Professional Documents
Culture Documents
2. Which Part of Series F deals with Suspension of C. of A. & its subsequent revalidation:
1. IV 2. V
3. VI 4.VII
5. DGCA can cancel the C. of A. or suspend whenever reasonable doubt exist to:
1. A particular aircraft. 2. All types of Aircraft.
3. I & 2 both are correct. 4. None of the above
7. It is the responsibility of operator to inform what authority when aircraft suffer major
damage or defect:
1. DGCA. 2. RAO/Sub-RAO
3. Q.C.M. 4. All above are correct..
8. The information to RAO by operator about major damage will contains information:
1. Extent of damage. 2. Nature of defect.
3. Circumstances which caused the damage. 4. All the above.
11. The owner/operator submit aircraft for Inspection, during Repair, Modification & Overhaul to:
1. DGCA 2. Approved Organisation
3. Airworthiness Officer, 4. Q.C.M.
12. Suspended C of A can revalidated for One year after completion of Modification, Repair,
Maintenance:
1. When Modification, repair carried out by an AMO under supervision of DGCA
2. Only if additional work is carried pout with renewal of C. of A. referred ion CAR
series F Part IV.
3. 1 & 2 both are correct. 4. None of the above.
14. The requirement regarding use of materials to be used during manufacturing of aircraft
are prescribed in Rule:
1. 50 and 50 A. 2. 51 &51 A.
3. 52and52A. 4. 53&53A.
16. CAR Series F Part VI laid down requirements for rebuilding of Aircraft:
1. Which was damaged 2. Purchased as wreckage from Insurance companies.
19. The owner/person apply to DGCA through RAO for registration of Rebuild the aircraft
will submit:
1. Survey report indicating detail of parts 2. Fees.
3. Details of source of procurement of parts. 4. All the above.
20. Upon receipt pf application & all documents for registration of Rebuilt the aircraft.
The RAO will issue a:
1. Certificate of Registration for One year. 2. Temporary C of R. for one year.
3. Special Registration for One year. 4. None of the above.
21. The temporary C. of R. can be extended, in some exceptional cases, for a period of:
1. 18 months. 2. Two years,
3. Three years 4. an not extended.
22. Permanent registration of rebuilt aircraft will allowed only when constructor forwards a
certificate duly certified by:
I. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. C.
2. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. D.
3. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. B.
4. AME having licence endorsed in Cat. X.
23. Each rebuilt aircraft will have to be assigned a serial number by Constructor which is
normally assigned on:
I. Wings. 2. Fuselage.
3. Identification Plate. 4. None of the above.
24. The constructor, before assembling, the aircraft must ensure that:
I. Parts purchased are genuine 2. Proper history of the parts.
3. The fuselage has dc-registered from the country in which it was previously registered.
4. All the above.
25. The aircraft parts used for rebuilding should be strip inspected/overhauled which
are stored:
1. More than 5 years. 2. More than 6 years
3. More than 7 years. 4. More than 8 years.
26. The Fuselage imported from outside the country used for rebuilding of aircraft should
have:
1. Proper history. 2. Export C of A.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Certificate given by RAO.
28. In case original aircraft was issued with an approved Flight Manual, the constructor
will produce a copy of the same & procedure evidence of that, it is updated to:
1. DGCA 2. Q.C.M.
3. R A O. 4. Pilot in Command.
29. The DGCA will refuse to issue of C. of A. & C opfR, if owner/constructor not able to
produce:
1. Sufficient evidence regarding genuineness of Parts.
2. Use of correct assembling Techniques.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Approved Flight Manual.
31. No person can not operate the aircraft possessing suspended C. of A., stated by Rule:
1. 59 Sub Rule 3. 2. 57 Sub Rule 3
3. 56 Sub Rule III 4. 55 Sub Rule III.
32. Issue of a Special Flight permit to an Aircraft with a suspended C. of A. in light of:
1. Sub Rule IV of 55. 2. Sub Rule 3 of 55
3. Sub Rule II of 55. 4. Sub Rule 1 of 55.
35. For what purpose the special Flight permits are given:
1. Test Flying a production aircraft. 2. Flight for special purpose
3. Evacuation of aircraft opr passengers from area impending danger. 4. All the above.
36. For special Flight permit the owner/operator shall have to sub mit:
1. An applicatyion as per Annexure A. 2. An application as per Annexure B.
3. An application as per Annexure C. 4. An application as per Annexure D.
37. The Application of Special Flight permit shall concurred & signed by:
1. Engineering & Operational deptt. of operator.
2. Engineering & operational Deptt. of A.M.O.
3. Engineering & Operational deptt. of ICAO.
4. Engineering & Operational deptt. of Airworthiness Office.
38. The Report sent along with an application for Special Flight Perm it to RAO will consists
information:
I. Detailed condition of aircraft. 2. Steps taken for its safety.
3. 1 & 2 both 4. Age of aircraft.
39. In case aircraft sustains damage/defect outside of country the application for ferry flight shall be
submit to:
I. Office of main station. 2. Office where aircraft is based.
3. l&2both 4. DGCA.
42. Who is responsible to ensure the safe flight for intended operation:
I. A.M.E. 2. RAO
3. Owner/Operator 4. A.M.O.
43. Special flight permit is valid till:
I. For One year 2. Six months
3. Arrival of aircraft at destination or specific date 4. One day.
44. After reaching aircraft at base the operator shall submit a copy of report, to authority who had
issued Special Flight Permit, will contains information:
I. Any abnormality encountered during flight.
2. Action taken at base to render aircraft airworthy.
3. Result of Test Flight & any other information deemed necessary.
4. All the above.
47. Indian Registered aircraft5 before undertake any flight have to possess a current & valid
Certificate of Airworthiness in the light of:
I. Rule 13 2. Rule 14.
3. Rule 15. 4. Rule 16.
48. D.G.C.A in respect of any ale, a/c component item of equipment specify standards
and conditions for its maintenance, in accordance with
Sub rule(1) of rule 60 2 Sub rule (2) of rule 60
3 Sub rule(3) of rule 60 4 Sub rule(a) of rule 60
50. Approved Pilot means pilot to carry out transmit/layover inspection without authority
of invoking MEL item/snag rectification shall be approved by
1 D.G.C.A 2 RAO
3 QCM 4 Airworthiness officers of D.G.C.A.
51. An approved pilot should posses
1 Valid Licence with specific entrustment of type of a/c
2 Have trained for 10 days by A.M.E
3 Have checked by board formed by organization
4 All of above
53. The scheduled airline as required to have their own maintenance facility as required by
1. CAR sec 4 series C part II 2. CAR sec3 series C part II
3. CAR sec2 series C part II 4. Car sec I series C part II
54. The contents of routine maintenance and inspection schedule including special
inspection schedule, overhaul schedule of component and a/c operated by operator have
minimum experience as scheduled operator
1. 2year 2 3year
3. 5year 4 l0year
55. The MPD (maintenance planning document) should submit for its approval to
1. RAO/sub RAO 2. QCM
3 D.G.C.A 4 AMO
56. Special inspection schedules of a/c such as heavy landing ,post lightning strike post
propeller strike prepared by operator and approved by
I. D.G.C.A. 2 .A.M.E
3. Manufacturer 4 QCM
60. If the log book not available one copy of log book entry should be kept in
1. Aircraft log book 2. MEL
3. Journey log book 4. Radio log book
62. The issuance of FRC will implies that al maintenance work is concerned out in approved
manner and alc is safe for flight provided
1. All approved lower inspection schedule carried out
2. A/C is satisfactory loaded
3. Both a & b
4. A/C have sufficient crew
63. The FRC in respect of a/c categorized as passenger! mail cargo operating schedule Air
transport service
1. The validity of FRC shall approved by D.G.C.A.
2. Certification of inspection shall be carried out by AME/ attendant person
3. Both a & b
4. Specially inspected by AMO
64. For a/c seating configuration up to 19 when away from base with maximum payload capacity
2 tones inspected without snag rectification by
I. Basic licensed holder approved 2. An approved Pilot
3. AMO 4. Both a & b
65. The transmit inspection of a1c having passenger seating capacity more than 19 and with
payload capacity more than two tons away from base by
1. An AME! approved person 2. Basic licence holder
3. Approved pilot 4. All of above
66. The transmit inspection without snag rectification of turbo prop a/c having passenger seating
capacity up to 75 with maximum payload 5 tons by when a/c away from base
I. Approved licensed person 2. Approved Pilot
3. l3otha&b 4. AMO
67. A/C having MTOW more than 5700 Kg a/c categories in mail/cargo non scheduled Category
with more than 19 seats or payload capacity more than 2 tons
1. Validity of FRC by D.G.C.A.
2. Certificate of inspection higher than transmit inspection will be by AME specially approve
person
3. Transmit inspection without snag rectification will by approved basic licence holder when a/c
away from base
4. All of above
69. For aircraft operated by flying club and gliding club the FRC valid by:
1. 24Hrs. 2. 48Hrs.
3. 36 Hrs. 4. One week.
70. Aircraft belonging to aerial work Category FRC issued by AME after every:
1. 5 Hrs. /5 Days 2. 10 Hrs./7 Days
3. 20 Hrs / 7 Days 4. 25 Hrs./30 Days
71. Aircraft from regular aerodromes shall FRC to aerial work category issue every 50
Hrs./30 Days if that subject to carry out inspection of:
1. 25 Hrs./l5Days 2. 50 Hrs.130 Days
3. 100 Hrs./3 Months 4. 200 Hrs.16 Months.
73. In case of diversionary landing where AME/approved person not available. The inspection with
snag rectification will be carried out by:
1. Pilot in command 2. Flight engineer
3. Both 1 and 2 4. Crew members.
74. The certification of air born racks equipment carried out every 90 days elapsed time for
category:
1. All aircraft in private 2. All aerial work in aircraft
3. Aircraft operated by flying clubV 4. All of the above.
75. For aircraft equipped with communication equipment only certification will carried out
after every:
1. Every 30 Days 2. 100 Days
3. 180 Days 4. 6 Months.
76. The certification to radio equipment will be cancel if:
1. Aircraft flown through electric storm since last inspection
2. Operation of equipment is not properly work before flight
3. Report observed defect of such natured rectified by AME
4. All the above.
77. The FRC for radio should be used with every FRC for airframe and engine:
I. Second 2. Third
3. Fourth 4. Fifth
87. All completed maintenance schedule must be preserved for a minimum period of:
1. 6 months from the date of final certification of such schedule
2. 2 months from the date of final certification of such schedule
3. 1 month from the date of final certification of such schedule
4. As Suggested by QCM.
91. A damage caused to a metal structure characterized by initiation of the crack subsequent
propagation and as a result of continuous process whose effect is cumulative with respect
of aircraft usage is term as:
1. Accidental damage 2. Environmental damage
3. Fatigue damage 4. Multiple site damage.
95. In duplicate inspection, first inspection is carried out on the aircraft for flying controls by:
1. Any person 2. Trainee technician
3. AME in category A/B 4. None of the above.
99. Ageing aircraft require more frequent inspection of structural components for damage
due to:
1. Environmental deterioration. 2. Accidental damage
3. Fatigue 4. All are correct.
101. The owner/operator shall inform RAO/sub-RAO in writing at least 15 days in advance
102. Regional airworthiness officer may grant ad-hoc extension to lives of inspection
schedules and TBOs of components up to a maximum of or
1. 10%, 50 Hrs. 2. 3%, 3 Months
3. 3%, 50 Hrs. 4. None of the above.
103. All completed maintenance schedules must be preserved for a minimum period of
years:
1. One 2. two 3. Five 4. Ten.
104. Damage due to environment in the form of corrosion and stress corrosion is:
1. Environment damage 2. Corrosion damage
3. Fatigue damage 4. Accidental damage.
107. Damage to an aircraft can be termed as accident damage if it is caused due to:
1. Environmental factors like corrosion
2. One aircraft hitting another aircraft
3. Wrong handling of ground equipment during routing inspection
4. None of the above.
108. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
1. Any CPL holder
2. Flight engineer whose Licence is endorsed for the aircraft
3. Specially authorized person
4. Both l and 2 are correct.
109. If control systems are disturbed after the second check, but before first flight.
I. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again
2. Distorted portion should be checked by second person only
3. Complete portion should be checked by second
4. Complete portion should be checked in duplicate again.
110. Series F Part-XII deals with:
1. Inspection of wooden aircraft
2. Duplicate inspection of flying controls
3. Duplicate inspection of engine controls
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
113. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
especially prone to:
1. Timber shrinkage 2. Glue deterioration
3. Both A and B are correct 4. None of the above.
115. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
2. Identical length but one gauge larger
3. Slightly longer length
4. Slightly longer length and one gauge larger.
123. RAO can authorized a person to carry out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person
has at least three years general maintenance experience and months experience on
the tope of aircraft involved:
1. Three 2. Six
3. Nine 4. None of the above.
126. Duplicate inspection when aircraft is away from base is carried out by:
1. Any CPL (commercial pilot Licence) holder.
2. Flight engineer whose Licence is endorsed for the aircraft
3. Specially authorized person
4. Both I and 2 are correct.
127. RAO can authorized a person to carried out duplicate inspection of aircraft if a person
was at least 3 years general maintenance experience and months experience
on the type of aircraft involved.
I. Three 2. Six
3. Nine 4. None of the above.
129. If control system is distributed after the second check, before first flight:
1. Disturbed portion should be checked in duplicate again
2. Disturbed portion should be checked by second person
3. Complete portion should be checked by second person only
4. Complete portion should be checked induplicate again.
133. Wooden aircraft exposed to large cyclic changes of temperature and humidity are
especially prone to:
1. Timber shrinkage 2. Glue deterioration
3. Both 1 and 2. 4. None of the above.
136. In wooden structures, old screws are usually replaced with new screws of:
1. Identical length
2. Identical length but one gauge larger
3. Slightly longer length
4. Slightly longer length and one gauge longer.
141. C of A for glider is not renewed if following that are not carried out:
1. Stall/spin 2. Loop
3. Both land2. 4. Either lor2.
144. The C of A for glider is renewed provided is carried out during test flight:
1. Loop test 3. Stall test 2. Spin test 4. All are correct.
146. New component and spare parts used on gliders should be covered by:
1. Certificate of maintenance 2. Release note
3. Both land2 4. None of the above.
148. When glider meets with an accident, resulting in damage beyond economic repair,
glider logs book and procedure / work shall be pressure for a period of:
1. One month 2. One year
3. Two years 4. Five years.
149. Series F part XIV deals with:
1. Registration of micro aircraft 2. Airworthiness of micro aircraft
3. Both 1 and 2 4. None of the above.
150. The weight considered for declaring the aircraft micro light:
1. MAUW 2. MTOW 3. Empty weight 4. None of the above.
151. The MAUW of micro light single seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. 330Kg. 2. 450Kg.
3. 2000 Kg. 4. None of the above.
152. The MAUW of micro weight two seater aircraft should not exceed:
1. 330 Kg. 2. 450 Kg.
3. 2000 Kg. 4. None of the above.
154. How many items should be fixed on identification plate of micro light aircraft:
1. 4 Items 2. 5 Items
3. 6 items 4. None of the above.
158. The aircraft, which landed with scehon of its upper fuselages:
1. Aloha airline Boeing 73 7-200 2. Spice jet 707
3. Airbus 4. None of the above.
160. For schedule / Non-scheduled No aircraft imported who complete age / design
economic life of:
1. 15/75% 2. 20/70%
3. 15/70% 4. 20/75%.
161. For cargo operation pressurize transport cat. Aircraft import not more than age and
design economic life:
1. 20 /75% 2. 30/75%
3. 70% 4. 60/45%
170. o export spares, items of equity carry out necessary repair operator may approval:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. DAW.
175. Training program for person engaged in people of load / trim sheet include:
1. Refresher/recurrent training 2. Schedule training
3. Conventional training 4. None of the above.
176. Basic indoctrination ground training for newly hired staff used for prepare load/trim
sheet is:
1. 45 programmed Hrs. 2. 35 Programmed I-Irs.
3. 40 Programmed Hrs. 4. 65 Programmed lIrs.
179. Certificate of successful completion training in recurrent training to airline given by:
I. QCM 2. Shop
3. Staff instructor 4. RAO.
1 86. A group of characters affixed on aircraft surface to identify the country to which the
aircraft belongs is called:
1. Nationality mark 2. Common mark
3. Registration mark 4. Both I and 2.
187. Disputes with regard to the legal ownership of aircraft is decided by:
1. DGCA Head Qtr. 2. RAWO
3. AWO 4. court of law.
188. Detailed requirements for registration of aircraft are as per:
1. Aircraft rule 1937 2. ICAO Annex 7
3. CAR Series F Part-IV 4. Both 1 and 2.
192. If an aircraft is sold to another person or company it should he notified to DGCA as per:
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 32 A
3. Rule 33 4. Rule 37 A.
193. Until the certificate of registration is not granted to the new owner, aircraft:
1. Shall not be law full to fly
2. Assist in flying by any person
3. Can fly with written permission of DGCA
4. All above are correct.
194. An aircraft brought from out side by air, temporary certificate of registration:
I. Valid only up to first reaching at custom aerodrome in India.
2. Should he surrendered to DGCA.
3. Should have the aero mobile station Licence.
4. All above are correct.
198. When a new type of aircraft is registered and entered in the register. DGCA shall advise the:
I. Owner 2. Operator
3. State of design 4. None of the above.
200. The registered owner may apply for cancellation of registration under the clause of:
1. Rule 30 of 1937 2. Rule 33A of 1937
3. Rule 37 A o f1937 4. None of the above.
203. The registration marks on the un-manned free balloons shall be affixed on:
I. Left side 2. Right side
3. Right and left side 4. Identification plate.
204. On multi vertical tail surfaces aircraft the registration marks shall appear on:
1. Both the sides of tail surfaces
2. On inner sides of tail surfaces
3. On the out board sides of the outer surfaces
4. Not required any where as per series”.X
PREPRATORY A M E EXAMS
C A R Series H, PART I III —
3. Certain quantity of fuel in an aircraft will not be available for use because of:
1. Shape of the tank. 2. Location of tank.
3. Both 1 & 2 are correct. 4. None of the above.
4. Unusable fuel is the quantity of fuel supply remaining in each tank and not available is the
engine under the most adverse feed condition in
1. Intended flight maneuvers. 2. Any flight condition.
3. Stabilized cruise condition. 4. Both I & 3 are correct.
12. Fueling Zone is regarded as the area extending meters radially from the aircraft fuelling
point:
1. 25 2. 15
3. 10 4. 6
14. While placing the refueling equipment near aircraft, the approach followed shall be:
1. Oblique 2. Perpendicular to fuselage.
3. Straight 4. Both 1 & 2
16. Distance of ground power units from the aircraft filling/venting points & fuelling
equipment
shall not be more than:
1. 6 meters 2. 10 meters.
3. 20 meters. 4. 30 meters.
17. Whenever wing fueling is employed, the nozzle of the hose shall be bonded to:
1. Fuelling equipment 2. Fuelling equipment before filling cap is removed.
3. Aircraft structure before filling cap is removed. 4. None of the above.
18. Before transfer of fuel into aircraft begins, it must be ensured that Fire Extinguisher are
availabk
of:
1. Adequate capacity & approved type. 2. Adequate capacity & in n umbers.
3. Adequate type & in numbers. 4. All of the above.
19. Fuelling operation shall cease when a Turboprop Jet aircraft maneuvers, so as to bring
the rear
jet outlets within:
1. 30 meters of aircraft. 2. 43 meters of aircraft.
3. 43 meters of fuelling equipment 4. 30 meters of fuelling equipment.
21. No photographic flashbulb & electronic flash equipment shall be permitted to be used
in the
vicinity of fueling equipment within a distance of:
1. 5 meters. 2. 6 meters.
3. 25 meters. 4. 30 meters.
22. Aircraft shall not be fuelled whenever radar equipment is in use within a distance of:
1. 30 meters. 2. 25 meters
3. 120 meters. 4. 15 meters.
24. Fuelling operation shall be stop, when the spillage covers an area greater than:
1. 2 Sq. meters. 2. 5 Sq. meters.
3. 15 Sq. meters. 4. 20 Sq. meters.
25. In case of fuel spillage during fuelling operation, covering an area greater than 5 Sq.
meten all
persons shall be evacuated from the affected area to a place away from the spillage by
minimum
distance of:
1. 6 meters. 2. 15 meters.
3. 30 meters. 4. 43 meters.
27. While delivering aviation fuel, the supplier will normally present:
1. Release Note. 2. Delivery receipt Certificate
3. Both ! & 2 4. None of the above.
28. An aviation fuel delivery vehicle shall be cleaned internally every:
1. One year 2. Two years.
3. Three years 4. Five years.
29. The minimum setting for fuel in tanks fitted with floating suction valves in respect of
horizontal
tank is:
1. One hour 2. Two hours.
3. One hour! Foot depth of fuel 4. Two hour/foot depth of fuel
30. Setting time for ATF, without floating suction device is:
1. Half an hour/foot depth., 2. One hour/foot depth
3. Total one hour 4. None of the above.
3 1. Floating sections of bulk fuel tanks should be inspected for satisfactory performance
once in:
1. Three months; 2. One month
3. Fifteen days. 4. None of the above.
32. Tank bottom sample of ATF shall be tested for Microbiological growth once in:
1. One year 2. Two years.
3. Three years. 4. None of the above.
36. Fuel specification tests are to be carried out on AVGAS fuel, when no fuel has been
added to the static bulk store during the last:
1. Three months 2. Six months
3. One year. 4. None of the above.
37. Delivery of AVGAS from the vehicles to aircraft should be made through a Micro filter
with a normal rating of:
1. 100 mesh gauges. 2. 180 mesh gauge
3. 5 Microns 4. None of the above.
39. Pressure differential checks on refuller filters, at the maximum possible flow rate.
Should be carried out:
1. Every day 2. Every week
3. Every month 4. Once in a year
40. Checks should be carried out on de-hydrant system to verify the correct operation of
shut-off valves & grade selection device:
1. Every month 2. Every six months
3. Every two months 4. Every year.
41 As a matter of routine, elements of filler separators for the refuller & hydrant system
should be replaced after every:
I. One year 2. Two years
3. Three years 4. None of the above.
42. Barrels should be stored on their sides with the bungs at:
1. 3 O’clock position 2. 9 O’clock position
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
43. Suction stand pipe to be fitted to barrel should be such that fuel can not drain from the
bottom:
1. 3 inches. 2. 6 inches.
3. 4 inches. 4. None of the above.
44. Laboratory tests are required before using barrel fuel when 6 months have elapsed since
the filling of barrels in respect of:
I. AVGAS 2. ATF
3. Both 1 & 2 4. The statement is incorrect.
47. When changing fuel grades, extra precautions are to be observed from:
1. AVGAS to ATF 2. ATF to AVGAS
3. One grade of AVGAS to another 4. None of the above
48. Single tank composite sample means, mixing of fuel in equal quantity from samples
taken:
1. During morning, afternoon & evening 2. Upper, Middle & lower level
3. Top & Bottom 4. All are correct
6. If the aircraft is leased by owner, than the responsibility for C of A to be current and
valid is of:
a) Owner b) Operator
c) AME ` d) None of the above
20. Whenever a new CAR or significant revision is proposed to be issued, the draft
CAR/proposed revision may be circulated to:
a) Concerned operators b) Plus regional officer
c) plus manufacturer d) None of the above.
26. The parametric report for achieving max. Measures of safety is sent to:
a) RAO b) DGCA
c) QCM d) All the above.
28. A parameter to be obtained from no. of emergency landings and total no. of Hrs.
flown is:
a) Incidents /1000 Hrs. b) Accidents/I 000 Hrs.
c) Dispatch reliability d) None of the above.
29. No. of notifiable accidents along with no. of lirs. flown gives:
a) Emergency landing /1000 I-Irs. b) Accidents /I000Hrs.
c) Dispatch reliability d) Accident/I00 departures.
30. Total number of engine hours flown is given by product of no. of airframe hours
a) any one engine Hrs. of aircraft b) Total no. of engines installed
c) Both A and B d) None of the above.
33. Parameters i.e. no. of major defects / 1000 Hrs. includes no. of Hrs. of:
a) Airframe b) Engine
c) Either A or B d) None of the above.
34. Private operator will furnish information in parametric form to DGCA every:
a) One month b) Three month
c) Six months d) One year.
35. Non-scheduled, aerial work, training aircraft operator should furnish information
toDGCA every.
a) One month b) Three month
c) Six Month d) On demand.
42. Achieving the maximum measures of safety the operator/owner should submit the
regional or sub regional office the:
a) The no. of emergency landing and Hours flown
b) The no. of engine hours! in flight
c) No. of accidents /No. of 15 minutes delays
d) All above are correct.
44. Technic& officers of airworthiness directorate may ask the operator to submit for
inspection the:
a) Aircraft b) Aircraft components
c) Aircraft documents d) Both B and C
46. When ever a new CARl/Revision is issued, operator/owner should be provided with the
47. The parameters mentioned in CAR series A Part-Ill will be recorded in graphical form
and compared by:
a) Regional airworthiness office b) Sub regional airworthiness office
c) QCM of organization d) Both A & B.
48. Airworthiness office after investigating the parameter will can recommend:
a) Varying the process of maintenance
b) Suggesting in corporation of modification
c) Increasing monitoring checks by airworthiness office
d) All above.
49. The assessment of performance of operator will be provided as “Birds eye view” by:
a) Maintenance schedule
c) Monitoring parameters
b) Modification status
d) On condition and hard time maint
50. The operator shall him self take corrective action by observing:
a) Qualification of AME b) Qualification of mechanics
c) Adverse trends in serviability d) Both A & B.
51. The aircraft rule of aircraft rules 1937 that lays the maintenance and certification
standard of civil registered aircraft is:
a) Rule 5 b) Rule 59
c) Rule 50 d) Rule 60
52. The rule that lays that a major defect or major damage to aircraft shall be reported to
DGCA is:
a) Rule 60 b) Rule 50
c) Rule 59 d) Rule 15.
53. Aircraft component means a part filled on aircraft, the soundness and correct
functioning of which is essential for:
a) Its continuous airworthiness b) Safety of aircraft
c) Safety of occupants d) All the above.
54. Major defects means defect of such nature that will:
a) Take at least 72 Hrs. for rectification
b) Necessarily involve change of component
c) Result in emergency
d) Reduce the safety of aircraft occupants.
57. The aircraft operator that operator it fleet as per published schedule is called:
a) Normal operator b) Private operator
c) Scheduled operator d) Non-scheduled operator.
64. for computing static’s for the purpose of determining components reliability one has to
take into account:
a) Major defects b) Minor defect
c) Repetitive defect d) all the above.
65. All faults malfunctioning defect or any other occurrence such may cause service
difficulties or adverse effect on continuing airworthiness shall be reported by
operator/approved maintenance organization with in:
a) 10 days b) 5 days
c) 7 days d) 15 days.
67. Component associated with major defect will be preserved for a period of:
a) One week b) 15 days
c) 3 Weeks d) 2 weeks)
69. Operator other than scheduled operator will forward fleet performance:
a) After one months b) After two months
c) After four months d) after three months.
73. CAR sec.-II series C part-Il (Recording of in flight instruments is) Applicable to:
a) Scheduled operator b) Non-scheduled operator
c) Public transport aircraft d) All the above.
77. Only those defects must be entered in the relevant colors of flight reports, that are
observed during:
a) Preflight b) Post flight
c) Course of flight d) all are correct.
78. If no defect is reported by crew during the previous day AME will:
a) release the aircraft for flying
b) Release the aircraft after consulting QCM
c) Release aircraft for flight only when NIL entry has been made by pilot
d) None of the above.
79. Defects observed at a place away from normal base are recorded in:
a) Aircraft log book b) Journey log book couloum XI
c) Job sheet d) Defect register
80. In case performance deterioration and observed in aircraft test flight is carried out to
ascertain increase of drag from the parameter:
a) Fuel flow and airspeed b) Fuel flow and true airspeed
c) Fuel flow and altitude d) None of the above.
81. CAR series C Part-IV relates to:
a) Public transport aircraft
b) Public transport aircraft turbo jet only
c) Aircraft other than public transport
d) None of the above.
86. Alert notice will be issued to all concerned and sent to RAO in duplicate:
a) By 251h of every month b) By 30th of every month
c) On 25th of every month d) On 7th of every month.
87. Roughly graphic display about reliability should summarize operating experience for at
least the last:
a) Three months b) two months
c) six months d) One year.
92. Reliability displays for any reported failure or non-routine, removals are to be
impressed in terms:
a) 1000 Aircraft Hours.
b) 1000 Aircraft Hrs. or 100 Landings
c) 1000 aircraft Hrs. or 3 months elapsed time
d) 1000 aircraft hrs. or after appropriate devolutions.
93. Reliability displays for all reported removals are to be preserved for a period:
a) Six months b) One year
c) Two years d) five years.
94. Regarding defects occurring on the aircraft system the role of RAO is to:
a) Carry out speed checks on the records maintained
b) Ensure that defect are classified properly
c) Associate themselves seas to get the defects rectified
d) All the above.
95. CAR series D Part —I deals with the reliability of aircraft engine operated by:
a) Schedule operator b) Unscheduled operator
c) Schedule and un-operator d) All operator
98. Shut downs deals with the aircraft structural damage and adversely affect is called:
a) Critical shut-down b) Non critical shut down
c) Both d) None of the above.
100. In-flight shutdowns used for computing an operator’s shutdown rate include:
a) Critical shutdown
b) Other than critical shutdown
c) Shutdown for testing / training
d) Both A and B are correct.
101. In flight shut down rate, engine hrs. flown and reliability index is to be sent to RAO
every month by:
a) The 10th day b) The I 5th day
c) The 20th day d) None of the above.
102. 25th day of each month the report sent to RAO is:
a) Total time flown b) Sr. No.
c) Time since overhaul d) all of the above.
106. During the time the operation in the alert area than who will monitor the corrective
program:
a) RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) I and III.
107. A supplementary report containing various information regarding IFSD must be sent
to:
a) RAO by the 25th of the month.
b) DGCA by the 25th of the month
c) RAO by the 10th of the month
d) DGCA by the 10th of the month.
112. This process has got direct relationship between reliability and the age:
a) Hard time maintenance process b) Condition monitoring maint. Process.
c) On condition monitoring maintenance process.
118. Maximum deviation from the normal operating limit but with in the allowable
operating range.
a) alert valve b)
c) Both d) None of the above.
122. Alert level can be continuously up-dated by means of rolling average either:
a) Quarterly or 6 monthly b) 8 Monthly
c) 2 year d) 1 year.
125. The details of the any programme approved by AWO, it should be reflected in the:
a) Inspection schedule b) COSL
c) Special inspection schedule d) All of the above.
127. Who maintain a continuous record of the parameters in a graphical form or a tabulated
form:
a) AME b) Every operator
c) QCM d) I and III.
128. It shall be the responsibility to mention the fatigue lives of the components in the
engine log book.
a) By QCM b) By overhauling agency
c) By organization d) All of the above.
129. It shall be the responsibility to report to RAO/sub RAO in writing all life limiting
features:
a) BY QCM b) By overhauling agency
c) By organization d) All of the above.
131. The operators shall inform in writing whenever alert values are reached or abnormal
conditions.
a) RAO/Sub RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) DGCA.
136. When ever alert value exceeds who would initiate necessary corrective action:
a) RAO b) Operator
c) QCM d) AME.
139. Average fuel and oil consumption of engines will be recorded in:
a) Journey log book b) In engine log book
c) Propeller log book d) all of the above.
141. Who can carried out periodical spot checks on the records of fuel and oil uplift?
a) RAO b) AME
c) QCM d) Technician.
144. Who may require an operator to submit samples to bench checking and in case of engines
even to flight tests:
a) QCM b) AME
c) RAO/Sub Rao d) all of the above.
145. Every operator shall maintain a continuous record of the engine parameters in:
a) A graphical form b) A tabulated form
c) Either A or B d) None
146. Every engine parameters has an alert value which is fixed by:
a) Operator b) DGCA
c) RAO d) Operator in consultations with RAO
149. RAO May require immediate withdrawal of engines from service in case:
a) Parameter monitoring records are not kept.
b) Alert values have been exceeded
c) Both A and B are correct.
d) None of the above.
150. CAR series D Part-V regarding maintenance of fuel oil consumption is applicable in
respect of:
a) All aircraft engines b) Scheduled aircraft engines
c) Light aircraft engines d) None of the above.
151. Daily uplift of fuel /oil consumption in fuel oil register is signed by:
a) QCM b) Licensed AME
c) DY.QCM d) Authorized person.
153. Fuel and oil consumption records in logbooks are to be maintained by:
a) Licensed AME b) Qualified technicians
c) QCM d) A and B are correct.
155. Any change from one maintenance process to another after getting approval from
RAO needs to be documented in:
a) QC manual b) Maintenance system manual
c) BothAandB.
156. On the consideration of operating economy operator can increase the service life of
components with the approval of:
a) Manufacturer b) QCM
c) DGCA d) Both B and C.
Series F
2. The rule that requires that no person shall fly or assist in flying any a/c unless it has been
registered is
1. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
3. Rule 5 4. None of the above
3. The a/c should bear its nationality and registration marks and the name & the residence of the
owner affixed or painted in accordance with
1. Rule 5 2. Rule 37
3. Rule 50 4. None of the above
6. An a/c owned by a company registered elsewhere than in India provided that company
has given the a/c on lease to any person who is a citizen of India or to another company or to state
or central government that that a/c will be registered in
I. Cat. ’A’ 2. Cat. B
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
9. If an application is made for the registration of an ale before it is imported in India a temporary C
of R may be granted under the provision of
I. Rule 30 2. Rule 31
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
10. Registration marking shall not 1 : allotted which might be confused with international code of
signals like
I. Registration beginning with the letter Q
2. Registration SOS XXX PAN, and TTT
, .
11. Where a certificate has been lost the owner may apply to DGCA for the issue ola duplicate
certificate with
1. An affidavit, a copy of FIR lodged with the police 2. Prescribed fee
3. Both a & h are correct 4. None of the above
12. Where a certificate has been mutilated the owner may apply for issue of a Duplicate
certificate to DGCA with
1. Mutilated certificate & prescribed fee 2. Mutilated certificate
3. Only prescribed fee 4. None of the above
13. The registration of an ale registered in India may be cancelled at any time by DGCA of its
satisfied that
I. The registration has been obtained by furnishing false information
2. The a/c has been destroyed or permanently
3. The lease in respect of the a/c registered has expired
4. All above
1. EI 2. JO
3. AVU 4. VT
19. DGCA issues type certificate to engine/propeller manufactured in India under the purview of
ale Rule
1. 49A 2. 49B
3. 49C 4. 49
20. Application for revalidation of type certificate of rotor-craft is submitted in the form as per
CAR series F
1. Part ‘I’ Annexure 1 2. Part ‘I’ Annexure II
3. Part ‘II’ Annexure II 4. Part ‘II’ Annexure I
21. Application for issue/revalidation of type certificate of ale is to be submitted in the form as in
Series F Part II Annexure I 2. Series F Part II Annexure II
3. JAR 49 Sub- Rule 2 4. None of the above
22. For issuance of type certificate of aircraft or its components, the DGCA should be satisfied
on the points:
1. The design has been approved by DGCA
2. The design on forms to approved airworthiness requirements/specifications of foreign
airworthiness authorities and acceptable to DGCA.
3. Both I and 2
4. None of the above.
23. For revalidation of type certificate of an imported light and transport aircraft the DGCA
confirms that the aircraft meets earth the requirements of:
1. FAR 23 and 25. 2. BCAR 23 and JAR 25
3. FAR 27 and 29 4. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
24. Type certificate of a rotorcraft imported in India can be revalidation by the DGCA if its
design and construction can form earth.
1. FAR 23 and 25 2. BCAR 23 and JAR 25
3. FAR 27 and 29 4. BCAR 27 and 29.
25. An Aero engine manufactured outside India can he type certified by the DGCA if it conforms
to:
1. FAR33 2. FAR23
3. FAR 30 4. Both I and 3 are correct.
26. DGCA revalidation the type certificate in respect of engine /propeller under the purview of
aircraft rule:
1. 49 2. 49A
3. 49B 4. 49C.
27. Before revalidation of type certificate, DGCA may discuss specific design/manufacturing
issues with:
1. Representatives of the manufacturer
2. Airworthiness authority of the country of manufacturer
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
30. The certification of aircraft /aircraft components manufactured in India shall he done by
approved/authorized person as per aircraft rule:
1. 53 2. 53A
3. 53B 4. 53 C.
31. All relevant inspection records concerning manufacture of an aircraft shall be preserved for a
period of:
I. two years 2. Four years
3. Five years 4. Ten years.
32. Test flight of a newly manufactured aircraft shall be carried out in accordance with:
1. Manufacture’s test flight schedule
2. Test flight schedule approved by DGCA
3. Both I and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
33. Prior to carrying out the test to substantiate the design the manufacturer shall submit to
DGCA:
1. Test flight report of the aircraft
2. Test flight schedule or scouting and approval
3. Test schedule of scouting and approval
4. None of the above.
34. Manuals that should be submitted in respect of a type component/item of equipment for
approval are:
1. Type service manual and flight manual
2. Maintenance manual and structural repair manual
3. Both I and 2 are correct
4. None of the above.
39. If at any time the DGCA feds that the safety of aircraft is jeopardized it can:
1. Cancel or suspend a type certificate
2. Endorse a type certificate
3. Incorporate a modification in type certificate
4. All above are correct.
40. For incorporating any modification in type certification of aircraft /aircraft component:
1. Approval of DGCA is a must
2. Written approval of manufacturer is a must
3. Approval of QCM/CEM is a must
4. All above are correct.
42. For type certification of aircraft as per CAR Series ‘E’ Part-Il Annexure ‘I’---------------
unmounted photograph of the aircraft have to be submitted: size ---------------------
I. Three, l0 X 15 cm.
2. Three, not less than 10 x 15 cm.
3. Five, 10 X 15cm.
4. Five, not less than 10 X 15 cm.
43. For obtaining type certificate of an aircraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
dimension to the DGCA.
I. Length of fuselage
2. Length overall, height overall
3. Both I and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
44. for obtaining type certificate of a rotorcraft the manufacturer has to submit the following
dimension to the DGCA:
1. Length of fuselage
2. Overall length
3. Diameter of main rotor and tail rotor main rotor blade chard.
4. All above are correct.
46. All aircraft registered in India must posses a current and valid C of A before they are flown is
a requirement as per aircraft rule:
1. 50 2. 30
3. 15 4. 50A.
48. For issue of C of A the DGCA has to satisfy itself that the aircraft/rotorcraft
manufactured/imported meets the approved airworthiness standards of:
I. BCAR 23 and JAR 25 2. FAR 23 and FAR 25
3. FAR 27and 29 4. All above are correct.
49. C of A for aircraft, which do not fulfill the airworthiness standards as laid down by the
DGCA:
I. Cannot be issued/renewed
2. The operator may consult the DGCA ( DAW ) before buying / importing such aircraft so that
acceptance standards are conveyed to him.
3. Both I and 2 are correct.
4. None of the above.
51 Before C of A In respect of an imported aircraft is issued, the DGCA satisfy himself with the:
.
53. Aircraft with MTOW greater that 5700 Kg. And categorized as passenger/mail /good shall
have at least engines:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. None of the above.
54. For issuance of C of A for an aircraft type which is imported for the first time. the
owner/operator shall supply, free of cost to DGCA:
I. Airplane flight manual
2. Type certification
3. MMEL
4. All above are correct.
55. The set of documents that shall be submitted to RAO/Sub-RAO of DGCA where the aircraft is
bused with up to date amendments will he:
Aircraft maintenance manual, engine maintenance manual
2. Overhaul manual, structural repair manual
3. Service bulletins, SSID, CPCP.
4. All of the above.
56. For issuance of C of A partially filled Indian C of A will be forwarded by the DGCA:
1. To the manufacturer for completion
2. To the owner/operator for completion
3. To the RAO/Sub-RAO for completion
4. All above are correct.
57. RAO/Sub-RAO may issue/validate the C of A on the basis of:
1. ExportCofA
2. Physical inspection of the aircraft
3. Scrutiny of other related documents
4. All of the above.
63. The document, which must accompany the application for issue of C of A, is:
I. Form CA-83 2. form CA-84
3. Both I are 2 are correct 4. None of the above.
69. A state government aircraft certified in normal category subdivision shall be a aircraft
I. Passenger 2. Private
3. Research 4. Racing.
73. Aircraft and other aeronautical products to be eligible for export to India must meet the
requirements of:
1. FAR 15 2. FAR 26
3. FARAD(87-0l-40) 4. FAR2I.
74. Class II and class IV aeronautical products for export to India should be accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
2. Airworthiness approval tag
3. Airworthiness approval tag issued under port 21e of FAA
4. None of the above.
75. Class I aeronautical products for export to India should he accompanied by:
I. Export C of A
2. Airworthiness approval tag
3. Airworthiness approval tag issued under part 21 of FAA
4. None of the above.
78. Displaying of nationality and registration marking upon the aircraft prior to being imported
into India is the responsibility of:
1. Exporter of the aircraft 2. Importer of the aircraft
3. DGCA 4. FAA.
80. Class II and III aeronautical products imported into India must accompany:
1. Airworthiness approval tag
2. Compliance with FAR 21 (sub Part R)
3. Compliance with FAR 21 (Sub part P)
4. Compliance with FAR 21 (Sub Part L).
84: The rule that requires that all Indian registered aircraft posses a valid C of A is:
I. Rule 15 2. Rule 50
3. Rule 5 4. All are in correct.
87. Validity period of C of A for all aircraft of over 20 years of age is:
1. One year 2. Six months
3. Nine months 4. None of the above.
90. Operation of an aircraft may apply [‘or the renewal of C of A along with necessary fees as
per:
1. RuIe5X 2. Rule6I
3. Rule 62 4. None of the above.
93. In case the C of A of the aircraft has expired, for renewal the quantum of work required has to
he decided by:
I. Officer —in charge RAO 2. Operator/QCM
3. Manufacturer 4. None of the above.
98. If mendatory modification are not carried out as and when called for:
I. The C of R will lease to be valid
2. The C of A will lease to be valid
3. The W/T will lease to be valid.
4. All are correct.
99. The AME /approved firm undertaking the C of A renewal work must ensure the availability
of -------------- for the type of aircraft.
1. Up to date technical literature
2. Special tools, SSID CPCP COSL
,
101. At the time of C of A renewal, the operator must submit to airworthiness office:
I. approved test flight report
2. A certificate that the radio, communication navigation and radar equipment on board have been
checked for performance.
3. All documents relating to log book entries
4. All of the above.
102. Aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above are required to be maintained by:
1. Individual AME’s 2. Airlines
3. Approved organizations 4. All are correct.
103. Certificate of maintenance review in cases of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And above is
issued by:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. All are correct.
104. Aircraft with AUW more than 15,000 Kg. Can maintained by:
1. Individual AME’s 2. Authorized personnel
3. Approved organizations 4. All are correct.
105. Certificate of maintenance review of case of aircraft with AUW of 15,000 Kg. And below is
issued by:
1. Individual AME’s
2. AME having his Licence endorsed in category “B’ to cover the type of aircraft in lv ed
3. AME having his Licence endorsed in category D’ to cover the type of engine involved
4. Both 2 and 3 are correct.
106. If the airworthiness officer completes the final inspection of the aircraft and its document
after the expiry of the C of A then the validity of the next currency of C of A will start from:
1. The date of inspection 2. The expiry of last C of A
3. The date of submitting the application 4. All are correct.
5. A firm approved for carrying out repair and flight testing of Avionics set is in category:
a) A b) E c) D d) C.
11. A document accompanying the sale of aircraft components, spares, materials, goods
and certifying that the same were obtained from an approved source it termed as:
a) sales certificate b) Delivery note
c) Release note d) None of the above.
13. The QCM and the deputy QCM are approved by:
a) Airline’s chief Engineer b) Managing Director of the organization.
c) Technical Centre d) DGCA
15. An organization seeking approval in any of the categories A-G, should apply to:
a) RAO b) DGCA
c) DGCA through the nearest regional office d) Any of the above.
16. An organization seeking approval in any of the activities under any category (series-E) shall
apply on prescribed form:
a) CA 182 b) CA-9
c) CA-28 d) None of the above.
20. Quality control cum Quality Assurance manual for scheduled operator is approved by:
a) DOCA b) RAO
c) DGCA is consultation with RAO d) QCM.
21. The manner of preparing inspection schedule and assigning periodicity, whenever applicable in
respect of periodic maintenance is contained in:
a) Engineering organization manual b) Qc cum Assurance manual
c) MS manual d) None of the above.
23. The procedure for duplicate inspection of flight and engine controls is listed in:
a) QC cum Assurance manual b) MS manual
c) Both A and B are correct d) None of the above.
25. The component life list, being a part of maintenance system manual, can be revised:
a) On manufacture’s recommendation b) As per requirements
c) BY QCM d) With the concurrence of DGCA.
30. The fee payable by any organization for approval of renewal covered in CAR Series E Part-I are
as per aircraft rule.
a) 133 b) 133-A
c) 133-B d) 133-C.
PREPARATORY A M E EXAMS
C A R SERIES ‘E’ Part V to IX
6. The special identification number allotted to the Petroleum Products as a one lot for testing
and sampling:
1. Identification number 2. Batch number
3. Serial number 4. None of the above.
8. Aviation fuel and other petroleum products received for storage prior to loading into an
organisation shall be certified on an approved Release Note quoting:
1. Batch number 2. Test Report number
3. Specification 4. All of the above.
12. Records will be maintained by an organisation approved in Cat. ‘E’ for period of:
1. Minimum Two years. 2. One year
3. Six months 4. For indefinite period.
15. To ensure that goods release to customers have not deteriorated, is the duty of:
1. Quality Control Manager 2. Signatory of Release Note
3. Both I & 2 4. None of the above.
16. No Aircraft goods shall be held in the bonded store for distribution unless they are received
under Cover of:
1. Release Note 2. Batch Number
3. Both I & 2 4. None of the above.
17. In case materials are returned by costumers on account of being unairworthy, this must be
known to:
1. Q.C.M. 2. R.A.O.
3. DGCA 4. All of the above.
18. Release Notes and other necessary documents are preserved for a period of:
1. Two years. 2. Five years.
3. Eight years. 4. Ten years.
20. Which Rule stipulated the grant of AME Licence to an Applicant, who have course from
DGCA approved, will be granted one year relaxation in total Aeronautical Maintenance
Experience:
1. Rule 61. 2. Rule 62.
3. Rule 16 4. Rule 61 A
21. Which Form shall be submitted to local Airworthiness for Approval of Institute:
1. CA182 2. CA182C
3. CA182A 4. CA182D.
24. For AME Chief Instructor,---------------- years of Aeronautical Experience, out which-------------
years in of actual Maintenance of Aircraft is required:
1. 10,3 2. 10,6
3. 5,2 4. 5,4
26. In one year the maximum and minimum no. of hours in a class should be:
1. 30,10 2. 40,20
3. 20,5 4. 50,20.
27. For AME training course, the candidates should have passed 10+2 with minimum aggregate
PCM:
1. 50% 2. 60%,
3. 33% 4. 70%
28. During any Semester the practical training shall not be less than:
1. 20% 2. 25%
3. 50% 4. 61%
29. Minimum presence during training period shall not be less than:
1. 80% 2. 75%
3. 70% 4. 93%
30. To be declared successful in course, the candidate must obtain minimum of:
1. 33% of marks. 2. 50% of marks
3. 78% of marks. 4. 70% of marks.
31. The application of Students appearing for DGCA AME Exams shall be forwarded by:
1. Chief Instructor 2. Any Instructor
3. Managing Director 4. None of the above.
32. Question and Answer Paper of each paper shall be preserved by an Institute for a period of:
1. Six months 2. Two months
3. One year 4. Two years.
33. The Institute shall carry out an Internal Audit of their facilities & submit to local Airworthiness
Office:
1. Once in a year. 2. Thrice in a year
3. Twice in a year 4. Both I & 3 are correct.
2. A firm seeking approved in Category B for anodic oxidation will submit to DGCA:
a) 12 Samples b) 6 Samples
c) 3 Samples.
10. Test reports issued by organization approved in Category ‘D’ is signed by:
a) Release note signatory b) Airworthiness officer
c) DGCA Head Qtr. d) QCM
12. A certificate issued by DGCA to specif’ the design of component/ items of equipment
is called:
a) Maintenance certificate b) Test flight
c) Type certificate
19. SB means:
I. Service Bulletin 2. Store Book
3. Service Book 4. Stock Information letter.
20. Organisation outside India will be granted approval by DGCA when the organisation
complies with:
1.AAC4of 1998. 2. AAC8of 1999
3. AAC4of 1999 4. AAC7of 1998.
22. For ‘Workshop process and Inspection’ organization approval is given in:
1. Cat. B, 2. Cat. E
3. Cat.F 4. Cat .F
25. Organisation located outside India applies for approval of organisation on form:
on form:
1. CA182C 2. 183C
3. 128C 4. 138C
26. Completed form for Approval of an organisation located outside of India is submitted:
1. R A W O. 2. Sub R A W O
3. D G C A 4. Both l & 3
27. The scope of approval should be reflected in:
1. Engg. Manual 2. Quality Control Manual
3. Maint. System Manual 4. Organisation Manual
32. Nodal Officer for Approval should have Aviation experience of:
1. 5 years 2. Three years
3. Six months 4. All the above.
5. Which rules say that an operator shall have access to an adequate maintenance
organization?
1. Rule 155 A of the aircraft Rules, 1937
2. Rule 55 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937
3. Rule 7 of the aircraft Rules, 1937
4. Rule 19 of the Aircraft Rules, 1937.
10. Who should ensure that compliance of SBs / Mods and Airworthiness Directives:
1. The Quality Control Manager 2. A.M.E.
3. Operator 4. None of the above.
16. Who should be responsible for seeing that no aircraft is dispatched with multiple
items in operative?
1. AME 2. R A W O
3. Operator 4. PIC
22. Which Rule says that every aircraft should carry on board:
1. Rule 7_B, 2. Rule25B
3. Rule 30 4. Rule 62.
28. What is FI ?
1. Flight Inspector 2. Fuel Inspection
3. Flight Issue 4. Forecast Instructor
29. How many parts does series “B: contains:
1. l0 parts. 2. 1 part
3. 2parts. 4. 3 parts.
SERIES 0
1. Proficiency check of licensed air transport service pilot shall be carried out at an
interval of not less than months and not more than months
1. 4,8 2. 3,8
3. 3,6 4. 4,6
2. During an IR check when the pilot carries out 180 degree turns with 30 degree bank to
port and starboard variation in height shall not exceed
1. l00ft 2. 200ft
3. 300ft 4. 500ft
3. While recovering from unusual altitude during pilot’s check the loss in height shall not
exceed
1. 500ft 2. l000ft
3. 1500 ft 4. 2000 ft
4. All pilots before flying as pilot in command of multi engined aircraft shall demonstrate
to a check pilot , let down procedure during which variation in speed during descent
—
5. The pilot in command of every aircraft before commencing any flight shIl satisfy
himself of
I. Valid flight release certificate 2. Engine developing correct power
3. Availability of sufficient length 4. All are correct
8. Duties not required for safe operation of aircraft include company required calls for
1. Ordering galley supplies 2. Promoting airlines
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
9. Aerobatic manoeuvres are not to be carried out unless the pilot wears
I. Crash helmet 2. Flying goggles
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
10. Instruments and equipments are fitted on aircraft to enable the flight crew to
I. Control the flight path 2. Carry out procedure manouvre
3. Observe operating limitation of aircraft 4. All are correct
14. Minimum descent altitude / height is specified altitude I height in a non precision
approach below which
1. Descent may be made without visual reference
2. Descent may not be made without visual reference
3. Descent may be made with visual reference
4. None of the above
17. Ensuring that pilots are familiar with the laws regulations & procedures pertinent to
,
18. In computing oil and fuel required for aircraft operation one should consider
1. Met forecast
2. Anticipated ATC routing and traffic delays
3. One instrument approach at destination aerodrome
4. All are correct
19. Approximate altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to 620 rnb of absolute
pressure is
1. 3000 metres 2. 4000 metres
3. 5000 metres 4. 7600 metres
20. After the end of operating life of a helicopter component the records shall be kept for a
period of days
1. 60 2. 90
3. 120 4. All are correct
21. In flight simulation of emergency for training of helicopter flight crew is prohibited
when
1. Children below 10 years are on board 2. Passengers are carried
3. Cargo is carried 4. All are correct
22. Following an act of unlawful interference the pilot in command shall submit a report to
1. BCAS 2. DGCA
3. BCAS and DGCA 4. All are correct
25. In an emergency situation Endangering the safety at aircraft when pilot in command
,
take sanction that violates laid down regulations he shall submit a report with in
hours
1. 12 2. 24
3. 48 4. 72
27. Rafts to be carried in helicopters should either be deployable by remote control or with
some mean of mechanical assistance if their weight is more than
1. 30Kg 2. 40Kg
3. 50Kg 4. 60Kg
35. Homs gliders shall have a power oil stall speed exceeding a
1. 25 Knots 2. 30 Knots
3. 50 Knots 4. none of the above
36. A single seater powered homs glider should weight less than
1. 150Kg 2. 275Kg
3. 375 Kg 4. 500 Kg
37. A powered homs glider at full power in level flight should not be capable of more than
1. 70 Knots 2. 80 Knots
3. 90 Knots 4. none of the above
41. An operator can request for approval of 180 minutes ETOPS only if there has been
current approval for minutes ETOPS for a minimum months
1. 75,6 2. 75,12
3. 120,12 4. 120,6
42. Under ETOPS operations an immediate evaluation shall be carried out by the operator
if IFSO exceeds engine hours
1. 0.02/ 1000 2. 0.05 / 1000
3. 0.01/1000 4. noneoftheabove
43. Operators should develop MEL exclusively for ETOPS operation which should
generally’ be
I. Same as MEL 2. Less than MMEL
3. More restrictive than MMEL 4. none of the above
44. For getting approval for ETOPS operator has to demonstrate to DOCA that flight can
continue to a safe landing under anticipated degraded operating conditions arising from
I. Total loss of thrust from one engine
2. Total loss of engine generated electric power
3. Either a & b 4. none of the above
53. ‘Aircraft system used to keeping vertical separation should have not on error exceeding
1. 15m 2. 25m
3. 50m 4.. 80m
57. While flying under RVSM envelope pilot must inform ATC whenever there is
I. Loss of redundancy of altimetry system 2. Loss of thrust of engine
3. High turbulence 4. All are correct
58. RNAV is method of navigation which
I. Reduces fatigue to aircrew
2. Permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path
3. Provides very accurate deviational accuracy
60. Application for registration of hang glider should be made to DGCA on form
1. CA—28 2. CA—30
3. CA—38 4. CA—40
64. Pre flight inspection and scheduled inspection up to 50 hours on powered hang glider is
carried out by
I. AME Category A
— 2. Pilot in charge
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
65. Inspection of higher than 50 hours and overhaul of powered hang glider are to be
carried out by
1. AME cat A 2. Pilot in command
3. Person authorized by DGCA 4. Both a & b
66. A glider log book keeps a complete record of flying modification and repair work All
columns of log book are to be fitted by
1. AME cat A 2. Pilot
3. Person authorized by DGCA 4. Both a & b
67 Hang glider shall not be flown over
I. The territory of Delhi 2. An assembly of persons
3. Area with 50 Km of international border 4. All are correct
68. The examiner for hang glider must be approved by DGCA and shall have done at least-
hours an hang glider and hours on dual machine
1. 25,10 2. 25,25
3. 10,10 4. 10,25
I. 5Km. 2. 5miles
3. 5NM 4. None of above
71. The requirement of CAR series 0 part VII regarding exit row seating are applicable to
aircraft with passenger seats exceeding
1. 10 2. 20
3. 30 4. None of above
72. Each operator should ensure that exit seat is allotted to a person who is
1. Not in valid 2. Literate
3. Not less than 10 years of age 4. All are correct
73. The person allotted the exit seat should not be less than years of age
1. 15 -2. 18
3. 21 4. 25
74. Instructions relating to emergency evacuation in passenger information card
I. Must be printed 2. Can be hand written
3. Can be in the form of graphics 4. All are correct
75. To check that no exit seat is occupied by a person who is unable to perform the
applicable function in an emergency is the duty of
1. Air Hostess 2. Co pilot
3. Crew member 4. None of above
78. Auxiliary power unit is a gas turbine engine that can be used for
1. Starting aircraft engines
2. Driving generators & Hydraulics pumps
3. Taxiing of aircraft in emergency condition
4. All are correct
1. Minimum qualification and experience requirements for issue of AME Licence in various
categories are covered by aircraft rule:
1. 16. 2. 56
3. 61 4. 65
9. For issue of AME Licence category ‘R’ the candidate must posses RTR (Aero) Licence issued
by ministry of communication at the time of appearing for:
1. Paper IV 2. Oral cum practical test
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct. 4. None of the above.
10. Possessions of RTR (Aero) Licence issued by the ministry of communication is essential for
issue of AME Licence in:
1. Category R 2. Category V(Avionics)
3. Category X (Radio) 4. None of the above.
I1. An AME desirous of extension in category A (HA) on an aircraft of similar construction will
have to show an additional experience of Months.
1. 3 months 2. 6 months
3. 12 Months 4. Two years.
12. An applicant for Licence of helicopter of AUW below 3000 Kg. In category A and C will have
to show a total experience of four year both on airframe and engine simultaneously Out of
which, type experience should be month with Month recent experience
1. 12,3 2. l2 6
3. 24,6 4. 24,12
14. A person having valid AME Licence covering aircraft below 5700 Kg. And desirous of having
an extension of gliders will have to show recent experience of month
I. One month 2. Three months
3. Six months 4. Twelve months
16. For extension on turbine engine is category C in candidate should have experience on type of
engine for months out of which months should be recent:
1. 12,3 2. 12,6
3. 24,6 4. 24,3.
17. AME Licence in category D is issued for all piston engines below:
1. 250 BHP 2. 300 BHP
3. 450 BHP 4. 500 BHP.
20. After passing all the papers, the applicant should submit an applicant in to DGCA for issue of
Licence along with the following certificate:
I. Medical/color vision 2. Licence exam passed
3. Proof of age 4. All are correct.
21. AME Licence in the following categories will be endorsed according to the type of aircraft /
engines:
1. A,B,C,D 2. A,B,C,D,E,I
3. A,B,C,D,E,I,R 4. All are correct.
26. For certification of ignition apparatus (LA) the AME should have his Licence in category:
1. A 2. B
3. C 4. Any one of the above.
27. Direct reading compass may be certified by person holding any category of AME Licence
provided the candidates has passed the requisite paper and has number of installation and
experience of compensation:
1. 4 2. 6
3. 8 4. None of the above.
29. Who is responsible to conduct exams for issue / extension of AME Licence /BAMEC:
1. DGCA 2. RAO
3. Operator 4. CEO.
30. The examination for the purpose of acquiring AME Licence/BAMEC conducting:
I. Once in year 2. Twice a year
3. Thrice a year 4. Once in two year.
31. AME Licence / BAMEC exam are normally conducted in the month of:
1. March and September 2. March and October
3. April and September 4. April and October
33. Application for exams shall be submitted by of January and July for march and
September session:
1. 8th 2. 7th
3. 6th 4. 5th
39. Applicant can avail 3 chances of oral cum practical test in the:
1. 6 2. 3
3. 4 4. 5.
43. AME wants to renew is licence should have used the privileges of minimum months in
the proceeding 24 Months:
1. 3 2. 6
3. 9. 4. 12.
44. To work on aircraft the open rating licence holder should famerlize himself with the type of
aircraft for the minimum period of:
1. 3 Months 2 2 Months
3. 1 Month 4. 6 Months
45. holder of category ‘A’ Licence for LA is entitled in respect to:
I. Instrument 2. Electrical
3. Autopilot 4. All of above.
50. Person holding cat. ‘X’ Licence on particular radio equipment can carry out:
I. Final test data 2. Bench check
3. Both I and 2 4. None of the above.
51. Candidate failing in oral cum practical test can avail subsequent chance after gaining:
1. 3 Months experience 2. 4 months experience
3. 5 Months experience 4. 6 Months experience.
52. Defense person /appearing in AME exams are exempted from multiple choice in paper:
1. Paper II, III 2. Paper I and II
3. Paper I and III 4. None of the above.
57. Applicants not engaged in any organization should forward their application directly to the:
I. R A O 2. Sub RAO
3. D A W 4. Both a & b
62. Results of all oral cum test are declared by under intimation to CEO and airworthiness
directorate:
I. Chief Instructor 2. QCM
3. RAO 4. DGCA
64. Licence in category ‘A’ and C’ combined issue for helicopter with AUW:
I. Not exceeding 3000 Kg. 2. 2000 Kg.
3. 5700 Kg. 4. 4000 Kg.
65. helicopters with AUW above required separate endorsement in category ‘A and C’:
1. 3000 Kg. 2. 5700 Kg.
3. 2000 Kg. 4. 10,000 Kg.
72. AME category “A and C’ is exempted from appearing in paper-Ill if he holds Licence in cat.
I. BandD 2. B
3. D 4. None of the above.
80. Which of the following is not true for the issue of Basic Licence:
I. Candidate has passed 1 0+2 with PCM
2. Passed paper I, II and III
3. Completed the age of 2l years
4. Produce medical certificate form CA 2003.
81. To change over from one stream of Basic Licence to another stream additional experience
required is:
1. 18 Months 2. 12 Months
3. 6 Months 4. 24 Months.
84. Special permission for certifying airworthiness of aircraft components is hitherto termed as:
1. Permit 2. Authorization
3. Approval 4. None of the above.
85. For grant of authorization application of AME will be forwarded to RAO/Sub-RAO by:
I. QCM 2. Chief ÂME
3. RAO 4. Executive head of operator’s organization
86. In certain cases, when AME even does not fulfill the stipulated experience requirements for
authorization may be allowed to undertake examination. In such cases experience requirements
must be satisfied with in:
1. 3 Months 2. 6 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 18 Months.
89. Which aircraft Rules states that all work on aircraft is to be certified by licensed
engineers/authorized person?
1. 61 2. 60
3. 54 4. None of the above.
90. The guideline for refresher course for grant of approval is given in:
I. Series L’ part-IX 2. Rule 61
3. Rule 54 4. AAC and of 2000.
91. For issue/extension of approvals, the applicant will be examined by a board consisting of:
1. QCM or DY.QCM
2. Head of particular section/shop
3. Representative of director of airworthiness
4. All of the above.
93. Approval of flight engineer examiners and check flight engineers is given in:
I. L Part-IX 2. L Part-X
3. L Part-XI 4. None of the above.
94. Consideration for approval as a check flight engineer shall be:
1. Seniority 2. Position in airline
3. Remuneration received 4. None of the above.
95. The names of approval of the flight engineers for such approvals are recommended by:
1. QCM 2. Chief Engineer
3. Operator 4. PIC.
96. Flight engineer approved as check flight engineer/Flight engineer examiner should have:
1. Obtained flight engineer Licence in second attempt
2. Obtained flight engineer Licence in any attempt
3. Obtained flight engineer Licence in first attempt
4. None of the above.
97. Total check routes for the approval of flight engineers examiners in preceding one year:
1. 10 2. 20
3. 5 4. 15.
98. Flight engineer should have minimum Hrs. of flying during 30 days for check flight
engineer/flight engineer examiner:
1. 100 Hrs. 2. l0Hrs.
3. 20 Hrs. 4. None of the above
99. Minimum simulator training for Hrs. is required for flight engineer examiner:
1. 2Hrs. 2. 5Hrs.
3. 10 Hrs. 4. 2 1-Irs.
100. Approval of flight engineer /check flight engineer will he valid for:
I. 12 Months 2. 6 Months
3. Calendar year up to 3l December 4. None of the above.
101. Which of following are common requirements for both flight engineer examiner and check
flight engineer for renewal of approval
1. Should not have less than 100 1-Irs. of flying experience during 6 months period
2. Should have a clean Professional record during 12 Months
3. Should have been checked and found satisfactory by flight engineer examiner
4. All of the above.
102. The air transport operator is required to submit the application for renewal of check flight
engineer/flight engineer examiner to DGCA 1-lead Qtr:
1. On 30TH November every year
2. By 30th November every year
3. On 31ST December every year
4. By 31ST December every year.
103. Some of the aircraft requires flight engineer as part of flight crew as laid down in:
1. C of A / Aircraft flight manual
2. Aircraft/flight log book
3. Operations manual
4. All of the above.
105. The requirements in this CAR section II, Series’L’ Part-XV are complimentary to the
provision of:
1. JARJ’FAR part-14 2. ICAO Annex lo, Vol-I
3. Rule 61 of aircraft rules 1937 4. ICAO Annex-I.
106. SFE applying for issue of SFE Licence shall have passed ten plus two with:
1. Physics and maths 2. Physics and chemistry
3. Physics or maths 4. Physics or chemistry.
107. SFE ground course of Instructions as per the syllabus shall be approved by:
1. RAO
2. DGCA(Attn.-Director of airworthiness)
3. QCM of the training institute in the organization
4. DGCA.
109. Normally the duration of FE course should not be less than for Basic course and type
course
1. 3 Months each 2. 8 Weeks each
3. 4 Weeks each 4. 1 Month each.
110. At the end of the ground course will conduct the examination to determine the
knowledge of applicant applying for SFE Licence:
1, CEO 2. DGCA
3. Operator 4. RAO.
111. SFE written examination, paper-iii is based on the subjects related to:
1. Airline 2. Specific paper for engine or airframe
3. Rules and regulations 4. Definitions and performance-Airplane/Helicopter.
112. An actual route check of aircraft in case the simulator is not there for the purpose of renewal of
113. A technical and performance refresher course of FE to renew of their Licence is conducted by:
1. Operator 2. RAO
3. DGCA 4. None of the above.
114. For extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence, he should have 50 Hrs. off lying experience of
which not more than should be on approved simulator with in the proceeding period, from the date
of submission of application:
1. 30 Hrs., 6 Months 2. 30 Hrs., l2Months
115. for extension of aircraft rating on FE Licence. FE should have completed the skill test (oral
cum practical) within the period of proceeding the date of application:
1. 6 Months 2. 3 Months
3. 12 Months 4. 4 Months.
116. If the FE does not exercise his privilege for more than l year he has to undergo-:
,
118. Validity period of SFE Licence is 12 Months from the date of after it is renewed by
RAO:
I. Submission of application
2. 3 1 St December of the calendar period
3. Medical examination
4. Issue.
120. The minimum training required for SFE to carry out his privileges on transport aircraft
carlying passengers is:
1. 10 Hrs. 2. 81-Irs.
3. 12 1-Irs. 4. 15 I-Irs.
121. After SFE has got his training on transport aircraft carrying passengers, to exercise his
privileges as SFE, he has to be certified fit by:
1. Operator 2. DGCA
3. Examiner 4. QCM.
122. Application for FE Licence must have experience is maintenance and repair of the
aircraft he is applying and as minimum of flying experience under the supervision of
person holding FE Licence:
1. 6 Months, 50 Hrs. 2. 6 Months, 100 Hrs.
3. 12 Months, 100 Hrs. 4. 12 Months, 50 I-Irs.
123. Oral cum practical board shall consist of a SAWO or a representative of flight inspection
directorate of DGCA as a:
1. Member 2. External
3. Chairman 4. None of the above.
125. For renewal of FE Licence he should have completed not less than of flight time as a
FE within the period of proceeding from the date of application for renewal:
1. 10 Hrs., 6Months 2. 10 Hrs.,3 Months
3. 20 Hrs., 3 Months 4. 20 Hrs. 6 Months.
126. Each phase of the main course of GET scheme will consist of:
1. ATA chapters 2. Subject approved by DGCA
3. Both I or 2 4. Either I or 2.
127. Operators desirous of conducting GET scheme will submit a comprehensive proposal which
includes:
1. Biodata of Cl and other instructors
2. As in a plus their responsibilities
3. As in b plus operational manual of the organizations
4. As in a plus maintenance manual.
128. GET is eligible for appearing in paper-I and II of AME/BAMEC after completion of:
I. Two years 2. 6 Months
3. One year 4. 1 8 Months.
129. GET is eligible for appearing in paper —III after completion of:
1. 18 Months 2. 3 Years
3. 2 Years 4. None of the above.
130. After passing paper I II and III GET shall be permitted to:
,
131. After the end of 3’ year of GET phase wise examination will be conducted by training Schools
132. The request is made by for the oral cum practical of the GET after they had
passed paper 1.11, III and approved course:
1. Licensed AME 2. Chief Instructor/QCM
3. GET Himself 4. All of the above.
133. Candidate should have at least experience, during the GET 3 year training in the
respective field he is applying for Licence/approval:
1. Six months 2. 3 Months
3. 4 Months 4. 1 Year.
135. Re-examination will be held after days but with in days of completion of main course/GET:
1. 20,40 2. 25,45
3. 15,45 4. 15,50.
136. Candidates who successfully complete the approved course will have three chances of oral
cum practical within a period of:
1. 1 8 Months 2. 1 Year
3. None of these 4. Two years.
138. Candidates who do not qualify any of the three oral cum practical exams may undergo
refresher course, and the duration will be decided by”
1. Chief Instructor 2. QCM
3. Regional airworthiness officer 4. Both 2 and 3.
140. When the Licence is lost by the holder (other than the act of GOD) he has to furnish. Full fee
2. As in a plus D.O.B. and place of Birth
3. As in b plus period of validity of Licence
4. As in c plus name of organizations/club he is working with
142. The period of validity and FE Licence shall commence from the:
1. Date if issue 2. Date of renewal
3. Both I and 2. 4. None of the above.
143. At the end of GET 3 year training phase wise examination is conducted by:
I. QCM 2. Training school
3. Director of airworthiness 4. Both 2 and 3.
144. An engineer undergoing GETS shall have:
1. Degree in Engineering
2. PG degree in Engineering
3. PG degree
4. As in a plus PG degree in electronics.
CAR Series X
147. During empty weighing of aircraft, the following items are permissible:
1. All instruments 2. Engine coolant
3. Fixed ballast 4. All are correct.
148. As per CAR Series X part II, there is no need to weigh an aircraft on routine basis, when
weight is:
1. Less than 2000 Kg. 2. Less than 5000 Kg.
3. More than 2000 Kg. 4. Both I and 2 are correct.
149. Aircraft with AUW more than 2000 Kg. Are to be reweighed:
1. Every year 2. Every two-year
3. Every five years 4. Every ten years.
154. The CG’ position for take off and landing configuration has to be calculated before
commencement of flight for:
1. Aerial work aircraft 2. Public transport aircraft
3. Private aircraft 4. All are correct.
155. The second copy of the load sheet shall be preserved for a period of at least:
I. Four months 2. 2 Years
3. 12 Months 4. 5 Years.
157. Standard weight for adult passenger for load calculation is taken as:
1. 85Kg. 2. 80Kg.
3. 75Kg. 4. 70Kg.
158. Standard weight for children for load calculation is taken as:
1. 30Kg. 2. 40Kg.
3. 50 Kg. 4. None of the above.
159. Standard weight for children infants for load calculation is taken as:
1. 10Kg. 2. 15Kg.
3. 20Kg. 4. 25Kg.
161. An aircraft with passenger’s carrying capacity of 160 shall be equipped with first aid
kit:
1. One 2. Two
3. Three 4. Four.
162. Physician’s kit is a must for all aircraft with a seating capacity of mote than:
1. 20 2. 40
3. 100 4. 120.
163. First-aid kit container shall bear a white cross whose size should be at least:
1. 1 Inch X 1 Inch 2. 2 Inch X 2 Inch.
3. 3lnchX3lnch 4. None of the above.
164. The first-aid kit container shall be of:
1. White background with red cross
2. White back ground with green cross
3. Green back ground with white cross
4. Green background with Red Cross.
166. 1’he drugs containers in the physician ‘s kit are intended to be administered by:
1. Pilot in-command 2. Co-pilot
3. Any passengers 4. Medical practitioner
167. To ensure that the first—aid kit seal is in intact condition before every flight is the duty of:
1. QCM 2. AME
3. Pilot-in-command 4. A designated person.
170. The training of aircrew member of Public transport aircraft in application of first-aid-is
undertaken by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Owner/operator 4. All are correct.
173. Furnishing material used on normal category aircraft for carrying passengers and having AUW
176. Request for grant of concession relating to use of materials/parts in, or effecting minor
modification or carrying out minor repairs to aircraft secondary parts will be disposed of by:
1. DGCA 2. QCM
3. Regional airworthiness office 4. None of the above.
177. Request for grant of concessions relating to aircraft primary structure will be referred to:
1. DGCA via regional airworthiness office
2. Regional airworthiness office
3. DGCA
4. None of the above.
178. The approved formats for concession are kept for the period:
1. 5 Years 2. 3 Months
3. 2 Years 4. As long as the logbooks are kept.
179. Permission for marginal duration from approved specification of not affecting the safety of
aircraft is:
1. Permit 2. Concession
3. Both I and 2 4. None of the above.
165. First —aid kit contain shall be replenished and ratified by:
1. A private medical practitioner
2. A government medical practitioner
3. Any medical practitioner
4. None of the above.
180. Approval firms, whose scope of approval specifically includes delegation may use substitute
material parts in aircraft systems other than relating to primary structures, under the authority
of:
I. RAO 2. QCM
3. DGCA 4. QCM and information to RAO.
188. Engine and propeller logbook shall be preserved for at least to period of:
1. 3 Years after the engine propeller with drawing from use
2. 1 Years after the engine propeller with drawing from use
3. 2 Years after the engine propeller with drawing from use
4. None of the above.
189. Log books other than the engine and propeller shall be preserved for a period of:
1. 3 Years from the date of last entry.
2. 2 Years from the date of last entry.
3. 1 Year from the date of’ last entry.
4. None of the above.
192. In case of approved firms, the responsibility of maintenance of log book is of’:
I. RAO 2. Operator
3. Owner 4. QCM.
193. When a component is replaced not having an individual log book, its entry should he made in:
I. JLB 2. Air craft log book
3. Engine log book 4. Can be made in any log book.
195. Contents for FEB (flight report book) or technical log is approved by:
1. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Local airworthiness officers 4. QCM.
196. The change of format of FRB for non scheduled operators requires approval of the:
1. Regional airworthiness office/Sub-regional airworthiness officer
2. QCM
3. DGCA
4. None of the above.
197. The second copy of each filled page of JLB shall be retained on:
1. Ground with engineering document
2. Carried on board
3. Either I or 2
4. Both 1 and 2.
199. All aircraft registered in India shall carry valid document in accordance with:
I. Rule 9 B of aircraft rules 1937
2. Rule 7 of aircraft rules 1937
3. Rules 5 of aircraft rules 1937
4. None of the above.
200. Documents to he carried on board by Indian registered aircraft is contained in:
1. Series B part 11 2. Series B part-I
3. Series X part VI 4. None of the above.
201. The list of dangerous goods carried on aircraft shall be brought under the notice of:
1. Pilot in command by ok flight
2. Flight crew before flight
3. Both of the above
4. None of the above.
202. The manuals includes in documents to be carried on board by Indian registered aircraft are:
1. Operation manual 2. Cabin crew manual
3. Flight manual 4. All of the above.
206, For issue of taxi permit AME should hold a valid Licence in:
1. Category D’ 2. Category ‘A’
3. Category ‘C, 4. Category B’.
207. Taxying ability of a person for issue of taxy permit should be assessed by:
1. Pilot of the operator
2. Regional airworthiness officer
3. Representative DGCA
4. None of the above.
210. QUM shall renew the taxy permit provided the holder of it has:
1. Taxied the aircraft at least thrice during the preceding one year
2. Taxied the aircraft at least twice during the preceding one year
3. Taxied the aircraft at least once during two preceding one year.
4. None of the above.
211. QCM shall renew the taxy permit subject to the following conditions:
I. AME Licence is valid
2. Hold a valid RT Licence if it is held by permit holder
3. Both I and 2.
4. None of the above.
213. Any damage caused to aircraft during taxying operations shall be informed to:
1. Regional /sub regional airworthiness office
2. Owner /operator of aircraft
3. Both of the above.
4. None of the above.
214. Procedure for issue of type approval for aircraft components and equipments is defined in:
1. Ru1e57 2. Rule48
3. Rule 49 4. None of these.
217. The inspection records of the type aircraft component or the item of equipment during
construction shall be retained for period of:
1. 10 Years 2. 5 Years
3. 2 Years 4. 8 years.
218. Procedure of issue of type approval of aircraft component and item of equipment is in
accordance with:
1. Series X’ Part-V 2. Series ‘X Part VII
3. Series ‘X’ Part VIII 4. Series F’ Part —II.
219. The manual in respect of type component/item of equipment that must he submitted for
approval
1. Type instruction manual 2. Type service manual
3. Roth I and 2 4. None of the above.
220. The approval for a modification, which has not been previously investigated and approved,
shall he given by:
I. RAO 2. DGCA
3. Local airworthiness officer 4. All the above.
222. The flight test schedules for flight trial of the equipment to confirm their compliance with the
relevant airworthiness requirements is approved by:
I. DGCA 2. RAO
3. QCM 4. Chief Engineer.
223 The manufacture of all aircraft component shall be certified only by approved organization, by
licensed engineer or by authorized persons in accordance with rule:
1. Rule 53A 2. Rule 53B
3. Rule 53 Sub rule 2 4. None of these
PREPARATORY A M E EXAMS
C A R SERIES ‘R’ Part Ito IV, Series M & T.
5. In case aircraft fitted with Radio equipments of foreign made, then it shall be approved by:
1. R.A.O., 2. Airworthiness Directorate,
3. Sub R. A. 0., 4. Airworthiness Authority of that country.
9. Aircraft Radio Equipments shall not be used or aircraft shall not be flown, unless:
1. Flight Crews are not satisfied, 2. Pilot-in-Command is satisfied,
3. Operator is satisfied, 4. Technical officer is satisfied.
10. Radio equipment has been inspected & certified in accordance with:
1. Series “F” Part VIII, 2. Series F Part VII,
3. Series “F” Part X 4. Series F Part XI,
14. Every Aircraft shall be fitted & equipped with Radio apparatus under:
1. Rule 61, 2. Rule 57 3. Rule 15, 4. Rule 50.
15. Who is responsible for FTD check before the actual installation of equipment:
1. DGCA, 2. R A O, 3. A M E, 4. All above.
16. A new Radio equipment installed on aircraft, the person check the equipment:
1 Q.C.M., 2. Manufacturer,
3. Approved person, 4. Licenced AME/Approved person
18. After satisfactory checks, operator should obtain regular Aero mobile Licence from:
1. DGCA, 2. Ministry of Communication, 3. R. A. O., 4. F. A. A.
26. Comm.& Navigation, Radio equipment/system installation work is to be under taken by:
1. Q.C.M., 2. R.A.O., 3. AME/Authorised person, 4. None of above.
27. Operator shall prepare the Schedule of Tests, based on the guidelines:
1. BCAR, Sector R, 2. FAA Advisory Circular AC 43-13,
3. FAA Advisory Circular AC 3 1-34. 4. Both 12 & 2.
28. The Flight Tests for any newly installed Radio equipment shall be carried out to assess its range
and performance at various:
1. Altitudes, 2. Speeds, 3. Both 1 & 2 are correct, 4. None of above.
29. The Antenna installed on aircraft shall be checked by AME for proper installation to ensure
minimum:
1. Vibrations, 2. Electromagnetic interference,
3. Precipitation static interference 4. None of the above.
30. On completion of structural and electrical wiring of an Aircraft, the complete wiring
shall be checked for:
1. Installation, 2. Continuity, 3. Proper layout, 4. Insulation & Continuity.
31. Maintenance of Airborne Communication & Navigational equipment shall be carried out in
accordance with:
1. CAR Series R Part II, 2. CAR Series R Part III,
3. CAR Series R Part IV 4. None of the above.
35. During scheduled maintenance check or 180 days Inspection of Radio system, it is
necessary to check:
1. Bonding of RF cables, 2. Insulation of equipment Installation,
3. Equipment for corrosion & safety, 4. All are correct.
36. Final test data (FTD) check of conventional equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once a year, 2. Twice a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None above.
37. Final Test Data(FTD) check on solid state equipment shall be carried out:
1. Once in six months, 2. Once a year, 3. Once in two years, 4. None of the above.
38. After Major inspection at 180 days of flying, pilots shall file Debriefing Reports on
performance of Radar equipment regarding:
1. Range & endurance, 2. Range and performance
3. Both I & 2 are correct. 3. None of the above.
39. Aircraft after flying through electric storm or lightening strikes has to be inspected for:
1. S W R check of transmitter, 2. Insulation of equipment installation,
3. Corrosion & security of equipment 4. All are correct.
40. Major Modification regarding aircraft Radio equipment shall be carried out by:
1. AME Category R, 2. AME Category B,
3. AME Category B(Radio), 4. AME Category X(Radio).
45. Mode A/c of Mode S provides following when fitted with ACAS-Il / TCAS-II”
1. Traffic Advisory, 2. RA’s
3. Both 1 & 2 4. None of the above.
49. A beam of Radio frequency range energy is transmitted and received by:
I. Secondary Radar, 2. S S R, 3. Primary Radar, 4. Mode ‘S’.
51. Reply from transponder for identity and surveillance is de-cited by:
1. Mode ‘A’! ‘C, 2. Mode ‘C’, 3. Mode ‘A’, 4. Mode ‘S’.
57. Mode “A”/”C” transponder shall meet the specification given in:
1. TSO—c74C, 2. TSO—C75C, 3. TSO—C112, 4. TSO—C76C.
60. Engineers inspecting/certifying Transponders should hold type Rated licence in:
1. Cat. R, 2. Cat: V, 3. Both 1&2. 4. Either l or 2.
65. Form & Manner of distribution of Compliance Certificate & its presentation is given in Rule:
1. 52, 2. 54, 3. 58, 4. 50A.
69. Whenever manufacturer issues changes to their products in form of SB, SI, SL or other
literature to the operators these:
1. Automatically become mandatory, 2. For better performance of the product,
3. Operator incorporate the same on the basis of operational experience.
4. Both2&3.
70. Operators are advised to get copies of AD’s, Mandatory Modification/Inspections from the:
1. Manufacturers, 2. Foreign Airworthiness Authorities,
3. DGCA, 4. Only 1 & 2.
71. The procedure for intimating the compliance of Modification to the manufacturer shall included
in the:
1. Maintenance System Manual, 2. Engineering Organisation Manual,
3. Quality Control Manual, 4. None of the above.
72. To in clued Modification which require repeat Inspections at specified intervals in the
appropriate Inspection Schedule is the responsibility of:
1. Owner, 2. Operator/Maintenance agency,
3. Owner/Operator 4. As in both 1 & 2.
73. Owners/Operators are required to submit to the Regional Airworthiness Office a list of SB’s
complied with during the proceeding one year at the time of:
1. Type certification, 2. Type approval,
3. C of A renewal, 4. Both 1 & 2.
74. Type certified product should not be altered unless prior approval is obtained from:
1. State of Design 2. DGCA, 3. RAO, 4. None above.
79. Flight Test of an aircraft without any passenger on board is carried out for the purpose of
assessing:
1. Any Deterioration in performance, 2. Satisfactory maintenance,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None above.,
82. On a three engine aircraft, test flight may not be carried out(Provided satisfactory Engine
Ground Testing subsequent to engine change has been carried out) after change of:
1. One engine, 2. Two engine, 3. Three Engines, 4. Both 1 & 2.
83. On a Four engine aircraft, Test Flight may not be carried out after change of:
1. One Engine, 2. Two Engines, 3. Three Engines, 4. All correct.
84. Engine change means removal of an engine and its replacement with:
1. On overhauled engine, 2. Reinstallation of same engine,.
3. Any other engine from same aircraft, 4. All are correct.
85. Adverse comments by Flight Crew on the performance of an aircraft during Test Flight
shall be reported to:
1. Flight Release AME, 2. Regional Airworthiness Office,
3. Quality Control Manager, 4. D.G.C.A.
86. Pre-Test-Flight certificates stating that the aircraft is fit for the flight shall be issued by:
1. Q.C.M., 2. Licenced/Approved individual,
3. Only those permitted to issue Flight Release, 2. Both 2 & 3 together.
88. The responsibility of recording the results of Test Flight lies with:
I. Pilot-in-Command, 2. Co-Pilot, 3. Flight Engineer, 4. A.M.I
89. For detecting any persisting shortfall in the performance of any aircraft, Scheduled Airlines
will have performance monitoring cell in:
1. Quality Control Branch, 2. Engineering Sections,
3. Flight Testing Cell, 4. Both 2 & 3.
92. The observed actual climb performance shall in no case be lower than expected climb
performance by more than:
1. 2%, 2. 3%, 3. 5% , 4. 7%.
93. After satisfactory performance of a Test Flight, an endorsement to this effect is made in:
1. Pilots detect Report & maintenance document,
2. Pilots defect Report & Aircraft Log Book,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None of above.
94. In rate of Climb correction factor graph for propellers for a given pressure Altitude,
Rate of Climb factor:
1. Increases with increase in ambient temperature,
2. Decrease with decrease in ambient temperature,
3. Increases with decrease in ambient temperature,
4. Increases with increase in ambient temperature.
95. The variables in Rate of Climb graph as given in appendix to CAR Series T Part II are:
1. Pressure, altitude & temperature, 2. Pressure, altitude & Weight,
3. Pressure, Altitude , Temperature & Weight, 4. None of the above.
PRE-TEST EXAM OF C.A.R.(II)
A.M.E. DGCA EXAM OCT.2006.
1. Issue of AME Licences, fts classification and experience requirements are rel3tes with CAR
Section -2:
1. Series-L, Part IV, 2. Series —L, Part —1, 3. Series— L, Part III.
2. The minimum qualifications & experience requirements for issue of AME licence in various
Categories is as per Aircraft Rule:
1. Rule-62, 2. Ruie-61, 3. Rule-133C,
5. Experience acquired simultaneously in two or more allied Categories of the same stream,
experience will be:
I. Recent experience, 2. Concurrent experience, 4. All the above.
9. Licence with the scope limited to minor maintenance, minor repairs, minor Modification, snag
rectification and issue of flight release relates with:
1. ICA Type-I Lic. 2. ICAO type-Il Lic. 3. None of the above.
13. The hypothecation/Mortgages name from the Certificate of Registration, owner may apply to:
1. Owner who hypothecation the aircraft, 2. Owner may mortgaged the aircraft,
3. Owner who leased the aircraft, 4. DGCA with sustaining documents,
14. Where the original Certificate of Registration is lost or destroyed, the duplicate may be
issued on payment of:
1. 100 Rs. of Registration fee, 2. 50 Rs. of Registration fee,
.
15. The applicant shall furnish the following documents for Re-validation of type Certificate;
I. Supplementary type Data sheet, 2. Type design Data Sheet,
3. ETOPS certification Basis, 4. All above.
16. Prior to carry out the test of new type Certificate of Aircraft to substantiate the design
construction, shall submit to DGCA:
1. Type certificate, 2, Certificate of Approval,
3. Certificate of Maintenance, 4. Test schedule for approval.
17. A flying club operates a state govt. owned aircraft whose responsibility is to ensure of the
Aircraft has current C of A:
1. QCM of the Flying club, 2. Secretary of the Deptt.,
3. Both 1 & 2, 4. None of the above.
18. In case of imported Aircraft the validity of C of A shall begin from the date of:
1. Issue of export certificate of Airworthiness, 2. Issue of Indian C of A.
3. Issue of certificate of Registration,. 4. Non above.
19. In case of imported aircraft, validity of C of A shall be restricted, to the validity as specified ir
1. Log Book, 2. C. of A., 3. Standard C of A., 4. Both I & 2.
21. For light and heavy helicopters Paper-Ill irrespective of their AUW:
1. Separate paper will conducted, 2. Common paper will be conducted,
3. Bothl&2.
22, Specific type of Aircraft, Engine subjects will come in:
1. Gen. Paper-I, 2. Gen. Paper-II, 3. Paper-III, 4. Paper-IV.
26. For issue of AME licence in Cat. ‘R’ the candidate must possess:
1. RTR(Aero) licence Issued by Ministry of Communication,
2. AME Licence in Cat ‘A’, 3. None of the above.
35. As per VFR visual reference to land marks should be at least every:
1. Sixty Knotical Miles, 2. 110 kms., 3. All the above.
37. The detailed guidelines for preparation of Operational Manual are available in:
1. ICAO DOC 9376-AN/9l4, 2. ICAO DOC 9475-AN/915,
3. All are wrong.
39. The storage Temperature for Rubber parts and Aircraft component containing Rubber parts
should be between: -
42. If you want the airworthiness of officer to visit-your organization during the higher
schedule than you should intimate:
1. 15 days 2. 7 days Before
3. 30 Days before 4. None of the above.
43. If the airworthiness officer complete his final inspection after the expiry of C of k
than the validity of C of A will start from:
I. Date of inspection 2. Last date of C of A renewal
3. C of A expiry date 4. None of the above.
44. C of A will be re-validated indicating the:
1. Date of inspection complete by QCM
2. Last date of C of A validity
3. Expiry date
4. All above.
45. In case the C of A is suspended due to major accident and again C of A is renewed
after repair than it will valid:
1. Previous currency of C of A
2. For one year
3. For Six months
4. None of the above.
47. To ensure that correct aeronautic of engineering practices are used during assembling
of rebuild aircraft is the responsibility of:
1. QCM 2. AME Cat A’
3. AME Cat ’B’ 4. RAWO.
49. Director general may refuse to issue the C of A/C of R re-build aircraft if:
1. Correct assembly technique is not used
2. Cat ‘B’ engineer is not arranged
3. Fuselage life is not known
4. All above.
54. In wooden aircraft, the inspection of glue line is often facilitated with:
1. Dy penetrant method 2. Magnaflux method
3. Magnifying glass 4. X’ Ray method
56. To carry the fuel tank dipstick on hoard on light aircraft is the responsibility of:
1. QCM 2. AME
3. Pilot in command 4. All above.
57. When ever funnels are used for refueling the aircraft, they shall be bonded to the:
1. Nozzle of the hose 2. Nozzle of the can
3. Aircraft 4. All above.
60. No person shall operate piston engine aircraft with out GPSW:
1. If AUW is in excess of 5700 Kg.
2. Type certificated to carry less than nine passenger
3. Type certificated to carry mote-than six passenger
4. Both 1 and 2.
SERIES I -
8. What is the maximum overhaul period for thermometers, pressure and vacuum gauges
I. To be decided by manufacturer
2. To be decided by’ PIC
3. To be decided by individual operators
4. 1000 Hrs
12. After how much time an instrument installed on A/C which has not been
operated , need a bench check before use?
1. 6 months 2. 12 months
3. 18 months 4. 24 months
13. Every A/C shall be fitted & equipped with instruments including radio
apparatus as per
1. Rule 57 2. Rule 57 Subrule2
3. Rule 57 sub rule 3 4. Rule 9 sub rule 3
14. Part II, Series I also include minimum instruments & equipment including
Communication & navigation equipment, Which are to be installed on a/c
engaged in
1. Gliders 2. Aerial work operation plus a
3. b) plus Flying club 4. b) plus Private operators
15. CAR is issued under the provision of
1. Rule 133A of A/C rules 1937
2. Rule 57 of A/C rules, 1934
3. Rule 29C of A/C rules, 1934
4. All are correct
19. All instruments dial shall have operating range marked as specified by
1. DGCA 2. Operator
3. Manufacturer 4. Both a & c
21. The radio equipment shall be installed & operated with a licence issued
under
1 Indian telegraph Act of 1885 2. Indian Telegraph act 1985
3. AAC2 of 1995 4. All are correct
25. All aeroplanes on all flight shall be equipped with a seat / berth for each
passenger over the age of
1. 2 Months 2. 1 Year
3. 2 Years 4. 5 Years
27. Spare electrical fuses of appropriate rating are to be carried on board. The
number carried (for each rating ) should be
1. 5 2. one
3. two 4. three
28. CHT gauge is mandatory on all air cooled engines with BHP
—
30. All aircraft operated as VFR flight shall have during day
1. ASI 2. Magnetic compass
3. Adequate source of electrical energy for electrical equipment
4. Both a & b
31. CHT indicator and oil temperature gauge should be present in each engine
1. Power above 250 BHP 2. Air cooled engine
3. In VFR flight 4. All are correct
32. Before use of personal watch worn by pilot the facts should be rewarded in
1. Operation manual 2. Technical log
3. Aircraft log book 4. Pilot acceptance certificate
33. All aircraft issued with C of A after year 2000 shall have during night
1. Directional gyroscope 2. Instrument for fore & after
3. Anti collision light 4. All are correct
34. Aircraft on extended flights over water away from emergency landing area
shall have life saving
1. When 1 85 km away 2. When 100 Nm away
3. When 100 Nm (185 km) intht engine aircraft
4. All above
43. Apart from maintenance the test equipment have to be calibrated with
reference to
1. Master gauges 2. Primary standard
3. Both a & b
44. The maintenance schedule of the test equipment as and when performed will leave to
be certified by person approved by the RAO in consultation with
1. QCM 2. DGCA
3. DGCA (attendent)
45. The calibration period of the various instruments / equipment are mentioned in
I. QCM 2. Inspection manual
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
51. Class 3 clean room permits a specified number of particles per cubic meter
of air of sizes
1. 0.5 — 10 micron — m 2. 1 — 25 micron — m
3. 5 —25 micron m
— 4. None of the above
56. Garments for clean rooms should be made from materials which possess
1. Non flammability 2. Limited linting
3. Negligible electrostatic generation capability
4. All are correct
58. Monitoring of clean rooms refers to the procedures adopted for checking the
factors influencing the environment. These are
I. Pressure and Temperature 2. Level of contamination
3. Humidity 4. All are correct
always be
I. Equal 2. More
3. Less 4. None of the above
61. Every a/c shall be fitted with equipment & Radio apparatus is in light of rule
1. 55 2. 56
3. 57 3. 59
65. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1Jan.05 which utilize data
link communication are required to carry
1. FDR 2. CVR
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
72. The aeroplane of maximum certified take off mass over 5700 Kg required to
equipped is
1. FDR 2. CVR
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
77. All aeroplanes for which C of A is issued after 1 Jan 2005 with MTOW over
5700 Kg equipped with
1. Type I FDR 2. Type IA FDR
3. Type IIA FDR 4. None of the above
79. All helicopter of maximum take of mass over 3180 Kg equipped with
FDR with a recording duration of atleast hours
1. Type IA,5 2. Type 11,25
3. Type IVA, 10 4. Type V, 100
81. The FDR installed on a/c shall have a serial number authenticated by
1. AME 2. RAO
3. QCM or person acceptable to DGCA 4. All are correct
82. The A/C rule that requires that every a/c shall be fitted and equipped with
instruments and equipment is
1. Rule 50 2. Rule 58
3. Rule 57 4. None of the above
83. The part of CAR that lays down the requirements for fitment of CVR on a/c
registered in India and a/c leased and imported into the country
1. Series! part IX 2. Series I part V
3. Series I part VI 4. Series I part VII
86. No person shall operate a piston engine aeroplane or maximum take-off mass of over
for which C of A was first issued on or after unless it is fitted with an approved CVR
1. 3000Kg;1.1.87 2. 5700Kg;1.1.89
3. 3000 Kg; 1.1.89 4. 5700 Kg; 1.1.87
87. No person shall operate a turbine engine aeroplane maximum certified take off mass of
over unless it is fitted with an approved CVR
1. 15000 Kg 2. 3000 Kg
3. 5700 Kg 4. None of the above
88. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over unless
it is fitted with an approved CVR
1. 3000 Kg 2. 5700 Kg
3. 7000 Kg 4. None of the above
89. No person shall operate a helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over upto
and including or which the individual C of A was first issued on or after unless it is fitted
with an approved CVR
1. 3000Kg;7000Kg; 1.1.87 2. 2700Kg;5700Kg; 1.1.87
3. 3000Kg;5700Kg;l.1.87 4. 2700Kg;7000Kg; 1.1.87
90. Helicopter imported after and not required to be equipped with shall record atleast main
rotor speed on recording channel of the CVR
1. 1.1.87; CVR ; two 2. 1.1.1997; FDR; three
3. 1.1.87 ; CVR; four 4. 1.1.1997 ; FDR ; one
91. Helicopter of maximum certified take off mass of over are required to be equipped with
I. 5700Kg;FDR 2. 3000KgCVR
3. 7000 Kg; FDR 4. None of the above
93. Any a/c including helicopter issued with C of A after 1 July 2000 shall be fitted with
capable of retaining the information recorded during atleast the last of its operation
1. CVR; 1 hour 2. FDR ; 2 hours
3. CVR; 2 hours 4. FDR; 1 hour
94. CVR shall be of approved type and shall meet the specification
1. Of TSO C-84 2. Acceptable to DGCA
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
97. In order to preserve the recorded information the CVR shall be deactivated
upon completion of flight following an
1. Accident 2. Incedent
3. Accident or incident 4. None of the above
100 All A/C including helicopters equipped to utilize Digital communication and required
to carry CVR shall record on CVR or FDR the digital communication with ATC from
1. 1 Jan 1987 2. 1 Jan 1997
3. 1 Jan 2005 4. None of the above
101. All aeroplane of a maximum certified take off mass of over required to be equipped
with and may alternatively be equipped with two combination recorders (CVR?FDR)
1. 3000 Kg ; FDR; CVR 2. 2700 Kg; CVR; FDR
3. 7000 Kg ; FDR; CVR 4. 5700 Kg ; FDR ; CVR
102. CVR container shall
1. Be painted bright orange or bright yellow
2. Have reflective tape affixed to its external surface
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
125. ACAS—1
1. Provides information as an aid to see and avoid action
2. Is dependent on group based equipment
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
128. ACAS II has to be fitted on all aircraft operation in Indian airspace having
1. More than 30 passenger capacity
2. Payload capacity of 5 tonnes
3. Either a & h 4. None of the above
129. Acquisite information about various aspects of ACAS is to be included in
1. Flight manual 2. Operations manual
3. Training manual 4. All are correct
131. MEL contains provisions for unserviceability ACAS However in no case shall the
ACAS unserviceable for more than
1. 5days 2. 7days
3. 10 days 4. 15 days
SERIES-O
3. Aircraft rule 140 requires that all aircraft owners / operators shall comply
with the requirements of
1. Engineering 2. Safety
3. Maintenance 4. All are correct
6. Single engined aircraft with retractable under carriage shall not be used in
1. Scheduled VFR operation 2. Non scheduled night operation
3. Scheduled VFR operation 4. None of the above
7. A multi engined aircraft, when loaded to the maximum weight shall be maintaining level
flight with one engine inoperative at an attitude of not less than
1. 2000ft above the valley level (highest point)
2. l000ft above the valley level (highest point)
3. 2000ft above water 4. Both a & c
9. Maximum flight time and flight duty periods of flight crew members are
contained in
1. QCM 2. Operation manual
3. MS manual 4. Organisation manual
10. Minimum flight attitude for each route required for scheduled not operator
forms a pert of
1. Operations manual 2. Flight manual
3. Route guide 4. None of the above
11. Information which will enable the pilot in command to determine whether the flight
may be continued should any instrument become inoperative is contained in
1. Flight manual 2. Emergency check list
3. Operations manual 4. None of the above
13. In the event of conflict between the contents of flight crew operations
manual and aircraft flight manual preference will be given to
1. Flight manual 2. Any one can be accepted
3. Operation manual 4. Approach DGCA
15. When an aircraft is landing under INE it shall be provided with a radio
equipment capable of receiving signals
1. From VOR station 2. From ILS system
3. From ATC transponder
4. Providing guidance to a point which visual landing can be effected
17. All pilots shall demonstrate to an examiner approved by DGCA that they are familiar
with
1. Landing of an aircraft 2. ATC system
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
18. Minimum number of flight , a first pilot should have made along the route over which
he is required to fly in VFR condition in
1. One 2. Three
3. Two 4. None of the above
19 All pilots while engaged on a licensed air transport service shall undergo a local
proficiency check
1. Once a year 2. Once in two year
3. Twice ayear 4. None of the above
21. Ensuring that aeroplane loading & the centre of gravity are with in the prescribed limits
is the responsibility of
1. AME 2. QCM
3. Co Pilot 4. Pilot in command
22. All aeroplanes on flights over water shall be provide with one approved life jacket for
each person on board when it is flown away from land at a distance of
1. 20 NM 2. 50 NM
3. 100 NM 4. None of the above
23. An independent emergency power supply system installed on a heavy aircraft should be
able to illuminate the artifical horizon for a minimum period of
1. 10mm 2. 20mm
3. 30 mm 4. None of the above
24. A totally independent emergency power supply is required for operating & illuminating
at least for 30 mm
1. Artifical horizon 2. Turn & Slip indicator
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
25. Equipment to measure & indicate rate of total cosmic radiation shall be installed on all
aeroplanes operating
1. Below 49000ft 2. Above 49000ft
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
26. The flight crew shall include at least one member who holds
1. Radio equipment license 2. Flight navigator license
3. Both a & b 4. None of the above
27. Each cabin crew member assigned in emergency evacuation duties shall occupy a seat
1. During take off& landing 2. During emergency condition
3. Whenever pilot in command directs 4. Both a & c
28. General Aviation aeroplanes mean
1. All aeroplanes excluding these engaged in air transport
2. a) plus aerial work
3. All aeroplanes that carry passengers
4. Aeroplanes certified in private category for state government
29. Ensuring that passengers are made familiar with the location & use of emergency
equipment on board is the duty of
1. Pilot in command 2. Air hostess
3. Flight crew 4. Cabin crew
30. During flight when capacity to perform duty by a flight crew is significantly reduced
due to impairment of faculty as a result of sickness the pilot in command should
1. Carry on with the flight to the planned destination
2. Assign the duties of sick crew member to another crew member
3. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
4. None of the above
31. A helicopter of performance that in case of critical power unit failure is able to land on
the rejected take off or safely, continue the flight to an appropriatel landing area depending
upon the failure occurred is of performance class
1. one 2. Three
3. Two 4. Four
32. A helicopter with performance such that power unit failure at any point in the flight
profile demands a forced landing is of performance class
1. 2. 2. 2
3. 3 4. 4
35. Helicopter operating in IFR condition shall have (in addition to instrument in VFR
flying)
1. Slip indicator 2. Landing light
3. Position light 4. None of the above
36. Helicopter which is intended to land in IMC shall be provided with radio
equipment capable of receiving signals providing guidance to
1. A point from visual landing can be effected
2. A point from which instrument landing can be effected
3. ATC transponder 4. None of the above
37. All helicopter of class 1 or 2 intended to be flown over water shall be fitted with a
permanent or rapidly mean of flotation if distance from I and at normal cruise speed
corresponds to more than
1. 10 2. 30
3. 20 4. 45
39. Minimum fuel required for helicopter to fly under VFR condition is to fly to helicopter
to which the flight is planned
1. Only
2. Plus for an additional 15 mm + 10% of planned flight time
3. Plus for an additional 20 mm + 10% of planned flight time
4. None of the above