) M = A/I (d) M = I2A
248. The direction of the magnetic moment of a current loop is
(a) Along the plane of the loop
(b) Perpendicular to the plane of the loop
(c) Along the direction of the current
(d) Anywhere
249. The electron revolving around the nucleus in a closed path
constitutes an electric current given as
(a) ev/2?r (b) e/2?rv
(c) 2?r/ev (d) 2?r/v

250. The orbital magnetic moment of an electron is given as
(a) el/2m (b) evr/2
(c) e(mvr)/2m (d) All the above
251. The angular momentum of an electron is
(a) mv2/r (b) mvr2
(c) mvr (d) mr2/v
252. Gyromagnetic ratio (l/l) is equal to
(a) e/2m (b) 2m/e
(c) 2em (d) m/2e
253. The constant value of gyromagnetic ratio is

(a) 8.8 x 10 10 kg/c (b) 8.8 x 1010 c/kg
(c) 0.88 x10 10 c/kg (d) 0.88 x 10 10 kg/c
254. The value of plank's constant is
(a) 6.625 x 10 34 JS (b) 6.25 x 10 24 JS
(c) 6.625 x 10 -34 JS (d) 6.625 x 10 24 JS
255. The minimum value of orbital magnetic moment of an electron
is known as
(a) Gyromagnetic ratio (b) Bohr ratio
(c) Bohr magneton (d) All the above
256. Bohr magneton is expressed as
(a) e/4?m (b) eh/4m
(c) e/4?hm (d) eh/4?m
257. The value of Bohr magneton is found to be
(a) 8.8 x 10 10 c/kg (b) 9.27 x 10 -24 Am2
(c) 9.27 x 10 24 Am2 (d) 1.602 x 10 -19 c
258. The resultant magnetic moment of an electron is
(a) Sum of orbital magnetic moment and spin magnetic moment
(b) Spin magnetic moment only
(c) Vector sum of orbital magnetic moment and spin magnetic
moment
(d) All the above
259. A current loop placed in a magnetic field behaves like a

(a) Magnetic dipole (b) Magnetic substance
(c) Magnetic pole (d) All the above
260. A wire of length L metre carrying a current I A is bent in the
form of a circle. Its magnitude of magnetic moment is
(a) IL/4? (b) IL2/4?
(c) I2L2/4? (d) I2L/4?
261. A current carrying small loop behaves like a small magnet. If A

be its area and M its magnetic moment, the current in the loop will
be
(a) M/A (b) A/M
(c) MA (d) A2M
262. In hydrogen atom the electron is making 6.6x1015rev/sec
around the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.528A. The magnetic
moment will be
(a) 1 x 10 -15 Am2 (b) 1 x 10 -23 Am2
(c) 1 x 10 -23 A2m (d) 1 x 10 -23 A/m2
263. A straight wire carrying current I is turned into a circular loop.
If the magnitude of magnetic moment is M, the length of the wire
will be
(a) 4/?M (b) v4?M/I
(c) v4?I/M (d) M?/4I
264. The magnetic moment of a circular coil carrying current is
(a) Directly proportional to the length of the wire in the coil
(b) Inversely proportional to the length of the wire in the coil
(c) Directly proportional to the square of the length of the wire in
the coil
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of the length of the wire in
the coil
265. Electron of mass m, charge e is traveling with a speed V along
a circular path of radius r at right angles to a uniform magnetic
field B. If the speed of the electron is doubled and the magnetic field
is halved, the resulting path would have a radius

(a) 4r (b) 2r
(c) r/4 (d) r/2
266. When a charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field, its
kinetic energy
(a) Remains constant (b) increases
(c) Decreases (d) Becomes zero
PART-B
1) State Joule's law of heating **
2) Nichrome is used as a heating element in electric heating devices
why?**
3) What is Seebeck effect? 4) What is peltier effect?
5) What is neutral temperature and temperature of inversion?
6) Define peltier coefficient** 7) What is Thomson effect?
8) Define Thomson coefficient** 9) State Maxwell's right hand cork
screw rule
10) State Biot-Savart law** 11) What is Ampere's circuital law?**
12) Define Ampere** 13) State right hand palm rule 14) State end
rule
15) Electrons cannot be accelerated by cyclotrons why?**
16) Define current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity of a
galvanometer
17) Increasing the current sensitivity does not necessarily increase
the voltage sensitivity why?
PART-C
1) Explain Thomson effect
2) Explain the construction and working of thermopiles
3) Explain magnetic Lorentz force**
4) Explain how a galvanometer is converted into an ammeter**
5) Explain how a galvanometer is converted into an voltmeter**
6) Explain how a current loop acts as a magnetic dipole
7) Derive an expression for the dipole moment of a revolving
electron
PART-D
1) Explain Joule's calorimeter experiment to verify Joule's law of
heating
2) Obtain an expression for the magnetic induction at appoint due
to an infinitely long straight conductor carrying current.
3) Deduce the relation for the magnetic induction at a point along
the axis of a circular coil carrying current
4) Explain in detail the principle, construction and theory of a
tangent galvanometer
5) Applying Ampere's circuital law, find the magnetic induction due
to a straight solenoid.
6) Explain the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic
field.
7) Explain the principle, construction and working of a cyclotron.
8) Deduce an expression for the force on a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field
9) Deduce an expression for the force between two long parallel
current-carrying conductors.
10) Derive an expression for the torque experienced by a current
loop in a uniform magnetic field
11) Explain in detail the principle, construction and the theory of
moving coil galvanometer
Blue-Print
2 x 1= 2 1 x 3 = 3 1 x 5 = 5 1 x 10 = 10
Total 20 marks
1. When a voltage V is applied between the ends of a conductor, I is

the flow of current, then the energy gained by the electrons per
second is
a) V/I b) VI
c) V2I d) VIt
2. For a steady current I, flowing through a resister R, for a time t,
the amount of heat produced is
a) H = VIT b) H = I2RT
c) H = V2/R T d) all the above
3. According to Joule's Law of heating, for a given V, the heat
produced in a resistor
a) H a R b) H a 1/R
c) H a R2 d) H a 1/R2
4. Joule's Law is verified using
a) Joule's Barometer
b) Joule's thermometer
c) Joule's Calorimeter
d) None
5. According to Joule's Law H a I2. This is the
a) Law of heat b) Law of voltage
c) Law of current d) Law of resistance
6. Joule's law states that H a R. This is the
a) Law of heat b) Law of resistance
c) Law of time d) Law of current
7. The law of time states that
a) H a 1/t b) H a t2
c) H a t d) H a 1/t2
8. Which of the following is not working on the heating effect of
current
a) electric iron b) electric heater
c) electric toaster d) electric motor
9. Heating element used in the appliances such as electric iron etc.
is
a) nickel b) nichrome
c) chromium d) iron
10. Nichrome is an alloy of
a) nickel and iron b) nickel and lead
c) chromium and lead
d) nickel and chromium
11. Nichrome is used as an heating element because
a) It has high specific resistance
b) It has low melting point
c) It is easily oxidized
d) all the above
12. Fuse wire is an alloy of
a) 37% lead and 63% tin
b) 37% tin and 63% lead
c) 37% nickel and 63% chromium
d) 37% chromium and 63% nickel
13. A fuse wire has
a) high resistance b) low melting point
c) both (a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
14. The melting point of tungsten used in the electric bulb is
a) 3380 C b) 338 C
c) 380 C d) 3380 C
15. Electric arc and electric welding are working on the principle of
a) thermoelectric effect of current
b) magnetic effect of current
c) heating effect of current
d) all the above
16. In which of the following case Joule's law of heating is
undesirable
a) electric iron b) toaster
c) heater d) dynamos
17. During the current flow through a conductor the heat is
produced by
a) free electrons b) bound electrons
c) nature d) all the above
18. In a current carrying conductor ______ energy of the electron is
converted into heat
a) potential b) thermal
c) kinectic d) rotational
19. Two metallic wires of the same material and same length have
different diameters. If we connect them in series across a battery
the heat produced is H1. If we connect them in parallel, the heat
produced during the same time is H2, then
a) H1 = H2 b) H1 > H2
c) H1 < H2
20. Two metallic wires of same material and same length have
different diameters when the wiresaare connected in parallel to a
battery the heat produced in thinner wire is H1 and that in thicker
wire is H2, then
a) H1 = H2 b) H1 > H2
c) H1 < H2
21. 1 Joule is equal to
a) A-1V s b) A V s-1
c) AV-1s d) A V s
22. What is immaterial for an electric fuse?
a) its specific resistance
b) its length
c) its radius
d) current flowing through it
23. Resistance of a conductor is doubled keeping the potential

difference across it constant. The rate of generation of heat will
24. A constant p.d. is applied across the ends of a wire. Which one
of the following operations will reduce the rate of heat generation to
half?
a) both length and diameter are halved
b) both length and diameter are doubled
c) diameter is doubled and length is halved
d) diameter is halved and length is doubled
25. The p.d. across a conductor is doubled, the rate of generation of
heat will
26. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio 1:3 are
connected in parallel to a constant voltage source. The powers

dissipated in them have the ratio
a) 1:3 b) 1:1
c) 3:1 d) 1:9
27. Two electric bulbs whose resistances are in the ratio of 2:3 are
connected in series to a voltage source then power dissipated in
them have the ratio
a) 2:3 b) 3:2
c) 1:2 d) 2:1
28. The electric bulbs have tungsten filaments of same length. If
one of them gives 60W and the other 100W then
a) 100W bulb has thicker filament
b) 60W bulb has thicker filament
c) both filaments are of same thickness
d) it is possible to get different wattage unless the lengths are
different
29. According to Joule's law, if p.d. across a conductor having a

material of specific resistance ? remains constant, then the heat
produced in the conductor is directly proportional to
a) ?2 b) 1/v?
c) ? d) 1/?
30. A current of 2A passing through a conductor produces 80J of
heat in 10s the resistance of the conductor in ohm is
a) 0.5 b) 2
c) 4 d) 20
31. Joule's heating effect is ______ process.
c) both a) & b) d) none
32. In a circuit consisting of two dissimilar metals an emf is
developed when the junctions are maintained at different
temperatures. This is known as
a) Seebeck effect b) Peltier effect
c) Thomson effect d) Joule's effect
33. Two dissimilar metals connected to form two junctions is called
a) couple b) twin metal

c) thermo couple d) all the above
34. The current produced in a thermocouple is known as
a) induced current b) electric current
c) thermal current
d) thermo electric current
35. Seebeck effect is
c) both(a) and (b) d) neither (a) nor (b)
36. In Cu-Fe thermocouple the direction of the current is from
a) Cu Fe at the hot junction
b) Cu Fe at the cold junction
c) Fe Cu at the hot junction
d) Fe Cu at the cold junction
37. Magnitude and sign of thermo emf depends on
a) material of the two conductors
b) temperature of hot junction
c) temperature of cold junction
d) all the above
38. A thermocouple is made up of Zn Bi then the current flows
from
a) Bi Zn at cold junction
b) Zn Bi at cold junction
c) Bi Zn at hot junction
d) Zn Bi at hot junction
39. In which of the following thermocouple, the thermo emf
produced is greater
a) Bi, Sb b) Bi, Fe
c) Cu, Fe d) Bi, Pb
40. The thermo emf of any thermo couple has the temperature
dependence given by the relation
a) V = a ?V + 2 ?2 b) V = a ?2 + ?2
c) V = a ?2 + ? c) V = a? + ?2
41. For small temperature difference between the junctions, the
graph between, temperature and emf is a
a) curved line b) parabola
c) hyperbola d) straight line

42. For large difference in temperature, the graph between
temperature and thermo emf is a
a) straight line b) parabola
c) curve d) hyperbola
43. When the temperature of the hot junction is gradually
increased, the thermo emf rises to a maximum at a temperature
called
44. The thermo emf becomes zero at
45. Beyond the temperature of inversion, the thermo emf
a) increases
b) increases and decreases
c) changes sign and then increases
d) decreases
46. For a given thermo couple, which of the following is a constant
c) temperature of hot junction
d) temperature of cold junction
47. For a given thermocouple
a) neutral temperature is a constant
b) temperature of inversion depends upon the temperature of cold
junction
c) magnitude of the emf is proportional to the difference in
temperatures
d) all the above
48. The relation between neutral temperature and temperature of
inversion and the temperature of cold junction is

a) ?i = 2?c - ?n b) ?c = 2?n - ?i
c) ?n = (?c + ?i)2 d) ?n = 2?c - ?i
49. If one junction of a thermocouple is heated, and
other junction is cooled continuously in the
same steps, the emf will
a) increases and then decrease
b) increase then decrease and finally reverse
c) no change at all
d) change appreciably
50. Thermocouple is an arrangement of two different metals to
convert
a) heat energy into electrical energy
b) electrical energy into chemical energy
c) electrical energy into heat energy
d) heat energy into chemical energy
51. At neutral temperature, thermo electric power is
a) infinite b) zero
c) minimum d) maximum
52. In a thermo couple minimum current flows at
c) twice the neutral temperature
d) twice the temperature of inversion
53. Temperature of inversion of Cu Fe thermo couple when
temperature of cold junction is0o and neutral temperature is 270 C
a) 270 C b) 540 C
c) 0 C d) 0 K
54. The emf in a thermo couple changes sign at 600 K. If the
neutral temperature is 210 C, the temperature of cold junction is
a) 180 K b) 117 K
c) 93 C d) 90 C
55. In the seebeck series Bi occurs first followed by Cu and Fe
among others. The Sb is last in the series. If E1, is the thermo emf
for Cu-Fe and E2 is for Bi Sb, then

a) E1 = E2 b) E1 > E2
c) E1 < E2 d) E1 = 2E2
56. When an electric current is passed is through a thermo couple
then
a) heat is evolved b) heat is absorbed
c) heat is evolved and then absorbed at the same junction
d) heat is absorbed at one junction and evolved at other junction
57. Peltier effect is the Converse of
a) Seebeck effect b) Thomson effect
c) Joule's heating effect
d) Faraday effect
58. For a thermo couple, the temperature of cold junction neutral
temperature and temperature of inversion are 0 C, 285 C and
570 C respectively. If the temperature of cold junction is raised to
10 C then
a) Tn = 275 C and Ti = 570 C
b) Tn =275 C and Ti = 560 C
c) Tn =285 C and Ti = 560 C
d) Tn= 295 C and Ti = 580 C
59. When a number of thermo couple are joined in series, the
thermo emf
a) is decreased b) is increased
c) becomes zero d) remains same
60. The temperature of the thermocouple which is independent of
the temperature of cold junction is called
a) zero temperature b) neutral temperature
d) none of these
61. A battery is connected to a thermocouple of copper and iron.
The two junctions will be
a) at the same temperature
b) heated up
c) neither heated up nor cooled
d) undergoing thermoelectric effect leading to the heating of one
junction and cooling of the other

62. Peltier effect is
a) reversible process b) irreversible process
c) thermal process d) electric process
63. The unit of Peltier coefficient is
a) ampere b) volt
c) joule d) coulomb
64. Amount of heat energy absorbed or evolved when 1A current

passes for one second through junction of two metals is called
a) Peltier coefficient b) thermo emf
d) Thermo electric poweer
65. If p be the Peltier coefficient, the heat evolved or absorbed at the
junction, when a current of I ampere is passed through for a time t
will be
a) pIt2 b) pIT
c) pI2t d) pI2t2
66. The peltier coefficient of a thermo couple depends on
a) pair of metals in contact
b) temperature of the junction
c) both a) and b) d) neither a) and b)
67. Peltier coefficient for the junction of a pair of metals is
proportional to
a) T b) T2
c) 1/T d) 1/T2
68. The unit of peltier coefficient is
a) J. C b) Joule
c) J/C d) J/C2
69. Peltier effect takes place
a) throughout the conductor
b) only at the junctions
c) at some of the portions
d) none
70. When current flows through an unequally heated conductor,
a) heat is absorbed at one end

b) heat is evolved at one end
c) heat is absorbed or evolved at the ends
d) heat is absorbed or evolved throughout the conductor
71. Which of the following shows positive Thomson effect?
a) Bi b) Ni
d) Co d) All
72. Which of the following shows negative Thomson effect?
a) Fe b) Sn
c) Ag d) Zn
73. Which of the following shows zero Thomson effect
a) Cu b) Fe
c) Pb d) Co
74. The amount of heat energy absorbed or evolved when 1A
current flows for 1s in a metal between two points which differ in
temperature by 1 C is called
a) Seebeck coefficient
b) Peltier coefficient
d) Joule coefficient
75. Thomson coefficient is denoted by
a) p b) ?
c) S d) d
76. If E is the Thomson emf between two points in a metal which
differ in temperature by 1 C when q coulomb of charge passes,
then
a) ?= qE b) ?= E
c) ? = q/E d) ?= E/q
77. Peltier coefficient is
a) more at hot junction
b) more at cold junction
c) same at hot and cold junction
d) none of the above
78. In a metal with positive Thomson coefficient current is passed

from the lower temperature to higher temperature side the heat will
be
a) absorbed b) constant
c) evolved d) either b) or c)
79. The thermo emf generated in a thermo couple is usually of the
order of
a) volts b) micro volts
c) milli volts d) kilo volts
80. Thermal radiation is measured using
a) thermometer b) thermopile
c) Potentiometer d) voltmeter
81. Thermopile works on the principle of
a) Joule effect b) peltier effect
c) Seebeck effect d) Thomson effect
82. Magnetic field is associated with a current carrying conductor.
This was given by
a) Kirchoff b) Ampere
c) Oersted d) Faraday
83. The direction of the magnetic field around a current carrying
conductor is given by
a) end rule b) Biot-Savart law
c) Maxwell's right hand rule
d) Tangent law
84. Which of the following equation represents Biot-savart law?
a) b)
c) d)
85. Which of the following is used to determine the factors on which

the magnetic field due to current in a conductor depends
a) Biot-Savart Law
b) Maxwell's right hand rule
c) Ampere's swimming rule
d) end rule
86. Permeability of a medium =
a) b)
c) 0r d) r + 0
87. Permeability of free space 0 =
a) 4p x 10-7 A/m b) 4 p x 10-7 H/m
c) 4p x 10-7 C/m d) 4p x 10-7 Hm
88. The unit of magnetic induction is
a) A/m2 b) wb/m2
c) wbm2 d) Am2
89. Magnetic induction at a point due to an infinitely long straight
conductor is B=
a) b)
c) d)
90. Magnetic induction at a point due to a long straight conductor
in a medium is B=
a) b)
c) d)
91. Magnetic induction at a point on the axis of a current carrying

circular coil (B) having n turns is
a) b)
c) d)
92. Magnetic induction at the centre of a current carrying circular
coil is
a) b)
c) d)
93. A moving
arge will produce
a) no field b) an electric field
c) a magnetic field d) both b) and c)

94. The magnetic field induction at a point 4 cm from a long current
carrying wire is 10-3T. The field of induction at a distance of 1.0 cm
for the same current will be
a) 2 x 10-4T b) 3x10-4T
c) 4x10-3T d) 1.11 x 10-4T
95. If B, is the magnetic field induction at a point on the axis of a
circular coil of radius R situated at a distance R and B2 is the
magnetic field at the centre of the coil, then ratio of B1/ B2 is equal
to
a) 1/3 b) 1/8
c) 1/4 d)
96. A current is passed through a straight wire.The magnetic field
established around it has its lines of forces
a) elliptical b) circular
c) oval d) parabolic
97. A circular coil A of radius r carries a current I. Another circular

coil B of radius 2r carries current of I.The magnetic fields at the
centres of the circular coils are in the ratio
a) 3:1 b) 4:1
c) 1:1 d) 2:1
98. The unit of current element is
a) Am b) Am-1
c) Am2 d) Am-2
99. If we double the radius of a current carrying coil keeping the
current unchanged,the magnetic field at its centre will
a) remain unchanged b) become double
c) be halved d) become four times

100. The strength of the magnetic field around an infinite current
carrying conductor is
a) same everywhere
b) directly proportional to distance
c) inversely proportional to distance
d) inversely proportional to square of distance
101. 1 Tesla is equal to
a) N Am b) NA-1m
c) NAm-1 d) NA-1m-1
102. A current flowing north along a power line. The direction of the
magnetic field above it, (neglecting the earth's field) is towards
a) north b) east
c) west d) south
103. Magnetic induction at the centre of a coil of 50 turns, radius
0.5m and carrying a current of 2A is
a) 0.5 x 10-5T b) 1.25 x 10-4T
c) 1.25 x 104T d) 1.25 x 10-14T
104. The magnetic field of given length of wire for single turn coil at
its centre is B, then its value for two turn coil for the same wire is
a) B/4 b) 2B
c) 4B d) B/2
105. Which of the following is used for measuring current?
a) Voltmeter b) Magnetometer
c) tangent galvanometer d) lactometer
106. The tangent galvanometer works on the principle of
a) tangent law b) Ohm's law
c) Kirchoff's law d) Ampere's law
107. T.G consists of a circular coil of wire wounded over a non
magnetic frame of
a) iron b) brass
c) nichrome d) copper
108. The levelling screws in a TG are used to adjust
a) circular coil b) circular table
c) compass box d) plane of the coil
109. The plane of the compass box of a TG should be
a) along the magnetic meridian
b) parallel to the turn table
c) parallel to the plane of the coil
d) vertical
110. The angle between the magnet and the pointer in a compass
box is
a) 00 b) 450
c) 600 d) 900
111. The magnetic needle of a TG is kept small because the
magnetic field is
a) very small b) very large
c) considered to be small and uniform over its entire length
d) such that is is convenient to handle small needle
112. According to tangent law

a) B = BH/tan? b) B = BHtan?
c) B = tan?/BH d) BH = Btan?
113. In a TG experiment the plane of the coil should be adjusted to
be along the
a) magnetic axis b) magnetic meridian
c) equator
d) north-south direction
114. In TG experiment one of the magnetic field is due to the
current in the coil and the other is
a) the earth's magnetic induction
b) vertical component of earth's magnetic induction
c) horizontal component of earth's magnetic induction
d) field due to the pivoted magnet in the compass box
115. In a TG experiment the expression to calculate the current is I
=
a) b)
c) d)
116. If the radius of the coil is halved the number of turns doubled
then the magnetic induction at the centre of coil for the same
current will be
a) get doubled b) get halved
c) become four times d) remain unchanged
117. In a TG for a constant current, the deflection is 300. The plane
of the coil is rotated through 900. now, for the same current, the
deflection will be
a) 300 b) 600
c) 900 d) 00
118. The equation used to calculate the current in a TG experiment

is
a) I = K sin? b) I = K cos?
c) I = K sin?/cos? d) I = K cos?/sin?
119. The reduction factor K of a TG is equal to
a) b)
c) d)
120. The unit of reduction factor is
a) ampere/degree b) ampere meter
c) ampere d) no unit
121. If a current of 1A produces a deflection of 450 in a TG then,
the current that produces a deflection of 600 is
a) 17.32A b) 1.732A
c) 14.14A d) 1.414A
122. If the reduction factor of a TG is 900mA then the current that
produces a deflection of 300 in it is
a) 400mA b) 520A
c) 450A d) 520mA
123. The coil of a TG has a 5 turn coil of radius 11cm. If Bh = 3 x

10-5T and p = 22/7, the current through the TG which produces a
deflection of 450 is nearly
a) 100A b)10-3A
c) 1A d) 100mA
124. TG is more sensitive when the deflection is around
a) 00 b) 300
c) 900 d) 450
125. In a TG the deflections are adjusted to be between
a) 300 400 b) 300 450
c) 300 600 d) 00 450
126. The diameters of the coils of two TG are in the ratio 2:1. If for
the same current, the deflection in the two TG are same, the
number of turns are in the ratio
a) 1:2 b) 2:1
c) 1:1 d) 1:4
127. Bio-Savart law expressed in an alternate way is called
a) B-S law b) Induction law
c) Ampere's circuital law
d) Kirchoff's law
128. Ampere's circuital law is written as
a) b)
c) d)
129. Ampere's circuital law is true
a) only for straight conductor
b) only for circular loops
c) for conductors and paths of any shape
d) only under certain conditions
130. A solenoid is a
a) device to measure current
b) metal coated loops
c) short spaciously round coil
d) long closely wound helical coil

131. At the interior mid point, of a solenoid the magnetic field is
a) parallel to the axis
b) perpendicular to the axis
c) zero
d) curved lines
132. Field outside the solenoid is
a) strong b) weak
c) very weak d) zero
133. The direction of the magnetic field due to a solenoid is given

by
a) right hand cork screw rule
b) ampere's swimming rule
c) end rule
d) right hand palm rule
134. An ideal solenoid is one whose
a) length and radius are same
b) length is small compared to radius
c) radius is small compared to length
d) length is half of its radius
135. The magnetic field within the solenoid having n turns per
metre length and carrying a current of I ampere is given by
a) nI b) 0nI
c) 4p0nI d) 0nI/e
136. When a soft iron core is inserted inside a solenoid, the
magnetic field
a) decreases
b) does not change
c) increases by r times
d) increase by 0 times
137. When a current carrying solenoid is freely suspended it comes
to rest
a) along north-south b) along east-west
c) vertical direction d) and oscilates
138. The magnetic polarity of the current carrying solenoid is given
by
a) End rule
b) right hand thumb rule
c) Biot-Savart law
d) Swimming rule
139. A solenoid of length 1.5m and 4cm diameter having 10 turns

per cm. A current of 5A is flowing through it. The magnetic
induction at axis inside the solenoid is
a) 4p x 10-5 T b) 2p x 10-5 T
c) 2p x 105 T d) 4p x 105 T
140. A current of I ampere flows along an infinitely long straight
thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction at any point inside
the tube is
a) 8 b) zero
c) d)
141. The force on a charged particle moving inside a magnetic field
is known as ______ force
a) Lorentz b) Coulomb's
c) Thomson d) repulsive
142. The magnetic Lorentz force
a) b) F=v(q x B)
c) F=B(q x v) d) F=q(B x V)
143. The force experienced by a stationary charge in a magnetic
field is
a) attractive b) repulsive
c) very high d) zero
144. The force experienced by a charge moving along the direction
of the magnetic induction is

a) high b) low
c) zero d) none
145. The magnitude of the force acting on a charge moving in a
direction perpendicular to the magnetic induction is
a) zero b) BqV
c) d) -BqV
146. A positively charged particle moving with velocity v enters a

region of space having a constant induction B. The particle will
experience the maximum deflection when the angle between the
vectors v and B is
a) 450 b) 900
c) 1800 d) 300
147. A charge moving with velocity v in x-direction is subjected to a
field of induction in the negative x-direction, the charge will
a) retard along x axis
b) move along a circular path
c) remain unaffected
d) starts moving in a elliptical path
148. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are
pointed in the same direction. If an electron is projected in the same
direction, the electrons
a) velocity will increase
b) velocity will decrease
c) will turn to its left
d) will turn to its right
149. The work done by a magnetic field, on moving charge is
a) zero because F and V are parallel
b) positive because F and V are perpendicular
c) zero because F and V are perpendicular
d) negative because F and V are parallel
150. When a charged particle moves in a magnetic field, its KE

always
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) increases or decreases depending upon the projection of particle
151. A proton enters a magnetic field of flux density 2wb/m 2 with

a velocity 2x10 7 m/s at an angle 300 with the field the force on the
proton is
a) 0.032x10 -12 N b) 0.32x10 -12 N
c) 3.2x10 -12N d) 32x10 -12 N
152. When a charged particle enters inside a magnetic field
perpendicular to the field it traces
a) an elliptical path b) a circular path
c) a curved path d) a straight line path
153. The radius of the circular path traced by a particle moving
inside a magnetic field is
a) Bq/mv b) B/mqv
c) m/Bqv d) mv/Bq
154. If the velocities of two charged particles V1 and V2 moving
inside a magnetic field such that V1 > V2 then their radius of the
circular path will be
(a) r1 > r2 (b) r1 < r2
(c) r1 =r2 (d) r1 << r2
155. The angular frequency of the circular motion of charged
particle in a uniform magnetic field depends upon
(a) Its velocity
(b) Radius of the circular path

156. The angular frequency of the charged particle moving inside a
(a) ?=B/mq (b) ?=Bm/q
(c) ?=Bq/m (d) ?=Bqm
157. The period of circular motion of the charged particle in a
(a) T=2?/mBq (b) T=2?m/Bq
(c) T=2?Bq/m (d) T=2?q/Bm
158. The angular frequency and period of rotation of a particle in a

magnetic field do not depend upon
(a) Velocity of the particle
(b) Magnitude of the charge
(d) Magnetic induction
159. Cyclotron is a device used to
a) Measure charges
b) Measure current
c) Accelerate particles
d) Accelerate charged particles
160. Cyclotron was deviced by
(a) Maxwell (b) Lorentz
(c) Lawrence (d) Ohm
161. The dees of a cyclotron are connected to
(a) An AF amplifier
(b) A low frequency oscillator
(c) A high frequency oscillator
(d) An RF amplifier
162. In a cyclotron, perpendicular to the plane of the dees
(a) A varying magnetic field is applied
(b) A varying electric field is applied
(c) A magnetic field produced by an electromagnet is applied

(d) A constant potential is applied
163. A cyclotron is a
(a) Linear accelerator
(b) Spiral type accelerator
(c) counter
(d) High frequency oscillator
164. In a cyclotron, the centripetal force on a particle of mass m,

charge q and moving with a velocity v is equal to
(a) Bqv (b) Bq
(c) Bq/v (d) Bv/q
165. In a cyclotron
(a) Particle velocity is constant
(b) Radius of the circular path is constant
(c) Frequency of rotation is constant
(d) Both velocity and radius of the circular paths are constant
166. In a cyclotron, the time taken by a particle to describe the semi
circular path
a) ?B/mq b) ?m/Bq
c) ?Bq d) ?q/mB
167. In a cyclotron, the frequency of rotation is given by
a) Bq/2?m (b) B/2?mq
c) 2?m/Bq (d) ?m/2Bq
168. The particle that can be accelerated by a cyclotron is
(a) electron (b) Neutron
(c) a-particle (d) -particle
169. In a cyclotron the frequency of rotation will not be a constant
at high velocities. This is due to the variation of
(a) Mass with velocity
(b) Charge with velocity
(c) Mass with charge (d) Magnetic field

170. Electrons cannot be accelerated in a cyclotron because the
electrons have
(a) Large relativistic mass variation
(b) Small relativistic mass variation
(c) No mass variation (d) Negative charge
171. An electron (m=9x10-31kg, e=1.6x10-19c) moving with a

velocity of 106m/s enters a magnetic field. If it describes a circle of
radius 0.1 m, then strength of magnetic field must be
(a) 4.5x10-5T (b) 1.4x10-5T
(c) 5.5x10-5T (d) 2.6x10-5T
172. The frequency of a charged particle, moving at right angle to
the magnetic field, is independent of
(a) The radius of the circular path
(b) The speed of the particle
(d) The magnetic induction B
173. A uniform magnetic field acts at right angles to the direction of
motion of electron. As a result of this, the electron describes a
circular path of radius 2 cm. If the speed of the electron is doubled,
the radius of the circular path becomes
(a) 4 cm (b) 2 cm
(c) 1 cm (d) 8 cm
174. Radius of curvature of path of a charged particle, in a uniform
magnetic field is directly proportional to
(a) Momentum of the particle
(b) Intensity of the field
(c) Charge on the particle
(d) Energy of the particle
175. A cathode ray beam is bent in a circle of radius 2 cm by a
magnetic induction 4.5 x 10-3 T the velocity of electron is
(a) 3.43 x 107 m/s (b) 5.37 x 107 m/s

(c) 1.23 x 107 m/s (d) 1.58 x 107 m/s
176. A proton, a deuteron and an a-particle enter a magnetic field
perpendicular to the field with the same velocity. Then the ratio of
their radii of circular paths will be
(a) 1 : 2 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 2 : 1
177. An electric field of 1500 v/m and magnetic field of 0.4 T acts
on a moving electron to produce no force. What is the electron
speed ?
(a) 600 m/s (b) 1/600 m/s
(c) 3750 m/s (d) 1/3750 m/s
178. The velocities of two ?-particles A and B in a uniform magnetic
fields is in the ratio of 1 : 3. They move in different circular orbits in
the magnetic field. The ratio of radius of curvatures of their paths is
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
179. A proton and an ?--particle enter a uniform magnetic field
perpendicular with the same speed. If proton takes 20 ms to make 5
revolutions then the periodic time for the ?--particle would be
(a) 5 ms (b) 8 ms
(c) 10 ms (d) 16 ms
180. An electron is moving with a speed of 108 m/s perpendicular
to a uniform magnetic field of induction B. Suddenly induction of
magnetic field is reduced to B/2. The radius of the path becomes
from the original value of r
(a) No change (b) Reduces to r/2
(c) Increases to 2r (d) Stops moving
181. If a charged particle is describing a circle of radius r in a
magnetic field with a time period T, then
(a) T ? r3 (b) T ? r
(c) T ? r2 (d) T ? r0
a) F = Il x B (b) F = B x Il
(c) F = B . Il (d) F = Bil

at an angle of ? with the direction of magnetic field is
a) F = BIl b) F = BIl Cos?
c) F = BIl Sin? d) F = Bqv
184. If the current carrying conductor is placed parallel to the
magnetic field the force experienced by it is
(c) zero (d) None
at an angle 30 with the direction of magnetic field is
(a) F=BIl Sinq (b) F=BIl/2
(c) F=2BIl (d) F=BIl /v2
186. A straight conductor carrying current is placed in an uniform
magnetic field experiences
(a) Mechanical force only
(b) Mechanical couple
(c) Both couple and force
(d) Neither a force nor a couple
187. The direction of the force experienced by a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field is given by
(a) Fleming's right hand rule
(b) Fleming's left hand rule
(c) Ampere's swimming rule
(d) Cork screw rule
188. Two parallel conductors carrying 1A current separated by 1m
apart will experience a force of
(a) 2 x 10-8 N (b) 2 x 10-6 N

(c) 2 x 10-7 N (d) Zero
189. The force between two long parallel current carrying conductor
is
(a) Directly proportional to one of the current
(b) Inversely proportional to the distance between them
(c) Directly proportional to the products of the currents passing
through the conductors
(d) Both (b) and (c)
190. Two parallel wires carrying same current in the same direction
will experience
(a) An attractive force (b) Repulsive force
(c) No force (d) None of the above
191. Two parallel conductors carrying currents in the opposite
direction then the force between them is
(a) attractive (b) Repulsive
(c) No force (d) None
192. Torque experienced by current carrying loop of n turns placed
(a) nBIA Cos? (b) nBIA Sin?
(c) nBIl Sin? (d) nBIl Cos?
193. Torque on a current carrying loop is maximum when it is
placed in a magnetic field at an angle of
(a) 30 (b) 0
(c) 45 (d) 90
194. When a current carrying loop is placed perpendicular to the
magnetic field the torque experienced by it is
(c) zero (d) Infinity
195. A straight wire of length 1m and carrying a current of 7.2A is
placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction 2T. The magnetic

field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire
is
(a) 2N (b) 1.2N
(c) 3N (d) 2.4N
196. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction

attract each other because of
(a) Mutual inductance between them
(b) Potential difference between them
(c) Electric forces between them
(d) Magnetic forces between them
197. If the distance between two current carrying wires is doubled
the force between them becomes
(c) times (d) times
198. The current in a wire is directed towards east and the wire is
placed in magnetic field directed towards north. The force on the
wire is
(a) Vertically upwards
(b) Vertically downwards
(c) Due south (d) Due east
199. If a coil carrying current is placed in a uniform magnetic field,
then
(a) Emf is produced (b) Torque is produced
(d) Torque is not produced
200. The forces existing between two parallel current carrying
conductors is F. If the current in each conductor is doubled, then
the value of the force will be
(a) 2F (b) 4F
(c) 5F (d) F/2
201. Two long parallel wires are placed 10 cm apart. 10A of current
is flowing through each of them in same direction. The force exerted

on each other per unit length is
(a) 2 x 10 -7N attractive
(b) 2 x 10 -4 N repulsive
(c) 2 x 10 -7N repulsive
(d) 2 x 10 -4 N attractive
202. Galvanometer is a device used to

(a) Measure the current in a circuit
(b) Indicate the flow of current in a circuit
(c) Measure the voltage across the conductor
(d) Measure the resistance
203. The most commonly used galvanometers are
(a) Moving magnet galvanometer
(b) Moving spring galvanometer
(c) Moving coil galvanometer
(d) Not specified
204. The magnet used to produce the magnetic field in the moving
coil galvanometer is
(a) Bar magnet (b) Horse shoe magnet
(c) Cylindrical magnet (d) Either (a) or (b)
205. The wire used to suspend the coil of a moving coil
galvanometer is
(a) Phosphor (b) Phosphor bronze
(c) Iron (d) Copper
206. In the galvanometers horse-shoe magnets are used to provide
(a) Uniform magnetic field
(b) Non uniform magnetic field
(c) Radial magnetic field
207. In a radial magnetic field
(a) Plane of the coil is always parallel to the field
(b) Plane of the coil is always perpendicular to the field

(c) All the sides of the coil is parallel to the field
(d) All the sides of the coil is perpendicular to the field
208. The galvanometer constant K is

(a) CA/nB (b) C/nAB
(c) nAB/C (d) nB/CA
209. In the moving coil galvanometer the deflection is
(a) Inversely proportional to the current
(b) Inversely proportional to the square of the current
(c) Directly proportional to the current
(d) Directly proportional to the square of the current
210. The torque on a rectangular coil placed in a uniform magnetic
field is large, when
(a) The number of turns is large
(b) The number of turns is less
(c) The plane of the coil is perpendicular to the field
(d) The area of the coil is small
211. Phosphor-Bronze wire is used for suspension in a moving coil
galvanometer because it has
(a) High conductivity
(b) High resistivity
(c) Large couple per unit twist
(d) Small couple per unit twist
212. The moving coil galvanometers can measure currents of the
order of
(a) 108 A (b) 10-8 A
(c) 108 mA (d) 10-8 mA
213. The type of galvanometer used in experiments where
sensitivity is not required
(a) Moving magnet
(b) Moving coil

(c) Pointer type
214. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer is defined as

(a) The deflection produced when a current of I ampere passes
through
(b) The deflection produced when unit current flows through
(c) The deflection is within 45
(d) The 0 deflection
215. Current sensitivity of a galvanometer is given as
(a) C/nBA (b) nBA/C
(c) nA/CB (d) nCA/B
216. The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by
(a) Increasing number of turns
(b) Increasing the magnetic induction
(c) Decreasing the couple per unit twist
(d) All the above
(a) ?V (b) ?/V
(c) V/? (d) V/I
(a) CG/nBA (b) nBA/C
(c) nBA/G (d) nBA/CG
219. When the number of turns of a galvanometer is doubled then
(a) Current sensitivity doubled, voltage sensitivity remains same
(b) Current sensitivity doubled, voltage sensitivity doubled
(c) Current sensitivity halved, voltage sensitivity doubled
(d) Current sensitivity doubled, voltage sensitivity halved
220. A low resistance is connected in parallel with the galvanometer

(a) To by pass a major part of the current through the resistance
(b) To allow small fraction of current through the galvanometer
(d) None
221. Shunt is a
(a) Low resistance connected in parallel with the galvanometer
(b) High resistance connected in parallel with the galvanometer
(c) Low resistance connected is series with the galvanometer
(d) High resistance connected in series with the galvanometer
222. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter
223. The value of shunt to be connected with the galvanometer is
given by
(a) S = G (Ig / I Ig) (b) S = G (Ig / Ig I)
(c) S = G (Ig / Is Ig) (d) S = G (I / I Ig)
224. The effective resistance of an ammeter is
(a) GS/G+S (b) G+S/GS
(c) G(G+S)/S (d) S(G+S)/G
225. A galvanometer of resistance G O is shunted with SO. The

effective resistance of the combination is Ra. Then which of the
following statement is true?
(a) G is less than S
(b) S is less than Ra but greater than G

(c) Ra is less than both G and S
(d) S is less than both G and Ra
226. In any electrical circuit the ammeter should be connected in
227. The resistance of an ideal ammeter is
(a) Low (b) High
(c) Infinity (d) Zero
228. The instrument used to measure p.d between the two ends of a
current carrying conductor is
(a) galvanometer (b) ammeter
(c) voltmeter (d) Wattmeter
229. To convert a galvanometer in to voltmeter
230. The value of resistance (R) to be connected with a
galvanometer to convert it into voltmeter of range V is
(a) (V/Ig) - G (b) (I/Vg ) - G
(c) G - (V/Ig) (d) (V/Ig) + G
231. The effective resistance of a voltmeter is given as (Rv)
(a) G+R (b) G-R
(c) GR (d) G/R
232. In the electrical circuit the voltmeter should be connected in

233. The resistance of an ideal voltmeter is
(a) zero (b) high
(c) infinite (d) Low
234. Of the following devices, which has small resistance

(a) Moving coil galvanometer
(b) Ammeter of range 0 1 A
(c) Ammeter of range 0 10 A
(d) Voltmeter
235. An ammeter has a resistance of G ohm and a range of I
ampere. The value of resistance used in parallel to convert it into an
ammeter of range nI ampere is
(a) nG (b) (n-1)G
(c) G/n (d) G/n-1
236. A voltmeter has a resistance of G ohm and range V volt. The
value of resistance used in series to convert it into a voltmeter of
range nV volt is
(a) nG (b) (n-1)G
(c) G/n (d) G/n-1
237. The sensitivity of a galvanometer does not depend upon
(a) A very strong magnetic field in the permanent magnet
(b) The current it measures
(c) A very thin, weak suspension
(d) A large number of turns in the coil
238. A moving coil galvanometer has a resistance of 10ohm and
shows full scale deflection for 0.01 A. It can be converted in to a
voltmeter of 10 V by connecting a resistance of
(a) 990 O in series (b) 990 O in parallel
(c) 99 O in series (d) 99 O in parallel
239. The sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer depends on

(a) The angle of deflection
(b) Earth's magnetic field
(c) Torsional constant of the spring
(d) The moment of inertia of the coil
240. The deflection in moving coil galvanometer is reduced to half,
when it is shunted with a 40W coil. The resistance of the
galvanometer is
(a) 60 O (b) 10 O
(c) 40 O (d) 20 O
241. When a current is passed through a moving coil galvanometer,
the coil gets deflected because
(a) Current in the coil produces an electric field
(b) A couple acts on it
(c) The current deflects anything
(d) Current in the coil produces magnetic field
242. A galvanometer of resistance 100 O gives a full scale deflection
for a current of 10-5 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1A,
the resistance to be connected
(a) 1 O in parallel (b) 10-3 O in parallel
(c) 10-3 O in series (d) 105 O in series
243. In a shunted ammeter only 10% of current passes through the
galvanometer of resistance G. The resistance of the shunt is
(a) 9G (b) 10G
(c) G/9 (d) G/10
244. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer is
(a) Directly proportional to the torsional constant
(b) Directly proportional to the number of turns in the coil
(c) Inversely proportional to the area of the coil
(d) Inversely proportional to the current flowing
245. A simple current loop behaves like a

(a) Bar magnet (b) A solenoid
(c) Magnetic material (d) Galvanometer
246. All the magnetic phenomeno is due to circulating electric
current. This is
(a) Coulomb's hypothesis
(b) Ampere's hypothesis
(c) Joule's hypothesis
(d) Maxwell's hypothesis
247. The magnetic moment of a current loop is
(a) M = IA (b) M = I/A

(c) M = A/I (d) M = I2A
248. The direction of the magnetic moment of a current loop is
(a) Along the plane of the loop
(b) Perpendicular to the plane of the loop
(c) Along the direction of the current
(d) Anywhere
249. The electron revolving around the nucleus in a closed path
constitutes an electric current given as
(a) ev/2?r (b) e/2?rv
(c) 2?r/ev (d) 2?r/v
250. The orbital magnetic moment of an electron is given as
(a) el/2m (b) evr/2
(c) e(mvr)/2m (d) All the above
251. The angular momentum of an electron is
(a) mv2/r (b) mvr2
(c) mvr (d) mr2/v
252. Gyromagnetic ratio (l/l) is equal to
(a) e/2m (b) 2m/e
(c) 2em (d) m/2e
253. The constant value of gyromagnetic ratio is

(a) 8.8 x 10 10 kg/c (b) 8.8 x 1010 c/kg
(c) 0.88 x10 10 c/kg (d) 0.88 x 10 10 kg/c
254. The value of plank's constant is
(a) 6.625 x 10 34 JS (b) 6.25 x 10 24 JS
(c) 6.625 x 10 -34 JS (d) 6.625 x 10 24 JS
255. The minimum value of orbital magnetic moment of an electron
is known as
(a) Gyromagnetic ratio (b) Bohr ratio
(c) Bohr magneton (d) All the above
256. Bohr magneton is expressed as
(a) e/4?m (b) eh/4m
(c) e/4?hm (d) eh/4?m

257. The value of Bohr magneton is found to be
(a) 8.8 x 10 10 c/kg (b) 9.27 x 10 -24 Am2
(c) 9.27 x 10 24 Am2 (d) 1.602 x 10 -19 c
258. The resultant magnetic moment of an electron is
(a) Sum of orbital magnetic moment and spin magnetic moment
(b) Spin magnetic moment only
(c) Vector sum of orbital magnetic moment and spin magnetic
moment
(d) All the above
259. A current loop placed in a magnetic field behaves like a
(a) Magnetic dipole (b) Magnetic substance
(c) Magnetic pole (d) All the above
260. A wire of length L metre carrying a current I A is bent in the
form of a circle. Its magnitude of magnetic moment is
(a) IL/4? (b) IL2/4?
(c) I2L2/4? (d) I2L/4?
261. A current carrying small loop behaves like a small magnet. If A

be its area and M its magnetic moment, the current in the loop will
be
(a) M/A (b) A/M
(c) MA (d) A2M
262. In hydrogen atom the electron is making 6.6x1015rev/sec
around the nucleus in an orbit of radius 0.528A. The magnetic
moment will be
(a) 1 x 10 -15 Am2 (b) 1 x 10 -23 Am2
(c) 1 x 10 -23 A2m (d) 1 x 10 -23 A/m2
263. A straight wire carrying current I is turned into a circular loop.
If the magnitude of magnetic moment is M, the length of the wire
will be
(a) 4/?M (b) v4?M/I
(c) v4?I/M (d) M?/4I
264. The magnetic moment of a circular coil carrying current is

(a) Directly proportional to the length of the wire in the coil
(b) Inversely proportional to the length of the wire in the coil
(c) Directly proportional to the square of the length of the wire in
the coil
(d) Inversely proportional to the square of the length of the wire in
the coil
265. Electron of mass m, charge e is traveling with a speed V along
a circular path of radius r at right angles to a uniform magnetic
field B. If the speed of the electron is doubled and the magnetic field
is halved, the resulting path would have a radius
(a) 4r (b) 2r
(c) r/4 (d) r/2
266. When a charged particle enters in a uniform magnetic field, its
kinetic energy
(a) Remains constant (b) increases
(c) Decreases (d) Becomes zero
PART-B
1) State Joule's law of heating **
2) Nichrome is used as a heating element in electric heating devices
why?**
3) What is Seebeck effect? 4) What is peltier effect?
5) What is neutral temperature and temperature of inversion?
6) Define peltier coefficient** 7) What is Thomson effect?
8) Define Thomson coefficient** 9) State Maxwell's right hand cork
screw rule
10) State Biot-Savart law** 11) What is Ampere's circuital law?**
12) Define Ampere** 13) State right hand palm rule 14) State end
rule
15) Electrons cannot be accelerated by cyclotrons why?**
16) Define current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity of a
galvanometer
17) Increasing the current sensitivity does not necessarily increase

the voltage sensitivity why?
PART-C
1) Explain Thomson effect
2) Explain the construction and working of thermopiles
3) Explain magnetic Lorentz force**
4) Explain how a galvanometer is converted into an ammeter**
5) Explain how a galvanometer is converted into an voltmeter**
6) Explain how a current loop acts as a magnetic dipole
7) Derive an expression for the dipole moment of a revolving
electron
PART-D
1) Explain Joule's calorimeter experiment to verify Joule's law of
heating
2) Obtain an expression for the magnetic induction at appoint due
to an infinitely long straight conductor carrying current.
3) Deduce the relation for the magnetic induction at a point along
the axis of a circular coil carrying current
4) Explain in detail the principle, construction and theory of a
tangent galvanometer
5) Applying Ampere's circuital law, find the magnetic induction due
to a straight solenoid.
6) Explain the motion of a charged particle in a uniform magnetic
field.
7) Explain the principle, construction and working of a cyclotron.
8) Deduce an expression for the force on a current carrying
conductor placed in a magnetic field
9) Deduce an expression for the force between two long parallel
current-carrying conductors.
10) Derive an expression for the torque experienced by a current
loop in a uniform magnetic field
11) Explain in detail the principle, construction and the theory of
moving coil galvanometer
Blue-Print
2 x 1= 2 1 x 3 = 3 1 x 5 = 5 1 x 10 = 10
Total 20 marks
1) The branch of physics which deals with the study of motion of
electric charges is called
(a) Static electricity (b) Dynamic electricity
(c) Current electricity
(d) Electrostatics
2) In an uncharged metallic conductor at rest
(a) All electrons are moving in random direction
(b) Some electrons are moving in random direction
(c) All the electrons are moving in definite direction
(d) Some electrons are moving in definite direction
3) The energy responsible for the removal of outer electrons from
individual atoms of a material is
(a) Potential energy (b) Kinetic energy
(c) Magnetic energy (d) Thermo dynamic energy
4) The external energy necessary to drive the free electrons in a
definite direction is called
(a) Electromagnetic force (b) Electrostatic force
(c) Electromotive force (d) Electro dynamic force
5) Electromotive force is a
(a) Force required to move a unit positive charge
(b) Work done required to move a unit positive charge
(c) Electric charge in the conductor
(d) Number of free electrons in the conductor
6) The unit of emf is
(a) J (b) J c -1
(c) N (d) J -1 c
7) The flow of free electrons in a conductor constitutes
(a) Potential (b) Current
(c) Resistance (d) emf
8) If a net charge q passes through any cross section of a conductor

in time t, then the current,
(a) I = qt (b) I = q/t
(c) I = q + t (d) I = t / q
9) The unit of current is

(a) Volt (b) Ampere
(c) Coulomb (d) Watt
10) Ampere is equivalent to
(a) c s (b) c-1 s
(c) c s-1 (d) c-1 s-1
11) Which of the following is a scalar quantity
(a) Current density (b) Current
(c) Force (d) Acceleration
12) The direction of conventional current is taken as the direction of
flow of
(a) Electrons (b) Charge carriers
(c) Positive charges (d) Energy
13) The direction of the conventional current is
(a) In the direction of flow of electrons
(b) Opposite the flow of electrons
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
14) The current flowing through a conductor if 1 million electrons
are flowing in 1 millisecond through a cross section of it is
(a) 16 x 10 -10 A (b) 160x 10 -10 A
(c) 1.6 x 10 -10 A (d) 1.6 x 10 -19 A
15) When an electric field is applied between the ends of a

conductor the free electrons experience a force of
(a) F = E / e (b) F = e / E
(c) F = e - E (d) F = E e
16) The acceleration of an electron in an electric field is
(a) a = Em/e (b) a = em/E
(c) a = m/eE (d) a = Ee/m
17) The drift velocity (Vd) and mobility are related as
(a) Vd = E (b) = Vd E
(c) Vd = / E (d) = E / Vd
18) The drift velocity acquired per unit electric field is
(a) Current density (b) Mobility
(c) Electron density (d) Velocity gradient
19) Mobility is given as

(a) = em/? (b) = e?/m
(c) = m/e? (d) = m?/e
20) The unit of mobility is
(a) m2 v-1 s-1 (b) m2 v-1 s
(c) m-2 v-1 s-1 (d) m2 v s-1
21) The drift velocity is of the order of
(a) 0.1 m s-1 (b) 0.1 mm s-1
(c) 0.1 cm s-1 (d) 0.01 cm s-1
22) The charge of 60 C passes through an electric lamp in 2
minutes. Then the current in the lamp is
(a) 30 A (b) 1 A
(c) 0.5 A (d) 5 A
23) Quantity of charge passing per unit time through unit area,
taken perpendicular to the direction of flow of charge is

(a) Electric current (b) Current density
(c) Charge density (d) Current intensity
24) The current density J is given by
(a) I / A (b) A / I
(c) A I (d) qt / A
25) Which of the following is a vector quantity
(a) Charge density (b) Current
(c) Current density (d) Electric potential
26) The unit of current density is
(a) Am 2 (b) A / m
(c) A-1m-2 (d) Am-2
27) The unit of current density is
(a) c s m-2 (b) c s-1 m-2
(c) c-1 s-1 m2 (d) c-1 s m-2
28) Let n be the number of free electrons per unit volume, then the
number of free electrons in a conductor of length L & area A is
(a) n A / L (b) n L / A
(c) n A L (d) A L / n
29) The relation between current and drift velocity is
(a) I = nAVd / e (b) I = nAVd e
(c) I = nAe / Vd (d) I = nVd e / A
30) The relation between current density and drift velocity is

(a) J = ne / Vd (b) J = n Vd / e
(c) J = neVd (d) J = nAVd e / A
31) The speed at which the current travels, in a conductor is nearly
(a) 3 x 10 -4 m/s (b) 3 x 10 -5 m/s

(c) 4 x 10 6 m/s (d) 3 x 10 8 m/s
32) If v is the p.d across a conductor at temperature T, then drift
velocity is proportional to
(a) vV (b) V
(c) vT (d) T
33) A conductor carries a current of 50 A. If the area of cross
section is 50 mm 2, then the value of current density is
(a) 0.5 Am-2 (b) 1Am2
(c) 1 Am-2 (d) 10 -6 Am-2
34) When a current I is set up in a conductor of
radius r, the drift velocity is Vd. If the same current is set up
through a wire of radius 2r, then the drift velocity will be
(a) 4 Vd (b) 2 Vd
(c) Vd /2 (d) Vd /4
35) A flow of 10 7 electrons per second in a conducting wire
constitutes a current of
(a) 1.6 x 10 -26 A (b) 1.6 x 10 26 A
(c) 1.6 x 10 -12 A (d) 1.6 x 10 12 A
36) A conductor carries a current of 3mA. The number of electrons
passing through it in 1 minute is about
(a) 10 25 (b) 10 23
(c) 10 20 (d) 10 18
37) Constant current is flowing through a conductor of non-uniform
area of cross section. The charge flowing per second through the
area of conductor at any cross section is
(a) Proportional to area of cross section.
(b) Inversely proportional to area of cross section
(c) Independent of the area of cross section
(d) Dependent on the length of the conductor
38) When current I is flowing through a conductor, the drift velocity

is Vd. If 2I is the current through the same metal but having double
the area of cross section, then the drift velocity will be
(a) Vd (b) Vd / 2
(c) Vd / 4 (d) 4V
39) When there is an electric current through a conducting wire
along its length, then an electric field must exist
(a) Outside the wire but parallel to it
(b) Outside the wire but perpendicular to it
(c) Inside the wire but parallel to it
(d) Inside the wire but perpendicular to it
40) When no current is passed through a conductor
(a) The free electrons do not move
(b) The average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is
not zero
(c) Electrons are moving in a particular direction
(d) The average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time
is zero
41) Which of the characteristic of electron determines the current in
a conductor
(a) Thermal velocity alone
(b) Drift velocity alone
42) A capacitor of 10 F has a p.d of 40V across it. If it is
discharged in 0.2 s, the average current during the discharge is
(a) 2 mA (b) 4 mA
(c) 1 mA (d) 0.5 mA
43) A metallic block has no p.d applied across it. Then mean
velocity of free electrons at absolute temperature T is
(a) Proportional to T (b) Proportional to vT
(c) Zero (d) Finite but independent of T
44) Drift velocity is equal to
(a) I/ne (b) I/neA
(c) I/ne (d) neA/I
45) The amount of charge q passed in time t through a cross section

of a wire is q = 5t 2 + 3t + 1. The value of current at time t = 5s is
(a) 9 A (b) 49 A
(c) 53 A (d) 141 A
46) Two wires of the same material but of different diameters carry
the same current I. If the ratio of their diameters is 2:1, then the
corresponding ratio of their mean drift velocities will be
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 1 : 4
47) The relation between current and p.d is given by
(a) Ohm's law (b) Kirchoff's law
(c) Faraday's law (d) Lenz's law
48) According to Ohm's law
(a) I ? 1/V (b) I ? V
(c) IV = Const (d) I ? V 2
49) According to Ohm's law
(a) V = IR (b) V = mLI/nAe 2 ?
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) and (b)
50) The unit of resistance is
(a) Ohm (b) mho
(c) 1/ohm (d) Ohm metre
51) The reciprocal of resistance is

(a) Specific resistance (b) Resistivity
(c) Conductance (d) Conductivity
52) The unit of conductance is
(a) Ohm (b) mho
(c) Ohm metre (d) Ohm metre -1
53) Ohm's law holds good only when the current in the conductor is
(a) high (b) low
(c) steady (d) unsteady
54) Ohm is equivalent to
(a) A / V (b) V / A
(c) AV (d) A-1 V -1
55) The unit of resistivity is
(a) Ohm (b) Ohm metre-1
(c) Ohm metre (d) mho metre
56) Electrical conductivity ? =

(a) ? (b) ?2
(c) 1/ ?
(d) 1/ ?2
57) Unit of conductivity is
(a) ?m (b) ?m-1
(c) ?-1m (d) ?-1m-1
58) The metals and alloys have the resistivity of the order of
(a) 10 6 10 8 ?m (b) 10 8 10 14 ?m
(c) 10 -6 10 -8 ?m (d) 10 -8 10 -14 ?m
59) Which of the following carries current with appreciable loss of
energy
(a) glass (b) teflon
(c) germanium (d) Tungsten
60) The resistivity of the insulators is of the order of
(a) 10 -8 10 -4 ?m (b) 10 8 10 14 ?m
(c) 10 -2 10 2 ?m (d) 10 -6 10 -8 ?m
61) Which of the following offer very high resistance to the flow of
current
(a) Silver (b) Nichrome
(c) Constantan (d) Quartz
62) The resistivity of semiconductors is of the order of
(a) 10 -6 10 -8?m (b) 10 -2 10 2 ?m
(c) 10 8 10 14 ?m (d) 10 6 10 8 ?m
63) * Resistivity of Al at room temperature in ?m is
(a) 1.6 x 10 -8 (b) 1.2 x 10 -8
(c) 2.7 x 10 -8 (d) 10 x 10 -8
64) * Resistivity of silicon at room temperature in ?m
(a) 23 (b) 2300
(c) 230 (d) 2.3
65) The phenomenon of super conductivity was first observed by
(a) Faraday (b) Kirchoff
(c) Maxwell (d) Onnes
66) Mercury becomes super conductor at a temperature of
(a) 4.2 C (b) -268.8 C
(c) 4.2/ K (d) 0.42 K
67) Conductors become superconductors at
(a) High temperatures (b) Low temperatures

(c) Moderate temperatures (d) Any temperature
68) The first theoretical explanation of super conductor was given
by
(a) Bardeen (b) Cooper
(c) Schrieffer (d) All the three
69) The resistivity of super conductors is
(a) low (b) high
(c) zero (d) infinity
70) The conductance and conductivity of a super conductor are
respectively
(a) Zero, zero (b) Zero, infinity
(c) Infinity, zero (d) Infinity, infinity
71) The temperature at which a conductor becomes super
conductor is known as
(a) Transition temperature (b) Critical temperature
(c) Curie temperature (d) Both (a) and (b)
72) At the critical temperature of a conductor

(a) The electrical resistivity drops to zero
(b) The magnetic lines are excluded from the material
(c) There is a discontinuous charge in specific heat
(d) All the above
73) Carbon resistor consists of
(a) A ceramic coating
(b) A ceramic core
(c) A ceramic core on which a thin layer of crystalline carbon is
deposited
(d) All the above
74) The tolerance or percentage of reliability of a resistor is

indicated by
(a) Brown ring
(b) Red or white or blue ring
(c) Brown or red or gold ring
(d) Red or brown or silver or gold ring
75) The tolerance of silver ring is
(a) 10% (b) 5%
(c) 2% (d) 1%
76) The tolerance of gold ring is
(a) 10% (b) 5%
(c) 2% (d) 1%
77) The tolerance of red ring is
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 2% (d) 1%
78) The percentage of reliability of brown ring is
(a) 10% (b) 1%
(c) 5% (d) 2%
79) If there is no coloured ring at the end of a resistor, its tolerance
value is
(a) 10% (b) 15%
(c) 25% (d) 20%
80) The resistance of the following carbon resistor is
(a) 47 ? with 10% tolerance
(b) 470 ? with 10% tolerance
(c) 47 K? with 10% tolerance
(d) 470 K? with 10% tolerance
81) Colour codes 3 and 5 represents __________ & ___________
(a) Red, green (b) Orange, green
(c) Brown, violet (d) Orange, blue

82) For conductors, the resistance
(a) Increases with increase in temperature
(b) Decreases with increase in temperature
(c) Increases with decrease in temperature
(d) Decreases with decrease in temperature
83) If R o is the resistance of a conductor at 0 C, then its
resistance at t C is given as
(a) R t = R o (1 - ?t) (b) R t = R o/ (1 + ?t)
(c) Rt = R o/(1 - ?t) (d) R t = R o (1 + ?t)
84) The temperature coefficient of resistance is given by
(a) ? = Rt + Ro/R o t (b) R t - R o / R o t
(c) R o - R t / R o t (d) R t - R o / t
85) The temperature coefficient of resistance is the value which

shows
(a) The resistance
(b) The quality of the material
(c) The variation of resistance with the temperature
(d) The variation of resistance with the length
86) The length of a conductor is halved, its conductivity will be
(a) Doubled (b) Halved
(c) Quadrupled (d) Unchanged
87) The length of a conductor is doubled. Its conductance will be
(a) Unchanged (b) Halved

(c) Doubled (d) Quadrupled
88) The length and area of cross section of a conductor are doubled,
its resistance
89) The relation between current density and conductivity is
(a) J = ? / E (b) J = ? + E
(c) J = ? E (d) J = ? _ E
90) The dimensions of electrical resistance is
(a) ML2T-2A-2 (b) ML2T-3A-2
(c) M2L2T-3A-2
(d) No dimension
91) The dimension of electrical conductivity is
(a) ML-3T3A2 (b) M-1L3T3A2
(c) M-1L-3T3A2
(d) M-1L-3T-3A-2
92) The specific resistance (?) of a conductor is given as
(a) m / ne2? (b) ne2 ?/m
(c) 1/R 2 (d) me 2 /?n
93) The length of a conductor is doubled, and its radius is halved,
its specific resistance is
94) A p.d of 20V is applied across a conductance of
8 ? -1 . the current in the conductor is
(a) 2.5A (b) 28A
(c) 160A (d) 16A
95) The resistance of a wire is R ?. The wire is stretched to double
its length keeping volume constant. Now the resistance of the wire
become
(a) 4R (b) 2R
(c) R/2 (d) R/4
96) If n is the number density of free electrons in a metallic wire,
then the resistance is proportional to
(a) n (b) n 2
(c) 1/n (d) 1/ n 2
97) Which has the positive ? value
(a) Glass (b) Quartz
(c) Rubber (d) Copper
98) In which of the following substance the resistance decreases
with an increase of temperature
(a) Copper (b) Germanium
(c) Silver (d) Constantan
99) A thermistor has
(a) Positive ? (b) Negative ?
(c) ? = 0 (d) ? = positive or negative
100) The temperature coefficient is low for
(a) Conductors (b) Insulators
(c) Semiconductors (d) Alloys
101) Conductivity of a conductor depends on
(a) Length (b) Area of cross section
(c) Volume (d) Temperature
102) A given piece of wire of length l, cross sectional area A and
resistance R is stretched uniformly a wire of length 2l. The new
resistance is
(a) R/2 (b) R
(c) 2R (d) 4R
103) Specific resistance of copper, constantan and silver are 1.78 x

10 -8 , 39.1 x10 -8, and 10 -8 ? m respectively. which of these is the
best conductor of heat and electricity
(a) Copper (b) Constantan
(c) Silver (d) All of them
104) On increasing the temperature of a conductor its resistance

increases because
(a) Relaxation time decreases (b) Mass of the electron increases
(c) Electron density decreases (d) Relaxation time increases
105) A piece of copper and silicon are cooled from room temperature
to 100 K. the resistance of
(a) Each of them increases
(b) Each of them decreases
(c) Copper increases and that of silicon decreases
(d) Copper decreases and that of silicon increases
106) A nichrome wire 1m long and 1mm2 area of cross section
draws 4A at 2 Volt. The resistivity of nichrome is
(a) 1 x 10 -7 ?m (b) 2 x 10 -7 ?m
(c) 4 x 10 -7 ?m (d) 5 x 10 -7 ?m
107) A platinum wire has a resistance of 10? at 0 C and 20? at
273 C. The value of temperature coefficient of platinum is
(a) (1/273) K (b) 273 K
(c) (1/273) C-1 (d) 273 C
108) When the p.d applied across a solid conductor is increased,

the rate of flow of electrons
(a) Remains same (b) Decreases
(c) Increases (d) Decreases sharply
109) In the case of insulators. As temperature decreases, resistivity

(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains constant (d) Becomes zero
110) If the resistance of a coil is 2? at 0 C and ? = 0.004/ C, then

the resistance at 100 C is
(a) 1.4? (b) 0 ?
(c) 4 ? (d) 2.8?
111) When resistors are connected in series which is the same
through each resistor
(a) Voltage (b) Current
(c) Power (d) All the above
112) If three resistors R1 , R2, R3 are connected in series, then the
effective resistance is
(a) Rs = R1 + R2 + R3 (b) 1/Rs =1/R1 +1/R2 +1/ R3
(c) Rs =1/R1 +1/R2 +1/ R3 (d) 1/Rs = R1 + R2 + R3
113) When resistors are in parallel, which of the following is the
same across the resistors
(a) Current (b) Voltage
(c) Power (d) All the above
114) When two resistors R1, R2 are connected in parallel then the
effective resistance is
(a) Rp = R1 + R2 (b) Rp =R1R2 / R1 + R2
(c) Rp =R1 +R2/ R1R2 (d) 1/ Rp = R1 + R2
115) When two 2? resistances are in parallel the effective resistance
is
(a) 2? (b) 1?
(c) 4? (d) 0.5?
116) A wire of resistance 6? is cut into three equal pieces, which are
joined to form a triangle. The equivalent resistance between any two
corners of the triangle is
(a) 3/4 ? (b) 4/3 ?
(c) 2 ? (d) 4 ?
117) 2,4 and 6 ?-1 are the conductances of three conductors. When
they are joined in parallel their equivalent conductances will be
(a) 12?-1 (b) 1/12?-1
(c) 12/11?-1 (d) 11/12?-1
118) The smallest resistance that can be obtained by the
combination of n resistors, each of resistance R is
(a) n2 / R (b) n R
(c) R/n2 (d) R/n
119) A wire has resistance 90? is bent in the form of an equilateral

triangle. The effective resistance between two corners is
(a) 30? (b) 60?
(c) 20? (d) 90?
120) A wire of resistance R is divided in 10 equal parts and

connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of such
combination is
(a) 0.01R (b) 0.1R
(c) 10R (d) 100R
121) The electric current in an external circuit flows from
(a) Negative to positive terminal
(b) Positive to negative terminal
(c) Positive to positive terminal
(d) Negative to negative terminal
122) In the electrolyte of the cell the current flows from

(a) Positive to positive terminal
(b) Negative to negative terminal
(c) Positive to negative terminal
(d) Negative to positive terminal
123) The resistance offered to current flow by the electrolyte of the
cell is termed as
(a) Resistance (b) External resistance
(c) Electrolytic resistance (d) Internal resistance
124) A freshly prepared cell has ____ internal resistance

(a) zero (b) low
(c) high (d) Infinite
125) The internal resistance of a cell is given by r =
(a) (E + V) x R / V (b) (E + V) x V / R
(c) (E V) x R / V (d) (E + V) x R / V
126) Kirchoff's first law is
(a) Heat law (b) Energy law
(c) Current law (d) Voltage law
127) Kirchoff's first law supports the law of conservation
(a) energy (b) power
(c) momentum (d) Charge
128) Kirchoff's first law can be given as
(a) ?V = 0 (b) ? I = ?
(c) ? I = 0
(d) ? I = ? V
129) Kirchoff's second is

(a) Loop law (b) Voltage law
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
130) According to Kirchoff's second law
(a) ??V = ? (b) ??V = 0
(c) ? ?I = 0 (d) ??V = ? I
131) Kirchoff's second law supports the law of conservation of
(a) energy (b) current
(c) charge (d) Momentum
132) Kirchoff's second law can be stated as
(a) ?E = 0 (b) ?E = ? I
(c) ?E = ? I R (d) ?E = ?
133) Wheat stone's bridge is an application of
(a) Ohm's law (b) Ampere's law
(c) Kirchoff's law (d) Faraday's law
134) In a Wheat stone's bridge the condition for bridge balance is
(a) PQ = RS (b) P/S = R/Q
(c) P/Q = R/S (d) P+Q = R+S
135) Which of the following is the form of Wheat stone's bridge.
(a) Potentiometer (b) Multimeter
(c) Metre bridge (d) Galvanometer
136) The wire used in metre bridge is
(a) Copper (b) Nichrome
(c) Manganin (d) Constantan
137) Manganin wire is used in the metre bridge and potentiometer
because
(a) It has low resistance
(b) It has high temperature coefficient of resistance
(c) It is cheap
(d) It has low temperature coefficient of resistance
138) Wheat stone's bridge is better than the other methods of
measuring resistances because
(a) It does not involve ohm's law
(b) It is based on kirchoff's law
(c) It has four resistor arms
(d) It is a null balance
139) In metre bridge the known and unknown resistances are
interchanged. The error so removed is
(a) End correction (b) Index error
(c) Random error (d) Due to temperature effect
140) In a metre bridge the balancing length from the left end is 20
cm. The value of the unknown resistance is (standard resistance of
1?is in the right gap)
(a) 0.8? (b) 0.5?
(c) 0.4? (d) 0.25?
141) The internal resistance of a cell of emf 2V is 0.1?. It is
connected to a resistance of 3.9? . The voltage across the cell will be
(a) 0.5V (b) 1.9V
(c) 1.95V (d) 2V
142) In the Wheat stone's bridge P = 3?, Q = 2?, R = 6? and S = 8?.
In order to obtain balance shunt resistance across S must be
(a) 2? (b) 3?
(c) 6? (d) 8?
143) Potentiometer is an instrument used to measure
(a) current (b) resistance
(c) Potential difference (d) charge

144) If E is the emf of the cell connected across and l is the
balancing length then the principle of potentiometer is given as
(a) E ? 1/l (b) E ? 1/l2
(c) E ? l (d) E ? l 2
145) The relation to compare the emf's of two cells using the
potentiometer is E 1 / E 2 =
(a) l 1 + l 2 (b) l 1 - l 2
(c) l 1 / l 2 (d) l 1 x l 2
146) The difference of potentials between the two terminals of a cell
in an open circuit is called
(a) Potential difference (b) Electrostatic force
(c) Electromotive force (d) Current
147) The emf of a cell is independent of

(a) charges (b) Type of the cell
(c) Internal resistance (d) External resistancee
148) The difference in potentials between any two points in a closed
circuit is called
(a) Emf (b) Resistance
(c) Current (d) Potential difference
149) In a potentiometer experiment the balancing length with a cell
in open circuit is 250 cm on shunting the cell with a resistance of
2?, the balancing length becomes 200 cm, The internal resistance
of the cell is
(a) 0.1? (b) 0.5?
(c) 1? (d) 2?
150) In a potentiometer, the balance point is obtained on the 6th

wire. To shift this point to the 9th wire, we should
(a) Decrease the resistance in the main circuit
(b) Increase the resistance in the main circuit
(c) Decrease resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be
measured
(d) Increase resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be
measured
151) In the experiment of potentiometer, at balance there is no
current in the
(a) Main circuit (b) Galvanometer circuit
(c) Potentiometer circuit (d) Both main and galvanometer circuits
152) If a charge q, flows between two points having a potential
difference V, then the work done in moving the charge is
(a) VI (b) VIt
(c) VI/t (d) Vt/I
153) Electric power is given by
(a) IR (b) IR 2
(c) VI (d) V / I
154) Unit of electric power is
(a) Joule (b) Volt ampere
(c) Volt (d) Joule / coulomb
155) Electric power is given by

(a) I R (b) I2 R
(c) I R 2 (d) I2 R 2
156) The unit of electrical energy is
(a) Watt (b) Joule
(c) Watt / hour (d) Volt
157) The practical unit of energy is

(a) Watt (b) Kilowatt
(c) Kilowatt hour (d) Joule / C
158) 1 KWh is equal to
(a) 3.6 KJ (b) 36 J
(c) 3.6 mJ (d) 3.6 MJ
159) Which of the following can be used to express energy (i) wh, (ii)
VC, (iii) VAS 2 ,(iv) A 2 ? S
(a) (i), (ii) (b) (ii), (iii), (iv
(c) (i), (ii), (iv) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
160) The power dissipated by a light bulb with 4 ohm resistance
when connected in parallel to 12 V battery is
(a) 0.36W (b) 0.036W
(c) 3.6W (d) 36W
161) Two electric bulbs have tungsten filament of same length, If
their powers are 60W and 100W then
(a) Both filaments are of same thickness
(b) 100W bulb has thicker filament
(c) 60W bulb has thicker filament
(d) Nothing can be predicted
162) An electric iron which when hot has a resistance of 80?, is
used on a 200V source. Then the electric energy spent in KWh if it
is used for 2 hours is
(a) 1KWh (b) 2KWh
(c) 8KWh (d) 32KWh
163) An instrument used to measure electrical power consumed is
(a) Ammeter (b) Galvanometer
(c) Watt meter (d) Volt meter
164) The chemical changes produced in a liquid when a passage of
electric current passed through is called

(a) Chemical change (b) Physical change
(c) Ionization (d) Electrolysis
165) Liquids in which charged ions can be dissociated in opposite
directions are called
(a) Charged liquids (b) Active liquids
(c) Electrolytes (d) Passive liquids
166) The plates through which current enters and leaves an
electrolyte are known as
(a) Anodes (b) Cathodes
(c) Electrodes (d) Plates
167) (i) The electrode towards which negative ions travel is called
cathode.
(ii) The electrode towards which positive ions travel is called
cathode. Which of the above statement is/are wrong?
(a) (i) (b) (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
168) (i) Positive ions are called Cations
(ii) Negative ions are called Anions.
(a) (i) is true but (ii) is false (b) (i) is false but (ii) is true
(c) Both (i) & (ii) are true (d) Both (i) & (ii) are false
169) According to Faraday's first law, if q is the charge passing
through an electrolyte and m is the mass of a substance liberated
then
(a) m ? 1/q (b) m ? q
(c) m ? q 2 (d) m ? 1/q 2
170) According to Faraday's first law the mass of the substance
liberated m is equal to
(a) Z I / t (b) Z t / I
(c) Z I t (d) I t / Z
171) The unit of electrochemical equivalent is

(a) Kg C (b) Kg / C
(c) C / Kg (d) Kg -1 C-1
172) If 1 A current flows for 1 minute through a silver voltameter,
and 0.067 gm of silver is deposited on the cathode, the
electrochemical equivalent of silver is
(a) 1.17 x 10 -3g/C (b) 1.117 x 10-6 Kg / C
(c) 1.117 x 10-3Kg/C (d) 1.117 x 10-6 C/ Kg
173) If m is the mass of a substance liberated and E is the chemical

equivalent of the substance, according to Faraday's second law
(a) m ? 1/E (b) m ? 1/E 2
(c) m ? E 2 (d) m ? E
174) * Chemical equivalent is equal to
(a) Relative atomic mass/valency (b) Mass of the atom/
1/12 of the mass of C12 atom x valency
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Only (a) not (b)
175) The electrolyte used in the experiment to verify the Faraday's
second law is
(a) Ag No3 (b) Cu SO 4
176) The copper and silver voltameters are connected in series and
electric current is passed through them, 1.6 g of copper is
deposited. Then the mass of silver deposited is (given chemical
equivalent of Copper and Silver are 32 and 108 respectively)
(a) 54 g (b) 5.4 g
(c) 540 g (d) 5.4 Kg
177) The starting point to the development of electric cells is the

experiment by
(a) Alassandro volta (b) Lugie Galvani and Lucia
(c) Faraday (d) All the above
178) The first electrochemical battery was introduced by
(a) Faraday (b) Galvani
(c) Lucia (d) Volta
179) A cell could be made by using
(a) A metal and an electrolyte
(b) Two dissimilar metals
(c) Two dissimilar metals and water
(d) Two dissimilar metals and an electrolyte
180) The electrodes used in the voltaic cell are
(a) Cu, Ag (b) Cu, Zn
(c) Cu, Pb (d) Zn, Ag
181) The electrolyte used in the voltaic cell is
(a) Conc. Sulphuric acid (b) Nitric acid
(c) Dil. Sulphuric acid
(d) Hydro chloric acid
182) The direction of flow of current inside the voltaic cell is from
(a) Cu to Zn (b) Zn to Cu
(c) First Cu to Zn and then Zn to Cu (d) Not mentioned
183) _______ is the anode in the voltaic cell
(a) Copper (b) Zinc
(c) Either (a) or (b) (d) None of the above
184) The emf of voltaic cell is
(a) 1 V (b) 1.08 V
(c) 1.80 V (d) 0.8 V
185) Electrochemical equivalent of a substance is the mass of a
substance liberated at an electrode in half a second during
electrolysis by a current of
(a) 5 A (b) 6 A
(c) 8 A (d) 2 A
186) What carries current in an electrolyte
(a) Electrons only (b) -ve ions only
(c) + ve ions only (d) Both +ve and ve ions
187) According to Faraday's law of electrolysis, the amount of
decomposition is proportional to
(a) 1/time for which current passes
(b) Electrochemical equivalent of the substance
(c) 1/current
(d) 1/electrochemical equivalent
188) Faraday's laws are consequence of conservation of
(a) Energy (b) Energy & magnetic field
(c) Charge (d) Magnetic field
189) The primary cells are the one in which
(a) Electric energy is derived by irreversible chemical actions
(b) Electric energy is derived by reversible chemical action
(c) Recharging electrically is possible
(d) All the above
190) Which of the following is not a primary cell
(a) Daniel cell (b) Leclanche cell
(c) Dry cell (d) Lead-acid accumulator
191) The anode and cathode in the Daniel cell are

(a) Copper and Zinc (b) Zinc and Copper
(c) Copper and Silver (d) Silver and Copper
192) The anode and cathode in the leclanche cell are
(a) Copper and Zinc (b) Carbon and Zinc

(c) Zinc and Copper (d) Zinc and Carbon
193) The electrolyte used in the leclanche cell is
(a) NH 3 Cl (b) Cu SO 4
(c) H 2 SO 4 (d) Mn O 2
194) The emf produced by a Daniell cell is
(a) 10.8 V (b) 1.08 V
(c) 0.108 V (d) 1.5 V
195) The porous pot in the leclanche cell contains
(a) Mn O 2 and saw dust (b) Mn O and charcoal
(c) Mn O 2 and charcoal (d) Mn O 2 and CO2
196) The emf of the leclanche cell is about

(a) 1.08 V (b) 1.5 V
(c) 1.8V (d) 1.05 V
197) Leclanche cell can supply a current of
(a) 0.25 A (b) 2.5A
(c) 0.025 A (d) 0.25 mA
198) The cells in which chemical reactions take place in reversible
way are called as
(a) Primary cells (b) Simple cells
(c) Voltaic cells (d) Secondary cells
199) The chemical process of obtaining current from a secondary
cell is
(a) charging (b) Recharging
(c) discharging (d) All the above
200) Charging is the process of reproducing
(a) current (b) Emf
(c) Voltage (d) Active materials
201) The electrolyte used in the lead acid accumulator is

(a) Conc. Sulphuric acid (b) Hydro Chloric acid
(c) Nitric acid (d) Dil. Sulphuric acid
202) The positive and negative electrodes used in the lead acid
accumulator are respectively
(a) Pb and Pb O 2 (b) Pb O 2 and Pb
(c) Pb and Mn O 2 (d) Mn O 2 and Pb
203) The emf produced by a freshly charged lead-acid accumulator

is
(a) 1.2 V (b) 2 V
(c) 2.2 V (d) 2.5 V
204) The specific gravity of the electrolyte used in the lead acid
accumulator is
(a) 1.8 (b) 1.21
(c) 1.81 (d) 1.28
205) While charging a secondary cell the specific gravity of the
electrolyte should lie between
(a) 1.2 to 1.02 (b) 1.28 to 1.21
(c) 1.82 to 1.21 (d) 1.28 to 1.12
PART-B
1) Define drift velocity and mobility

3) State ohm's law
4) Define electrical resistivity or specific resistance
5) What are superconductors
7) What do you mean by internal resistance of a cell
9) Define electric energy and power
10) State Faraday's laws of electrolysis
11) Why is copper wire not suitable for potentiometer
12) Why automobile batteries have low internal resistance?
13) Compare primary and secondary cells
14) What are the applications of secondary cells
PART-C
1) Derive the relation between the current and drift velocity

2) Explain the flow of charges in a metallic conductor.
3) Define resistivity of a material. How are materials classified based
on resistivity?
4) Write a note on superconductivity. List the applications of
superconductors
5) Derive the expressions for effective resistances when the resistors
are in series and parallel
6) Discuss the variation of resistance with temperature with an
expression and graph.
7) Explain the determination of the internal resistance of a cell
using voltmeter.
8) State and explain Kirchoff's laws for electrical networks.
9) Derive the condition for bridge balance of a Wheatstone's network
temperature coefficient of resistance using metre bridge(specific
resistance)
11) Explain the principle of a potentiometer ,How can emf of two
cells be compared using a potentiometer
12) Explain the experimental verification of Faraday's laws
13) Explain the reactions at the electrodes of (i) Daniel cell (ii)
Leclanche cell
14) Explain the action of the lead-acid accumulator
Blue-Print
1 x 1= 1
3 x 3= 9
2 x 5 = 10
1) Electrostatics deals with

(a) Charges (b) Charges at rest
(c) Charges in motion (d) Force between the charges
2) The charges in an electrostatic field are analogous to _____ in a
gravitational field.
(a) Masses (b) Weight
(c) Force (d) Momentum
3) A piece of amber when rubbed with fur, it attracts bits of paper.
This was discovered by
(a) Newton (b) Hertz
(c) Thales (d) William Gilbert
4) ` Glass, ebonite etc. exhibit the property of attracting light
objects, was found by

(a) William Gilbert (b) Thales
(c) Coulomb (d) Gauss
5) The substances which acquire charges on rubbing are said to be
(a) Magnetised (b) Electrified
(c) Electromagnets (d) Active substances
6) Elektron means
(a) Atom (b) Electron
(c) Amber (d) Ebonite
7) The electricity produced by friction is called
(a) Frictional electricity (b) Photo electricity
(c) Current electricity (d) All the above
8) If a glass rod is rubbed with a silk cloth they acquire
(a) Positive & negative charges respectively (b) Negative & positive
charges
(c) Positive charges (d) Negative charges
9) If an ebonite rod is rubbed with fur, they acquire
(a) Positive & negative charges respectively (b) Negative & positive
charges
(c) Positive charges (d) Negative charges
10) The classification of positive and negative charges were termed
by
(a) Benjamin Franklin (b) William Gilbert
(c) Thales (d) Faraday
11) Charging a rod by rubbing

(a) Creates electricity b) Destroys electricity
(c) Redistributes the charges
(d) All the above
12) Which one of the following is a conductor

(a) Glass (b) Ebonite
(c) Human body (d) Mica
13) Bodies which do not allow charges to pass through are called
(a) Conductors (b) Semi conductors
(c) Di
ctrics (d) Metals
14) An example for insulators is

(a) Earth (b) Metals
(c) Human body (d) Ebonite
15) The fundamental unit of electric charge is the charge carried by
the
(a) Electron (b) Proton
(c) Neutron (d) Positron
16) The unit of electric charge is
(a) Volt (b) Coulomb
(c) Ampere (d) Farad
17) The magnitude of the fundamental electric charge is
(a) 1.6 x 1019 c (b) 1.6 x 10-19 c
(c) 16 x 10-19 c (d) 16x1019 c
18) The charge (q) on any object is given by

(a) q=ne (b) q=n/e
(c) q=n-e (d) q=n+e
19) A glass rod rubbed with silk acquires a charge of
8x10-12 C. The number of electrons it has gained or lost
(a) 5 x 10-7 (gained) (b) 5 x 107 (lost)
(c) 2 x 10-8 (lost) (d) -8 x 10-12 (lost)
20) An ebonite rod acquires a negative charge of
3.2 x 10-10 C. The number of excess electron it has is
(a) 2 x 109 (b) 2 x 10-9
(c) 2 x 10 -29 (d) 2 x 1029
21) A body has a negative charge of 1 C. It means that
(a) It has lost one electron
(b) It has acquired one electron
(c) It has lost 6.25 x 1018 electrons
(d) It has acquired 6.25 x 1018 electrons
22) The dimensional formula for electric charge is
(a) [ML TA] (b) [ML T-1A]
(c) [ML TA-1] (d) [ML T-1A-1]
23) Two spheres A and B of exactly same mass are given equal
positive and negative charges respectively.Their masses after
charging
(a) Remain unaffected (b) Mass of A > mass of B
(c) Mass of A < mass of B (d) (b) or (d)
24) Total charge in an isolated system
(a) Is independent of the medium
(b) Is dependent on the medium
(c) Is varying continuously
(d) Remains constant
25) Conservation of charge implies that
(a) Charge cannot be destroyed
(b) Charge exists on particle

(c) The number of charged particles in the universe is constant
(d) The simultaneous production of equal and opposite charges is
permissible
26) The force between two charged bodies was studied by
(a) Gauss (b) Faraday
(c) Newton (d) Coulomb
27) The direction of force between two charges is
(a) Along the line joining the two charges
(b) Perpendicular to the line joining the two charges
(c) Inclined at an angle ? with the line joining
28) The value of permittivity of free space ?o is
(a) 8.854 x 10-12 c-2 Nm2 (b) 8.854 x 10-12 c2 N-1m-2
(c) 8.854 x 1012 c-2 Nm2 (d) 8.854 x 1012 c2 N-1m-2
29) A million electrons are added to a pith ball. Its charge is
(a) 1.6 x 10-19 C (b) 1.6 x 10-13 C
(c) -1.6x10-13 C (d) -1.6x10-10 C
30) The value of ?o is
(a) 1 C2 N-1 m -2 (b) 9 x 109 c2 N-1 m -2
(c) 1 . x C2 N-1 m
9 x 109
(d) 1 . x C2 N-1 m-2 4?x9x109
31) The relative permittivity ?r of a medium is equal to
(a) ? ?o (b) ? / ?o
(c) ?o /? (d) ?o /1 - ?
32) The value of ?r for air or vaccum is

(a) 0 (b) 9 x 109
(c) 1 (d) 8.854 x 10 -12

33) The force between two point charges depends on
(a) The magnitude of the point charges
(b) Distance of separation between them
(c) Nature of the medium in between
(d) All the above
34) Dimensions of ?o are
(a) [M-1 L-3 T4 A2] (b) [M L-3 T3 A3]
(c) [M-1L-3 T3A]
(d) [M-1L-3 TA2]
35) The forces exerted by two charges on each other are
(a) Equal in magnitude and opposite in direction
(b) Equal in magnitude and in same direction
(c) Different in magnitude and opposite in direction
(d) Different in magnitude and in same direction
36) The relative permittivity of a medium is also known as
(a) Force constant (b) Dielectric constant
(c) Conductivity constant (d) Gravitational constant
37) Force between two unit charges seperated by a distance of 1m in
vaccum is
(a) 9 x 109 N (b) 9 x 10-9 N
(c) 9 x 109 C (d) 1 .
4?x9x109
38) The electrostatic force experienced by a charge q1 due to other
charges q2,q3,.qn is calculated using
(a) The law of conservation of charge
(b) Coulombs inverse square law
(c) Gauss law
(d) Principle of superposition
39) The electrostatic force between two point charges kept at a

distance d apart in a medium of ?r = 6 is 0.3 N. The force between
them at the same seperation is vaccum is
(a) 20N (b) 0.5N
(c) 1.8N (d) 2N
40) Two point charges +4 c and +2c repel each other with a force
of 8N. If a charge of -4c is added to each of these charges, the force
would be
(a) 8 N (b) 4 N
(c) 12 N (d) Zero
41) Two point charges certain distance apart in air repel each other
with a force F. A glass plate is introduced between the charges. The
force becomes F1 . where
(a) F1 < F (b) F1 = F
(c) F1 > F (d) F1 > F
42) Force between two charges separated by a certain distance in air
is F. If each charge were doubled and distance between them also
doubled, force would be.
(a) F (b) 2 F
(c) 4 F (d) F/4
43) If charge q is placed at the centre of the line joining two equal
charges Q. The system of three charges will be in equilibrium if q is
(a) - Q/2 (b) - Q/4
(c) - 4Q (d) +Q/2
44) There are two charges +1c and +5c . The ratio of the forces
acting on them will be
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4
45) The ratio of the force between two charges in vaccum at a
certain distance apart to that between the same charges, same
distance apart in a medium of permittivity ? is
(a) ? : 1 (b) 1 : ?
(c) ? : ?o (d) ?o : ?
46) Three charges each of +1 c are placed at the corners of an
equilateral triangle. If the force between any two charges be F, then
the net force on either charge will be
(a) v 2 F (b) v3 F
(c) 2 F (d) 3 F
47) The dielectric constant ?r of an insulator can be
(a) -1 (b) 0
(c) 0.5 (d) 5
48) The dielectric constant of a metal is
(a) ? (b) 0
(c) 1 (d) 5
49) If F is the force between two charges separated by a distance in
air and Fm is the force between them in a medium, then the relative
permittivity of the medium is given by
(a) Fm /F (b) F/ Fm
(c) F+ Fm (d) F- Fm
50) For what order of distance is Coulomb's law true

(a) Distance greater than 10-13 m
(b) For all distances
(c) Distances less than 10-13 m
(d) Distances equal to 10-13 m
51) Any charge which occupies a space with dimensions much less
than its distance away from an observation point can be considered
as
(a) Unit charge (b) Test charge
(c) Point charge
(d) Neutral charge
52) The space around the test charge in which it experiences a force
is known as
(a) Magnetic field (b) Electric field
(c) Electrostatic field (d) Electromagnetic field
53) Electric field at a point is measured in terms of
(a) Electric charge (b) Electric potential
(c) Electric field intensity (d) Charge density
54) Electric field intensity at a point is the
(a) Force experienced by a positive charge
(b) Force experienced by a negative charge
(c) Force experienced by a unit positive charge
(d) Force experienced by a unit negative charge
55) Force exerted by an electric field (E) on a point charge qo is
(a) F = E/ qo (b) F = E qo
(c) F = Eqo /4??or2 (d) F = E2 / qo
56) The electric field due to a point charge q is
(a) E = q /4??or2 (b) E = q /4??or
(c) E = Fq /4??or2 (d) E = qo /4??or2
57) A charge of q c is placed at a point, then the electric field

intensity E at any point is
(a) Along the line joining and away from q
(b) Along the line joining and towards q
(c) Perpendicular to the line joining and away from q
(d) Perpendicular to the line joining and towards q
58) A force of 2.25 N acts on a charge of 15 x 10-4c. Then the

intensity of electric field at that point is
(a) 1500 NC-1 (b) 150 NC-1
(c) 15000 NC-1 (d) 1500 NC
59) The unit of electric field intensity is
(a) NC (b) NC-1
(c) N-1C (d) N-1C-1
60) A point charge q produces an electric field of magnitude 2NC-1

at a point distant 0.25 m from it. What is the value of the charge
(a) 1.39 x 10-11 c (b) 1.39 x 1011 c
(c) 13.9 x 10-11 c (d) 13.9 x 1011 c
61) The electric field strength at a distance r from a point charge Q
is E. If the distance of the observation point is increased by 2r then
the electric field will be
(a) E/2 (b) E/4
(c) E/9 (d) E
62) The dimensional formula of electric field intensity is
(a) MLT-2A-1 (b) MLT-3A-1
(c) ML2T-3A-1 (d) ML2T-3A-2
63) Electric field intensity is 400 Vm-1 at a distance of 2m from a
point charge. It will be 100 Vm-1 at a distance of
(a) 50 cm (b) 4 cm
(c) 4 m (d) 1.5 m
64) Two point charges + 4q and +q are placed 30 cm apart. At what
point on the line joining them the electric field is zero?
(a) 15 cm from +q (b) 7.5 cm from q
(c) 20 cm from +4q (d) 5 cm from q
65) Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 are charged to the

same surface charge density. The ratio of electric field near their
surface is
(a) r12/r22 (b) r22 /r12
(c) r1/r2 (d) 1 : 1
66) The concept of field lines as an aid in visualising electric and
magnetic fields was introduced by
(a) Thales (b) Gilbert
(c) Coulomb (d) Faraday
67) Electric line of force is
(a) The path traced by a unit negative charge in the electric field
(b) The path traced by a unit positive charge in the electric field
(c) Force exerted
(d) Circular lines
68) Electric lines of force are
(a) Straight lines (b) Circular lines
(c) Curved lines (d) Either straight or curved
69) Which is true about the lines of force

(a) They start from positive charge and terminate at negative charge
(b) They never intersect
(c) The tangent to the line of force gives the direction of E
(d) All the above
70) Each unit positive charge gives rise to ____ lines of force in free
space
(a) ? o (b) 1/? o
(c) ? (d) 1/?

71) The number of lines of force originating from a point charge q is
(a) N=q/? (b) N=q o /? o
(c) N=q /? o (d) N=q? o
72) Electric lines of force
(a) Exists every where
(b) Exists only in the immediate vicinity of electric charges
(c) Exists only when both positive and negative charges are near one
another
(d) Are imaginary
73) In a region where intensity of electric field is 5 NC-1,
50 electric lines of force are crossing per square metre. The number
of electric lines of force crossing
per square metre where the intensity of electric field is
20 NC-1 will be
(a) 20 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 200
74) An electric dipole consists of
(a) Two equal and opposite charges separated by a small distance
(b) Two equal and opposite charges separated by a large distance
(c) Two unequal and opposite charges separated by a small distance
(d) Two equal and like charges separated by a small distance
75) Which of the following has a permanent electric dipole
(a) Water (b) Ammonia
(c) CO2 (d) All the above
76) The electric dipole moment p =
(a) q x 2d (b) d/2q
(c) 2d/q (d) q/2d
77) The direction of the dipole moment is

(a) From +q to - q (b) From q to +q
(c) Perpendicular to +q (d) No direction
78) The unit of dipole moment is
(a) c/m (b) cm-2
(c) cm (d) c-1m
79) The electric field due to an electric dipole at appoint on its axial
line is
(a) E = 2p /4??or2 (b) E = 2p /4??or
(c) E = 2p /4??or3 (d) E = p /4??or3
80) Electric field E due to an electric dipole at a point on the
equiatorial line
(a) E = 2p /4??or3 (b) E = 2p /4??or2
(c) E = p /4??or2
(d) E = p /4??or3
81) Electric field on the axial line of a dipole is Ea and on the
equatorial line is Ee then
(a) Ea = Ee (b) Ea = 2Ee
(c) Ee = 2Ea (d) Ea = Ee/v2
82) The electric field due to an electric dipole at a point on the axial
line
(a) Acts in the direction of dipole moment
(b) Acts in the opposite direction of dipole moment
(c) Acts at right angles to the dipole moment
(d) Cannot be related with the direction of dipole moment
83) The direction of E due to an electric dipole at a point on the
equatorial line is
(a) Perpendicular to the axis, opposite to the dipole moment
(b) Perpendicular to the axis, in the direction of the dipole moment

(c) Parallel to the axis, opposite to the dipole moment
(d) Parallel to the axis, in the direction of the dipole moment
84) The angle between the electric dipole moment and the electric
field due to it on the axial line is
(a) 0 (b) 90
(c) 180 (d) 270
85) Electric field intensity due to an electric dipole varies with
distance (r) as E?rn where n is
(a) - 2 (b) 3
(c) - 3 (d) 0
86) Torque experienced by an electric dipole in a uniform electric

field ? =
(a) PE Cos ? (b) Pq Cos ?
(c) PE Sin ? (d) PE tan ?
87) An electric dipole is kept in a uniform electric field, it
experiences
(a) A force and a torque (b) A force but no torque
(c) A torque but no force (d) Neither a force nor a torque
88) An electric dipole is kept at an angle ? in a non uniform
electric field, it experiences
(a) A force but no torque (b) A torque but no force
(c) Neither a force nor torque (d) Both force and torque
89) An electric dipole is placed perpendicular to the direction of a
uniform electric field, then the torque experienced is
(a) PE Sin ? (b) PE
(c) 0 (d) -PE
90) An electric dipole is placed parallel to the uniform electric field
experiences a torque
(a) PE (b) PE Sin ?
(c) 0 (d) - PE
91) Electric potential energy of an electric dipole in an electric field
is U =
(a) PE Sin ? (b) PE Cos ?
(c) - PE Sin ? (d) - PE Cos ?
92) When an electric dipole is aligned parallel to the field, its
potential energy is U=
(a) PE (b) - PE
(c) P + E (d) P/E
93) When a dipole is placed in an electric field the torque acts on it
tries to align it in the direction of the field. This is because
(a) Of the convenient position
(b) Of the nature of the force
(c) To minimise the potential energy
(d) To maximise the potential energy
94) An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges each of
magnitude 1c separated by a distance of 2 cm. The dipole is
placed in an external field of 105 NC-1. The maximum torque on
the dipole is
(a) 0.2 x 10-3 Nm (b) 1 x 10-3 Nm
(c) 2 x 10-3 Nm (d) 4 x 10-3 Nm
95) An electric dipole will experience a maximum torque when it is

placed
(a) Parallel to the field
(b) Perpendicular to the field
(c) At an angle of 60 with the field
(d) At any position
96) The unit of electric potential is

(a) Ampere (b) Joule
(c) Coulomb (d) Volt
97) The unit of electric potential is (1Volt is equivalent to)
(a) JC (b) JC-1
(c) J-1C (d) J-1 C-1
98) The dimension of electric potential is
(a) MLT-2A-1 (b) ML2 T-2A-1
(c) ML2 T-3A-1 (d) ML2 T-3A-2
99) An electric cell does 5 J of work in carrying 10 C charge around
a closed circuit. Then the emf (potential) of the cell is
(a) 2V (b) 50V
(c) 0.5V (d) 5V
100) A work of 100 J is performed in carrying a charge of -5C from
infinity to a particular point in an electric field. The potential of this
point is
(a) 100V (b) 5V
(c) 20V (d) -20V
101) The work done in moving a charge 20C from A to B over a
distance of 0.2m is 2 J. The potential difference across A & B is
(a) 2 x 10 -2 V (b) 1 x 10 -1 V
(c) -1 x 10-1 V (d) 4 x 10 -1 V
102) The relation between electric field (E) and potential (V) is
(a) E = dv/dr (b) E = dr/dv
(c) V = - dE/dr (d) E = - dv/dr
103) The electrical potential V is given as a function of distance x by
V = (5x2 + 10x 4) volt. Value of electric field at x = 1m is
(a) -23 V/m (b) 11 V/m
(c) 6V/m (d) -20V/m
104) The change of potential with distance is known as

(a) Electric gradient (b) Charge gradient
(c) Potential gradient (d) Intensity gradient
105) The unit of electric field intensity is

(a) Vm (b) Vm-1
(c) V-1m (d) Nm-1
106) The potential at a point due to a point charge is given by
(a) q /4??or2 (b) q /4??or3
(c) q /4??or (d) p /4??or2
107) The electric potential at a distance of 9m from a point charge
of 100 c is
(a) 10 4V (b) 10 5 V
(c) 81 x 10 5 V (d) 0 V
108) The electric potential at a point due to an electric dipole is
(a) P Sin? /4??or2 (b) P Cos? /4??or
(c) P Cos? /4??or2 (d) P Sin? /4??or
109) The potential at a point on the axial line of a dipole on the side
of +q is
(a) P /4??or (b) P /4??o
(c) P /4??or2 (d) -P /4??or2
110) The potential at a point on the axial line of a dipole on the side
of q is
(a) P /4??or2 (b) P /4??or
(c) 0 (d) - P /4??or2
111) The potential at a point on the equatorial line of a dipole is
(a) P /4??or2 (b) - P /4??or2
(c) 0 (d) P /4??or
112) The electric potential at a point on the equatorial line of an

electric dipole is
(a) Directly proportional to distance
(b) Inversely proportional to distance
(c) Inversely proportional to square of the distance
113) Three charges 2q, -q and q are located at the vertices of an
equilateral triangle at the centre of the triangle
(a) The field is zero but potential is non zero
(b) The field is non zero but potential is zero
(c) Both field and potential are zero
(d) Both field and potential are non zero
114) n small drops of same size are charged to V Volt each. If they
coalesce to form a single large drop, then its potential will be
(a) Vn (b) Vn-1
(c) Vn1/3 (d) Vn2/3
115) Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 are equally

charged. The ratio of their potentials is
(a) R1/R2 (b) R2/R1
(c) R12/R22 (d) R22/R12
116) Two conducting spheres of radii R1 and R2 are at same
potential. The ratio of their charges is
(a) R1/R2 (b) R2/R1
(c) R12/R22 (d) R22/R12
117) Electric field strength at a point varies as 1/r for
(a) A point charge

(b) an electric dipole
(c) a plane infinite sheet of charge
(d) A line charge of infinite length
118) The electric potential at a point on the axis of an electric dipole
depends on the distance r of the point from the dipole is
(a) ? 1/r (b) ? 1/r2
(c) ? 1/r3 (d) ? r
119) The electric potential at the surface of an atomic nucleus
(Z=50) of radius 9 x 10 -15 m is
(a) 80V (b) 8 x 10 6 V
(c) 9 V (d) 9 x 10 5 V
120) An electric field of magnitude 200 NC-1 can be produced by
applying a potential difference of 10V to a pair of parallel metal
plates separated by
(a) 2 cm (b) 5 cm
(c) 20 cm (d) 50 cm
121) Two conducting spheres of radii r1 and r2 have same electric
field near their surface. The ratio of their electric potentials is
(a) r1 /r2 (b) r12 /r22
(c) r2/r1
(d) r22/r12
122) The electric potential energy of two point charges is equal to
the
(a) Work done to assemble the charges
(b) Work done in bringing each charge
(c) Work done in bringing each from infinite distance.
(d) All the above
123) Work done in moving a charge of 2c to a point where the
potential is 5 V is
(a) 10 J (b) 10 x 10 -6 J
(c) 2.5 J (d) 0.4 J
124) The electric potential energy is U=

(a) q1/ q2 4??or2 (b) q1 q2/ 4??or
(c) q1 q2/ 4??or2 (d) q1 q2/ 4??or3
125) Potential energy of two equal positive point charges 2c each
held at 1m in air is
(a) 0.2 J (b) -0.036 J
(c) 0.036 J (d) 0.36 J
126) If all the points of a surface are at the same potential, then the
surface is called
(a) Equi field surface (b) Equi potential surface
(c) Normal surface (d) All the above
127) All points equidistant from an isolated point charge are at
(a) Different potential (b) Zero potential
(c) Same potential (d) Positive potential
128) Equi potential surfaces around an isolated point charge will be
a series of concentric
(a) Triangles (b) Rectangles
(c) spheres (d) Squares
129) If a charge is to be moved between any two points on an equi
potential surface through any path, the work done is
(a) Positive (b) Infinity
(c) Negative (d) Zero
130) For an equi potential surface the electric field lines must be
_____ to the surface

(a) Normal (b) Parallel
(c) At an angle (d) Any one of the above
131) In case of uniform field, equi potential surfaces are the
(a) Parallel planes (b) Perpendicular planes
(c) Concentric spheres (d) Parallel planes with their surfaces
perpendicular to the lines of force
132) If a unit positive charge is taken from one point to another over
an equi potential surface, then
(a) Work is done on the charge
(b) Work is done by the charge
(c) Work on the charge is constant
(d) No work is done
133) Which is true about an equi potential surfaces

(a) Electric lines of force are always perpendicular
(b) The component of electric intensity along an equi potential
surface is zero
(c) Two equi potential surfaces can never intersect one another
(d) All the above
134) The electric flux is also known as
(a) Flux density (b) Electric normal induction
(c) Flux leakage (d) None
135) The total electric flux over any closed surface is
(a) E ds Cos? (b) ? Eds Cos?
(c) ? E ds Cos ? (d) Zero
136) The unit of electric flux is

(a) Nm2 C-1 (b) N-1m2 C-1
(c) Nm-2 C (d) Nm2 / C-1
137) A Gaussian surface is
(a) A real surface (b) A closed real surface
(c) An imaginary surface (d) A closed imaginary surface
138) Total electric flux across a closed surface enclosing charge is
independent of
(a) Shape of the closed surface
(b) Volume of the surface
(c) Spatial arrangement of charges within the surface
(d) All the above
139) The surface charge density is
(a) Total surface enclosed by the body
(b) Charge per unit area
(c) Number of charges present inside the surface
140) A Gaussian surface encloses a charge of q C in air, then the
total flux over the closed surface is
(a) q/? (b) q/?o
(c) q?o (d) q?
141) Electric flux at a point in an electric field is
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Zero (d) none
142) Electric flux over a surface in an electric field may be
(a) positive (b) negative
(c) zero (d) Any one of the above
143) Positive electric flux indicates that electric lines of force are
directed
(a) Outwards (b) Inwards
(c) Outwards or inwards (d) Neither outwards nor inwards
144) Number of electric lines of force emanating from 1 C of positive
charge in vaccum is
(a) 8.85 x 10-12 (b) 9 x 109
(c) 1/4? x 9 x 109 (d) 1.13 x 1011
145) Number of electric lines of force from 0.5 C in a dielectric
medium of constant 10 is
(a) 5.65x109 (b) 1.13 x 1011
(c) 9 x 109 (d) 8.85 x 1012
146) A sphere of radius 1 m encloses a charge of 5c. Another
charge of -5c is placed inside the sphere. The net electric flux
would be
(a) Double (b) Four times
(c) Five times (d) Zero
147) The electric flux over a sphere of radius 1m is F, the radius of
the sphere were doubled without changing the charge, electric flux
would become
(a) 2F (b) F/2
(c) 4F (d) F
148) A surface encloses an electric dipole. The flux through the
surface is
(c) zero (d) Infinite
149) Gauss law states that
(a) F=q/? (b) q= F /?o
(c) F=q/?o (d) F=q?o

150) Charges outside the Gaussian surface contribute ____ to the
flux
(a) Little (b) Negligible
(c) large (d) Nothing
151) The net charge enclosed by the Gaussian surface in an
infinitely long straight charged wire
(a) ?/l (b) ?l
(c) l/? (d) ?2l
152) The electric field (E) at a point due to infinite long straight
charged wire is
(a) ?l/2??or (b) ?l/2??or2
(c) ?/2??or (d) ?2/2??or
153) Electric field (E) at a point due a long straight charged wire is
related with the distance r is
(a) E? r (b) E ? r2
(c) E ? 1/r (d) Independent of r
154) An infinite line charge produces a field of 9 x 10 4 N/C at a
distance of 2 cm. The linear charge density is
(a) 2 x 10 -7 cm -1 (b) 10 -7 cm -1
(c) 9 x 10 4 cm-1 (d) 10 7 cm -1
155) Electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge is
(a) E = ?/?o (b) ?/2?o
(c) ?/? (d) 2?/?o
156) The electric field E due to an infinite plane sheet of charge at a
distance r are related as
(a) E ? r (b) E ? 1/r
(c) E ? r2 (d) E is independent of r

157) Electric field intensity at a point due to an infinite sheet of
charge having surface charge density ? is E. If sheet were
conducting electric intensity would be
(a) E/2 (b) E
(c) 2E (d) 4E
158) Two thin infinite parallel sheets have uniform surface densities
of charge +? and ? . Electric field in between the two sheets is
(a) ?/?o (b) ?/2?o
(c) 2?/?o
(d) Zero
159) Two thin infinite parallel sheets have uniform surface densities
of charge +? and ? . Electric field E in the space outside the sheets
is
(a) ?/?o (b) ?/2?o
(c) Zero (d) 2?/?o
160) The Gaussian surface for calculating the electric field due to a
charge distribution is
(a) Any closed surface around the charge distribution
(b) Any surface near the charge distribution
(c) A spherical surface
(d) A symmetrical closed surface at every point of which electric
field has a single fixed value
161) Electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical shell at a
distance of r outside the shell is
(a) E = q /4??or (b) E=q2 /4??or
(c) q /4??or2 (d) ? /4??or2
162) A charge of q C is given to hollow sphere where radius is R.

The electric field at any point on the surface of the sphere is
(a) q /4??or2 (b) q /4??or

(c) q /4??oR (d) q /4??oR2
163) The electric field at a point inside a spherical shell of radius R
is
(a) q /4??or2 (b) q /4??oR2
(c) zero (d) q /4??oR
164) A hollow conducting sphere of radius R has a charge q on its
surface. What is the electric potential within the sphere at a
distance r = R/3 from its centre
(a) zero (b) q /4??or
(c) q /4??oR (d) 3q /4??or
165) The process of isolating a certain region of space from external
field is called
(a) Charge shielding (b) Potential shielding
(c) Electric shielding (d) Electrostatic shielding
166) Four charges +q, +q, -q and q respectively are placed at the
corners A,B,C and D of a square of side a. The electric potential at
the centre O of the square is
(a) q /4??oa (b) 2q /4??oa
(c) 4q /4??oa
(d) Zero
167) In a hydrogen atom, the electron and proton bound together at
a separation of about 0.53 A. If the potential energy is zero at
infinite separation, then the potential energy of the electron proton
system is
(a) -54.4 ev (b) -27.2 ev
(c) -13.6 ev (d) Zero
168) Which of the following quantity is scalar
(a) Dipole moment (b) Electric force
(c) Electric field (d) Electric potential
169) 1 ev is equivalent to
(a) 1.6 x 10 19 J (b) 1.6 x 10 -19 J
(c) 1.6 x 10 20 J (d) -1.6 x 10 -19 J
170) An electron initially at rest is accelerated through a p.d of one
volt. The energy acquired by electron is
(a) 1 J (b) 1.6 x 10 -19 J
(c)
10 -19 J (d) 1.6 x 10 +19 J
171) Electric flux lines due to an infinite plane sheet of charge, is

(a) converging (b) radial
(c) Uniform and perpendicular to the sheet (d) Uniform and parallel
to the sheet
172) Obtaining charges without any contact with another charge is

known as
(a) Induction (b) Electrophorous
(c) shielding (d) Electrostatic induction
173) The charges produced by electrostatic induction are known as
(a) Positive charges (b) Negative charges
(c) Induced charges (d) Neutral charges
174) By electrostatic induction
(a) Only positive charges can be produced
(b) Only negative charges can be produced
(c) Any charge can be created
(d) Any charge can be induced
175) If a positive charge is brought near an insulated conductor, the

induced charge on the conductor facing the charge is
(c) Both positive and negative (d) Zero
176) Induced charges obtained by electrostatic induction are
(a) Always permanent (b) Always temporary
(c) May be permanent or temporary (d) Is zero
177) Electric field and potential inside a hollow charged conducting
sphere are respectively
(a) 0,0 (b) 0, q /4??or
(c) q /4??or2 , 0 (d) q /4??or2, q /4??or
178) If a charge is given to a conductor, the change in potential
produced in it depends on
(a) Size of the conductor
(b) Shape of the conductor
(c) Both size and shape of the conductor
(d) Neither the size nor the shape of the conductor
179) The capacitance of a capacitor is
(a) C=v/q (b) C = q/v
(c) C=qv (d) C=I/v
180) The unit of capacitance is

(a) Coulomb (b) Joule
(c) Farad (d) Volt
181) Capacitors are used to
(a) Store charges (b) Conduct charges
(c) Store current (d) Discharge current

182) When the charging source is disconnected the charges given to
the plates of an ideal conductor
(c) zero (d) Remains same
183) Farad is equivalent to
(a) CV (b) CV -1
(c) C -1 V (d) CV-2
184) 1 F is equal to
(a) 10 -5F (b) 10 -3F
(c) 10 -6F (d) 10-12F
185) 1 PF is equal to
(a) 10 -6F (b) 10-12F
(c) 10 -9F (d) 10-5F
186) The charge that can be stored in a 100 f capacitor connected
to a source of p.d 50V is
(a) 5 x 10 -6C (b) 5 x 10 -3 c
(c) 2c (d) c
187) If the potential of a conductor increases, its capacitance
(a) Increases (b) decreases
(c) No change (d) Depends upon the type of the conductor
188) If a negatively charged conductor is brought near a positively
charged conductor, its potential
(c) Remains same (d) Becomes zero
189) If an earthed conductor is placed very near to a charged
conductor, its capacitance
(c) Remains same (d) Becomes zero
190) The capacitance of a capacitor depends on

(a) Geometry of the conductor (b) Nature of the medium
191) The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is
(a) C=?r A / d (b) C = ?o A / d
(c) C=A ?r?o / d (d) C = d / ?o A
192) If the area of the plate of a parallel plate capacitor is doubled

then its capacitance
(a) Decreases two times (b) Increases two times
(c) Decreases four times (d) Remains same
193) If the distance between the two plates of a parallel plate
capacitor is decreased in to half, then its capacitance
(a) Becomes zero (b) Increases by two times
(c) Increases by four times (d) Decreases by two times
194) The material in which all the electrons are tightly bound to the
nucleus is known as
(a) Conductor (b) Semiconductor
(c) Dielectric (d) (a) or (b)
195) The molecules in which centre of gravity of the positive charges
and centre of gravity of negative charges coincide are called as
(a) Polar molecules (b) Dielectrics
(c) Non polar molecules (d) Semi polar molecules
196) Which of the following is a non polar molecule
(a) N2O (b) HCl
(c) NH3 (d) N2
197) The non polar molecules have
(a) Permanent dipole moment

(b) Temporary dipole moment
(c) No permanent dipole moment
198) When a non polar dielectric is placed in an electric field
(a) They become un polarized
(b) They are called induced dipoles
(c) They acquire induced dipole moment opposite to the direction of
the electric field
(d) The centre of charges is not disturbed
199) Example for a polar molecule is
(a) H2O (b) O2
(c) N2 (d) H2
200) The polar molecules have
(a) Permanent dipole moments in the same direction
(b) Permanent dipole moments in random directions
(c) No permanent dipole moment
(d) Dipole moment only when placed in the external field
201) Due to polarisation, the induced dipoles get aligned

(a) In the direction of electric field
(b) In the direction opposite to the electric field
(c) Normal to the electric field
(d) At an angle " ?"to the electric field
202) If Eo be the electric field between the plates of a parallel plate
capacitor with air in between. If a dielectric is placed in between
then the electric field E is
(a) E Eo (b) Eo Ei
(c) Eo + Ei (d) E + Eo
203) In a parallel plate capacitor with a medium of dielectric
constant K in between (Eo is the applied field, E is the effective field
) then
(a) K = E/Eo (b) K = Eo/E
(c) K = Eo + E (d) K = Eo E
204) The dielectric constant of a dielectric is always
(a) K < 1 (b) K = 1
(c) K = 0 (d) K > 1
205) Electric field at any point, in the dielectric slab placed in
between the parallel plate capacitor is
(a) E = ? /?o (b) E = ? /?
(c) E = ? /?r (d) E = q /?o?r
206) Capacitance of a capacitor with a dielectric of thickness (t) and
relative permittivity (?r) is given as
(a) C=?o?r A/d (b) C=?o A/t
(c) C= ?oA
(d-t)+t/?r (d) C= ?o?r A
(d-t)+t/?r
207) The capacitance of a dielectric filled capacitor is
(a) C=?o A/d (b) C=?A/d
(c) C=EA/d (d) C=?o?r /d
208) If c is the capacitance of an air filled capacitor and c' is the
capacitance of the same capacitor with dielectric in between, then
(a) C' > C (b) C' < C
(c) C' = C (d) C' = 0
209) If C and C' are capacitances of a capacitor when it is filled with
air and dielectric of permittivity ?r, then
(a) C/C' = ?r (b) CC' =?r
(c) C'/C = ?r (d) C'/C?o =?r
210) Which of the following is not an application of a capacitor

(a) Used in the ignition system of automobile engines
(b) Used to reduce voltage fluctuations in power supplies
(c) In tuning the radio circuits
(d) In measuring the potential due to a dipole
211) Three capacitors of capacitances C1,C2 and C3 are connected
in series, then the effective capacitance is
(a) 1/Cs=C1+C2+C3 (b) 1/Cs =1/C1+1/C2+1/C3
(c) Cs=1/C1+1/C2+1/C3 (d) Cs = C1+C2+C3(e)
212) Three capacitors of capacitances C1,C2 and C3 are connected
in parallel, then the effective capacitance is
(a) Cp = 1/ C1 + 1/ C2 + 1/ C3
(b) Cp = C1+ C2+ C3
(c) 1/ Cp = C1+ C2+ C3
(d) 1/ Cp = 1/ C1 + 1/ C2 + 1/ C3
213) The electrostatic potential energy stored in an capacitor is
(a) C/ 2V 2 (b) 2 C V 2
(c) C V 2/2 (d) V 2 /2C
214) A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance 18 F. If the
distance between the plates is tripled and a dielectric medium is
introduced the capacitance becomes 72 F. The dielectric constant
of the medium is
(a) 4 (b) 9
(c) 12 (d) 2
215) Two plates are 1 cm apart and pd between them is
10 V. The electric field between them is

(a) 10 N/C (b) 1000 N/C
(c) 1000 J/C (d) 250 N/C
216) Two condensers of capacity 0.3 F and 0.6 F are connected in
series. The combination is connected across a potential of 6 V. The
ratio of energies stored by condensers will be
(a) 1/2 (b) 2
(c) 1/4 (d) 4
217) A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance 50F in air

&105F when immersed in oil. The dielectric constant of the oil is
(a) 50 / 105 (b) 1
(c) 2.1 (d) ?
218) The energy of a charged capacitor resides in
(a) The electric field only
(b) The magnetic field only
(c) Both electric and magnetic fields
(d) Neither electric nor in the magnetic fields
219) A capacitor of capacitance 1/300 F is connected to a battery
of 300 V. Then the energy stored in the condenser is
(a) 3 x 10 -4 J (b) 6 x 10 -14 J
(c) 1.5 x 10 -4 J (d) 12 x 10 -5 J
220) A parallel plate capacitor having dielectric slab of
?r = 6 is connected across a battery and charged. This dielectric
slab is then removed and a new slab of

?r = 10 is introduced, the ratio of energy stored in first case to that
in second one is
(a) 3 : 5 (b) 5 : 3
(c) 9 : 25 (d) 25 : 9
221) A capacitor works in
(a) A.C circuits (b) D.C circuits
(c) both (a) and (b) (d) Neither (a) nor (b)
222) Energy per unit volume for a capacitor having area A and
separation d kept at a p.d of V is given by
(a) ?o V2 / 2d2 (b) V2/2?o d2
(c) CV2/2 (d) Q2/2C
223) Putting a dielectric substance between two plates of a
condenser, the capacity, potential and p.E respectively
(a) Increases, decreases, decreases
(b) Decreases, increases, increases
(c) Increases, increases, increases
(d) Decreases, decreases, decreases
224) When capacitors are connected in series, the value of the
resultant capacitance
(c) Becomes zero (d) Is the sum of individual capacitances
225) In series combination of capacitors

(a) Charges on the capacitors are same
(b) p.d across each capacitor is same

(c) Current on the capacitors is same
(d) Both charges and potentials are same
226) When three capacitors C1,C2 and C3 are in series the effective
capacitance is
(a) C1C2C3 / C1+C2+C3 (b) C1C2C3/C1 C2+C2 C3 +C3C1
(c) 1/C1+1/C2+1/C3
(d) C1+C2+C3
227) If n identical capacitors each of capacity c are connected in
series, then the effective capacitance is
(a) nc (b) 1/nc
(c) n/c (d) c/n
228) When capacitors are connected in parallel, the effective
capacitance
(c) zero (d) None
229) Three capacitors of capacitance C are connected in series. This
combination is connected in parallel with one more capacitor. The
capacitance of the whole combination is
(a) 3c (b) 3/c
(c) 4c/3 (d) 3c/4
230) The accumulation of charges is more if
(a) The curvature is less
(b) The curvature is more
(c) Independent of the curvature
(d) None
231) The surface charge density (?) and radius of curvature (r) are
related as
(a) ? ? r (b) ? ? r2
(c) ? ? 1/r (d) ? ? 1/r2
232) The surface charge density at sharp points is
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum

(c) zero (d) Uniform
233) A charged conductor with sharp points on its surface
(a) Loses its charge quickly (b) Loses its charge slowly
(c) Store the charges (d) None
234) The sharp points on a charged conductor
(a) Ionizes the air molecules (b) Store the charges
(c) Loses the charge (d) Both (a) and (c)
235) Leakage of charge at sharp points is called

(a) Electrostatic induction (b) Electric leakage
(c) Corona discharge (d) Electrophorus
236) The principle used in the lighting arrester is
(a) Electrostatic induction (b) Action of points
237) A device used to produce high potential is
(a) Lightning arrester (b) Dynamo
(c) Electrophorus (d) Van de Graff generator
238) The belt in the Van de Graff generator is made up of
(a) Rubber (b) Plastic
(c) Silk (d) Metal
239) Van de Graff generator works on the principle of
(a) Action of points (b) Electrostatic induction
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Coulomb's law
240) In Van de Graff generator the charge on the descending belt is

(c) Either positive or negative (d) Zero
241) The DC voltage supplied to the Van de Graff generator is of the

order of
(a) 100 V (b) 10 3 V
(c) 10 4 V (d) 10 7 V
242) Van de Graff generator is used to produce high
(a) AC voltage (b) AC power
(c) DC voltage (d) DC current
243) The high potential produced by a Van de Graff generator is
used
(a) In nuclear fission (b) To accelerate particles
(c) In nuclear fusion (d) All the above
244) The potential developed by a Van de Graff generator is of the
order of
(a) 10 4 V (b) 10 6 V
(c) 10 7 V (d) 10 8 V
PART-B
1) State Coulomb's inverse square law
2) Define one coulomb

related?
4) Define electric field intensity. Give its unit
5) What is an electric line of force?
6) What is an electric dipole? Define electric dipole moment
electric field and non-uniform electric field
8) Define potential difference between two points in an electric field
9) Define electric potential at a point in an electric field. Give its
unit
10) Define the unit of electric potential
11) Define electric potential energy of two point charges
15) State Gauss's law
16) What is electrostatic induction?
17) What is a capacitor? Define capacitance
18) Define 1 Farad
19) A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. If the
dielectric slab of thickness equal to half the plate separation is
inserted between the plates what happens to (i) capacitance of the
capacitor (ii)electric field between the plates (iii) potential difference
between the plates.
20) Distinguish between polar and non-polar molecules
21) What is meant by dielectric polarization
22) What is action of points or corona discharge
during lightning?
PART-C
1) Derive an expression for the electric field at any point due to a

point charge
2) Give the properties of electric lines of force **
3) Derive the expression for the torque on a dipole placed in a
uniform electric field **
4) Derive the expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole
placed in an electric field
5) Deduce the expression for the electric potential at any point due
to a point charge
6) Explain the polarisation of dielectric material **
7) Derive an expression for the energy stored in a capacitor **
PART-D
1) Derive an expression for the electric field at a due to an electric
dipole at a point on its axial line
2) Derive an expression for the electric field at a due to an electric
dipole at a point on its equatorial line
electric dipole
4) Applying Gauss's law calculate the electric field due to
(i) an infinitely long straight charge with uniform charge density
(ii) an infinite plane sheet of charge q
(iii) two parallel charged sheets
(iv) uniformly charged spherical shell
capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor .
between the plates of the parallel plate capacitor.
7) Deduce the expressions for the effective capacitances when the
capacitors are connected in
(i) series and (ii) parallel
8) State the principle construction and working of a Van de Graff
generator
Blue print
4 x 1 =4 1 x 5 =5
2 x 3 =-6 1 x 10 = 10
Total: 25 marks
Part-B
2) Define coulomb
related?
8) Define electric flux.Give its unit
during lightning?
14) Define 1 volt
18) State ohm's law
22) Compare emf and potentaial difference

41) Differenciate between self inductance and mutual inductance
45) What are the drawbacks of Sommerfeld's atom model
energy
effects in X-rays
stimulated emission
57) Define amu
60) Define curie

semiconductor?
76) What is meant by feedback? Name the two types of feedback
77) What are the advantages of negative feedback
EXOR gate
83) Differenciate between linear ICs and digital ICs
Problems
1.1 1.7 1.8 1.11 1.12 1.14 1.16 1.45 1.46 1.49 1.50 1.52
2.1, 2.3, 2.4 , 2.5, 2.9 2.13, 2.31, 2.32, 2.33, 2.39, 2.40 , 2.41.
2.42, 2.44,
4.1 4.2 4.4 4.5 4.6 4.7 4.55

6.9 6.10 6.47 6.49 6.50 6.51 6.52
8.47 8.48 8.52 8.54 8.57 8.58 8.59 8.60
Part-C

4) Derive expressions for effective resistance when the resisors are
a voltmeter
6) State and explain kirchoff's laws
temperature coefficient of resistance using a metre bridge
leclanche cell
12) Derive the condition for the balance of a wheatstone's network
voltage
18) Draw a neat sketch of an electron microscope.Explain its
working
potential
23)
24)
25)
26)
27)
28)
29)
30)
Explain the wave propagation in ionosphere

Explain frequency modulation
Draw the block diagram of AM radio transmitter
Explain the function of FM transmitter with neat block diagram
Explain the principle of radar
What are the applications of radar
Explain the principle of modem
What are the advantages of fiber optic communication
Problems
3.1 3.3 3.5 3.6 3.13 3.15 3.16 3.17 3.18 3.30 3.31 3.36 3.37 3.39
8.1 8.2 8.3 8.4 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.9 8.10 8.50 8.53 8.58 8.61
Part-D

electric dipole
generator

magnetic field
minimized
12) Describe the principle , construction and working of threephase a.c generator
a pure inductance.Find the phase relation between voltage and
current

charge of electron
of an electron
Optional
30) Explain the functions of a vidicon camera tube
receiver
and demerits of it
ALL THE BEST
d
What is permittivity and relative permittivity. How are they related?
Permittivity of a medium is the capacity of a medium to accomadate

electric charges at a particular location.It is the product of
permittivity of free space and relative permittivity of the medium.
Relative permittivity or dielcectric constant is defined as the ratio of
absolute permittivity of the medium to the absolute permittivity of
free space
They are related as ?r = ? /. ?0
1.26) Distinguish between electric potential and potential difference

Electric potential:
1. It is the amount of work done in moving a unit positive charge
from infinity to that point against the electrostatic force.
2. It is confined to a single point
Potential difference:
1. It is the amount of work done required to move a unit positive
charge from one point to another point within the electric field
2. It is between two points
2.11) Why copper wire not suitable for a potentiometer?

Copper wire is not suitable for potentiometer because it has high
temperature coefficient of resistance and small resistivity. So even a
very small change in temperature can cause a high change in its
resistance which will affect the experimental conditions.
2.17) The colours of a carbon resistor is orange,orange,orange.What

is the value of the resistor?
As per the colour code for carbon resistors

First orange corresponds to 3, second orange corresponds to 3,
third orange corresponds to 103.Therfore the value of the resistor is
33x10 3 ohm or 33 kO
2.25) Distinguish between electric power and electric energy.
Electric power
1. It is defined as the rate of doing
electric work
2. Power = V X I
3. unit of power is watt
Electric energy
1.It is defined as the capacity to do work
2.Energy = Power X time
3.Unit of energy joule or watt hour
2.29) Why automobile batteries have low internal resistance?

The electrodes in automobile batteries are separated by suitable
insulating materials and assembled in a way to give low internal
resistance. If E is the emf of a cell and r is the internal resistance
then the maximum current that can be drawn from the cell is I max
= E / r. Therefore to get maximum current the automobile batteries
have low internal resistance.
Differences between Peltier effect and Joule's heating effect
Peltier effect
1. It is reversible effect
2. It takes place only at t he junction of two
different metals.
3. It may be heating or cooling effect.
4. Heat evolved or absorbed at a junction is proportional to the first
power of current through the junction.
5. It depends upon direction of current.
6. Heat evolved or absorbed depends upon (i) nature of the two
metals forming the junction
(ii) temperature of junction.
Joule's effect
1.It is an irreversible effect.
2.It occurs throughout the conductor.
3.It is always a heating effect.
4.Heat produced is proportional to the square of current through
the conductor.
5.It is independent of the direction of current.
6.Heat produced depends on the resistance of the conductor.
4.24) What is a polyphase AC generator?

If a number of armature windings are used in the alternator which
are placed on the same axis but displaced
from one another by equal angle which depends on the number of
phases is called as a polyphase a.c generator.
4.25) What is inductive reactance?

The resistance offered by an inductor or coil to an a.c circuit is
called as inductive reactance. It is represented
as XL which is equal to ?L or 2p?L.
4.26) What is capacitive reactance?
The resistance offered by a capacitor to an a.c circuit is called as
capacitive reactance. It is represented as
XC which is equal to 1/?C or 1/2p?C
4.29) What is resonant frequency in LCR circuit?

The particular frequency ?0 at which the impedance of the LCR
circuit becomes minimum and therefore the
current becomes maximum is called resonant frequency.
4.28) Mention the differences between step up and step down
transformer
Step up transformer
1. It increases the alternating voltage
2. Number of turns Ns>Np
3. Current in the secondary is less than the current in the primary
4. Impedance of the secondary is greater than the impedance of the
primary
5. Transformer ratio k is grater than one
Step down transformer
1.It decreases the alternating voltage
2.Number of turns Ns<NP
3.Current in the secondary is greater than the current in the

primary
4.Impedance of the secondary is less than the impedance of the
primary
5.Transformer ratio k is less than one
4.31) Why a d.c ammeter cannot read a.c explain

A d.c ammeter measures average value of current .The average
value of a.c over a complete cycle is zero. Hence d.c ammeter cannot
read a.c
4.34) A capacitor blocks d.c but allows a.c .Explain

The capacitive reactance is Xc = 1/?c = 1 / 2p?c. For d.c ? = 0.
Therefore capacitve reactance becomes infinity for d.c hence it
blocks it.
For a.c, frequency is not equal to zero and the capacitive reactance
is not equal to infinity.Therefore it a.c can pass through the
capacitor.
4.35) What happens to the value of current in RLC series circuit, if

the frequency of the source is increased?
If the frequency of the source in an RLC circuit is increased the
current in the circuit also increases and it is maximum at a
frequency ? = ?o known as resonant frequency. For ? > ?o the
current decreases.
4.37) Differenciate between self inductance and mutual inductance
Self inductance
1. It is for a single coil
2. It is the flux linked with the coil when 1 A current flows through
it
3. The value depends on the geometry of the coil (i.e) number of
turns , area of cross section and nature of the material of the core
on which the coil is wounded
4. It is related with a single coil It is for pair of coils
Mutual inductance
1.It is the flux linked with one coil
2.when 1A current flows through the other coil
3.Depends on the geometry of two coils
4.It depends on the distance between the two coils and the relative
placements of the two coils
4.49) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of a.c over d.c

Advantages of a.c over d.c
1) A.c can be transmitted over long distances using step up
transformers with negligible loss of energy
2) A.c voltages can be easily varied using transformers
3) A.c can be easily converted into d.c
4) The magnitude of a.c can be reduced using a choke coil without
loss of energy
5) The a.c is easier and cheaper to generate than d.c
Disadvantages of a.c
1) It is more dangerous to work with a.c at high voltages
2) The shock of a.c is attractive where as that of d.c is repulsive
3) Ther are certain phenomeno like electroplating, electrotyping etc
where a.c cannot be used
4) The a.c is transmitted more from the surface of a conductor than
from inside. Therefore several insulated wires(and not a single thick
sire ) are required for the transmission of a.c
5.20) Distinguish the corpuscle and photon

Corpuscle
1. It is tiny elastic particles
2. Colour of light depends on the size of the corpuscles
3. It has particle nature
4. Do not have specified energy values
Photon
1.It is packet of energy
2.Energy depends on the frequency of each photon
3.It has dual nature
4.Each photon has the energy E = h ?
7.20) What are matter waves?

According to De-Broglie wave is associated with a moving particle
which controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated
with moving particle is called matter waves or De-Broglie waves.
7.29) If a body moves with the velocity of light, what will be its mass
? Comment on your result.
According to the variation of mass with velocity m = m0 /v1 v2
/c2 . If the velocity of the particle
v =c then the mass of the particle becomes infinity .The mass
cannot be infinity.Therfore all the particles move with velocity less
than the velocity of light.
9.28) Why is a transistor called as current amplification device?

In a transistor, emitter current= base current + collector current. It
means for a given emitter current, collector current is controlled by
base current. Therefore the change in collector current is related

with the base current and not to the base voltage change. A small
change in the base current produces a large variation in the
collector current. Hence the transistor is called as a current
amplification device.
9.29) Why CE configuration is preferred over CB configuration for

operating transistor as an amplifier?
The CE configuration
(i) has good current and voltage gain
(ii) has the highest power gain
(iii) Can be easily cascaded to multistage amplifier to get desired
gain.
So CE configuration is preferred over CB configuration for operating
transistor as an amplifier
9.43) Differentiate between linear ICs and digital ICs.
Linear ICs
1) These ICs process linear signals
2) The input and output of these ICs is a time varying signal
Digital ICs
1.These ICs process digital signals
2.The input and output of these ICs is a logical signal(i.e.) either 1
or 0

2) Define coulomb

related?
8) Define electric flux.Give its unit
during lightning?
14) Define 1 volt
18) State ohm's law
22) Compare emf and potentaial difference

41) Differenciate between self inductance and mutual inductance
45) What are the drawbacks of Sommerfeld's atom model
energy
effects in X-rays
stimulated emission
57) Define amu
60) Define curie

semiconductor?
76) What is meant by feedback? Name the two types of feedback
77) What are the advantages of negative feedback
EXOR gate
83) Differenciate between linear ICs and digital ICs
Important Questions - plus two physics march2011

Part-B
2) Define coulomb
related?
during lightning?
14) Define 1 volt
18) State ohm's law

41) Differentiate between self inductance and mutual inductance
45) What are the drawbacks of Somerfields atom model
energy
effects in X-rays
stimulated emission
57) Define amu
60) Define curie

semiconductor?
76) what is meant by feedback? Name the two types of feedback
77) what are the advantages of negative feedback
80) what are universal gates? Why are they called so?
EXOR gate
83) Differentiate between linear ICs and digital ICs
Problems
1.1 1.7 1.8 1.11 1.12 1.14 1.16 1.45 1.46 1.49 1.50 1.52
2.1, 2.3, 2.4 , 2.5, 2.9 2.13, 2.31, 2.32, 2.33, 2.39, 2.40 , 2.41.
2.42, 2.44,
4.1 4.2 4.4 4.5 4.6 4.7 4.55
6.9 6.10 6.47 6.49 6.50 6.51 6.52
8.47 8.48 8.52 8.54 8.57 8.58 8.59 8.60
Part-C
4) Derive expressions for effective resistance when the resistors are
a voltmeter
6) State and explain Kirchhoffs laws
temperature coefficient of resistance using a meter bridge
leclanche cell
12) Derive the condition for the balance of a wheat stones network
voltage

working
potential
23) Explain the wave propagation in ionosphere
24) Explain frequency modulation
25) Draw the block diagram of AM radio transmitter
26) Explain the function of FM transmitter with neat block diagram
27) Explain the principle of radar
28) What are the applications of radar
29) Explain the principle of modem
30) What are the advantages of fiber optic communication
Problems
3.1 3.3 3.5 3.6 3.13 3.15 3.16 3.17 3.18 3.30 3.31 3.36 3.37 3.39
8.1 8.2 8.3 8.4 8.5 8.6 8.7 8.8 8.9 8.10 8.50 8.53 8.58 8.61
Part-D

electric dipole

generator
magnetic field
minimized
12) Describe the principle , construction and working of threephase a.c generator
a pure inductance. Find the phase relation between voltage and
current
charge of electron
of an electron

Optional
30) Explain the functions of a vidicon camera tube
receiver
and demerits of it.
*( model Question paper-Physics2011 and one mark
important Questions visit the following website
Address www.nsridhar.hpage.com)
12-Physics English Medium Blue Print March
2011
1lesson -Blue print
4 x 1 =4
2 x 3 =-6
10
Total: 25 marks
1 x 5 =5
1 x 10 =
2 lesson -Blue-Print
1 x 1= 1
3 x 3= 9
Total: 20 marks
2 x 5 = 10
3 lesson -Blue-Print
2 x 1= 2
1x3=3
10
Total 20 marks
1x5=5
1 x 10 =
4 lesson -BLUE-PRINT
4X1=4
2 X3 = 6
10
Total 25 marks
1X5=5
1X 10 =
4X1=4
2X3=6
10
Total 25 marks
1 X 5 =5
4X1=4
2X3=6
10
Total 25 MARKS
1X5=5
2 x 1= 2
1X3=3
10
MARKS
2X5=
Total 15
1 X 10 =
1 X 10 =
4X1=4
2X3=6
10
Total 25 MARKS
1X5=5
1 X 10 =
9 lesson -BLUE PRINT

3 X 1 =3
4 X 3 = 12
10
TOTAL 30 30MARKS
1X5=5
1 X 10 =
2X1=2
1X3=3
= 10
TOTAL 20 MARKS
1X5=5
1 X 10

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ELECTROSTATICS

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