Professional Documents
Culture Documents
REASONING MATERIAL
THIS MATERIAL IS USEFUL FOR IBPS (PO & CLERK),SBI AND
ASSOCIATES (PO & CLERK),SSC,RRB,RRC,POSTAL, INSURANCE
EXAMS,MAT,CSAT,XAT,NIFT, AND MANY OTHER COMPETITIVE
EXAMS
INDEX
Name of the chapter
Page Number
Syllogism
Coding-Decoding
Input-Output
Inequalities
Decession making
Statements-Arguments
Statements-Assumptions
Statements-Course of action
Cause and Effect
Statements-Evaluating Inferences
Data Sufficiency
Blood Relations
Miscellaneous one mark reasoning models
Puzzle Test
4
8
19
22
25
30
33
36
39
42
50
53
59
73
SYLLOGISM
In each question below are three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and
III. You have to take the three given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the three given statements disregarding
commonly known facts. Then decide which of the answers (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) is the correct answer and indicate it
on the answer sheet.
Q.1. Statements : All stamps are packets. Some
Q.6. Statements : Some doors are windows. Some
packets are buckets. All buckets are tubes.
windows are lamps. All lamps are candles.
Conclusions : I. Some tubes are stamps.
Conclusions : I. Some candles are doors.
II. Some buckets are stamps.
II. Some candles are windows.
III. Some tubes are packets.
Ill. Some lamps are doors.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III
(3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows
follows (4) Only I and II follow (5) None
(5) Only II and III follow
Q.7. Statements : Some books are trees.
All trees are roads. All roads are wheels.
Conclusions : I. Some wheels are books.
Q.2. Statements : All machines are crowns. All
II. Some roads are books.
crowns are tablets. Some tablets are bottles.
III. Some wheels are trees.
Conclusions : I. Some bottles are crowns.
(1) Only I and II follow(2) Only II & III follow
II. Some tablets are machines.
(3) Only I and III follow(4) All follow
III. Some bottles are machines.
(5) None of these
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III
Q.8. Statements : All stones are rivers.
follows (4) Only II and III follow (5) None of these
All rivers are cars. Some cars are trains.
Conclusions : I. Some trains are stones.
Q.3. Statements : All rooms are hotels. All hotels
II. Some cars are stones.
are buildings. All buildings are mountains.
III. Some trains are rivers.
Conclusions : I. Some mountains are hotels.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows
II. Some buildings are rooms.
(3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows
Ill. Some mountains are rooms. .
(5) Only II and III follow.
(1) Only I and II follow (2) Only I and III follow
Q.9. Statements : All desks are rooms. Some rooms
(3) Only II and III follow (4) All I, II and III follow
are halls. All halls are leaves.
(5) None of these
Conclusions : I. Some leaves are desks.
II. Some halls are desks.
Q.4. Statements : Some towns are villages. Some
III. Some leaves are rooms.
villages are lanes. Some lanes are hamlets.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows
Conclusions : I. Some hamlets are villages.
(3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows
II. Some lanes are towns.
(5) Only II and III follow
III. Some hamlets are towns.
Q.10. Statements : Some bags are plates. Some
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II
plates are chairs. All chairs are tables.
follows
Conclusions : I. Some tables are plates.
(4) Only III follows (5) Only I and II follow
II. Some chairs are bags.
lll. No chair is bag.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only either II or III follows
(3) Only I and either II or III follow (4) Only III
Q.5. Statements : Some rivers are hills. No hill is
follows(5) None of these
taxi. All taxis are buses.
Q.11. Statements : All buildings are mirrors. Some
Conclusions : I. Some buses are rivers.
mirrors are pens. No pen is paper.
II. Some taxis are rivers. .
Conclusions : I. Some papers are buildings.
III. No bus is river.
II. Some pens are buildings.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only III
III. Some papers are mirrors.
follows (4) Only II follows (5) Only either I or III
(1) None follows(2) Only I follows(3) Only II
follows these
follows(4) Only III follows(5) Only II and III
57. Statements ;
No books is a page. All pages are markers.
All markers are articles.
Conclusions :
I. All pages are articles.
II. At least some articles are markers.
58. Statements :
Some fruits are apples. All apples are guavas.
No guava ts a banana.
Conclusions :
I. All fruits are bananas.
II. No apple Is a banana.
59. Statements: All marks are grades.
No grade is a score.
All letters are scores.
All scores are characters.
Conclusions: I. At least some letters are grades.
II. At least some scores are grades.
III. At least some characters are marks.
IV Some characters are letters..
1) Only II and IV follow 2) Only IV follows
3) Only I and III follow
4) All I, II, III and IV follow 5) None follows
CODING DECODING
MODEL-I
Q.1-6. Study the following arrangement
Q.7-12. Study the following arrangement
carefully and answer the questions given
carefully and answer the questions given
below:
below :
E % 3 R 5 # A6 B I J @ 2 9 H U 4 M 1 B 2 M E J % R 5 @ N D I P4 T3 9 F
*F7$W8PND
U 1 $ 6 H JA7 * G Q #
Q.1. What should come in place of the
Q.7. Four of the following five are alike in
question mark (?) in the following series
a certain way based on their positions in the
based on the above arrangement?
above arrangement and so form a group.
35A l@9 4M* ?
Which is the one that does not belong to
(1) 7WP (2) 7W8 (3) $8N (4) FWP (5)
that group ?
None Q.168. 2. Which of the following is
(1) 5NI (2) 9U$ (3) HA* (4) 7G# (5) DPT
the eighth to the right of the twentieth from Q.8. How many such vowels are there in
the right end of the above arrangement ?
the above arrangement, each of which is
(1) (2)@ (3) 3 (4) P (5) None of these
immediately preceded by a number and
Q.3. How many such consonants are there
immediately followed by a consonant ?
in the above arrangement each of which is
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5)
immediately; preceded by a letter and
Four
immediately followed by a symbol ?
Q.9. Which of the following is the fifth to
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More the left of the eighteenth from the left end
than three
of the above arrangement ?
Q.4. How many such numbers are there in (1) % (2) A (3) D (4) 3 (5) None of these
the above arrangement each of which is
Q.10. If all the symbols in the above
immediately preceded by a consonant and
arrangement are dropped, which of the
immediately followed by a symbol ?
following will be the twelfth
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More from the right end ?
than three
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) F (5) None of these
Q.5. Four of the following five are alike in Q.11. How many such consonants are there
a certain way based on their positions in the in the above arrangement, each of which is
above arrangement and so form a group.
immediately
Which is the one that does not belong to
preceded by a number and immediately
that group ?
followed by a letter ?
(1) 4 U (2) 8 W P (3) 6 B A (4) R 3 5 (5) (1) None (2) One (3) Two
H9U
(4) Three (5) More than three
Q.6. If all the numbers in the above
Q.12. Which of the following is the ninth
arrangement are dropped, which of the
to the right of the twentieth from the right
following will be the fourteenth from the
end of the above arrangement ?
left end
(1) D (2) @ (3) 1 (4) 6 (5) None of these
(1) J (2) (3) * (4)@ (5) None of these
MODEL-2
Q.1-6. In each question below is given a group of
letters followed by .four combinations of
digits/symbols numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). You
have to find out which of the combinations correctly
represents the group of letters based on the
following coding system and the conditions and
mark the number of that combination as your
answer. If none of the combinations correctly
represents the .group of letters, mark (5) i.e. None
of these as your answer.
Letter : F P M R E K D A I H T U J W
Digit/Symbol : 6 5 4 * 8 1 2 7 3 $ @ % 9
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is consonant and the last letter is
a vowel, their codes are to be inter changed.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels
both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are
consonants both are to be coded as the code for the
first letter.
Q.1. MUPRKE
(1) 4@5*18 (2) 8@5*14 (3) 8@5*18 (4) 4@5*14
(5) None of these
Q.2. HMUIWA
(1) 34@79 (2) 34@793 (3) 4@79 (4) 4
793 (5) None of these
Q.3. DAHITJ
(1) 237$% (2)%37$% (3)%37$2 (4) 237$2
(5) None of these
Q.4. AJFIKD
(1) 1%672 (2) %671 (3) 2%671 (4) 2%6712
(5) None of these
Q.5. EWMAPH
(1) 89453 (2) 39458 (3) 89458 (4) 89453 (5)
None of these
Q.6. IPDTWU
(1) 752$97 (2) 752$9@ (3)@52$9@ (4)@52$97 (5)
None of these
Q.7-11
Letter :
R AT K F Q E PJ I M U D H
Digit/
Symbol Code : 3 @ 2 1 9 4 % 5 8 $ 6 7 #
Conditions:
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter
is a vowel, their codes are to be interchanged.
(ii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels,
both are to be coded as *.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters consonants,
both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Q.7. DPEHQA
(1) 7%#4@ (2) @%#47 (3) 7%#47
(4) @%#4@ (5) None of these
Q.8. KEMRDF
(1) *$379 (2) 1$379 (3) 1$37*
(4) *$37* (5) None of these
Q.9. AHDUQK
(1) 1#764@ (2) 1#7641 (3) *#764*
(4) @#764@ (5) None of these
Q.10. IDQJPT
(1) 8745%2 (2) 2745%8 (3) *745%*
(4) 2745%2 (5) None of these
Q.11. UDKFME
(1) *719$ (2) 6719$ (3) *719$*
(4) 719$6 (5) None of these
combinations correctly represents the group of
letters give (5) i.e. None of these as your answer.
Q.12-17
Letters : M R I T J P Q E U D A F H W
Digit/
Symbol Code : 8 4 9 5 1 # @ 2 6 3 $ * 7
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter
is a vowel, the codes are to be interchanged,
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a
consonant both are to be coded as %.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are vowels,
both are to be coded as the code for the first letter.
Q.12. AMQDHI
(1) 38@*9 (2) 98@*9 (3) 98@*3
(4) 38@*3 (5) None of these
Q.13. UMQJPA
(1) 38@1#6 (2) 68@1#3 (3) 68@1#6
(4) 6@81#C (5) None of these
Q.14. IREDHP
(1) %42*% (2) 942*# (3) #42*9
(4) 942*9 (5) None of these
Q.15. RPJWQE
(1) 2#17@4 (2) 4#17@2 (3) 2#17@2
(4) 4#17@4 (5) None of these
Q.16. JDWPUH
(1) 17#6* (2) 17#6* (3) *17#6 (4) *7#6I (5)
None of these
Q.17. FTMQEW
(1) $85@27 (2) 758@ 2$ (3) $58@ 2$ (4) 758 @ 27
(5) None of these
MODEL-III
Q.1-6. Study the number series given below and answer the questions which follow :
678998797789787696897798976887
Q.1. How many such numbers are there in the given series each of which when subtracted from the following number,
has a difference of 2 ?(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4)Nine (5) None of these
Q.2. Which of the following numbers is obtained when 18th number from the left of the number series is added to 19th
from the right ?(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 17 (5) None of these
Q.3. Howmany nines are there in the given series each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number ?(1)One
(2)Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) More than Four
Q.4. Howmany such even numbers are there in the given series each of which is immediately followed by an even
number ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.5. Howmany such odd numbers are there in the given series each of which is immediately preceded by an even
number ?(1) Five (2) Seven (3)Nine (4) Eleventh (5) None of these
Q.6. How many such sevens are there in the given series each of which is immediately preceded by 9 and also
immediately followed by 8 ?(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.7-12. Study the number series given below and answer the questions which follow :
678998797789787696897798976887
Q.7. How many such numbers are there in the given series each of which when subtracted from the following number,
has a difference of 2 ?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4)Nine (5) None of these
Q.8. Which of the following numbers is obtained when 18th number from the left of the number series is added to 19th
from the right ?
(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 10 (4) 17 (5) None of these
Q.9. How many nines are there in the given series each of which is immediately preceded by an odd number ?
(1)One (2)Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) More than Four
Q.10. How many such even numbers are there in the given series each of which is immediately followed by an even
number ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.11. How many such odd numbers are there in the given series each of which is immediately preceded by an even
number ?
(1) Five (2) Seven (3)Nine (4) Eleventh (5) None of these
Q.12. How many such sevens are there in the given series each of which is immediately preceded by 9 and also
immediately followed by 8 ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.13-14. These questions are based on following set of numbers :
349 483 766 598 674
Q.13. If in each of the numbers the positions of the first two digits are interchanged and then the numbers are arranged
in ascending order which number will be at the second position ?
(1) 349 (2) 483 (3) 766 (4) 598 (5) 674
Q.14. If in each of the numbers the positions of the first and the third digits are interchanged and then the numbers are
arranged in descending order which number will be at the fourth position ?
(1) 349 (2) 483 (3) 766 (4) 598 (5) 674
Q.15-16.Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below:
519 368 437 246 175
Q.15. Which of the following is the sum of the middle digits of the highest and the lowest numbers
(1) 6 (2) 9 (3) 8 (4) 5 (5) None of these
Q.16. Which of the following is the third digit of the second highest number ?
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 7 (4) 6 (5) 5
10
Q.17-19.Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below :
519 378 436 624 893
Q.17. If the positions of the first and the third digits within each number are interchanged, which of the
following will be the second smallest number ?
(1) 519 (2) 378 (3) 436 (4) 624 (5) 893
Q.18. If '1' is subtracted from the first digit in each number and '1' is added to the second digit in each number, which
of the following will be the third digit of the second highest number
(1) 9 (2) 8 (3) 6 (4) 4 (5) 3
Q.19. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of
the following will be the highest number ?
(1) 519 (2) 378 (3) 436 (4) 624 (5) 893
Q.20-22. These questions are based on the following set of numbers,
386 752 961 573 839
Q.20. If in each number the second and the third digits are interchanged, what will be the sum of the first and third digits of the
largest number ?
(1) 12 (2) 17 (3) 15 (4) 11 (5) None of these
Q.21. If in each number the first and the third digits are interchanged, which number will be the second largest ?
(1) 386 (2) 752 (3) 961 (4) 573 (5) 839
Q.22. If 1 is added to the middle digit of each number and then the first and the second digits are interchanged, which of the
following will be the third digit of the smallest number ?
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3 (5) 9
11
Directions (25-29): Following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
591 462 318 675 924
25. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, which of the following will be the difference
between the numbers which are second from the left and third from the right?
1) 144 2) 462 3) 129
4) 357 5) 84
26. If the positions of the first and the third digits of each of the numbers are interchanged, how many even numbers
will be formed?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
27. If one is added to the third digit of each of the numbers, how many numbers thus formed will be divisible by three?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) Four
28. If all the digits in each of the numbers are arranged in ascending order within the number, which of the following
will form the highest number in the new arrangement of numbers?
1) 591 2) 462 3) 318 4) 675 5) 924
29. What will be the resultant if the first digit of the lowst number is multiplied with the third digit of the second
highest number?
1) 15 2) 27 3) 20 4) 56 5) 24
Q.30. C E B A C D B C D A C E B E D - C A B A D A C E D U B A U B D B U
1. How many such pairs of alphabets are there in the series of alphabets given in BOLD (D to C) in the given
arrangement each of which has as many letters between them (in both forward and backward directions as they have
between them in the English alphabetical series?
1) Three 2) One 3) Two 4) None 5) More than three
2. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the twenty second from the right end of the above arrangement?
1) D 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) U
3. How many such As are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a 'B' and also
immediately followed by a consonant?
1) One 2) None 3) More than three 4) Two 5) Three
4. How many such Ds are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and
also immediately followed by a vowel?
1) More than four 2) Four 3) One 4) Three 5) Two
5. How many Bs are there in the above arrangement?
1) Five 2) Seven 3) Six 4) Nine 5) Eight
12
MODEL-4
Q.1. In a certain code, always create new ideas is written as ba ri sha gi, ideas and new thoughts is written as
fa gi ma ri, create thoughts and insights is written as ma jo ba fa, and new and better solutions is written
as ki ri to fa.
1. What is the code for ideas?
1) sha 2) ba 3) gi 4) ma 5) Cannot be determine
2. What does fa stand for?
1) thoughts 2) insights 3) new 4) and 5) solutions
3. fa lo ba could be a code for which of the following?
1) thoughts and action 2) create and innovate 3) ideas and thoughts 4) create new solutions
5) always better ideas
4. What is the code for new?
1) ki 2) ri 3) to 4) fa 5) ba
5. Which of the following may represent insights always better?
1) jo ki to 2) ki to ri 3) sha jo ri 4) to sha jo 5) sha to ba
6. What is the code for thoughts?
1) ma 2) fa 3) ba 4) jo 5) Either jo or fa
Q.2.In a certain code 'Very large risk associated' is written as 'nu ta ro gi'. 'risk is very low' is written as 'gi se
nu mi'. 'is that also associated' is written as 'ta mi po fu'. 'inherent risk also damaging' is written as 'fu nu di yu'
(All the codes are two letter codes only)
1. Which of the following represents 'risk also large'?
1) nu fu po 2) nu gi ro 3) ro po ta 4) fu nu ro 5) ro yu tu
2. What is the code for 'very'?
1) ta 2) fu 3) ro 4) nu 5) gi
3. What is the code for 'associated'?
1) mi 2) ta 3) ro 4) gi 5) nu
4. What does the code 'di stand for'?
1) Either 'damaging' or 'inherent' 2) inherent 3) also 4) low 5) risk
5. Which of the following represents 'that is low'?
1) po mi di 2) se po mi 3) ta mi po 4) se po ru 5) ta mi se
For More Visit
Q.3. In a certain code language, bank for my conductor is written as 'ya ri vi pa'. 'for conductor is my' is
written as 'ri vi pa da' 'my computer is yours is written as 'da vi pi du' 'it yours tablet' is written as 'yu du ca'
1. Which of the following is the code for 'conductor'?
1) da 2) ri 3) ya 4) pa 5) ri or pa
2. Which of the following may represent 'ya pi du'?
1) my computer tablet 2) yours computer bank 3) yours tablet bank 4) computer for bank
5) my tablet conductor
3. What is the code for 'my'?
1) ri 2) pa 3) du 4) vi 5) da
4. What does the code 'pa' stand for?
1) for 2) conductor 3) my 4) bank 5) Cannot be determined
5. In the code language 'my computer' can be coded as:
1) pi vi 2) pi da 3) vi ri 4) pi ya 5) du p
Q.4. In a certain code,'always create new ideas' is written as 'ba ri sha gi', ideas and new thoughts' is written as
'fa gi ma ri', 'create thoughts and insights' is written as `ma jo ba fa' and 'new and better solutions'is written as
'ki ri to fa'
1. What is the code for 'ideas'?
(1) sha (2) ba (3) gi (4) ma (5) Cannot be determined
2. What does fa' stand for?
(1) thoughts (2) insights (3) new (4) and (5) solutions
3. 'fa lo ba' could be a code for which of the following?
(1) thoughts and action (2) create and innovate (3) ideas and thoughts (4) create new solutions
(5) always better ideas
13
14
MODEL-5
Q.1-5.In each of the following questions, two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each
row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the question below the rows
of numbers are to be answered. The operation of numbers progresses from left to right.
Rules:
(i) If an odd number is followed by another composite odd number, they are to be multiplied.
(ii) If an even number is followed by an odd number, they are-to be added.
(iii) If an even number is followed by a number which is a perfect square, the even number is to
be subtracted from the perfect square.
(iv) If an odd number is followed by a prime odd number, the first number is to be divided by the
second number.
(v) If an odd number is followed by an even number, the second one is to be subtracted from the
first one.
Q.1. 58 17 5
85 5 n
If n is the resultant of the first row what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 255 (2) 32 (3) 49 (4) 34 (5) None of these
Q.2. 24 64 15
m 11 15
If m is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 165 (2) 75 (3) 20 (4) 3 (5) None of these
Q.3. 7 21 3
d 7 33
If d is the resultant of the first row, what will be the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 40 (2) 138 (3) 231 (4) 80 (5) None of these
Q.4. 73 34 13
32 p 15
If p is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row?
(1) 713 (2) 50 (3) 20 (4) 525 (5) None of these
Q.5. 14 5 9
24 w 88
If w is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1)171 (2) 283 (3) 195 (4) 165 (5) None of these
Q6-10. In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be
worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered.
The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If a two digit odd number is followed by a two digit odd number they are to be added.
(ii) If a two digit even number is followed by a two digit odd number which is the perfect square
is to be subtracted from the odd number.
(iii) If a three digit number is followed by a two digit number the first number is to be divided by
the second number.
(iv) If a prime number is followed by an even number they are to be added.
(v) If an even number is followed by another even number the two are to be multiplied.
Q.6. 37 12 21
38 81 14
What is the difference between the resultants of the two rows ?
(1) 23 (2) 32 (3) 13 (4) 18 (5) None of these
Q.7. 23 15 12
X 24 49
If X is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 24 (2) 25 (3) 28 (4) 22 (5) None of these
Q.8. 16 8 32
132 11 X2
15
If X is the resultant of first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(1) 192 (2) 128 (3) 132 (4) 144 (5) None of these
Q.9. 345 23 X
45 17 81
If X is the resultant of the second row, what is the resultant of the first row ?
(1) 285 (2) 33 (3) 135 (4) 34 (5) None of these
Q.10. 12 28 84
37 22 18
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows ?
(1) 77 (2) 87 (3) 84 (4) 72 (5) None of these
Q.11-15. In a certain instruction system the different computation processes are written as follows :
(a) p @ q # r means p is multiplied by the sum of q and r.
(b) p q % r means q is divided by r and the resultant is added to the square of p.
(c) p $ q * r means r is subtracted from the product of p and q.
(d) p q r means r is subtracted from q and the resultant is added to p.
In each of the following questions, a set of instruction sequence is given. You are required to find
out the outcome which should come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the given sets of
sequence.
Q.11. 16 64 % 16 = n
n 24 14 = ?
(1)250 (2) 270 (3) 274 (4) 30 (5) None of these
Q.12. k $ 15 * 25 = 50
k @ 12 # 18 = ?
(1) 150 (2) 750 (3) 300 (4) 250 (5) None of these
Q.13. 10 45 20 = d
15 d % 7 = ?
(1) 225 (2) 20 (3) 230 (4) 40 (5) None of these
Q.14. 20 $ 15 * 120 = w
w 44 20 = ?
(1) 240 (2) 244 (3) 180 (4) 204 (5) None of these
Q.15. 14 20 % 5 = t
t $ 8 * 40 = ?
(1) 15 (2) 40 (3) 60 (4) 25 (5) None of these
Q.16-17. The letters in each of the following five words are written in alphabetical order and five new sets of letters
are obtained.
HAD OLD ART WOE PER
Q.16. Which word will remain unchanged even after rearrangement in alphabetical order ?
(1) WOE (2) PER (3) HAD (4) ART (5) None
Q.17. If it is possible to make one meaningful English word from the last letter of each of the five
words after their rearrangement in alphabetical order the last letter of the word is your answer.
If no word can be made 'Z' is your answer and if more than one such word can be made then 'Y
is your answer.
(1) Y (2) R (3) H (4) W (5) Z
Q.18-23.In a certain instruction system different computation processes are written as follows :
(i) a @b $ c means square root of 'b' is divided by 'a' and the resultant is added to 'c'.
(ii) a * b # c means the resultant of 'a' raised to the power of 'b' is multiplied by 'c'
(iii) a % b ! c means quotient of 'a' divided by 'b' is subtracted from 'c'
(iv) a b means product of 'b' and 'c' is divided by 'a'.
In each of the questions below, a set of instruction sequence is given. You are required to find out
the outcome which should come in place of the question mark (?) in each of the given sets of
sequence.
Q.18. 72 %6 ! n = 96
16
4n2=?
(1) 54 (2) 108 (3) 42 (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.19. 7 14 9 = m
m @ 324 $ 192 = ?
(1) 28.67 (2) 193 (3) 210 (4) 196.24 (5) None of these
Q.20. 2 * 6 # 4 = y
224 % 2 !y = ?
(1) 112 (2) 228 (3) 12 (4) 144 (5) None of these
Q.21. 75 % 3 ! r = 75
2 @ r $ 125 = ?
(1) 135 (2) 112.5 (3) 130 (4) 175 (5) None of these
Q.22. 8 * 3 # 2 = x
4 @ $ 64 = ?
(1)72 (2) 128 (3) 576 (4) 512 (5) None of these
17
INPUT-OUTPUT
Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and
rearrangement.
MODEL-1
MODEL-2
Input : shop 17 table 20 53 oven desk 39
Input : go now 52 38 17 for again 65
Step I : 17 shop table 20 53 oven desk 39
Step I : 65 go now 52 38 17 for again
Step II : 17 table shop 20 53 oven desk 39
Step II : 65 again go now 52 38 17 for
Step III : 17 table 20 shop 53 oven desk 39
Step III : 65 again 52 go now 38 17 for
Step IV : 17 table 20 shop 39 53 oven desk
Step IV : 65 again 52 for go now 38 17
Step V : 17 table 20 shop 39 oven 53 desk
Step V : 65 again 52 for 38 go now 17
and Step V is the last step of the rearrangement.
Step VI : 65 again 52 for 38 go 17 now
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find
Step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
out in each of the following questions the
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find
appropriate step for the given input.
out in each of the following questions the
Q.1. Step II of an input is : 15 yes 62 51 48 talk
appropriate step for the given input.
now gone
Q.7. Input: home turf 39 24 86 44 roll over
Which of the following will be step VI ?
Which of the following steps will be the last ?
(1) 15 yes 48 talk 51 now gone 62
(1) X (2) IX (3) VIII
(2) 15 yes 48 talk 51 62 now gone
(4) VII (5) None of these
(3) 15 yes 48 talk 51 now 62 gone
Q.8. Step III of input is : 94 car 86 window shut 52
(4) There will be no such step
31 house
(5) None of these
Which of the following is definitely the input ?
Q.2. Step III of an input is : 21 victory 30 joint 64
(1) 94 car window 86 shut 52 31 house
47 all gone
(2) 86 window 94 car shut 52 31 house
How many more steps will be required to complete
(3) car shut window 86 52 31 house 94
the rearrangement ?
(4) Cannot be determined
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five
(5) None of these
(4) Six (5) None of these
Q.9. Step IV of an input is : 58 box 47 dew 15 21
Q.3. Input : 89 bind 32 goal house 61 12 joy
town pot
How many steps will be required to complete the
Which of the following steps will be the last ?
arrangement ?
(1) VII (2) VI (3) VIII (4) IX (5) None of these
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six
Q.10. Input: show 51 36 new far 81 46 goal
(4) Seven (5) None of these
Which of the following steps will be the last but one
Q.4. Input: save 21 43 78 them early 36 for
?
which of the following steps will be the last but one (1) VII (2) VIII (3) VI (4) V (5) None of these
(1) VI (2) VII (3) VIII
Q.11. Input: buywin task 52 38 43 door 12
(4) V (5) None of these
Which of the following will be step IV ?
Q.5. Input : desire 59 63 all few 38 46 zone
(1) 52 buy 43 door 38 task 12 win
How many steps will be required to complete the
(2) 52 buy 43 door 38 task win 12
rearrangement ?
(3) 52 buy 43 door task win 38 12
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six
(4) There will be no such step
(4) Seven (5) None of these
(5) None of these
Q.6. Input : win 92 task 73 59 house range 34
Q.12. Step II of an input is : 76 ask 12 32 begin
Which of the following will be step IV of the above over join 42
input ?
How many more steps will be required to complete
(1) 34 win 59 task 73 range 92 house
the rearrangement ?
(2) 34 win 92 59 task 73 house range.
(1) Four (2) Five (3) Six
(3) 34 win 92 task 73 59 house range.
(4) Three (5) None of these
(4) There will be no such step (5) None
18
MODEL-3
Input : trucks 49 carry 36 massive 25 load 16
Step I : carry trucks 49 36 massive 25 load 16
Step II : carry 16 trucks 49 36 massive 25 load
Step III : carry 16 load trucks 49 36 massive 25
Step IV : carry 16 load 25 trucks 49 36 massive
StepV : carry 16 load 25 massive trucks 49 36
Step VI : carry 16 load 25 massive 36 trucks 49
Step VI is the last step for the above input.
Now answer the following questions, following the
same rules as illustrated above for rearrangement
of the input .
Q.13. If the third step of the input is " is 4 material
36 test 16 packed 64" which of the following will
be
the fifth step?
(1) is 4 material 16 packed 64 test 36
(2) is 4 material 16 packed 36 test 64
(3) is 4 material 16 test 36 packed 64
(4) There are only four steps
(5) None of these
Q.14. if the input is " the 36 issue 49 became 9
serious 25" how many steps will be required to
complete the rearrangement ?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) None of these
Q.15. How long excluding the rest period will it
take to rearrange the input
"you 49 visited 81 their 16 relative 25'?
(1) 5 hours 45 minutes (2) 5 hours
(3) 5 hours 30 minutes (4) 4 hours 45 minutes
(5) None of these
Q.16. What will be the input if the fourth step of the
arrangement is
"most 16 people 25 similarly 81 think 36" ?
(1) most 25 people 16 similarly 81 think 25
(2) most 25 people 16 think 81 similarly 36
(3) most 16 people 25 think 36 similarly 81
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Q.17. What will be the third step of the input
"ministers 25 solved 36 their 81 problems 64" ?
(1) ministers 25 problems 36 solved 81 their 64
(2) ministers 25 problems 36 solved 64 their 81
(3) ministers 25 problems 36 their 81solved 64
(4) ministers 25 solved 36 problems 81 their 64
(5) None of these
ODEL-4
Input line : 56 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer
Step I 72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer
Step II 72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer
Step III 72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer
Step IV 72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32
StepV 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32
Step VI 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress
Step VI is the last step and the output in Step VI is
the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find
out in each of the following questions the
appropriate step for the given input.
Q.18. Step IV of an input is 62 sound 56 sleep
roam present 33 49'.What will be the input
definitely ?
(1) sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(2) sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
(3) 62 sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Q.19. Which of the following will be the third step
for input: jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45
(1) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
(2) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
(3) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
(4) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
(5) None of these
Q.20. Step II of an input is 53 window 42 50 door
lock key 36'. How many more steps will be required
to complete the arrangement ?
(1) Three (2) Four (3) Five (4) Six (5) None of these
Q.21. What will be the fifth step of an input whose
first step is 85 journey train 36 54 daily 28
mansion ?
(1) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
(2) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
(3) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
(4) There is no such step
(5) None of these
Q.22. Which step will be the last step for an input
whose second step is 63 Sour 18 56 grapes
healthy 32 rise?
(1) IV (2) V (3)VIII (4) VII (5) None of these
19
MODEL-5
Input:11 day 34 night 93 pace 27 easy 44 joy
Step I:93 11 day 34 night pace 27 easy 44 joy
Step II:93 11 34 night pace 27 easy 44 joy day
Step III:93 44 11 34 night pace 27 easy joy day
Step IV:93 44 11 34 night pace 27 joy day easy
Step V:93 44 34 11 night pace 27 joy day easy
Step VI:93 44 34 11 night pace 27 day easy joy
Step VII: 93 44 34 27 11 night pace day easy joy
Step VIII: 93 44 34 27 11 pace day easy joy night
Step IX:93 44 34 27 11 day easy joy night pace
And Step IX is the last step of the rearrangement as
the desired arrangement is obtained. As per rules
followed in the above steps, find out in each of the
questions the appropriate step for the given input.
23. What is the position of war in Step VII?
1) Seventh from the left end
2) Eighth from the right end
3) Fifth from the left end
4) Fifth from the right end
5) Sixth from the left end
24. Which of the following is ninth from the right in
Step VI?
1) race 2) 25 3) war
4) 58 5) 15
25. What is the position of 15' in Step IX?
1) Seventh from the left end
2) Eighth from the left end
3) Fifth from the right end
4) Seventh from the right end
5) Eighth from the right end
26. How many steps are required to complete this
arrangement?
1) Eleven 2) Twelve 3) Ten
4) Nine 5) None of these
25. Which of the following represents Step X?
1) 88 73 58 38 25 war 15 race take class heap just
2) 88 73 58 38 25 15 class heap just race take war
3) 88 73 58 38 25 15 war class heap just race take
4) 88 73 58 38 25 15 war take
20
INEQUALITIES
In the following questions, the symbols@, , $,%
and # are used with the following meanings
illustrated.
P $ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal to
Q.
P # Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P @ Q means P is not greater than Q.
P % Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater
than Q.
P Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to
Q.
In each of the following questions assuming the
given statements to be true, find out which of the
three conclusions I, II and III given below them
is/are definitely true.
Q.1. Statements : B % H, H $ E, E @ K
Conclusions : I. K$H II. K$B III. EB
(1) None is true (2) Only III is true (3) Only II is
true (4) Only I is true (5) Only I and III are true
Q.2. Statements : M # W, W % N, N $ B
Conclusions : I. N % M II. NM III. M $ B
(1) Only either I or II is true (2) Only either I or III
is true (3) Only either I or II and III are true (4)
Only III is true (5) None of these
Q.3. Statements : MT, T#J, J$K
Conclusions : I. KT II. MJ , III. K @ M
(1) None is true (2) Only III is true (3) Only II is
true (4) Only I is true (5) Only I and II are true
Q.4. Statements : F # N, N D, D @ R
Conclusions : I. D # F II. R$N III. R $ F
(1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true (5) Only II and III are true
Q.5. Statements : W@F, F$M, MD
Conclusions : I. D $ F II. WM III. F $ D
(1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true (5) Only II and III are true
Q.6. Statements : R F, F # D, D @ M
Conclusions I. RD II. M % F III. M $ R
(1)None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true (5) Only I and II are true
P % Q means P is not smaller than Q.
P $ Q means P is not greater than Q.
P * Q means Pis neither greater than nor equal to
Q.
P QmeansP is neither smaller than nor equal to
Q.
P @ Q means P is neither greater than nor smaller
than Q.
Q.7. Statements : R@K, K$F, F * N
Conclusions : I. N R II. F@R III. FR
(1) Only I is true (2) Only either II or III is true
(3) Only I and either II or III are true (4) Only III is
Q.8. Statements : J M, M * K, K % D
Conclusions : I. JD II. D * M III. KJ
(1) None is true (2) Only I is true (3) Only II is true
(4) Only III is true (5) Only I and II are true
Q.9. Statements : H * T, T $ B, B R
Conclusions : I. RH II. BH III. T * R
(1) Only I is true (2) Only I and II are true
(3) Only I and III are true (4) Only ll and III are true
(5) None of these
Q.10. Statements : R $ D, D @ N, N F
Conclusions : I. F * D II. F * R III. N % R
(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only I and III are true
(3) Only II and III are true (4) All are true
(5) None of these
Q.11. Statements : F $ B, B @ H, H % K
Conclusions : I. B % F II. K@F III. K$B
(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true (4) Only I and III are true
(5) None of these
Q.12. Statements : M % D, D * K, K $ N
Conclusions : I. KM II. ND III. MN
(1) Only I is true (2) Only II is true
(3) Only III is true (4) Only I and II are true
(5) None of these
P # Q means P is not smaller than Q
P % Q means P is not greater than Q.
P @ Q means P is neither smaller than nor equal
to Q.
P $ Q means P is neither greater than nor equal to
Q.
P Q means P is neither smaller than nor greater
than Q.
In each of the following questions assuming the
given statements to be true, find out which of the
two conclusions I and II given below them is/are
definitely true.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I is true.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II is true.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion
II is true.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor
conclusion II is true.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I and II are true.
Q.13. Statement : H W, W % R, R @ F
Conclusions: I. RH II. R @ H
Q.14. Statement : M$T, T@K, KD
Conclusions : I. D$T II. K$M
Q.15. Statement : R % N, N # F, F @ B
Conclusions : I. FR II. B$N
Q.16. Statement : H @ W, W $ M, M # K
Conclusions : I. K$W II. H @ M
Q.17. Statement : R#T, TM, M @ D
21
22
Q.39. Statements: G F = L J; J K = H
Conclusions: I. H = G II. G < H
Q.40. Statements: P < R < S < T > U
Conclusions: I. U < R II. T > P
Q.41. Statements: T > U V > W; X < Y = W > Z
Conclusions: I. Z > U II. W < T
Q.42. Statements: K < L < M < N; M < O < P
Conclusions: I. P > K II. N > O
Q.43. Statements: B < A < C; A > D E
Conclusions: I. B E II. C > E
Q.44.Statements: Y = Z; W < X Y; Z < K
Conclusions: I. W < Z II. X < K
Q.45. Statements: M = N; N > L S
Conclusions: I. S < N II. M > S
Q.46. Statements: G > H I; J > I; K = J
Conclusions: I. G > I II. H > K
Q.47. Statements: B A; B > C; D = E > C
Conclusions: I. A < D II. A > E
Q.48. Statements: R = S > T; R < Q; P < Q
Conclusions: I. P S II. Q > T
Q.49. Statement: A < L < T < R H > K
Conclusions: I. H > L II. K > T
Q.50. Statement: P = N > D G < B = J
Conclusions: I. G < P II. G < J
Q.51. Statement: F C V= Z < X = U
Conclusions: I. V < U II. Z < F
Q.52. Statement: Q E = I > N R S
Conclusions: I. E = S II. S N
Q.53. Statements: H @ T, T # F, F E, E V
Conclusions: I. V $ F
Q.54. Statements: D # R, R K, K @ F, F $ J
Conclusions:
I. J # R
II. J # K
III. R # F
IV. K @ D
1) Only I, II and III are true 2) Only II, III and IV
are true
3) Only I, III and IV are true 4) All I, II, III and IV
are true
5) None of these
Q.55. Statements: N B, B $ W, W # H, H M
Conclusions:
I. M @ W
II. H @ N
III. W N
IV. W # N
1) Only I is true 2) Only III is true 3) Only IV is true
4) Only either III or IV is true
5) Only either III or IV and I are true
Q.56. Statements: R D, D $ J, J # M, M @ K
Conclusions:
I. K # J
II. D @ M
III. R # M
IV. D @ K
1) None is true 2) Only I is true 3) Only II is true
4) Only III is true 5) Only IV is true
Q.57. Statements: M $ K, K @ N, N R, R # W
Conclusions:
I. W @ K
II. M $ R
III. K @ W
IV. M @ N
(1) Only I and II are true (2) Only I, II and III are
true
(3) Only III and IV are true (4) Only II, III and IV
are true
(5) None of these
23
DECISION MAKING
1-10.Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
Following are the conditions for selecting Chief Manager - Sales in an organization. The candidate must__
(i) be graduate in any discipline with at least 60 percent marks.
(ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in the selection process.
(iii) be at least 30 years and not more than 40 years as on 1.5.2009.
(iv) be a post graduate degree/diploma holder in Marketing/Sales Management.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least eight years in the Sales/Marketing division of an organisation.
If the case of a candidate who satisfies all the conditions EXCEPT(A) at (ii) above but has secured more than 65 percent marks in graduation, the case is to be referred to GM-Sales.
(B) at (v) above but has post qualification work experience of at least five years as Manager - Sales in an
organization, the case is to be referred to VP-Sales. In each question below details of one candidate are given. You are
to take one of the following courses of action based on the information and the conditions and sub-conditions given
above and mark the number of that course of action as the answer. You are not to assume anything other than the
information provided in each case.All these cases are given to you as on 01.05.2009.Mark answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (2) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (3) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to the GM-Sales.
Mark answer (5) if the case is to be referred to the VP-Sales,
Q.1. Mohan Das was born on 25thMarch 1976. He has secured 60 percentmarks in both graduation and the selection
process. He is a first class post graduate degree holder in Management. He has been working for the last eight years in
the sales division of an organization.
Q.2. Joseph DSouza was born on 18th February 1979. He has secured 60 percentmarks in graduation and 55 percent
marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past six years as Manager-Sales in an organization after
completing his post graduate diploma in Sales Management.
Q.3. Mita Keswani has been working in the marketing division of an organisation for the past eleven years after
completing her post graduation. She has secured 62 percent marks in the selection process and 70 percent marks in
graduation. She was born on 2nd November 1978.
Q.4. Pravin Vohra was born on 2nd July 1972. He has been working in the sales division of an organization for the past
ten years after completing his postgraduate degree in Sales Management with 50 percent marks. He has secured 68
percent marks is graduation and 50 percent marks in the selection process.
Q.5. Meena Srivastava has been working in the Sales division of an organization for the past twelve years after
completing her postgraduate degree in sales management with 65 percent marks. She has secured 58 percentmarks in
graduation and 57 percentmarks in the selection process.She was born on 12th May 1976.
Q.6. KalpeshMehta was born on 16th February 1970. He has secured 68 percentmarks in graduation and 58 percent
marks in the selection process. He has been working for the past six years as Manager-Sales in an organization after
completing his post graduate diploma in Sales.
Q.7. Abhinav Shukla has secured 62 percent marks in graduation and 58 percent marks in the selection process. He
has been working in themarketing division of a company for the past nine years after completing his post graduate
diploma in Marketing with 55 percent marks. He was born on 5th August 1974.
Q.8. Akash Malhotra was born on 6th April 1975. He has been working in the sales division of a ncompany for the
past ten years after completing his post graduate diploma in MarketingManagement. He has secured 65 percent marks
in graduation and 56 percent marks in the selection process.
Q.9. SeemaMahajan was born on 12th July 1973. She has secured 56 percentmarks in the selection process. She has
been working in the sales division of an organisation for the past thirteen years after completing her post graduate
degree in Sales Management. She has secured 59 percent marks in graduation.
Q.10. Jayant Sahu has secured 52 percent marks in the selection process and 72 percent marks in graduation. He has
been working for the past twelve years in themarketing division of a company after completing his post graduation in
Marketing Management. He was born on 19th March1972.
11-15Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
Following are the conditions for selecting Marketing Manager in an organization : The candidate must
(i) be at least 30 years old as on 1.3.2009.
24
25
Q.17. Avinash is a Science graduate passed in first class with 63% marks. He has secured 53% and 51%marks in
selection test and interview respectively. He is willing to work anywhere in India. He has been working in the
Marketing department of a private organization since July 2007 He was born on 11.6.1980.
Q.18. SunilMakwana is a graduate in Science passed with 72%marks. His date of birth is 13.10.1978. He is working
for past two years as a clerk. He has secured 58% marks in selection test as well as in interview. He is willing to work
anywhere in India.
Q.19. Nisha Sharma has passed B.Com, with 57%marks in July 2008, She has secured 48%marks in interview and
56% marks in selection test. She is willing to work anywhere in India, She has completed 25 years of age in November
2008.
Q.20. Rajan Vaze is a graduate with 45%marks and a post graduate with 52%marks. His date of birth is 17.6.1982 He
is wiiling to work anywhere in India. He has secured 56%marks in interview and 63% mark in selection test.
Q.21. Shamika is a 23 years old Science graduate passed in August 2008 with 52% marks. She is willing towork
anywhere in India. She has cleared the selection test with 66%marks and interview with 56% marks.
Q.22. Bhavesh Shah is a postgraduate in Chemistry and is working in a chemical company since past one year He had
scored 53% marks in graduation. He has secured 58% marks in selection test and 52%marks in interview. He is 26
years old at present. He is willing to work anywhere in India.
Q.23. Vandana is B.A. with Economics passed with 68% marks. Her date of birth is 23.8,1983. She is willing to work
anywhere in India. She has secured 56%marks in interview,
Q.24-33. An HR firm wants to recruit trainees who can be their future HR Professionals. Following are
the criteria for selection. The candidate must
(i) be a first class graduate in any discipline with minimum 60% marks.
(ii) have completed postgraduate degree/diploma in Management with specialization in HR/
Personnel securing at least 65% marks.
(iii) have cleared the selection test with at least 60% marks and interview with at least 55%
marks.
(iv) be willing to work anywhere in India.
(v) be not less than 21 years of age and not more than 25 years of age as on 1.8.2008.
However, if a candidate satisfies all the above criteria except
(a) at (i) but has secured at least 55%marks in graduation and at least 70%marks in postgraduate
management degree/diploma in HR, the case may be referred to General manager (GM)-HR.
(b) at (ii) above but has completed postgraduate degree/diploma in Management with
specialization in HR/Personnel securing at least 55% marks and has a working experience
of at least one year, the case may be referred to Executive Director (ED).
In each question below, details of one candidate is provided. You have to take an appropriate
decision based on the information provided and the criteria indicated above and mark your answer
as one of the choices given below. You are not to assume anything other than the information
provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.8.2008.
Mark answer (1) if the candidate is to be selected.
Mark answer (2) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to GMHR.
Mark answer (4) if the case is to be referred to ED.
Mark answer (5) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Q.24. AbhijitMane is a first class Engineering graduate passed out in 2003 with 71%marks. Thereafter he completed
MBAHR from a reputed institute and completed in 2005 with 75% marks. His date of birth is 1.7.1984. He is willing
to work anywhere in India. He has secured 55% marks in selection test as well as in interview.
Q.25. Hrishikesh is a B.Com. graduate with 58% marks and has done postgraduate diploma in Management with
specialization in Personnel with 75% marks. He cleared the selection test with 60% marks and the interview with 62%
marks. He had completed 24 years of age on 15th September 2007. He is willing to work anywhere in India.
Q.26. Kavita Nikhar is a Arts graduate with Ecnonomic as major, passed out in first class with 66% marks. She has
also passed MBAPersonnel with 68% marks. She has secured 62% marks in interview and 64% marks in selection
test. Her date of birth is 27th June 1985,
Q.27. Namrata Das is a Software Engineer, passed out Engineering degree examination in first class with 68% marks.
Thereafter she did MBAHR with 62% marks. She has cleared selecition test and interview with 62% and 63% marks
respectively. She is working with a IT firm for last 1 years after completing MBA. She is willing to work anywhere
in India. Her date of birth is 18.10.1984.
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Q.28. Ruchira Wadia is a Science graduate passed in first class with 67% marks and MBAHR with 73% marks. She
has obtained 72% marks in selection test and 62% marks in interview. She is willing to work anywhere in India. She
completed 23 years of age on 14th May 2008.
Q.29. Shirish Balsekar in an Engineering graduate passed in first class with 63%marks and PGDBM HR with 69%
marks. He has secured 73% marks in selection test and 67% marks in interview. He is willing to work anywhere in
India. His date of birth is 16.9.1983.
Q.30. Naveen Vichare, is B.Sc. passed in first class with 67% marks and MBAPersonnel with 59% marks. He has
secured 63% and 62% marks in interview and selection test respectively. His date of birth is 23rd April 1983. He is
working in personnel department of an organization since 2006 June as a Jr. Officer. He has no problem if posted
anywhere in India.
Q.31. Sheela Neve, is B.A. passed with 57% marks and MBAHR with 73% marks. She has secured 67%marks in
selection test and 62%marks in interview. She is willing to work anywhere in India.
Q.32. Manish Sawant is an Agricultural graduate passed in first class with 85%marks. He has passed postgraduate
diploma examination in Management with specialization in Personnel with 69% marks. He would like to work only in
western part of the country. His date of birth is 17.6.1985.
Q.33. Akhilesh Badve is a B.Sc. (IT) with 56%marks and MBA-HR with 76%marks. He has completed 24 years of
age on 15th June 2008. He is willing to work anywhere in India. He has cleared the selection test and interview with
65% marks each.
Q.34-43.Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
Following are the conditions for selecting Accounts Manager in an organization.
The candidate must (i) be a graduate in Commerce with minimum 55 percent marks.
(ii) be a post graduate in Commerce with minimum 50 percent marks.
(iii) have post qualification work experience of at least three years in the accounts department in
an organization.
(iv) not be less than 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on 1.5.2008.
(v) have secured at least 40 percent marks in the selection process.
In the case if a candidate satisfies all other criteria except (A) at (ii) above but has work experience of at least four years as Assistant Accounts Manager
in an organization. His/her case is to be referred to GM -Accounts of the organization.
(B) at (iii) above but has successfully completed CA/ICWA, the case is to be referred to Director
Finance.
In each question below details of one candidate is given. You have to take one of the following
courses of action in each case based on the information provided and the conditions and sub conditions
given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You are not
to assume anything other than the information provided in each case. All the cases are given to
you as on 1.5.2008.
Mark answer (1) if the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
Mark answer (2) if the case is to be referred to GM-Accounts.
Mark answer (3) if the case is to be referred to Director- Finance.
Mark answer (4) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Mark answer (5) if the candidate is to be selected.
Q.34. Abhinav Chaturvedi is a Commerce graduate with 60 percent marks. He has been working in the accounts
department of an organization for the past four years after completing his post graduation in Commerce with 55
percent marks. He was born on 8th July 1980. He has secured 45 percent marks in the selection process.
Q.35. Vaibhav Sinha was born on 12th April 1979. He has been working as Assistant Accounts Manager in an
organization for the past five years after completing his post graduation in Commerce with 40 percent marks. He has
secured 55 percent marks in both the selection process and graduation in commerce.
Q.36. Seema Bhasin has secured 60 percent marks in graduation in Commerce and 55 percent marks in post
graduation in Commerce. She has secured 50 percent marks in the selection process. She was born on 20th August
1978. She has also successfully completed her CA. She does not have any work experience.
Q.37. Nirmala Sawant was born on 4th July 1981. She has been working in the accounts department in an organization
after completing her post graduation in Commerce with 65 percent marks. She has secured 50 percent marks in the
selection process.
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Q.38. AshokPradhan was born on 3rd May 1979. He has secured 42 percent marks in the selection process. He has
been working in the accounts department of an organization for the past four years after completing his post graduation
in Commerce with 62 percent marks. He has secured 54 percent marks in his graduation in Commerce.
Q.39. Prabir Mazumdar has secured 58 percent marks in his graduation in Commerce and 53 percent marks in post
graduation in Commerce. He has been working as Assistant Accounts Manager in an organization for the past four
years after completing his post graduation. He has secured 44 percent marks in the selection process. He was born on
14th November 1977.
Q.40. NehaDevwas born on 8th February 1976. She has been working in the accounts department of an
organization for the past three years after completing her post graduation in Commerce with 53 percent marks. She has
secured 57 percent marks in graduation in Commerce. She appeared in selection process.
Q.41. Sudha Goswami was born on 19th October 1982. She has been working as Assistant Accounts Manager in an
organization for the past five years after completing her graduation in Commerce with 60 percent marks. She has
secured 50 percent marks in the selection process.
Q.42. Francis D'costa has secured 60 percent marks in both graduation and post graduation in Commerce, He has also
secured 45 percent marks in the selection process. He was born on 6th December 1980. He has successfully completed
ICWA after her graduation He has been working in the Accounts department of an organization for last one year.
Q.43. Prathama Sengupta has secured 55 percent marks in post graduation in Commerce and 45 percent marks in the
selection process. She was born on 11th April 1981. She has been working in the accounts department of an
organization for the past four years after completing her post graduation. She has secured 50 percent marks in
graduation in Commerce.
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STATEMENTS-ARGUMENTS
In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between
strong arguments and weak arguments. Strong arguments are those which are both
important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments are those which are of minor
importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial
aspect of the question.
Each question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which
of the argument is a strong argument and which is a weak argument.
Give answer (1) if only argument I is strong.
Give answer (2) if only argument II is strong.
Give answer (3) if either argument I or II is strong.
Give answer (4) if neither argument I nor II is strong.
Give answer (5) if both arguments I and II are strong.
Q.1. Statement : Should there be no examination
Q.6. Statement : Should the govt. deregulate the
upto IX Std. in all the Schools in India ?
retail prices of petrol, diesel and cooking gas
Arguments : I. No, students need to go through the and allow the prices to be driven by market
process of giving examinations right from the young conditions ?
age.
Arguments : I. Yes this will largely help the oil
II. Yes, this will help students to think laterally and
companies to sell their products at competitive
achieve their creative pursuits.
price.
Q.2. Statement : Should the sale of tobacco
II. No, the general public cannot afford market
products be restricted to only few outlets in each
driven prices of these products.
city/town ? .
III. Yes, govt. needs to stop subsidizing these
Arguments : I. Yes, this will substantially reduce
products and channelise the money for
consumption of tobacco products.
developmental projects.
II. No, those who want to purchase tobacco
(1) Only I and II are strong
products should get them at convenient locations.
(2) Only I and III are strong
Q.3. Statement : Should the sale of all the toys
(3) Only II and III are strong
made in China be banned in India ?
(4) All I, II and III are strong
Arguments : I. Yes, these are very cheap and hence (5) None of these
will put the local toy manufacturers
Q.7. Statement: Should the govt. take over all the
out of business.
private passenger transport companies across
II. No, Indian toys are of much better quality and
the country?
their sale will not be affected.
Arguments: I. Yes, this should be done as the govt.
Q.4. Statement : Should there be only a uniform
runs the railways.
rate of income tax irrespective of the level of
II. No, govt. does not have expertise to handle such
income ?
operations.
Arguments : I. Yes, this will substantially reduce
III. Yes, this way general public can be taken out of
the work of the officials of the income tax
the clutches of the private
department.
transport companies.
II. No, this will reduce Govt. tax collection to a
(1) Only I is strong (2) Only I and II are strong
large extent.
(3) Only II and III are strong (4) All I, II and III are
Q.5. Statement : Should there be only two political strong
parties in India ?
(5) None of these
Arguments : I. Yes, in many developed countries
there are only two political-parties.
II. No, Indian electorate is not matured to select
between only two political parties.
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STATEMENTS-ASSUMPATIONS
Q.1-5. In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II.
An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement
and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Give answer (1) if only Assumption I is implicit.
Give answer (2) if only Assumption II is implicit.
Give answer (3) if either Assumption I or II is implicit.
Give answer (4) if neither Assumption I nor II is implicit.
Give answer (5) if both Assumptions I and II are implicit.
Q.1. Statement : Amajor retail store announced
thirty percent reduction on all food items during the
weekend.
Assumptions: I. People may still prefer buying
food items from other stores.
II. Large number of customers may visit the retail
store and buy food items.
Q.2. Statement : The captain of the school football
team selected only fourteen players to play all the
eight matches of the interschool football
competition.
Assumptions : I. There may be adequate number of
football Players for all the matches.
II. The captain may be able to play in all the
matches.
Q.3. Statement : The railway authority has
rescheduled the departure time of many long
distance
trains and put up the revised timing on its website.
Assumptions : I. The passengers may note the
change in departure times from the website.
Il. The passengers may be able to notice the change
and board their respective
trains before departure.
Q.4. Statement: The school authority has decided
to give five grace marks in English to all the
students of Std. IX as the performance of these
students in English was below
expectation.
Assumptions : I. Majority of the students of Std. IX
may still fail in English even after giving
grace marks.
II. Majority of the students of Std. IX may now pass
in English after giving
grace marks.
Q.5. Statement : Mr. X started at 9.00 am from his
residence to attend a meeting scheduled to be held
at 11.00 am and instructed his assistant to meet him
at the venue of the meeting and hand over the
relevant documents.
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34
35
36
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STATEMENTS-COURSE OF ACTION
ln each question below is given a statement followed by three courses of action numbered I, II
and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow up or further action
in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in
the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of
the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Q.1. Statement: The major road connecting the two
main parts of the city is inundated due to heavy
rains during past two days.
Courses of action : I. The govt. should
immediately send a relief team to the affected area.
II. The municipal authority should make immediate
effort to pump out water
from the road.
III. The municipal authority should advise the
general public to stay indoors
till the water is cleared.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only I and II follow
(3) Only I and III follow (4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
Q.2. Statement: The prices of essential
commodities have gone up substantially during the
past few weeks.
Courses of action: I. The government should set up
an expert committee to study the trend of prices.
II. The govt. should immediately abolish taxes on
essential commodities.
III. The govt. should advise the general public to
refrain from purchasing
Essential commodities for few days.
(1) None follows (2) Only I follows
(3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows
(5) Only I and II follow
Q.3. Statement : Large number of students of the
local school fell ill after having their midday
meal provided by the school.
Courses of action : I. The govt. should
immediately suspend the school Principal.
II. The school authority should initiate an enquiry to
find out the reason for
student's sickness.
III. The govt. should instruct all the schools to
suspend their midday meal
scheme till further order.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows
(3) Only III follows (4) Only II and III follow
(5) None of these
Q.4. Statement : Many people living in the slums
of western part of the town are diagnosed to be
suffering from malaria.
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EVALUATING INFERENCES
Q.1. Many sociologists have argued that there is a functional relationship between education and economic systems.
They point to the fact that mass formal education began in industrial society and is an established part of all industrial
societies.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
1) Formal education has suffered a setback due to industrial society.
2) Industrial society is responsible for expansion of education at the mass level.
3) Formal education can be traced to industrial society.
4) Industrial society changed the pattern of education.
5) None of these
Q.2.Statements: A country X has no national gun act. There is no firearms control and licensing mechanism in the
country. The general public is free to acquire gun. The people require arms for their safety. This has ultimately
increased the crime rate considerably in the country.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from
the above statements?
1) It is not necessary to license gun or firearms.
2) The gun or firearms act is opposed by the people of the country.
3) The Government should make all necessary arrangements to enact firearms act.
4) Many countries in the world have no firearms act
5) None of these
Q.3. Statement: According to a survey conducted by a magazine Pulse, College XYZ ranked best among all the MBA
institutes in the country.
Which of the following statements substantiates the fact expressed in the above statement?
1) A large number of students of College XYZ find better placement after completing their course.
2) There are many institutes which have better infrastructure than College XYZ.
3) The rate of enrolment in College XYZ has come down in recent years.
4) Majority of the institutes have contradicted the findings of the magazine Pulse.
5) None of these
Q.4. Statements: There are several types of wrist watches in the world. A new type of digital wrist watch has been
introduced in the market which can calculate the life span of a person. The wrist watch stops when the person dies.
Which of the following can be concluded from the facts given in the statements?
1) This could lead to chaos and confusion in the world.
2) A person can know how long his life is left and he could live his life happily.
3) The new wrist watch has altered the life pattern of the people.
4) The statement implies that death is certain.
5) None of these
Q.5. Statements: The United States-based FMCG company has developed a new deodorant. The company selected a
media person couple for its promotion and marketing. They marketed it through television, radio, print, hoarding and
social media.
Which of the assumptions is implicit in the above statements? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for
granted)
1) People do not pay heed to advertisements and buy such goods as are available easily.
2) Marketing through electronic media has not proved to be very effective.
3) People want to see film stars and famous sports personality in the advertisement of an FMCG product.
4) Some people may tend to buy the deodorant of the United States-based FMCG company.
5) None of these
Q.6. Statement: The luxury car manufacturer Phantom has increased the price of its stunning, fastest limousine car by
about 45 per cent.
Which of the following can be the best possible reason for the above step taken by the car manufacturer?
1) The government is planning to review taxes on the raw materials for manufacturing cars.
2) The car sales market is going through a jubilant phase as the volume of sales has picked up considerably in the
recent past.
3) The limousine car is the best in its segment and no other car is posing any challenge to this car.
4) Car buyers prefer to buy limousine car as it provides efficient after-sales service.
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5) None of these
Q.7. Statement: Experts define social entrepreneurship as such that pursues opportunities to serve the mission to give
solutions to social problems. Business entrepreneurs typically measure performance in profit and return.
Which of the following can be concluded from the above statements?
1) It is possible to address social problems while making business profitable.
2) Social entrepreneurship is different from business entrepreneurship.
3) Business entrepreneurship does not care about social problems while devising its business policy.
4) Business entrepreneurship is more important than social entrepreneurship.
5.None of these
Q.8. Statement: A first-past-the-post election is one that is won by the candidate with more votes than others. Highest
vote, majority vote and plurality voting system use a first-past-the-post voting method but there are subtle differences
in the method of execution.
Which of the following can be the best reason for the assertion made in the above statement?
1) It is not possible to execute the plurality voting system.
2) The plurality voting system uses a very complex procedure so it is not a practical approach.
3) A system which is simple gets wide acceptance.
4) The method is not so important in electing a candidate.
5) None of these
Q.9. Statement: According to a survey, innumerable diseases and unhealthy habits from the recent pandemic to cancer,
AIDS and obesity have plagued mankind.
Which of the following may be the most plausible cause of the situation given in the above statements ?
1) The lifestyle and food habits of people are responsible for this state.
2) Environmental degradation has led to the present situation.
3) People remain ignorant about their health.
4) Technological advancement and fast pace of life are contributing to the spread of diseases.
5) None of these
Q.10. Statements: The X finance company has launched a new tractor loan scheme. It has brought prosperity among
the farmers.
Which of the following assumptions is implicit in the above statements? (An assumption is something
supposed or taken for granted.)
1) The prosperity of farmers solely depends upon the tractor loan scheme.
2) Tractor is an important input for farmers to enhance the farm activities.
3) Earlier there was no tractor loan scheme for farmers.
4) Farmers do not prefer to take loans for buying tractors.
5) None of these
Q.11. Statement: A heavy un seasonal downpour during the last two days has paralysed the normal life in the state in
which five persons were killed but this has provided a huge relief to the problem of acute water crisis in the state.
Courses of action:
(A) The state government should set up a committee to review the alarming situation.
(B) The state government should immediately remove all the restrictions on use of potable water in all the major cities
in the state.
(C) The state government should send relief supplies to all the affected areas in the state.
1) None 2) Only A 3) Only B and C 4) Only C 5) All A, B and C
Q.12. Statement: A large private bank has decided to retrench one-third of its employees in view of the huge losses
incurred by it during the past three quarters.
Courses of action:
(A) The Government should issue a notification to general public to immediately stop all transactions with the bank.
(B) The Government should direct the bank to refrain from retrenching its employees.
(C) The Government should ask the central bank of the country to intiate an enquiry into the bank's activities and
submit its report.
1) None 2) Only A 3) Only B 4) Only C 5) Only A, C
Q.13. Statement: Many political activists have decided to state demonstrations and block traffic movement in the city
during peak hours to protest against the steep rise in prices of essential commodities.
Courses of action:
(A) The Government should immediately ban all forms of agitations in the country.
(B) The police authority of the city should deploy additional forces all over the city to help traffic movement in the
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city.
(C) The state administrations should carry out preventive arrests of the known criminals staying in the city.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only A, B 5) None of these
Q.14. Statement: The school dropout rate in many districts in the state has increased sharply during the last few years
as the parents of these children make them work in the fields owned by others to earn enough for them to get atleast
one meal a day.
Courses of action:
(A) The Government should put up a mechanism to provide food grains to the poor people in these districts through
public distribution system to encourage the parents to send their wards to school.
(B) The Government should close down some of these schools in the district and deploy the teachers of these schools
to nearby schools and also ask remaining students to join these schools.
(C) Government should issue arrest warrants for all the parents who force their children to work in fields instead of
attending classes.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only A, B 5) None of these
Q.15. Statement: One aspirant was killed due to stampede while participating in a
recruitment drive of police constables.
Courses of action:
(A) the officials in charge of the recruitment process should immediately be suspended.
(B) A team of officials should be asked to find out the circumstances which led to the death of the aspirant and submit
its report within a week.
(C) The Government should ask the home department to stagger the number of aspirants over more number of days to
avoid such incidents in future.
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Only B, C 5) None of these
Q.16. Effect: Majority of the employees of the ailing organization opted for voluntary retirement scheme and left the
organization with all their retirement benefits within a fortnight of launching the scheme.
Which of the following can be a probable cause of the above effect?
1) The company has been making huge losses for the past five years and is unable to pay salary to its employees in
time.
2) The management of the company made huge personal gains through unlawful activities.
3) One of the competitors of the company went bankrupt last year.
4) The company owns large tracts of land in the state which will fetch huge sumto its owners.
5) None of these.
Q.17. Statement: Most of the companies in IT and ITES sectors in India have started hiring from engineering college
campuses this year and are likely to recruit much more than yearly recruitment of the earlier years.
Which of the following substantiates the facts stated in the above statement?
1) IT and ITES are the only sectors in India which are hiring from engineering college campuses.
2) Government has stepped up recruitment activities after a gap of five years.
3) The IT and ITES companies have now decided to visit the engineering college campuses for tier-II cities in India as
well.
4) Availability of qualified engineers will substantially increase in the near future.
5) None of these.
Q.18. Cause: The Government has recently increased its taxes on petrol and diesel by about 10 percent.
Which of the following can be a possible effect of the above cause?
1) The petroleum companies will reduced the prices of petrol and diesel by about 10 percent.
2) The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about10 percent.
3) The petroleum companies will increase the prices of petrol and diesel by about 5 percent.
4) The petrol pumps will stop selling petrol and diesel till the taxes are rolled back by the government.
5) None of these.
Q.19. Statement: The Government has decided to instruct the banks to open new branches in such a way that there is
one branch of any of the banks in every village of population 1000 and above or a cluster of villages with population
less than 1000 to provide banking services to all the citizens.
Which of the following will weaken the step taken by the Government?
1) The private sector banks in India have stepped up their branch expansion activities in rural India.
2) Many Government owned banks have surplus man power in its urban branches.
3) All the banks including those in private sector will follow the government directive.
4) Large number of branches of many government owned banks in the rural areas are making huge losses every year
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2) Increase in number of persons falling into poverty varies considerably across the country over a period of time.
3) Government of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies.
4) People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time.
5) None of these.
Q.26. A host of foreign companies are in talks with the Indian government for selling B150, a tough, short-haul plane
ideal for connectivity of smaller towns which is lacking in India at present.
(A) B150 planes have not only low operating costs than competing planes like Cezana but also a much better track
record in terms of safety and efficiency.
(B) The profit margin of road transport operators in the smaller towns connected by B150 planes has been reduced
substantially as a majority of people prefer air transport over other means of transport.
(C) Smaller towns, at present, are better connected by roads and railways as compared to flight services.
(D) B150 planes are capable of operating in sectors where large airlines cannot fly due to challenging
conditions such as mist, short runways, etc. Such planes can also double up as cargo planes and charter flights for the
rich and the elite.
(E) B150 planes need to operate in the existing airports which are situated in bigger cities only and are
poorly connected to the smaller cities.
Q.26. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) can be inferred from the facts/information given in the
statement? (An inference is something which is not directly stated but can be inferred from the given facts.)
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Only C 4) Both B and D 5) Only E
Q.27. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above would weaken the offer made by the
foreign companies for selling B150 planes to Indian government?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Q.28. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a possible consequence of the
success of B150 planes in smaller cities?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Q.29. Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) would favour the foreign companies bid to sell B150 planes
in India?
1) Only A 2) Only B 3) Both B and C 4) Both A and D 5) Both E and C
Q.30. All existing and upcoming hotels within a 5 km radius of national parks and sanctuaries in India will have to pay
30% of their annual turnover as tax to the government. Which of the following statements can be inferred from the
facts/information given in the above statement?
1) The tax collected from the hotels will be used for the betterment of these national parks and sanctuaries.
2) Hotels which are sponsored by the government will not have to pay any tax even if these are located
within the 5 km radius of such wildlife hotspots.
3) The ecosystem of the national parks and sanctuaries is adversely affected even if the hotels are located
outside the 5km radius.
4) Government allows the construction of hotels within 5km radius of national parks and sanctuaries.
5) Such a step is taken by the environment ministry to boost eco-tourism and perk up revenue collection of
State governments.
Q.31. Read the following paragraph and answer the question which follows.
Tenants associations have demanded a vacancy tax on all vacant and unsold flats in Mumbai. Which of the following
would support the demand made by the tenants association?
1) House owners too have demanded for laws that make it easier to evict tenants who default on rent payment.
2) Such a tax law would be difficult to implement as it would be difficult to record the number of vacant
flats in the city.
3) People with surplus money buy many houses and rent these out while many consumers cannot afford
even their first house.
4) The number of vacant flats in Mumbai is much lower than other metros such as Delhi and Chennai where vacancy
tax already exists.
5) Such a tax would compel the house owners to sell/ rent properties which in turn would control h
Q.32. Poverty measurement is an unsettled issue, both conceptually and methodologically. Since poverty is a process
as well as an outcome; many come out of it while others may be falling into it. The net effect of these two parallel
45
processes is a proportion commonly identified as the 'head count ratio', but these ratios hide the fundamental
dynamism that characterises poverty in practice. The most recent poverty reestimates by an expert group has also
missed the 'crucial dynamism'. In a study conducted on 13,000 households which represented the entire country in
1993-94 and again on 2004-05. It was found that in the ten-year period 18.2% rural population moved out of poverty
whereas another 22.1% fell into it over this period.
This net increase of about four percentage points was seen to have a considerable variation across states and regions.
Q.33. Which of the following is a conclusion which can be drawn from the facts stated in the above paragraph?
1) Accurate estimates of number of people living below poverty line in India is possible to be made.
2) Many expert groups in India are not interested to measure poverty objectively.
3) Process of poverty measurement needs to take into account various factors to tackle its dynamic nature.
4) People living below poverty line remain in that position for a very long time.
5) None of these
Q.34. Which of the following is an assumption which is implicit in the facts stated in the above paragraph?
1) It may not be possible to have an accurate poverty measurement in India.
2) Level of poverty in India is static over the years.
3) Researchers avoid making conclusions on poverty measurement data in India.
4) Government of India has a mechanism to measure level of poverty effectively and accurately.
5) None of these
Q.35. Which of the following is an inference which can be made from the facts stated in the above paragraph?
1) Poverty measurement tools in India are outdated.
2) Increase in number of persons falling into poverty varies considerably across the country over a period of time.
3) Government of India has stopped measuring poverty related studies.
4) People living in rural areas are more susceptible to fall into poverty over the time.
5) None of these
Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the
passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of
truth or falsity.
Mark answer (1) if the inference is definitely true, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
Mark answer (2) if the inference is probably true though not definitely true in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (3) if the data are inadequate, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely
to be true or false.
Mark answer (4) if the inference is probably false, though not definitely false in the light of the facts given.
Mark answer (5) if the inference is definitely false, i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it
contradicts the given facts.
Between 2002-03 and 2006-07, Indian economy grew annually at 8.7% led by the services
sector at 9% per year. In 1990, Indias share of services, at 40% of GDP was consistent with its
per capita income for low-income country. By 2001, its share of one-half of the GDP was higher
by five percentage points, compared to the average for low-income countries. Economic reforms
that energized the private corporate sector, and technological changes that opened up new
vistas in telecommunications, IT and outsourcing are believed to be responsible for the impressive performance.
However, the services led growth remains a puzzle at a low per capita income, with 55% of the work force still
engaged in agriculture, and when agriculture decelerated and industry stagnated - defying a styled fact in economics.
Q.36. India has now emerged as a high per capita income country.
Q.37. Growth in Indias services sector post 2005 is more than 9 percent.
Q.38. Less than half of total work force is engaged in Agricultural sector in India.
Q.39. Share of services sector in Indias GDP has crossed the half way mark in early 2000.
Q.40. In early nineties, the share of services sector in GDP for low per capita income group of countries is about 40
percent.
Hurdles imposed in the path of foreign investors by regulations must be removed if the country
wants to attract quality foreign investment. Particularly, when foreign institutional investors no
longer seem very enamoured by the Indian story. Although the foreign exchange reserve does not face the risk of
falling to the levels of early 1990, the country should create an environment to
attract more long term investments instead of just port folio inflows or hot money. Essentially a
diluted version of Regulation issued in 1998 with its requirement that foreign partners with JVs set
46
up in India prior to 2005 must obtain a green light from the domestic partner to set up another
similar venture has the potential to be misused. Further, the foreign partner is also required to
obtain prior approval from the government before a new venture in the same area of business as
the existing one is set up.
Q.41. Foreign investors are keen to invest in long term projects in India in the current scenario.
Q.42. Many countries in the Asian continent have foreign investor friendly guidelines.
Q.43. Indias foreign exchange reserve in early 1990s wasmuch below the current level.
Q.44. India needs to tighten its norms for granting foreign investments in key sectors.
Q.45. Foreign direct investment in India is mainly short-term investment.
Domestic steel industry has been going through challenging times with raw material prices rising
unabated and government trying to cap final product (steel) prices in order to keep inflation under
check. Notably, the government has taken several measures in the past six months to keep a check on steel prices,
which contribute around 3.63%ofWPI. Now, after holding prices for three months the battle between the government
and steel players has erupted again. With the anticipation of players increasing prices very soon, government is trying
to counter this with the imposition of a price band on steel products. Imposition of price band may unfairly treat the
domestic steel industry as global steel prices are ruling at 30% premium to domestic prices. Global prices have
increased by 50%-60%in 2008 as compared to just 20%rise in the domestic market.
Q.46. In recent past, the increase of steel prices in the international market is much lower than that in the domestic
market.
Q.47. Some countries in the western world have fixed a price band for steel products in their domestic markets.
Q.48. There has been a decline in rate of inflation in recent months in India.
Q.49. Govt.' s move to fix a price band of steel prices may adversely affect the steel manufacturing units in India.
Q.50. Prices of steel is an integral part of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) of India.
Economic liberalization and globalization have put pressures on Indian industry, particularly on
the service sector, to offer quality products and services at low costs and with high speed.
Organizations have to compete with unequal partners from abroad. It is well recognized that
developing countries like India are already behind other countries technologically, inmany areas,
although some of them particularly India, boast of huge scientific and technical manpower.In
addition to this, if an entrepreneur or industrialist has to spend a lot of his time, money and
energy in dealing with unpredictable services and in negotiating with the local bureaucracy, it can
have a significant dampening effect on business.
Q.51. No other developing country except India claims that they have highly trained technical manpower.
Q.52. Foreign companies are more equipped than domestic companies to provide quality service in good time.
Q.53. Official formalities are less cumbersome in almost all the countries except India.
Q.54. Indian service industry wasmore comfortable before economic liberalization.
Q.55. India at present is to some extent on par with developed countries in terms of technological Development.
A fundamental global trend now a days is the growing natural resource scarcity. Oil and natural gas prices have roared
in recent years. This year, food prices have also skyrocketed, causing hardships among the poor and large shifts in
income between countries and between rural and urban areas. The most basic reason for the rise in natural resource
prices is strong growth, especially in China and India, which is hitting against the physical limits of land, timber, oil
and gas reserves and water supplies. Thus, wherever nature's goods and services are traded inmarkets (as with energy
and food), prices are rising when they are not traded in markets (as with clean air), the result is pollution and depletion
rather than higher prices. There are many reasons for the dramatic increase in world food prices, but the starting point
is increasing food consumption again strongly powered by China's economic growth. China's population is earning
more notablymore meat, which in turn requires the importation of higher volumes of animal feedmade from soyabeans
andmaize.Moreover, rising world energy prices hasmade food productionmore costly, since it requires large energy
inputs for transport, farming and fertilisers. At the same time, rising energy prices create a strong incentive for farmers
to switch from food production to fuel production.
Q.56. Ever increasing consumption of food articles by world population is pushing up the world food prices beyond
expectations.
Q.57. Farmers get more returns by producing food articles than by producing rawmaterial for fuel production.
Q.58. China's food production is much less than its total domestic requirements.
47
Q.59. Non tradable natural resources are being indiscriminately contaminated by the thoughtless use of less
environment friendly activities.
Q.60. Countries other than China and India produce enough food and energywithin their countries.
48
DATA SUFFICIENCY
Q.1-5. Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it.
You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and
Give answer (1 ) if the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question,
Give answer (4) if the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the
question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer
the question.
Q.1. How is A related to B ?
I. A is sister-in-law of C who is the daughter-in-law
of B who is the wife of D.
II. B is the mother of As sons only uncles son.
Q.2. Amongst A, B, C, D, E and F each are having a
different height, who is the shortest ?
I. C is shorter than only B.
II. A is taller than only D and F.
Q.3. Point X is in which direction with respect to
Y?
I. Point Z is at equal distance from both point X and
point Y.
II. Walking 5 km. to the East of point X and taking
two consecutive right turns after walking 5 kms.
before each turn leads to point Y.
Q.4. How is must written in a code language ?
I. you must see is written as la pa ni and did you
see is written as jo ni pa in that code language.
II. "you did that" is written as pa si jo in that code
language.
Q.5. On which day of the week does Artis birthday
fall ?
I. Sonu correctly remembers that Artis birthday
falls after Wednesday but before Sunday.
II. Raj correctly remembers that Artis birthday
falls before Friday but after Tuesday.
Q.6. Howmanymarbles does Sanjay have ?
I. Sanjay has 3 times more marbles than Ahmed.
II. Ahmed has one third the number of marbles
which Suresh has who has as manymarbles
as Sanjay.
Q.7. How is Ramesh related to Lata ?
I. Yogendra is Latas father.
II. The only sibling of Rameshs maternal aunt is
married to Yogendra.
Q.8. If world peace is important is written as ni
pe la so in a code language, what is the code for
peace ?
language.
49
50
51
BLOOD RELATIONS
MODEL-1
1.Pointing to a photograph, Rekha says to Lalli, "The girl in the photo is the second daughter of the wife of only son of
the grandmother of my younger sister." How this girl of photograph is related to Rekha?
1) Father 2) Son 3) Mother 4) sister 5) None
2. Pointing to a photograph Arun said, she is the mother of my brothers sons wifes daughter. How is Arun related to
the lady?
A. Uncle B. Daughter-in-law C. Cousin D. None of these
3. Pointing to a photograph of a boy Suresh said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother."How is Suresh related
to that boy?
A.Brother B.Uncle C.Cousin D.Father
4. Pointing to a photograph Lata says, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the man in the
photograph related to Lata?
A.Brother B.Uncle C.Cousin D.Data is inadequate
5. Pointing to a photograph. Bajpai said, "He is the son of the only daughter of the father of my brother." How Bajpai
is related to the man in the photograph?
A.Nephew B.Brother C.Father D.Maternal Uncle
6. Pointing a photograph X said to his friend Y, "She is the only daughter of the father of my
mother." How X is related to the person of photograph?
A.Daughter B.Son C.Nephew D.Cannot be decided
7. Introducing a boy, a girl said, "He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle." How is the boy related to the
girl?
A.Brother B.Nephew C.Uncle D.Son-in-law.
8. Iam only son for my parents. The man in picture is my Fathers son. Who is he?
A. He himself B. father C. brother D. none of these
9. Pointing to a woman, Abhijit said, "Her granddaughter is the only daughter of my brother."
How is the woman related to Abhijit?
A.Sister B.Grandmother C.Mother-in-law D.Mother
10. Amit said - "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". How is Amit related to the girl?
A.Father B.Grandfather C.Husband D.Father-in-law
11. Pointing towards a man, a woman said, "His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related
to the man?
A.Mother B.Grandmother C.Sister D.Daughter
12 Introducing Suchendra, Naman says, "She is the wife of only nephew of only brother of my mother." How
Suchendra is related to Naman?
A.Wife B.Sister C.Sister-in-law D.Data is inadequate
13.Pointing to Varman, Madhav said, "I am the only son of one of the sons of his father." How is Varman related to
Madhav?
A.Nephew B.Uncle C.Father or Uncle D.Father
14. Introducing a woman, Shashank said, "She is the mother of the only daughter of my son."
How that woman is related to Shashank?
A.Daughter B.Sister-in-law C.Wife D.Daughter-in-law
15. Pointing to a photograph Anjali said, "He is the son of the only son of my grandfather." How is the man in the
photograph related to Anjali?
A.Brother B.Uncle C.Son D.Data is inadequate
16. Pointing to a person, Deepak said, "His only brother is the father of my daughter's father".
How is the person related to Deepak?
A.Father B.Grandfather C.Uncle D.Brother-in-law
17. P is the mother of K; K is the sister of D; D is the father of J. How is P related to J?
A.Mother B.Grandmother C.Aunt D.Data inadequate
18. Introducing a man, a woman said, "He is the only son of the mother of my mother." How is the woman related to
the man?
A.Mother B.Sister C.Niece D.Maternal aunt
19. Pointing to Gopi, Nalni says, "I am the daughter of the only son of his grandfather." How
52
MODEL-II
1. A is the son of C; C and Q are sisters; Z is the mother of Q and P is the son of Z. Which of the
following statements is true?
A.P and A are cousins
B.P is the maternal uncle of A
C.Q is the maternal grandfather of A
D.C and P are sisters
2. M is the father of N who is the son of V. In order to know the relation of M to P, which of
the statement/statements is/are necessary?
1. P is the brother of V.
2. The daughter of N is the granddaughter of V.
A.Only (1) B.Only (2) C.Either (1) or (2) D.(1) and (2) both
3. A's son B is married with C whose sister D is married to E the brother of B. How D is
related to A?
A.Sister B.Daughter's-in-law C.Sister-in-law D.Cousin
4. If A is the brother of B; B is the sister of C; and C is the father of D, how D is related to A?
A.Brother B.Sister C.Nephew D.Cannot be determined
5. A and B are children of D. Who is the father of A? To answer this question which of the
statements (1) and (2) is necessary?
1. C is the brother of A and the son of E.
2. F is the mother B.
A.Only (1) B.Only (2) C.Either (1) or (2) D.(1) and (2) both
6. If D is the brother of B, how B is related to C? To answer this question which of the
statements is/are necessary?
1. The son of D is the grandson of C.
2. B is the sister of D.
A.Only 1 B.Only 2 C.Either 1 or 2 D.1 and 2 both are required
7. A is mother of B. B is sister of C. D is son of C. E is brother of D. F is mother of E. G is granddaughter of A. H has
only two children- B and C.
Q.1. How is F related to H?
1) Son-in-law 2) Daughter-in-law 3) Father-in-law 4) Granddaughter 5) Cannot be determined
Q.2. How is C related to E?
1) Father 2) Son 3) Mother 4) Cousin brother 5) Cannot be determined
Q.3. Who is mother of G?
1) G 2) B 3) F 4) Either B or F 5) Either C or F
53
8.A B D F G H and K are seven members of a family. They belong to three generations. There are two
married couples belonging to two different generations. D is son of H and is married to K. Fis
granddaughter of B. G's father is grandfather of A. B's husband is father-in -law of K. H has only one
son.
1. How is F related to G?
A. Son B. Nephew C. Niece D. data inadequate E. None of these
2. How is H related to B?
A. Father B. Father-in-law C. Uncle D. data inadequate E. None of these
3. How is K related to G?
A. Sister-in-law B. Sister C. Niece D. data inadequate E. None of these
4. Which of the following is the, pair of married ladies?
A. HK B. HD C. KF D. BF E. None of these
5. How many female members are there among them?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. data inadequate E. None of these
9.Rs father is Gs son. H is the paternal uncle of R and M is brother of Gs. How is M related to
H?
(1) Nephew (2) Brother (3) Cousin (4) Data Inadequate (5) None of these
10.A and B are sisters. P is the son of Q and B is the mother of Q. If C is the son of A, which of
the
following relations is correct?
(1) A is the grand mother of P (2) C and Q are cousins(3) There are two grand sons of B
(4) Nothing can be said (5) None of these
11.X and Y are children of Z. Z is the father of X but Y is not the son of Z. How is Y
related to
X?
(1) Sister (2) Daughter (3) Brother (4) Cousin (5) None of these
12.B is the father of C but C is not his son. Q is the daughter of C.A is the spouse of B.
P is
the brother of C. R is the son of P. S is the spouse of P. T is the father of S.
Q.4. Who is the grand daughter of B?
(1) R (2) P (3) Q (4) C (5) None of these
Who is the son-in-law of T?
(1) P (2) R (3) C (4) B (5) None of these
13.S and L are two sons of M. Q is the mother of P who is the only sister of L. G is the
wife of R who is the son of K. M is the brother of G.
1. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) S is the brother of P (2) G is the aunt of S (3) R is the brother-in-law of M
(4) G is the daughter of K (5) None of these
2.Based on above information, which of the following statements is true?
(1) K is the father of G (2) P is not the sister of S (3) M is the husband of Q
(4) S is the son of R (5) None of these.
14.Xs father Y is Rs paternal uncle and Ss husband Z is Xs paternal uncle. How is S related
to R?
(1) Cousin (2) Mother (3) Sister (4) Aunt (5) None of these
54
55
MODEL-3
Q.8-11.These questions are based on the following
information. Study it carefully and answer the
questions.
(i) A x B means A is father of B.
(ii) A B means A is daughter of B.
(iii) A + B means A is sister or B
(iv) A - B means A is husband of B.
Q.8. Which of the following indicates N is mother
of K ?
(1) K + LN x F (2) K + L N-M (3) H K N
(4) N x F + K (5) None of these
Q.9. In F R H - L, how is H related to F ?
(1) Father (2) Brother (3) Sister
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.10. In G x T + Q M, how is M related to G ?
(1) Brother (2) Sister (3) Sister-in-law
(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.11. In F - R + H T, how is F related to T ?
(1) Son-in-law (2)Daughter-in-law (3) Son
(4)Daughter (5) None of these
Q.12-13.Read the following information carefully
and answer the questions which follow :
(i) 'P x Q' means 'P is brother of Q'.
(ii) 'P Q' means 'P is sister of Q'.
(iii) 'P - Q' means 'P is mother of Q'.
(iv) 'P + Q' means 'P is father of Q'.
Q.12. Which of the following means 'D is maternal
uncle of K' ?
(1) D N - K (2) D N + K (3) D X N - K
(4) D X N + K (5) None of these
Q.13. Which of the following means 'M is nephew
of R'?
(1) MX T+ R (2) RJ + MX T (3) R J + M
(4) R X J + M (5) None of these
56
57
represents V is mother of L ?
(1) VF+JL (2) FV+JL (3) FV+JL
(4) VF+JL (5) None of these
58
Q.15. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters ONDE using each letter only once in each
word ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word JUMPING each of which has as many
letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.17. How many such digits are there in the number 6837941 each of which is as far away from the beginning in the
number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
59
60
Q.49. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) Radish (2) Ginger (3) Turmeric(4) Potato (5)Cabbage
Q.50. Among M, N, P, R and T each one has secured different marks in an examination. R secured more marks than M
and T. N secured less marks than P .Who among them secured third highest marks ?
(1)N (2)R (3)M (4)T (5) Data Inadequate
Q.51. What should come next in the following number series ?
2121321342134521345621345
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) 8 (4) 5 (5) None of these
Q.52. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word PROFITABLE each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4)Three (5)More than three
Q.53. In the number 7524693, how many digits will be as far away from the beginning of the number if arranged in
ascending order as they are in the number ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.54. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to the group ?
(1) Sand (2)Cement (3) Building (4)Wood (5) Bricks
Q.55. In a certain code SOLDIER is written as JFSCRNK. How is GENIOUS written in that code ?
(1)PVTHHFO (2) PVTHFDM (3) PVTHMDF(4) TVPHFDM (5) None of these
Q.56. If 'blue' means 'green', 'green' means 'black', 'black' means 'white', 'white' means 'pink', 'pink'
means 'red' and 'red' means 'orange', then what is the colour of blood ?
(1) Red (2) Black (3)White (4) Pink (5) None of these
Q.57. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ELEVATION; each of which have as many letters between
them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.58. Raman starts from point P and walks towards South and stops at point Q. He now takes a right turn followed by
a left turn and stops at point R. He finally takes a left turn and stops at point S. If he walks 5 Kms. before taking each
turn, towards which direction will Raman have to walk from point S to reach point Q ?
(1) North (2) South (3)West (4) East (5) North-West
Q.59. Among six friends L, M, N, P, Q and S, each having a different height, N is taller than Q and P but shorter than
M. P is taller than Q while S is shorter only than L Which of the following pairs represents the tallest and the shortest
among the six friends ?
(1) M, P (2) L, Q (3) P, Q (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.60. In a certain code KITE is written as%2$# and STUD is written as @$57. How is DESK written in that code?
(1) 8%# (2) 8%# (3) #7%@ (4) 7#@% (5) None of these
Q.61. What should come next in the following letter series ?
bacbacdbacdebacdefbacd
(1) c (2) d (3) e (4) f (5) g
Q.62. Nitin correctly remembers that Nidhis birthday is before Friday while after Tuesday. Derek correctly
remembers that Nidhis birthday is after Wednesday while before Saturday. On which of the following days does
Nidhis birthday definitely falls ?
(1) Monday (2) Tuesday (3)Wednesday (4) Thursday (5) Cannot be determined
Q.63. The following groups of alphabets form a certain pattern with regard to their position in the
English alphabetical series. Based upon the pattern, which of the following five alternatives shall replace the question
mark ?
XDH, VGJ, TJL, RMN, ?
(1)OOP (2) PPP (3) SNO (4) QLM (5) None of these
Q.64. If each vowel of the word WEBPAGE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and
each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it, which of the following letters will appear thrice?
(1) G (2) F (3) Q (4) V (5) None of these
Q.65. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word DOCUMENTARY each of which has as
Many letters between them in the word as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.66. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters TPSI using each letter only once in each
word ?
61
62
(1) P worked overtime, last among them(2) P worked overtime earlier than S(3) The holiday was on Friday(4) S
worked overtime earlier than Q(5) None of these
Q.83. In a certain code acquisition or construction should be completed within three years is written as three be
or within should years construction completed acquisition. How will
interest paid on loan will be allowed for deduction be written in that code ?
(1)for will paid allowed loan on deduction be interest(2) for will allowed paid loan deduction on be interest(3) for will
paid allowed loan deduction on be interest(4) for will paid allowed loan deduction be on interest (5) None of these
Q.84. Which of the following will be the changed form of the word OBLIQUE when word is written again by
substituting each vowel by the 2nd letter following it in the English alphabet and each consonant is substituted by the
3rd letter following it in the English alphabet ?
(1)MEDGTSD (2) RDNLSXH (3)QEOKTXG (4)QEOKTWG (5) None of these
Q.85. If a meaningful word can be formed using the five letters NWROD, each only once, then the fourth letter of that
word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed then Y is your answer and if no such word can be
formed then Z your answer.
(1) D (2)W (3) R (4) Y (5) Z
Q.86. Pointing towards a girl in the picture Sunita said, "She is the mother of Renu whose father is my son". How
Sunita is related to that girl in the picture.
(1)Mother (2) Aunt (3) Cousin (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.87. P's father is Q's son.Mis the paternal Uncle of P and N is the brother of Q. How is N related to M?
(1) Brother (2)Nephew (3) Cousin(4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.88. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) Asia (2) Australia (3) Antarctica (4) Africa (5) Austria
Q.89. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LTSO using each letter only nonce in each
word ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More thant hree
Q.90. Kunal walked 10 m. towards the East, turned right and walked another 15 m. Then he turns left and walks 3 m.
He finally takes a left turn and walked 6 m. Which direction is he facing now ?
(1) East (2) North (3)West (3) South (5) South-West
Q.91. How many such digits are there in the number 928416375 each of which is as far away from
the beginning in the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order with in the number ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.92. What should come next in the following letter series ?
cbaacbaabcbaabccbaabcdcbaa
(1) a(2) b (3) c (4) d (5) None of these
Q.93. The following three words are alike in a certain manner and so form a group.Which one of the five options
belongs to the same group ? arc, radius, circumference
(1) diagonal (2) cuboid (3) diameter (4) perimeter (5) square
Q.94. In a certain code if LOUD is written as JQSF then which of the following English words shall be coded as
PKQG ?
(1) RISE (2) ROPE (3) ROAD (4)RICE (5) ROLE
Q.9. If all the vowels of the word ENIGMATIC are substituted with the next letter of the English
alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it.Which of the following would be the
Sixth letter from the left ?
(1) F (2) B (3) S (4) L (5) None of these
Q.95. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the fourth., seventh, ninth and tenth
letters of the word RECREATION, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no
such word can bemade, give X as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give Y as the answer.
(1)X (2) Y (3) T (4) N (5) R
Q.96. In a certain code CONCISE is written as FTJBBNM. How is FISHERY written in that code ?
(1) ZSFIGJT (2) ZSFGIHR (3) ZSFGEHR (4) ZSFEHGR (5) None of these
Q.97. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to the group ?
(1) Snake (2) Crocodile (3) Frog (4) Lizard (5) Fish
Q.98. How many meaningful English words can be made from the letters ADER, using each letter only once in each
word?
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Q.116. In a certain code DOWN is written as 5139 and NEAR is written as 9486. How is RODE written in that
code ?
(1) 6514 (2) 6154 (3) 9154 (4) 3154 (5) None of these
Q.117. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word BOARDING each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.118. How many such digits are there in the number 284371 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when they are arranged in descending order ?
(1)None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.119. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters AREN using each letter only once in each
word ?
(1)None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.120. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) Table (2) Chair (3) Bench (4) Desk (5) Wood
Q.121. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) 27 (2) 64 (3) 125 (4) 216 (5) 384
Q.122. If 'Q' means x ; T means '-'; 'R' means '' and 'K' means '+' then 24 R 4 Q 8 K 6 T 10 = ?
(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 44 (4) 2/3 (5) None of these
Q.123. In a certain code ORGANISE is written as BHSPDRHM. How is DOUBTFUL written in that code ?
(1) CVPEKTES (2) CVPIMVGU (3)ATNCKTES (4) ATNCMVGU (5) None of these
Q.124. What should come next in the following letter series ?
AAB AB CAB C D AB C D E AB C D E FAB C D E F?
(1) A (2) G (3) H (4) B (5) None of these
Q.125. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the first, the second, the fourth and the tenth
letters of the word MAJESTICAL, which of the following will be the second letter of that word ? If no such word
can. Be made, give 'X' as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give Y is, the answer.
(1) M (2) E (3) L (4)X (5) Y
Q.126. In a certain code language 'pit ne' means 'come here'; 'ne ta ja' means 'come and go' and 'ja sa re' means 'you
and me'. What does 'ta' mean in that code language?
(1) come (2) and (3) here (4) go (5) Cannot be determined
Q.127. 'RT is related to VX' and 'BD' is related to 'FH', in the same way as 'KM' is related to
(1) NP (2)OR (3)OQ (4) PR (5) None of these
Q.128. How many such digits are there in the number 5236978 each of which is as far away from the
beginning of the number as when the digits are rearranged in ascending order within the
number ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.129. In a certain code COMPUTER is written as LNBVQSFU. How is BULKHEAD written in that
code ?
(1)MVCILEBF (2) KTAILEBF (3)MTAGJEBF (4) KTAGJEBF (5) None of these
Q.130. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters IDET using each letter only once in each
word ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.131. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) HK (2) BD (3) FI (4) MP (5) SV
Q.132. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group?
(1) Tomato (2) Brinjal (3) Radish (4) Pumpkin (5)Gourd
Q.133. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word IMPORTANCE, each of which has as many letters
between them in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.134. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) Dog (2) Horse (3)Wolf (4) Jackal (5) Cat
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Q.135. In a certain code FIRE is written as #%@$ and DEAL is written as $How
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Q.173. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) 93 (2) 26 (3) 34 (4) 69 (5) 42
Q.174. What should come next in the following letter sequence ?
AAB AB CAB C D AB C D E AB C D E FAB
(1) D (2) E (3) G (4) C (5) F
Q.175. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not
belong to the group ?
(1) 72 (2) 42 (3) 152 (4) 110 (5) 156
Q.176. How many meaningful words can .be made from the letters ADEL using each letter only once
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.177. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ADVERTISE, each of which has as many letters
between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5) None of these
Q.178. In a certain code FUEL is written as $%#6 and KITE is written as@7#. How is LIFE written in that code ?
(1) 6%$# (2) 6$%# (3) 6*$# (4) 6%*# (5) None of these
Q.179. If in the word CUSTOMIZE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the
vowels are replaced by the next letter in English alphabet and then all the letters are arranged
alphabetically from left to right, which letter will be fourth from the right ?
(1) R (2) T (3) L (4) M (5) None of these
Q.180. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CONFUSED each of which has as many letters between
them in the word as in the English alphabet?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.181. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong
to that group ?
(1) Tennis (2) Hockey (3) Volleyball (4) Badminton (5) Cricket
Q.182. In a certain code OBSERVANT is written as DRANPUOBW. How is RECRUITED written in that code ?
(1) EFUJSQBDQ (2)QBDQSEFUJ (3)QDBQSEFUJ (4)QBDQSCDSH (5) None of these
Q.183. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number 395146728 each of which has as many digits between
them in the number as when the digits within the number are rearranged in ascending order from left to right ?
(1)None (2)One (3)Two (4) Three (5)More than three
Q.184. In a certain code BEND is written as #5%3 and SOLD is written as 62@3. How is NOSE written in that
code ?
(1)%265 (2) 52%6 (3)@265 (4)%2#5 (5) None of these
Q.185. In a certain code language 'how many goals scored' is written as '5 3 9 7', 'many more matches' is written as '9 8
2' and 'he scored five' is written as '1 6 3'. How is 'goals' written in that code language?
1) 5 2) 7 3) 5 or 7 4) Data Inadequate 5) None of these
Q.186. In a certain code TEMPORAL is written as OLDSMBSP. How is CONSIDER
written in that code?
1) RMNBSFEJ 2) BNMRSFEJ 3) RMNBJEFS 4) TOPDQDCH 5) None of these
Q.187. How many meaningful English words can be made with the letters DLEI using each letter only once in each
word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
Q.188. Among A, B, C, D and E each having different weight. D is heavier than only A and C is lighter than B and E.
Who among them is the heaviest?
1) B 2) E 3) C 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
Q.189. Each odd digit in the number 5263187 is substituted by the next higher digit and each even digit is substitued
by the previous lower digit and the digits so obtained are rearranged in ascending order. which of the following will be
the third digit from the left end after the rearrangement?
1) 2 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6 5) None of these
Q.190. Pratap correctly remembers that his mother's birthday is before twenty third April but after nineteenth April.
whereas his sister correctly remembers that their mother's birthday is not on or after twenty second April. On which
day in April is definitely their mother's birthday?
1) Twentieth 2) Twenty-first 3) Twentieth or twenty-first 4) Cannot be determined 5) None of these
Q.191.. Ashok started walking towards South. After walking 50 metres he took a right turn and walked 30 metres. He
then took a right turn and walked 100 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 30 metres and stopped. How far
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rank is exactly between Lata's and Parul's rank what is Vishal's rank from the top?
1) 10th 2) 8th 3) 9th 4) 7th 5) Cannot be determined
Q.212. What should come next in the number series given below?
112123123412345123456123456
1) 5 2) 2 3) 8 4) 1 5) None of these
Directions (213 - 218): Select the related words/letters from the given alternatives:
Q.213. SHOE: NCJZ:: REWA : ?
1) WBJF 2) CITY 3) CAYR 4) MZRV 5) None of these
Q.214. Bud: Flower:: ?
1) Clay: Mud 2) Sapling: Tree 3) River: Glacier 4) Bird: Tree 5) Paper: Book
Q.215. NEUROTIC: TICRONEU:: PSYCHOTIC: ?
1) TICCOHPSY 2) TICOCHPSY 3) TICCHOPSY 4) TICHCOPSY 5) None of these
Q.216. Video: Cassette:: Computer: ?
1) Reels 2) Recordings 3) Files 4) Floppy 5) CPU
Q.217. Nightingale: Warble:: Frog: ?
1) Yelp 2) Croak 3) Cackle 4) Squeak 5) None of these
Directions (218 - 221): Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so
form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
Q.218. 1) Chair 2) Table 3) Rack 4) Furniture 5) Drawer
Q.219. 1) Sandal 2) Boot 3) Feet 4) Shoe 5) Slipper
Q.220. 1) Mouse 2) Animal 3) Lizard 4) Cat 5) Horse
Q.221. 1) Shawl 2) Sweater 3) Handkerchief 4) Coat 5) Muffler
Q.222. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word CREATION each of which has as many letters between
them in the word (in both forward and backward directions), as they have between them in the English alphabetical
series?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
Q.223. How many meaningful words (Not ending with S) can be made with the alphabets A, D, and S, each being
used only once in each word?
1) None 2) One 3) Two 4) Three 5) More than three
Q.224. Pointing to a boy, Richa said, "He is the son of the wife of my grandmother's grandson". How is the boy related
to Richa's mother?
1) Son 2) Grandson 3) Son - in law 4) Great Grandson 5) Cannot be determined
Q.225. 'Recite' is related to 'Poem' in the same way as 'Read' is related to 1) Habit 2) Passage 3) Pencil 4) Sharpener 5) School
Q.226. 'Water' is related to 'Well' in the same way as 'Coal' is related to1) Factory 2) Mine 3) Graphite 4) Village 5) Fuel
Q.227. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word, beginning with T with the
first, the third and the sixth letters of the word 'OPERATE', which would be the second letter of that word from the
left? If more than one such word can be formed, give 'X' as the answer. If no such word can be formed, give 'Z' as your
answer?
1) X 2) E 3) T 4) O 5) Z
Directions (228 - 229): Study the given information carefully and answer the given questions:
Sunil started walking from point A. He walked 6 meters towards East to reach point B. From point B he took a right
turn and walked 3 metres to reach point C. From point C he took a right turn and walked 10 metres to reach point D.
From point D he took a left turn and walked 4 metres to reach point E. From point E, he walked 4 metres East to reach
point F. Point G is exactly mid-way between point C and point D.
Q.228. If Sunil walks 4 metres to the North of point F, how far and in which direction
will he be from point G?
1) 1 metre towards East 2) 2 metres towards East 3) 1 metre towards West 4) 2 metres towards West
5) 1.5 metres towards East
Q.229. How far and in which direction is point F from point A?
1) 7 metres towards North 2) 6 metres towards South
3) 8 metres towards South 4) 6 metres towards North 5) None of these
3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group.
Which of the following does not belong to that group?
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PUZZLE TEST
Q.1-5.Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven students of a college. Each of them has a favourite subject from Physics, Chemistry,
English, Biology, History, Geography and Philosophy, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them also has a
favourite sport from Football, Cricket, Hockey, Volleyball, Badminton, Table Tennis and Basketball, not necessarily in
the same order. R likes Philosophy and his favourite sport is Hockey. The one who likes Football likes English. Ts
favourite sport is not Badminton or Table Tennis. V does not like either History or Biology. The one whose favourite
sport is Basketball does not like Physics. W likes Chemistry and his
favourite sport is Volleyball. S likes Geography. Qs favourite sport is Badminton. V does not like English and his
favourite sport is not Basketball. Ps favourite sport is Cricket. The one whose favourite sport is Badminton does not
like Biology.
Q.1. Who likes History ?
(1) P (2) R (3) Q (4) V (5) Data inadequate
Q.2. Whose favourite sport is Basketball ?
(1) S (2) W (3) Q (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.3. Which subject does T like ?
(1) Biology (2) Physics (3) Chemistry (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.4. What is Qs favourite sport ?
(1) Cricket (2) Table Tennis (3) Football (4) Badminton (5) None of these
Q.5. Which subject does P like ?
(1) History (2) Biology (3) Chemistry (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.6-10.Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are
sitting around a circle facing at the centre. V is second to the left of P and second to the right of W. T is third to the
right of Q and is not an immediate neighbour of V. S is third to the right of R.
Q.6. Who is to the immediate left of S ?
(1) V (2) T (3) Q (4) W (5) None of these
Q.7. Who is third to the left of V ?
(1) T (2) S (3) W (4) R (5) None of these
Q.8. In which of the following groups the first person is sitting between the second and the third persons ?
(1) RPQ (2) TWS (3) QPR (4) QVS (5) None of these
Q.9. Who is second to the right of Q ?
(1) R (2) W (3) T (4) S (5) None of these
Q.10. Who is to the immediate right of R ?
(1) W (2) T (3) P (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.11-15. Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven friends studying seven different branches of engineering, Namely Mechanical,
Chemical, Electrical, Electronics, Civil, Computers and Aeronautical Engineering, not necessarily in this order. Each
of them studies in three different colleges, X, Y and Z. Not less than two study in any college. D studies Electrical
engineering in College X. The one who studies Chemical Engineering does not study in college Z. F studies
Aeronautical engineering in college Y with only B. A does not study in college X and does not study Civil engineering.
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E studies Computer engineering and does not study in college X. G studies Electronics engineering but not in college
X. None in college X studies Mechanical or Civil engineering.
Q.11. Which of the following group represents the persons studying in college Z ?
(1) D,B (2) C, E, G (3) A,G (4) G, E, A (5) None of these
Q.12. In which of the following colleges does C study ?
(1)X (2) Y (3) Z (4) Either X or Z (5) Cannot be determined
Q.13. Which of the following combinations is correct ?
(1) A Civil Z (2) B Chemical Y (3) C ChemicalZ (4) G Electronics Y (5) None of these
Q.14. B studies in which of the following branches of engineering ?
(1) Chemical (2) Mechanical (3) Civil (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.15. Who studies Chemical engineering ?
(1) B (2) C (3) E (4) A (5) None of these
Q.16-20. Study the following information and answer the questions given below it
Seven members H,I,J, K, L,M&N are working in different cities Ahmedabad, Bangalore,Chennai, Hyderabad. Kolkata,
Delhi and Mumbai not necessarily in the same order. Each one has a Different mother tongue Tamil, Kannada,
Telugu,Hindi,Marathi, Punjabi and Bangla not necessarily in the same order. J works in Bangalore and hismother
tongue is not Tamil orMarathi. Ks mother tongue is Punjabi and he works in Ahmedabad. L and M do not work in
Chennai and neither of them has Marathi mother tongue. I works in Hyderabad and hismother tongue is Telgu. The one
who works in Delhi has Bangla mother tongue. N works in Mumbai and his mother tongue is Hindi. L does not work
in Kolkata.
Q.16. What is Ms mother tongue ?
(1) Bangla (2) Marathi (3) Telugu (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.17. Who works in Delhi ?
(1) H (2) M (3) L (4) K (5) None of these
Q.18. Who works in Chennai ?
(1) H (2) L (3) M (4) L or M (5) None of these
Q.19. What is Js mother tongue ?
(1) Telugu (2) Hindi (3) Bangla (4) Kannada (5) None of these
Q.20. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(1) Marathi - I - Hyderabad (2) Tamil - M - Kolkata (3) Marathi -I-Chennai (4) Punjabi- K - Delhi (5) None
Q.21-25.Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it.
A group of friends having seven members, A, B, C, D, E, F and G contains four men and three ladies. Each one of
them has a different profession, stockbroker, lawyer, doctor, professor, engineer, businessman and banker and each one
has passed out of a different college P, S, V, W, X, Y and Z, not necessarily in the same order. None of the ladies is a
businessman or a stockbroker. C is a doctor and she has passed out from College X. A is a College 'Y' pass out. B is
not a Professor. E is a banker and is College S passed out. F is a stockbroker and has not studied in College P. G is
a businessman and has studied in College V. The professor is
College Z passed out. The lawyer has studied in College P. None of the ladies has studied in College Y or College
S.
Q.21. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(1) B-Doctor-Female (2) C-W-Male (3) A-Businessman-Y (4) D-Professor-Male (5) None of these
Q.22. Which of the following groups represents female in the group of friends ?
(1) A,B,C (2) E, F,G (3) B,C,D (4) B, E, G (5) None of these
Q.23. Who among the following is a lawyer ?
(1) A (2) B (3) E (4) G (5) None of these
Q.24. What is the profession of D ?
(1) Doctor (2) Stock-broker (3) Engineer (4) Professor (5) None of these
Q.25. From which of the following college has the stockbroker passed out ?
(1)W (2) Y (3) S (4)X (5) None of these
Q.26-30.Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight executives B, G, H, K, D, F, T, & V are working in three departments Engineering, Systems and Marketing of
the organization and are posted at different places viz. Chennai, Kozikode, Kolkata, Ranchi, Patna, Bhopal, Nagpur
and Hyderabad not necessarily in the same order. At least two and not more than three executives work in any of the
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three departments. G works in Engineering department at Chennai. H is posted in Ranchi but not in systems
department. No one from Marketing department is posted in Hyderabad. The only other person in
same department as that of G is posted in Kolkata. D is posted in Hyderabad and F in Kozikode. V is not posted in
Kolkata and works in the same department as that of D. B and T both work in Marketing department. The one who
works in Marketing is not posted in Bhopal. T is not posted in Nagpur.
Q.26. T is posted at which place ?
(1) Nagpur (2) Patna (3) Bhopal (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.27. Who is posted in Kolkata ?
(1) K (2) T (3) V (4) K or T (5) None of these
Q.28. Which department has only two Executives ?
(1) Systems (2) Marketing (3) Engineering (4) Marketing or Systems (5) Cannot be determined
Q.29. Which of the following group of persons work in Marketing department ?
(1) KBT (2) BTF (3) BHD (4) BHT (5) None of these
Q.30. Which of the following combinations of department, person & place is correct ?
(1) Marketing B Bhopal (2) Engineering G Kolkata (3) Systems V Chennai
(4) Systems T Patna (5) None of these
Q.31-36.Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :
P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven members of a club. Each of them has a favourite sport from- Chess, Table Tennis,
Lawn Tennis, Volleyball, Badminton, Basketball and Carrom, not necessarily in the same order, Each of them also has
a specific choice of colour from-Blue, Red, Green,Yellow, Grey, Black and White, not necessarily in the same order. R
likes Green and his favourite sport is Badminton. V's choice of colour is neither Red nor Black. T's favourite sport is
neither Table Tennis nor Basketball. The one who likes Blue does not like
Carrom. The one who likes Volleyball does not like Yellow and Grey. Q's favourite sport is Lawn Tennis and he likes
Black. S likes White.W likes Basketball. P likes Volleyball. T likes Blue. The one who likes Basketball does not like
Grey.
Q.31. What is V's choice of colour ?
(1) Black (2) Grey (3) Yellow (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.32. What is T's favourite sport ?
(1) Basketball (2) Volleyball (3) Chess (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.33. Whose favourite sport is Carrom ?
(1) S (2) R (3)W (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.34. Whose favourite sport is basketball ?
(1) S (2) T (3)W (4) R (5) None of these
Q.35. What is W's choice of colour ?
(1)Green (2)White (3) Black (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.36. Which of the following combinations of sport and colour is correct ?
(1) Table Tennis, Yellow (2) Volleyball, Red (3) Volleyball, Grey (4) Chess, Black
Q.37-41. Seven candidates Harish, Samir,Nilesh, Shilaja,Nikita, Laxamn and Sujata are to be interviewed for selection
as TraineeOfficers by different panels I to VII for different companies A, B, C, D, E, F and G not necessarily in the
same order. Nilesh is interviewed by panel IV for company A. Samir is interviewed by panel III but not for companyC
or D. Harish is interviewed for companyB but not by panel I or II. Nikita is interviewed bypanelVI for companyE.
Panel VII conducts the interviewfor companyF. Shailaja is interviewed by panel I but not for company C. Panel II does
not interview Laxaman.
Q.37. Shailja is interviewed for which company ?
(1) A (2) G (3) F (4) D (5) None of these
Q.38. Panel II conducts interview for which company ?
(1) C (2) F (3) G (4) B (5) None of these
Q.39. Who is interviewed for companyG ?
(1) Nikita (2) Samir (3) Shailaja (4) Laxman (5) None of these
Q.40. Who is interviewed for company F ?
(1) Shailaja (2) Sujata (3) Laxman (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.41. Which candidate is interviewed by panel V ?
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(1) Harish (2) Laxman (3) Sujata (4) Shailaja (5) None of these
Q.42-46.These questions are based on the following information. Study it carefully to answer the questions. Seven
officers L,M, N, P, Q, R & S work in three different shifts I, II & III with at least two persons working in each shift.
Each one of them has a different weekly off from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. M works in
second shift only with R whose weekly off is on Friday. Qs weekly off is on the next day of Ls weekly off and both of
them work in different shifts. P works in third shift and his weekly off is on Saturday. S has a weekly off on Monday
and he works in first shift. The one who has a
weekly off on Sunday works in first shift. L & P do not work in the same shift, Ls weekly off is on Tuesday.
Q.42. Whose weekly off falls on Thursday ?
(1) L (2) N (3) Q(4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.43. Which of the following combinations of shift, person and weekly off is definitely correct ?
(1) II, M.Sunday (2) III, N, Sunday (3) II, P, Sunday(4) I, L, Tuesday (5) None of these
Q.44. Whose weekly off is on Sunday ?
(1) L (2) M (3) N (4) Q (5) None of these
Q.45. On which day is Qs weekly off ?
(1) Tuesday (2)Wednesday (3) Sunday (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.46. Which of the following group of officers work is shift I ?
(1) L,N,S (2) L,S (3) N,S (4) L,P,Q (5) None of these
Q.47-51.Seven plays - A, B, C, D, E, F and G- are to be held on seven consecutive days (starting on Monday and
ending on Sunday) not necessarily in the same order. Only one play will be held on one day. Only two plays will be
held after play G. Only two plays will be held between play F and play G. Only three plays will be held between play
B and play E. Play B will not be held on Sunday. Play A will be held before play D and play C (not necessarily
immediately before). Play C will be held after play D (not necessarily immediately after).
Q.47. Play D will be held on which day?
1) Monday 2) Tuesday 3) Wednesday 4) Thursday 5) Saturday
Q.48. Which play will be held immediately after play C?
1) Play E 2) Play F 3) Play B 4) Play G 5) None of these
Q.49. Which play will be held on Monday?
1) Play F 2) Play B 3) Play E 4) Play D 5) Play A
Q.50. If all the seven plays are held in the alphabetical order of their names starting on Monday and ending on Sunday,
the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original schedule?
1) Three 2) More than three 3) One 4) None 5) Two
Q.51. Play F is related to monday in a certain way, based on the given schedule. Similarly, play G is related to
Thursday. In the same way, play B is related to which of the following days?
1) Wednesday 2) Friday 3) Tuesday 4) Saturday 5) Sunday
Q(52 - 57): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Ten people are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance
between adjacent people. In Row -1, V, W, X, Y and Z are seated and all of them are facing south. In Row -2, H, I, J, K
and L are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement
each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. Y is sitting to the immediate left of W. H is to the
immediate left of person who faces V. L is sitting third to the right of J. Z is at the extreme end of the line. X faces L.
W is sitting second to the right of the person who faces K. J is at the extreme end
of the line.
Q.52. Who amongst the following is sitting second to the left of V?
1) Y 2) X 3) W 4) Z 5) None of these
Q.53. Who amongst the following sit at the extreme ends of the two rows?
1) I, J, W, Z 2) X, Z, J, L 3) W, X, K, J 4) Z, Y, J, H 5) W, Z, J, L
Q.54. Which of the following statements is true regarding K?
1) K sits third to the right of J 2) K is not an immediate neighbour of H 3) K sits second to the left of I
4) K faces Y 5) There are three persons to the left of K.
Q.55. Which of the following statements is true regarding J?
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Q.6972.Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
M, V, K, D, T, J and R are seven friends studying in different classes - IIIrd, IVth, Vth, VIth, VIIth, VIIIth, and IXth
standards. Each of them has different favourite colours yeloow, blue, red, white, black, green and violet. J likes red and
studies in class Vth, R likes violet and studies in Class IIIrd. M studies in class VIIIth and does not like either green or
yellow. K likes white and does not study either in VIIth or in IVth. D studies in VIth and likes black. T does not study
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necessarily in the same order. Each one is pursuing a different profession - Actor, reporter, doctor, engineer, lawyer,
teacher and painter n necessarily in the same order. G is the fifth to the left of C. The reporter is third to the right of G.
F is fifth to the right of A. E is second to the left of B. The engineer is second to the left of D. There are only three
people between the engineer and the painter. The doctor is to the immediate left of the engineer. The lawyer is to the
immediate right of the teacher.
Q.82. What is A's profession?
1) Painter 2) Doctor 3) Teacher 4) Actor 5) Engineer
Q.83. Which of the following statements is true according to the given arrangements?
1) F is the teacher
2) F is third to the left of E
3) The painter is to the immediate left of B
4) The lawyer is standing in the exact middle of the arrangement
5) None of the given statements is true
Q.84. Who among the following is the actor?
1) E 2) F 3) C 4) B 5) A
Q.85. What is D's Position with respect to the painter?
1) Third to the left 2) Second to the right 3) Fourth to the right 4) Third to the right 5) Second to the left
Q.86. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given standing arrangement and so form a
group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
1) AED 2) DFC 3) GDB 4) EBF 5) BFC
Q.87-91. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven members of a club. Each of them likes one day of the week, viz, Monday,
Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday and Sunday, not necessarily in the same order. Each of them owns a
different car, viz. Swift, Alto, Figo, Beat, SX4, Estillo and Optra, not necessarily in the same order. C Likes Wednesay
and his favourite car is neither SX4 nor Optra. E does not like Monday and his favourite car is Beat. The favourite car
of the one who likes Friday is Figo. The one whose favourite car is Estillo likes Tuesday. D likes Saturday and D's
Favourite acar is not SX4. G's favourite car is Alto. F likes Thursday, B does not like Estillo.
Q.87. Who among the following likes Tuesday?
1) A 2) B 3) D 4) Data inadequate 5) None of these
Q.88. Whose favourite car is Figo?
1) A 2) B 3) F 4) C) 5) None of these
Q.89. Who among the following likes Sunday?
1) A 2) C 3) F 4) E 5) Data inadequate
Q.90. Whose favourite car is SX4?
1) B 2) A 3) F 4) D 5) None of these
Q.91. Which of the following Combinations is correct?
1) F - Thursday - Estillo 2) C - Wednesday - Alto
3) D - Saturday - Beat 4) G - Monday - Swift
5) All are incorrect
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a. F b. A c. D d. E e. None of these
Q.126- Which of the following is true regarding V?
a. V faces A b. T is not an immediate neighbour of V. c. C faces the one who is second to left of V.
d. V sits at one of the extreme ends of the line. e. R sits third of the right of V
Q.127- Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
a. D, F b. V, S c. Q, S d. B, D e. None of these
Q.128- Who amongst the following faces B?
a. V b. S c. Q d. R e. T
Q.129-134 Study the following information to answer the given questions:
Twelve people are sitting in two parallel rows containing six people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance
between adjacent persons. In row 1, P, Q, R, S, T and V are seated and all of them are facing south. In row 2, A, B,
C, D, E and F are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member
seated in a row faces another member of the other row. A sits third to right of D. Neither A nor D sits at extreme ends.
T faces D. V does not face A and V does not sit at any of the extreme ends. V is not an immediate neighbor of T. B sits
at one of the extreme ends. Only two people sit between B and E. E does not face V. two persons sit between Rand Q.
R is not an immediate neighbor of T. C does not face V. P is not an immediate neighbor of R.
Q.129. Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
(1) B, E (2) S, T (3) P, R (4) B, F (5) None of these
Q.130.\Who amongst the following faces A?
(1) R (2) P(3) P (4) Q (5) S
Q.131. How many persons are seated between T and S?
(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four(5) None
Q.132. P is related to V in the same way as C is related to F. to which of the following is E related to, following the
same pattern?
(1) B (2) D(3) C (4) A(5) None of these
Q.133. Which of the following is true regarding F?
(1) F sits fourth to right of C
(2) F is not an immediate neighbor of A.
(3) F sits third to left of D
(4) F sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
(5) F faces V.
Q.134-136. Study the following information to answer the given questions:
A building has seven floors numbered one to seven, in such a way that the ground floor is numbered one, the floor
above it, numbered two and so on such that the topmost floor is numbered seven. One out of seven people viz. A, B, C,
D, E, F and G lives on each floor. A lives on fourth floor. E lives on the floor immediately below Fs floor. F does not
live on the second or the seventh floor. C does not live on an odd numbered floor. B does not live on a floor
immediately above or below Cs floor. D does not live on the topmost floor. G does not live on any floor below Es
floor.
Q.13. Who lives on the topmost floor?
(1) B (2) C(3) E (4) G (5) Cannot be determined
Q.135. Who lives immediately above Ds floor?
(1) A (2) B(3) C (4) F (5) G
Q.136. Four of the following are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does nobelong to
that group?
(1) F (2) D(3) B (4) G (5) C
Q.137-141. Eight persons L, M, N, 0, P, Q, R and S are sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that two
persons on each of the four sides of the table are facing the centre. Persons sitting on opposite sides are exactly
opposite each other. 0 faces north and sits exactly opposite S. P is facing south and sits on the immediate right of S. L
and N are not immediate neighbours. R is exactly opposite M, and is on the immediate right of N. L is not second to
the right of O. M and Q are not immediate neighbours.
Q.137. Who is next to R in clockwise direction?
(1) P (2) S (3) N (4) 0 (5) L
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VENN DIAGRAMS
TIPS FOR SOLVING QUESTIONS RELATED TO VENN DIAGRAMS:
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TIPS:
If all the items given in the question
belong to different group then it
will be shown by
diagram as given below1.Man, Elephant, Tree
TIPS:
If two items are completely
different from each other but are
related to some extent but not
completely to a third item, then
they will be shown by diagram as
given belowMen, Women, Doctors
TIPS:
If there is some relationship
between two items and these two
items are completely related to the
third items, then they will be shown
by diagram as given belowCats, Pet animals, Animals
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two.
TIPS :
If the first item is related to the
second item completely and the
third item is related to first and
second item to some extent, then
they will be shown by diagram as
given belowMen, Fathers, Doctors
ANSWERS
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