MCQ Computer Awareness

1
Computer Fundamentals
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The earliest calculating devices are:

1) Clock
2) Difference Engine
3) Abacus
4)Calculator
5) None of these
The basic operations performed by a computer are:
1) Arithmetic Operations
2) Logical Operations
3) Storage and relative
4) All the above
5) None of these
The man who built the first Mechanical Calculator was:
1) Joseph Marie Jacquard
2) John Mauchly
3) Blaise Pascal
4) Harward Ailken
5) None of these
Punched cards were first introduced by:
1) Powers
2) Pascal
3) Jacquard
4) Herman Hollerith
5) None of these
Computers built before the First Generation of Computers were:
1) Mechanical
2) Electro-mechanical
3) Electrical
4) All of these
5) None of these
IBM stands for:
1) Indian Business Machines
2) International Business Machines
3) International Banking Machines
4) International Business Model
5) None of these
Analog computer is
1) is a means of communicating with at a low level
2) a device that operates on data in the form of continuously varying physical
quantities.
3) is an algebraic high level language
4) All the above mentioned
5) None of these
Which of the following options correctly expresses the meaning of the term
PCs?
1) Independent computers for all working staff
2) Personal Computers widely available to individual workers with which they
can access information from layer systems and increase their personal
productivity.
9.
10.
11.
3) Packed computer system formed by joining together of various computer

terminals
4) Computer manufactured by the Pentium Company
5) None of these
What are Laptops?
1) Computers used in Clinical Laboratories.
2) A computer manufactured by Compaq
3) A computer having voice recognition system
4) Lightweight Computers, small enough to fit in a small suitcase
5) None of these
A supercomputer________
1) processes data from many (at least 10,000) users at once
2) is the fastest and the costliest computer system
3) is used by large organizations
4) All 1), 2) and 3)
5) None of these
A portable computer________
1) has low memory
2) is the computer that is used by business people
3) is compact and lightweight enough to be transported from place to place
4) either 1) or 2)
5) None of these
Which of the following statements is not true?
1) A notebook computer weighs less and actually looks like a notebook
2) A palmtop computer weighs at most a few pounds and can fit into a pocket
3) A palmtop computer is also called a pio-computer
4) The portable computers can be connected to larger desktop PCs or other
computers
5) None of these
The basic architecture of computer was developed by:
1) John Von Neumann
2) Charles Babbage
3) Blaise Pascal
4) Gorden Moore
5) None of these
What does CPU stand for?
1) Central Processing Unit
2) Central Process Unit
3) Central Printing Unit
4) Central Peripheral Unit
5) None of these
ALU stands for:
1) Arithmetic Long Unit
2) Arithmetic and Logical Unit
3) All Longer Units
4) Around Logical Units
5) None of these
The part of computer system containing the circuitry that does the adding,
subtracting, multiplying, dividing and comparing is called as:
K KUNDAN
12.
13.
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15.
16.
1) Arithmetic and logical unit

2) Memory
3) CPU
4) Control
5) None of these
17. Arithmetic functions of the ALU include:
1) Add, Subtract, Move and Input
2) Divide, Multiply, Compare and Output
3) Input, Output, Move and Compare
4) Add, Subtract, Divide and Multiply
5) None of these
18. Peripherals are:
1) A part of the CPU
2) Output device alone
3) Input device alone
4) Input, Output and secondary storage devices
5) None of these
19. Parts of CPU are:
1) ALU , CU , MU
2) ALU, Peripherals, Memory
3) RAM, ROM, CU
4) ALU, RAM, ROM
5) None of these
20. COMPARE is a:
1) Arithmetic function of the ALU
2) Logical Function of the ALU
3) Input-Output Function of the ALU 4) All the above
5) None of these
21. Which of the following is not an input device
1) Mouse
2) Keyboard
3) Light pen
4) VDU
5) None of these
22. A light-sensitive device that converts drawings, printed text or other images
into digital from is
1) Keyboard
2) Plotter
3) Scanner
4) OMR
5) None of these
23. Which of the following is a term related with scanners?
1) Laser
2) TWAIN
3) Catridge
4) Media
5) None of these
24. Which of the following is a CRO (Cathode ray Oscilloscope)
1) Monitor
2) Printer
3) Scanner
4) Digital Camera
5) None of these
25. Which of the following is not an output device?
1) LCD
2) Printer
3) CRT
4) Touch Screen
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
26. With the help of proper software, the mouse can also be used to:
1) Draw pictures
2) Make ideal graphics
3) Type text
4) Both a and b
5) None of these
27. The OMR (Optical Mark Reader ) can read about ________ documents per
hour.
1) 10
2) 100
3) 10,000
4) 1,00,000
5) None of these
28. The OCR recognise the________ of the characters with the help of light source.
1) Size
2) Shape
3) Colour
4) Used ink
5) None of these
29. The reading speed of MICR is about________ document/ minute.
1) 24
2) 240
3) 24000
4) 2400
5) None of these
30. An electro mechanical device that draws pictures or diagrams under computer
control is:
1) Plotter
2) Printer
3) Light pen
4) All the above
5) None of these
31. The conducting material that was coated inside the screen of CRT is:
1) Germanium
2) Silicon
3) Aquadag
4) Either 1) or 2)
5) None of these
32. The keys of a keyboard are:
1) Alphanumeric keys
2) Functional keys
3) Arrow keys
4) All the above
5) None of these
33. Which input device widely used for playing video games in computers
1) Joy stick
2) Tracker ball
3) Both a and b
4) OMR
5) None of these
34. The mouse generally does have:
1) Two buttons
2) Three buttons
3) Several buttons
4) Either a or b
5) None of these
35. The OMR is able to evaluate only those documents which are printed
within________ position.
1) Marked
2) Special
3) Magnetised
4) Either 1) or 2)
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
36. The OCR is used for the preparation of:

1) Electricity bills
2) Insurance Premium
3) Telephone Bills
4) All the above
5) None of these
37. Speed of Line printer is limited by the speed of:
1) Paper movements
2) Cartridge used
3) Length of paper
4) All the above
5) None of these
38. In Laser printers, printing is achieved by deflecting Laser beam on to________
surface of a drum.
1) Magnetised
2) Photosensitive
3) Magnetic
4) Either 1) or 2)
5) None of these
39. Resolution of laser printer is specified in terms of
1) DPI
2) LPM
3) CPM
4) PPM
5) None of these
40. What are the units used to count the speed of a printer ?
1) CPM
2) DPI
3) PPM
4) BIT
5) None of these
41. Line printer speed is specified in terms of:
1) LPM ( Line per minute )
2) CPM ( Character per minute )
3) DPM
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
42. The example of non-impacts printers are:
1) Laser-Dot matrix
2) Inkjet-Laser
3) Inkjet-Dot matrix
4) Dot matrix
5) None of these
43. Which one is not impact printers option?
1) Laser printer
2) Dot matrix
3) Daisy wheel
4) Either 2) or 3)
5) None of these
44. The CRT is________ in shape.
1) Circular
2) Rectangular
3) Eclipse
4) Conical
5) None of these
45. CRT is a:
1) Hollow tube
2) Vacuum tube
3) Long tube
4) Round tube
5) None of these
46. As compare to CRT, the flat panel Display requires:
1) Less power
2) Low operating voltage
3) Less clarity
4) Both a and b
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
47. CRT stands for:

1) Copper Rod /Tube
2) Cathode Ray Tube
3) Completely Ready Tube
4) All the above
5) None of these
48. Graphical devices which are widely used to represent the graphics on screen
are:
1) CRT
2) Flat panel
3) Touch screen
4) Both 1 and 2
5) None of these
49. WORM stands for:
1) Write Once Read Memory
2) Wanted Once Read Memory
3) Wanted Original Read Memory
4) Write Original Read Memory
5) None of these
50. Which of the following is a temporary primary memory
1) PROM
2) RAM
3) ROM
4) EPROM
5) None of these
51. Which of the following is a sequential access device
1) Hard disk
2) Optical disk
3) Tape
4) Flash memory
5) None of these
52. MICR stands for
1) Magnetic Ink Character recognition
2) Magnetic Ink Computer Record
3) Magnetic Industries Corporation region
4) Microphone Recording
5) None of these
53. Which of the following can hold maximum data
1) Optical disk
2) Floppy Disk
3) Magnetic Disk inside computer
4) Magnetic Tape
5) None of these
54. Program on which of the following storage device is always virus free
1) Hard Disk
2) Floppy Disk
3) Compact Disk
4) Any of these
5) None of these
55. A storage that supplements the primary internal storage of a computer
1) secondary storage
2) back-end storage
3) back ground storage
4) primary storage
5) None of these
56. The ability to read or write each piece of information in a storage device in
approximately the same length of time regardless of its location is
1) Random Access
2) Raster scan
3) Sequential Access
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
57. Which of the following device can store large amount of data?
1) Floppy Disk
2) Hard Disk
3) CD ROM
4) Zip Desk
5) DVD
K KUNDAN
58. Which of the following is handy to carry yet can store large amounts of data?
1) Floppy Disk
2) Hard Disk
3) CD ROM
4) Zip Desk
5) DVD
59. Data ( Information) is stored in computers as :
1) Directories
2) Files
3) Floppies
4) Matter
5) None of these
60. Which storage device is mounted on reels?
1) Floppy Disk
2) Hard Disk
3) Magnetic Tapes
4) CD-ROM
5) None of these
61. Which of the following statements is/are true?
1) Cache Memories are bigger than RAM
2) Cache Memories are smaller than RAM
3) ROM are faster than RAM
4) Information in ROM can be written by users
5) None of these
62. MOS stands for ________ :
1) Most Often Stored
2) Metal Oxide Semiconductor
3) Method Organised Stack
4) All the above
5) None of these
63. MTBF means:
1) Mean Time Before Failure
2) Mean Time Buffer Feature
3) Most Treated Buffer Time
4) Master Test Board Feature
5) None of these
64. Usually, in MSDOS, the primay hard disk drives has the drive letter ________:
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
5) None of these
65. The Analytical Engine developed during first Generation of computers used
________ as a memory unit .
1) RAM
2) Floppies
3) Cards
4) Counter Wheels
5) None of these
66. Size of the Primary memory of a PC ranges between ________ .
1) 2 MB to 8 MB
2) 64 MB to 256 MB
3) 20 MB to 40 KB
4) 256 MB to 640 MB
5) None of these
67. Which of the following devices have a limitations that we can only read
information to it but can not erase or modify it?
1) Floppy Disk
2) Hard Disk
3) Tape Drive
4) CD-ROM
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
68. Memory is made up of:

1) Set of wires
2) Set of circuits
3) Large number of cells
4) Any of these
5) None of these
69. Primary Memory stores:
1) Data
2) Programs
3) Results
4) All the above
5) None of these
70. Memory Unit is a part of:
1) Input Device
2) Control unit
3) Output Device
4) Central Processing Unit
5) None of these
71. The contents of information are stored in:
1) Memory Data Register
2) Memory Address Register
3) Memory Access Register
4) Memory Arithmetic Register
5) None of these
72. Which one is not the option of secondary storage device?
1) Magnetic disk
2) Hard disk
3) Read only memory
4) Floppy disk
5) None of these
73. RAM stands for:
1) Real Available Memory
2) Random Access Memory
3) Read all Memory
4) Readily Available Memory
5) None of these
74. How many write cycles are allowed to a RAM?
1) 1
2) 10
3) 100
4) 1000
5) None of these
75. RAM:
1) is memory built from silicon chips that is used to store programs and data
temporarily while they are being processed.
2) is an acronym for Random-Access-Memory
3) Both a and b are correct
4) Readily Assigned Memory
5) None of these
76. Information stored in RAM need to be:
1) Check
2) Refresh periodically
3) Modify
4) Detecting errors
5) None of these
77. Read only memory is permanently________ in computers.
1) Input
2) Tapped
3) Sealed
4) Manufacture and control
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
78. PROM supplied by the manufacturer as________.

1) Half filled
2) Blank
3) With a booklet
4) Partially filled
5) None of these
79. EEPROM stands for:
1) Electrically Erased Programmable Read Only Memory
2) Electrically Erased Permanent Resident Of Memory
3) Especially Erased Programmable Read Only Memory
4) Encoded Erased Programmable Read Only Memory
5) None of these
80. EPROM can be used for:
1) Erasing the contents of ROM
2) Reconstructing the contents of ROM
3) Erasing and reconstructing the contents of ROM
4) Duplicating the ROM
5) None of these
81. How many write cycles are allowed to a EEPROM?
1) 1
2) 10
3) 100
4) 1000
5) None of these
82. The programs which are as permanent as hardware and stored in ROM is
known as :
1) Hardware
2) Software
3) ROMware
4) Firmware
5) None of these
83. Programs stored in ROM are called:
1) Hardware
2) Firmware
3) Software
4) All of these
5) None of these
84. How many heads to read a DSHD diskette?
1) One
2) Two
3) More than two
4) Cant say
5) None of these
85. The hard-disk is referred to in a computer by the name:
1) Heavy storage media
2) F Drive
3) D Drive
4) H Drive
5) None of these
86. Hard disk can have ________ heads.
1) One
2) Two
3) More than two
4) Only one
5) None of these
87. Which of the following companies is a leader in manufacturing of Hard Disk
Drives?
1) Samsung
2) Seagate
3) Fujitsu
4) IBM
5) Panasonic
K KUNDAN
88. Time taken to move from one cylinder of a HDD to another is called:
1) Transfer Rate
2) Average Seek Time
3) Latency
4) Roundtrip Time
5) None of these
89. Hard Disk are organized as:
1) Cylinders
2) Tracks
3) Cylinders and Tracks
4) Master Boot record
5) None of these
90. The hard disk can hold the data up to:
1) 100 GB
2) 1024 GB
3) 1000 GB
4) 200 GB
5) None of these
91. Data for the Hard Disk type is stored in
1) Main Memory
2) Partition Table
3) CMOS RAM Setup
4) Boot Record
5) None of these
92. The information stored in CD-ROM is in the form of:
1) Binary
2) Digital
3) Analog
4) Codes
5) None of these
93. The video information stored as a CD can be represented in compressed mode
by:
1) WORM
2) CD
3) Digital video interface
4) Digital camera
5) None of these
94. Which technology is used in a CD-ROM Drive ?
1) Optical
2) Mechanical
3) Electromechanical
4) Fiber Optical
5) None of these
95. Which technology is used in Compact disks?
1) Mechanical
2) Electrical
3) Electro Magnetic
4) Laser
5) None of these
96. A CD-ROM
1) can hold more than 650 MB of information.
2) means Compact Disc-Read Only Memory
3) is used for data storage using optical storage technology.
4) All the above.
5) None of these
97. The data once stored on a CD-ROM can be:
1) Modified
2) Re-recorded
3) Both a and b
4) Erased
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
98. 1 Kilobyte (KB) is

1) 1000 bits
2) 1024 bits
3) 1020 bits
4) 1030 bits
5) None of these
99. 1 megabytes (MB) equals to
1) 220 bytes
2) 1 Kilo KB
3) Both a and b
4) 1024 bytes
5) None of these
100. The result of the subtraction (1011)2 (0010)2 is :
1) 0001
2) 1001
3) 1011
4) 1111
5) None of these
101. The Binary equivalent of Decimal Number 98 is:
1) 1110001
2) 1110100
3) 1100010
4) 1111001
5) None of these
102. The product of two binary numbers (101 1) and (1001) is:
1) 1100011
2) 1010100
3) 1011001
4) 100110
5) None of these
103. A byte represents a group of:
1) 10 bits
2) 40 bits
3) 8 bits
4) 22 bits
5) None of these
104. A(n) hexadigit can be represented by :
1) three binary (consecutive) bits
2) four binary (consecutive) bits
3) eight binary (consecutive) bits
4) sixteen binary (consecutive) bits
5) None of these
105.When a key is pressed on the keyboard, which standard is used for converting
the keystroke into the corresponding bits?
1) ANSI
2) ASCII
3) EBCDIC
4) ISO
5) None of these
106. Text editor is a/an
1) application software
2) system software
3) utility software
4) all purpose software
5) None of these
107. A Browser is a
1) tool for creating a database
2) software program to view web pages on the internet
3) printing device
4) software program to delete a folder
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
108.Which of the following devices can be used to directly image printed text?
1) OCR
2) OMR
3) MICR
4) All of above
5) None of these
109. The output quality of a printer is measured by
1) Dot per inch
2) Dot per sq. inch
3) Dots printed per unit time
4) All of above
5) None of these
110. In analog computer
1) Input is first converted to digital form
2) Input is never converted to digital form
3) Output is displayed in digital form
4) All of above
5) None of these
111. In latest generation computers, the instructions are executed
1) Parallel only
2) Sequentially only
3) Both sequentially and parallel
4) All of above
5) None of these
112.Who designed the first electronics computer ENIAC?
1) Van-Neumann
2) Joseph M. Jacquard
3) J. Presper Eckert and John W Mauchly
4) All of above
5) None of these
113.Who invented the high level language C?
1) Dennis M. Ritchie
2) Niklaus Writh
3) Seymour Papert
4) Donald Kunth
5) None of these
114. Personnel who design, program, operate and maintain computer equipment
refers to
1) Console-operator
2) Programmer
3) Peopleware
4) System Analyst
5) None of these
115.When did arch rivals IBM and Apple Computers Inc. decide to join hands?
1) 1978
2) 1984
3) 1990
4) 1991
5) None of these
116. Human beings are referred to as Homosapinens, which device is called Sillico
Sapiens?
1) Monitor
2) Hardware
3) Robot
4) Computer
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
117. An error in software or hardware is called a bug. What is the alternative computer
jargon for it?
1) Leech
2) Squid
3) Slug
4) Glitch
5) None of these
118. Modern Computer are very reliable but they are not
1) Fast
2) Powerful
3) Infallible
4) Cheap
5) None of these
119.What is the name of the display feature that highlights are of the screen which
requires operator attention?
1) Pixel
2) Reverse video
3) Touch screen
4) Cursor
5) None of these
120. IMB launched its first personal computer called IBM-PC in 1981. It had chips
from Intel, disk drives from Tandon, operating system from Microsoft, the
printer from Epson and the application software from everywhere. Can you
name the country which contributed the video display?
1) India
2) China
3) Germany
4) Taiwan
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
Answers
Q
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100.
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119.
120.
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K KUNDAN
MS-DOS
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
What does DOS stand for?

1) Disk Originating System
2) Dynamic Operating System
3) Disk Operating System
4) Default Operating System
5) None of these
Which of the following are the functions of DOS?
(A) Controlling the input and output operations
(B) Controlling the interaction between the user and the computer
(C) Controlling the process of storing and organizing different files
1) Only (A)
2) Only (A) and (B)
3) Only (B) and (C)
4) All (A), (B) and (C)
5) None of these
What do you understand by the term DOS?
1) Downloading the System Program from the Internet
2) Downloading Operating System
3) The master control program of the computer which helps the computer to
manage the files
4) The program which helps computer to check the various peripheral devices
5) Both 3)
and 4)
What was the last version of MS-DOS that was released separately?
1) 6.22
2) 6.0
3) 6.11
4) 5.0
5) None of these
One of the following statements is incorrect on MS-DOS
1) MS-DOS is a command driven operating system.
2) MS-DOS is a Windows driven operating system.
3) MS-DOS exhibits a system prompt which is normally represented as C:\>
4) MS-DOS is made up of external and internal commands.
5) None of these
Which of the following is not a usual file extension in DOS?
1) .EXE
2) .BAT
3) .o
4) .class
5) None of these
What do you understand by the term booting?
1) The process of starting the computer from the power-off position
2) Connecting the computer to the electric switch
3) Increasing the memory of the computer
4) The process of shut down the computer
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
8.
9.
10.
11.
A bootable disk is ________:

1) a disk in the computer which can be easily updated
2) a disk that contains all the system files of DOS
3) a disk loaded with the information from the internet
4) a disk loaded with all the software
5) None of these
What is the difference between cold booting and warm booting?
(A) Cold booting uses a floppy for booting while warm booting uses a hard
disk for booting
(B) Cold booting is starting the computer from the power-off position and
warm booting is the restarting the computer with CAD(Control+Alt +Delete)
command or reset button when it hangs
1) Only (A)
2) Only (B)
3) Both ( A) and (B)
4) Either(A) or (B)
5) None of these
Which file in MS-DOS contains internal commands that are loaded during
booting process?
1) CONFIG.SYS
2) MSDOS.SYS
3) IO.SYS
4) COMMAND.COM
5) None of these
What is the name of the batch file that is automatically run when MS-DOS is
booted?
1) CONFIG.SYS
2) CONFIG.BAT
3) AUTORUN.BAT
4) RUN.BAT
5) None of these
One of the following statements on Internal commands is not true.
1) At the time of booting, Internal commands are automatically loaded into
memory.
2) Internal commands are executed instantly without referring to the disk.
3) Internal commands are those that have been built into MS-DOS.
4) All of these
5) None of these.
One of the following on External commands is correct
1) External commands are stored onto disk in the form of a file.
2) For executing these commands path must be set to DOS directory.
3) For executing external commands they must be first loaded into memory.
4) All the above
5) None of these.
FAT stands for
1) File Activity Table
2) File Allocation Table
3) File Access Tape
4) File Accommodation Table
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
12.
13.
14.
15. Which type of commands in MS-DOS needs additional files for their execution?
1) Internal Commands
2) External Commands
3) Batch Commands
4) Redirectors
5) None of these
16. The REN command in DOS is used to
1) change the name of the file
2) move a file from location to another
3) delete a file and its contents
4) All the above
5) None of these
17. The purpose of the MD command is to
1) create a directory
2) move a folder 3) make a database
4) All the above
5) None of these
18. The SCANDISK program
1) is a disk analysis and repair tool
2) scans disk and eliminate viruses
3) scans disk and eliminate .BAK files 4) all the above
5) None of these
19. The ATTRIB command will
1) set or remove the Read-Only, Archive, System and Hidden attributes.
2) define the data file search path that DOS will use each time it fails to locate in
the current directory.
3) instruct DOS to route disk drive references from one disk to another.
4) All the above
5) None of these.
20. One of the following statements is not true for BUFFERS command
1) Increasing numbers of BUFFERS can speed program execution, but only to
a certain extent.
2) The more buffers that exist the more sectors can be stored in memory; hence
fewer accesses of disk are necessary.
3) The BUFFERS command is used to establish the number of disk buffers set
up by MS-DOS during booting.
4) All the above
5) None of these.
21. To display the current drive letter and directory name, you will use the following
command
1) CD\
2) CD\PROJECTS
3) CD
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
22. The command CHKDISK will
1) start a new copy of the command-line interpreter.
2) analyze the directories, files and the File Allocation Table
3) invoke a secondary command processor.
4) specify the area that DOS will allocate for secondary command processors
environment space.
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
23. One of the following is not true for the COPY command
1) One utility of the COPY is to combines files.
2) When more than one files is copied, MS-DOS displays the filename of each
file, which is being copied.
3) Using Wildcards the command can be used to compare two files.
4) The command is used to copy one or more files to the location you specify.
5) None of these
24. One of the following statements is not true about DATE command
1) MS-DOS stamps the current date for each file you create or modify.
2) When you scan the directory listing, this date is displayed next to the
filename in the directory.
3) The command displays the current system date and prompts you to change
the date if necessary.
4) All the above
5) None of these.
25. The DBLSPACE command is to
1) accommodates any file in double the space of the normal requirement.
2) compress existing disks whether they are hard or floppy disks and create
new compressed volumes.
3) reserve the space double the size of the saved file so that future expansion
of the file is easily done.
4) All the above
5) None of these.
26. One of the following statement is not true about DEFRAG command
1) The command moves the files on your disk in such a manner that its file
segments are in continuous section of the disk with no wasted space between
the file fragments.
2) After DEFRAG is executed, the accessing speed of the file increases.
3) DEFRAG can either be executed as full screen utility or from the command
line.
4) All the above
5) None of these.
27. The function of DELTREE command is to:
1) delete an entire directory that contains files, subdirectories or both files and
subdirectories.
2) pick similar named files from different directories and delete them
automatically.
3) delete and entire disk with complex directory and file structures so as to
format the disk faster.
4) All the above.
5) None of these
28. One of the following statements is not true about DIR command
1) if the DIR command is used without parameters of switches, it displays the
K KUNDAN
29.
30.
31.
disks volume label and serial number; one directory or filename per line,
including the filename extension, the file size in bytes and date and time of
the last modification of the file.
2) used to display a list of the files and/or subdirectories in the specified path.
3) is to read the contents of a file.
4) /P switch can be used to display page by page listing.
5) None of these
The purpose of DISKCOPY command is to
1) format the disk if it is not formatted before a write operation is initiated on it.
2) overwrite the existing contents of the destination disk as it copies the new
information to it.
3) make an exact copy of a floppy disk.
4) All the above.
5) None of these
The function of FDISK command is to
1) divide your fixed disk into logical collections of cylinders called partitions.
2) permit user to add, change, display or delete disk partitions.
3) define disk partitions on a DOS fixed disk.
4) All the above.
5) None of these
The FILES command
1) can be issued from the system prompt C:\>
2) assigns the amount of memory that is to be set aside for the file handlers.
3) is to be used only in AUTOEXEC.BAT file.
4) All the above.
5) None of these
The purpose of the FORMAT command is to
1) create a new root directory and file allocation table for the disk.
2) locate and mark all bad sectors on a disk.
1) prepare a floppy disk for use with the MS-DOS
4) All the above
5) None of these
The command LABEL
1) specifies disk volume label by permitting the user to create change or delete
a volume label on a disk.
2) is used only in AUTOEXEC.BAT
3) is to run an application software that may not load properly when DOS
occupies high memory.
4) is used only in CONFIG.SYS
5) None of these
The MEM command
1) loads the mouse driver software into reserved memory
2) loads a TSR software
K KUNDAN
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
3) displays the amount of used and free memory on your computer.

4) All the above.
5) None of these
The MORE command is for
1) reading data from the standard input device and displaying a commands
output a screenful at a time onto a standard output device and pauses with
a message More
2) moving one or more files to the location you gave
3) to create more files
4) both a and b
5) None of these listed
The purpose of the MOVE command is to
1) move one or more files to the location you have specified.
2) rename directories
3) both of the a and b
4) to move the text within file
5) None of these listed
The MSBACKUP command
1) allows you to back up an entire hard disk to a set of floppies.
2) essentially is a replacement of age old BACKUP command.
3) it can also backup all files on a disk or files that have changed since your
last backup.
4) All the above mentioned.
5) None of these
The PATH command
1) specifies directories that MS-DOS is to search when trying to locate
executable files.
2) displays detailed technical specification of your disk drivers.
3) displays the port address of all the installed ports and dynamically display
the status of each port including the I/O ports.
4) displays the information of adapters.
5) None of these
The PRINT command
1) can print in the background if you have an output device connected to one
of your systems serial or parallel ports
2) is used to print a text file
3) both a and b mentioned above
4) to print all the files in the directory
5) None of these
The REPLACE command
1) selectively copies files from a source file to the target disk.
2) adds new files to the target disk if they are not already there.
3) replaces the files in the target disk with more recent versions of files.
K KUNDAN
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
4) All the above.

5) None of these
The TREE command
1) is an External command.
2) displays the structure of the directories of the disk in the specified drive.
3) displays the true name of logical drives and directories.
4) All the above.
5) None of these
The UNDELETE command
1) offers three levels of protecting files against accidental deletion.
2) is an External command.
3) restores the files that were previously deleted by using the DEL command.
4) All the above.
5) None of these
The TIME COMMAND IS USED TO DISPLAY ________ TIME.
1) Greenwich Mean Time
2) US Time
3) System Time
4) Julian Time
5) None of these
Which command in DOS is used to display the version of MSDOS?
1) VER
2) VERSION
3) VERSN
4) VERIFY
5) None of these
Which command in DOS can be used to recover accidentally deleted files?
1) CANCEL
2) UNDELETE
3) RECOVER
4) RESTORE
5) None of these
Which among the following are the best tools for fixing errors on disks?
1) CHKDSK
2) FIXDSK
3) FDISK
4) SCANDISK
5) None of these
Which command displays the list of all previous commands entered by the
user?
1) DIR/ALL
2) COMMANDS/ALL
3) KEYDOS
4) DOSKEY
5) None of these
Which of the following commands displays names of files in sorted order?
1) DIR/AN
2) DIR/SO
3) DIR/AH
4) DIR/N
5) None of these
Which switch should be used in the DIR command to view files in all directories?
1) /P
2) /W
3) /S
4) /L
5) None of these
Which command in DOS is used to set a name to a disk?
1) LABEL
2) VOL
3) VOLUME
4) DISKLABEL
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
Answers
Q
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
A
3
4
5
1
2
3
1
2
2
4
3
5
5
2
2
Q
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A
1
1
1
1
5
1
2
3
5
2
5
1
3
4
4
Q
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
A
2
4
1
3
1
1
3
1
3
4
2
4
2
1
2
Q
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
A
4
4
1
3
1
K KUNDAN
MS-Word
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
What is MS-Word?
1) A game
2) An Operating System
3) Word Processing Software
4) Typing tutor software
5) None of these
What tool works best for word processing?
1) IBM selectric
2) Typewriter
3) Computer
4) Microsoft Word
5) None of these
Which of the following companies developed MS Office-2000?
1) Novell
2) Corel
3) Lotus
4) Microsoft
5) None of these
MS-Word allows creation of ________type of documents by default?
1) .DOC
2) .WPF
3) .TXT
4) .DOT
5) None of these
Which of the following is the Word Processor in MS Office?
1) Word Pad
2) Word
3) Word Perfect
4) Word Star
5) None of these
Which of the following is not a part of a standard office suit?
1) File Manager
2) Image Editor
3) Database
4) Word Processaor
5) None of these
What word is used to describe the act of correcting something?
1) Erase
2) Correcting
3) Edit
4) Whiteout
5) None of these
Outlook Express is a ________?
1) E-mail Client
2) Scheduler
3) Address Book
4) All the above
5) None of these
What program is used in MS-Word to check the spellings?
1) Spellpro
2) Spellcheck
3) Outlook Express
4) All of these
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
10. An animated character that gives help in MS-Office is ________ .

1) Office Assistant
2) Office Worker
3) Comic Assistant
4) All of these
5) None of these
11. Which of the following is not a special program in MS-Office?
1) Office Art
2) Clip Art
3) Word Art
4) Paint Art
5) None of these
12. Which of the following are valid Min. & Max. zoom sizes in MS-Office?
1) 10,100
2) 10,1000
3) 20,250
4) 10,500
5) None of these
13. Which input device can not be used to work in MS-Office?
1) Scanner
2) Light Pen
3) Mouse
4) Joystick
5) None of these
14. Which key should be pressed to start a new paragraph in MS-Word?
1) Down Cursor Key
2) Enter Key
3) Shift + Enter
4) Control + Enter
5) None of these
15. MS-Office provides help in many ways. Which of these are more closer to the
answers?
1) Whats this
2) Office Assistant
3) Help Menu
4) All of these
5) None of these
16. Which of these toolbars allows changing Fonts and their sizes?
1) Standard
2) Formatting
3) Print Preview
4) All of these
5) None of these
17. Which bar is usually located below the Title Bar that provides categorized
options?
1) Menu Bar
2) Status Bar
3) Toolbar
4) Scroll Bar
5) None of these
18. What option will be used to change the word from tll to tall?
1) Correct
2) Change
3) Add
4) Insert
5) None of these
19. What should be done to change the word from Kiil to Kill?
1) Insert
2) Add
3) Typeover
4) Any of these
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
20. What option is used to use a paragraph at another place without removing it
from the first place?
1) Rotate
2) Copy-Paste
3) Delete
4) Move
5) None of these
21. What option is used to use a paragraph at another place after removing it
completely from first place?
1) Rotate
2) Cut-Paste
3) Delete
4) Move
5) Copy-Paste
22. To standout a word, what option can be used?
1) Standout
2) Delete
3) Print
4) Bold
5) None of these
23. Which option may be used to change page-size & margins?
1) Page-setup
2) View
3) Tools
4) Data
5) None of these
24. MS-Office 2000 incuded a full-fledged Web designing software called ________.
1) MS-Word
2) Front Page 2000
3) Outlook Express
4) Front Page Express
5) None of these
25. Which of the following is not a standard MS-Office Edition?
1) CE
2) Advanced
3) Standard
4) Professional
5) None of these
26. Which option in File pull-down menu is used to close a file in MS-Word?
1) Quit
2) New
3) Close
4) Exit
5) None of these
27. Which type of files can not be navigated using Clip-Art browser?
1) AVI
2) BMP
3) WAV
4) MP3
5) None of these
28. Which of the following is the latest version of MS-Word?
1) Word-97
2) Word-98
3) Word-ME
4) Word-13
5) Word-95
29. Which of the following is not a valid version of MS-Office?
1) Office 95
2) Office 97
3) Office 99
4) Office 2000
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
30. MS-Word is a :
1) Software
2) Hardware
3) Operating System
4) Memory
5) None of these
31. A letter, memo, report or other file prepared by Microsoft Word is called a
1) worksheet
2) slide
3) document
4) database
5) None of these
32. The contents of a clip board remain the same until
1) you copy other text
2) you cut other text
3) you shut down the computer
4) all the above
5) None of these
33. If you click on the Undo button
1) it will remove the old text and restore the new text back to your document
2) it will remove the new text and restore the original text back to your document
3) it will include the new text and remove the original text in your document
4) it will remove everything from the file
5) None of these
34. Macros are automatically set to use
1) Relative references
2) Absolute references
3) Mixed references
4) None of these
5) All the above
35. Using Microsoft Words Find and Replace feature you can
1) replace both text and formatting
2) replace text only
3) replace formatting only
4) replace documents name only
5) None of these
36. Graphics is inserted in
1) BOX
2) Page
3) Frame
4) All the above
5) None of these
37. A graphic in a Word document can be
1) increased in size by dragging it from the corner
2) trimmed using the corpping tool
3) sized using any of the sizing handles
4) all of the above
5) None of these
38. The bar at the top of the window that bears the name of the window is known
as:
1) Status Bar
2) Control Panel
3) Menu Bar
4) Title Bar
5) None of these
39. Name of a newly created word document is
1) Document
2) Word
3) DOC
4) File
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
40. To cut the selected text, these keys should be pressed

1) Ctrl + C
2) Ctrl + D
3) Ctrl + V
4) Ctrl + X
5) None of these
41. In MS Word frame can include
1) Graphics
2) Text
3) Tables
4) All the above
5) None of these
42. To select a sentence in MS Word, press this key and click anywhere in the
sentence. This key is
1) Shift
2) Ctrl
3) Alt
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
43. In MS Word, RTF stands for
1) Real Time Formatting
2) Real Time Fonts
3) Rich Text Format
4) Really Text Files
5) None of these
44. Which Toolbar in MS Word, allows you to directly access Internet while working
in a Word document?
1) Main Tool bar
2) Web Tool bar
3) Standard Tool bar
4) Graphics Tool Bar
5) None of these
45. Which of the following commands is not applicable in MS Word?
1) Ctrl + I to italicize the selected text 2) Ctrl + B to bold the selected text
3) Ctrl + U to underline the selected text 4) All the above
5) None of these
46. On how many documents you can work simultaneously in MS Word?
1) One
2) Two
3) More than two
4) Any number
5) None of these
47. User can use ________ button to cancel the last editing.
1) Ctrl + U
2) Undo
3) Redo
4) Shift + U
5) None of these
48. New selected font is applied to
1) Full document
2) All the text above the current cursor position
3) The selected text
4) Only to headings
5) None of these
49. In the mail merge option, user
1) can not create new data source
2) can only create new data source
K KUNDAN
50.
51.
52.
53.
3) can create a new or use an existing address list

4) None of these is related to mail merge
5) All the above
Contents of clip board remain the same until,
1) new text is copied
2) new text is cut
3) shut down the computer
4) close that document
5) All the above
Usage of Auto Correct and Auto Text is restricted to the
1) Current Page
2) Current Document
3) To all the opened doc
4) Both a and b
5) None of these
Word automatically changes the font color of these
1) E-mail address
2) Web Address
3) Mailing address in US
4) Both a and b
5) None of these
About margins:
1) All sections in a document need to have same margin
2) Different section can have different margins
3) Word have predefined margins settings for all documents
4) Cant say, depend on the version of Word
5) None of these
About footer:
1) All pages in a document need to have same footer
2) Different section can have different footers
3) Only two types of footers, one for even page and one for odd page
4) Cant say
5) None of these
Auto-text can be used to insert ________ in document.
1) Text
2) Graphics
3) Any of the two
4) Both of the above
5) None of these
When embedding an object into a document, one of the following occurs
1) embedded object becomes a part of the document
2) embedded object remains outside object to the document, but loaded with
the document.
3) both becomes a zip file
4) None of these
About pasting from the clip board:
1) A part of the clip board contents can be pasted
2) Whole of the contents of clip board can be pasted
3) Sometimes a and sometimes b
4) both a and b
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
54.
55.
56.
57.
58. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

1) In the current document only
2) In any document
3) Can be used only with other macros of the global macro sheet
4) Not consistent behavior
5) None of these
59. Table of contents can be prepared by using
1) Macros
2) Headings as H1, H2, H3 and more in the document
3) By table of contents in tools menu
4) both b and c
5) None of these
60. A major step before taking print of the document is
1) to save the document
2) to set paper settings
3) to see print view of document
4) both b and c
5) None of these
61. You specify the save details of your file in the
1) Save as a file dialog box
2) Save the file as dialog
3) File save dialog box
4) any of 1 and 2
5) None of these
62. The steps involved to open a document are:
1) select the document to open from the file down menu
2) click on the Open option in the Tools menu
3) both a and b
4) can be different for different word document
5) None of these
63. Word offers certain ways in which user can move around in a document
1) by scrolling
2) by moving to a specific page
3) directly to first and last pages
4) All a, b and c
5) None of these
64. In the split window mode, one title bar looks darker than the other, because
1) darker title bar shows window not in use
2) darker title bar shows active window
3) darker title bar shows unavailable window
4) Both 1 and 2
5) None of these
65. Soft page breaks
1) are induced by the user
2) are inserted by word automatically at the end of the page
3) can be deleted
4) are the one to show end of paragraph
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
66. Paragraph marks shows

1) starting of a paragraph
2) data saved till the marked paragraph
3) that Enter key is pressed at that point to mark the end of the paragraph
4) current cursor position in the paragraph
5) None of these
67. Selection of text can be from
1) single word or line
2) a paragraph
3) complete document
4) all of the above
5) None of these
68. New Window command from the Window menu will
1) opens a window for creating a new document
2) opens a new document and close the earlier opened one
3) opens a new window that displays the same document (one which is already
opened)
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
69. New created entries for AutoText and AutoCorrect entries, they are stored in
template document named as:
1) Normal
2) AutoDoc
3) TempDoc
4) StoreDoc
5) None of these
70. Context-sensitive drag-and-drop editing can be activated
1) with the smart-cut-and-paste feature
2) without the smart-cut-and-paste feature
3) there is not any context-sensitive drag-and-drop feature
4) from the tools menu
5) None of these
71. When you move the mouse pointer towards the left side of the window, it
changes from an I-beam to a right pointing arrow. This pointing area is referred
to as:
1) selection bar
2) selection pointer
3) selection beam
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
72. Save as dialog can be used
1) for saving the file for the first time
2) to save file by some alternative name
3) to save file in format other than Word
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
73. When user place the mouse pointer on any of the buttons and not click them,
after few seconds a text appears at the bottom of the pointer. It is called
1) ToolTipText
2) MicroTips
3) HelpTips
4) Clicktips
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
74. Replace option is available on

1) File menu
2) Edit menu
3) View menu
4) Format menu
5) Tools menu
75. Activating the Spelling and Grammar checker
1) it displays the misspelled words in a dialog box.
2) highlights the misspelled words in the document.
3) allow user to either correct the misspell manually or select the correct spelling
form a list
4) all the above
5) None of these
76. Which of the following is incorrect:
1) Headers are printed on the top of margins and footers are printed at the
bottom of the margins.
2) Headers and footers normally carry information like page number, author
name, dates, company names, etc.
3) No Headers and Footers are required in a single page document.
4) Word will not allow to have Header and Footer in a single page document.
5) None of these.
77. Word appears with a wavy red underline signifies
1) month spellings
2) words from languages other than English
3) Word is unable to recognize those spellings
4) Italics
5) None of these
78. Table in Word is a grid of rows and columns, with each cell can have
1) text or graphics
2) only text
3) only graphics
4) both
5) None of these
79. Borders are used where user wishes
1) to add emphasis to particular paragraph
2) to show paragraph in a box
3) to surround the paragraph with different styles boxes
4) All the above
5) None of these
80. Redo button is used to
1) reverse a redo action
2) undo or redo an action depending on users choices
3) reverse an undo action
4) All the above
5) None of these
81. To select a line
1) position the arrow pointer in the selection bar adjacent to the line and click
the left mouse button once.
K KUNDAN
82.
83.
84.
the left mouse button twice.
the left mouse button thrice.
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
On a split box
1) the pointer changes to a double horizontal bar with up and down arrows.
2) the pointer changes to a double horizontal bar with left and right arrows
3) the pointer changes to a double horizontal bar with an ellipse
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
Words Count feature
1) provides information about the number of words in the document
2) is useful when the length of the document is limited to some number of
words
3) also displays the number of pages, characters, paragraphs and lines in the
document
4) All the above
5) None of these
while typing in a paragraph, user
1) press enter at the end of every line
2) press enter only at the end of the paragraph
3) can use both a and b
4) No need to press enter
5) None of these
Keyboard can be turn into Extend-Selection mode by pressing this key
1) F3
2) F4
3) F7
4) F8
5) None of these
Difference between AutoText and AutoCorrect is
1) in the way they are created and put to use.
2) to insert an AutoText, user have to type first four letters and then press
enter key, whereas in case of AutoCorrect, user type the abbreviated name
and the moment user press space bar key to move on the next word or type
a punctuation mark, Word automatically replaces the name with its entry.
3) a way other than a and b
4) both a and b.
5) nothing, actually both are same.
Word allows user to import graphics from
1) the library which comes bundled with Word.
2) any where in the computer.
3) various graphics format like gif, bmp, png, etc.
K KUNDAN
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
4) only gif format.

5) None of these
One of the following statements is incorrect
1) Word allows user to use formulae command to perform calculation in a table
2) Simple calculation in a table are add, sub, mul, div, etc
3) =SUM(ABOVE) formula means that word calculate the sum of the values of
all the cells above the current cell.
4) Word cannot do simple calculation, there is another software in MS Excel
for this purpose.
5) None of these
Using the print option
1) entire document is printed
2) only current page is printed
3) any number of pages can be printed.
4) All the above
5) None of these
Word displays dots, they represent
1) beginning of a paragraph
2) saving has been done till the marked paragraph
3) press of enter key to mark the end of paragraph
4) spaces between words
5) None of these
Word automatically guesses correct spelling of intelligent, when the user has
typed the first
1) 3 letters of intelligent
5) None of these
Magnifier button is available on
1) Print Preview toolbar
2) Standard toolbar
3) Formatting toolbar
4) Both on 1 and 3
5) None of these
the Formatting toolbar is applied to
1) select paragraph only
2) select characters only
3) select both characters and paragraphs
4) select whole document only
5) None of these
One/More statements(s) of the following is(are) incorrect:
1) A red wavy line under a word indicates that either the word is not found in
the Words dictionary or its (typed word) spelling is wrong.
2) A green wavy line under a word indicates that there is some grammatical
problem in that word or sentence.
3) The shortcut menu which comes when user right clicks on the word with
K KUNDAN
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
underline has correct option for the spelling or grammatical changes with an
option for ignore also.
4) A yellow wavy line under a word indicates that word has both spelling and
grammatical error.
5) None of these
To select full document
the left mouse button once.
the left mouse button twice.
the right mouse button once.
the right mouse button twice
5) None of these
In the shading box the user select 25% to fill the box around the title with gray
color. 25% means that the shading will be made of
1) 25% black dots and 75% white dots
5) None of these
After inserting a graphic in the document, a graphic eight sizing handles appears
around it. This handle can be used to
1) change size of the graphic i.e. make it larger or smaller
2) trim the graphic, hiding the portions which the user doesnt want to show.
3) take a print, and sizing handle does not appear in the printed document.
4) All the above
5) None of these.
Purpose of arrange all options in window menu is to
1) align all paragraphs
2) align all the open document on screens for easy accessibility
3) arrange files alphabetically
4) All the above
5) None of these
On selecting the Replace option from the Edit menu, the dialog appears with
this name;
1) Find dialog box
2) Replace dialog box
3) Find and Replace dialog box
4) Edit dialog box
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
97.
98.
99.
100. One of the following is not permitted while naming a data source
1) letters
2) numbers
3) underscores characters
4) spaces
5) None of these is allowed
101. Using Thesaurus
1) will help you to add precision and variety to your writing.
2) is just like a printed thesaurus, the Microsoft Word thesaurus provides
synonyms and at times antonyms.
3) will also provides list of related words and different forms of the selected
word.
4) All the above.
5) None of these.
102. There are large number of templates that are provided by Microsoft Word
1) these templates are for generating business documents
2) they have many built in formatting features
3) and the user can add his own to the existing list
4) all of the above
5) None of these
103. Microsoft Word allows you t create interesting visual effects in your document,
such as
1) allowing the text to wrap around a picture by surrounding the graphics with
a frame
2) only permitting text to flow above and below the graphic with a frame
3) no such feature is available in Microsoft Word
4) None of these
5) All the above
104. Auto Fit button
1) format each column width to be as board as the size of the text
2) formats each column width to be only as wide as the text in the longest cell
in a column.
3) will truncate any text width exceeding the size of the right margin.
4) All the above
5) None of these
105. Zoom combo box on standard toolbar will
1) zoom the whole document to the selected percent of the original size.
2) zoom the selected part of document to the selected percent of the original
size.
3) zoom the view of document, but print will be still of the original size.
4) a and c above
5) all of the above
106. Auto Complete is a
1) tip that helps to automatically complete the word or a text moment you type
first four letters
K KUNDAN
2) tip that helps in strong the abbreviated spelling of a complete word or a text
3) facility to automatically save the complete document when the typing is
over
4) facility to print the complete document
5) None of these
107. In the Print Preview window
1) user can see overall appearance of one page or al the pages
2) user can see where text falls on a page before it continues on to the text page
3) once user examine his/her document, user can make finer adjustments to get
the layout as per requirements
4) all of the above
5) None of these
108. Option designed to automatically save a backup copy of your document at
specified intervals is
1) Close button
2) Create data source
3) Auto Save
4) Save as
5) Back up
109. This is to insert an object, which is not linked to its originating document into
a destination document
1) Cell
2) Embed
3) Defaults
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
110. It is a mark, normally round or a square dot
1) number
2) bullet
3) indentation
4) both 2 and 3
5) None of these
111. It refers to a paragraph format in which the first line of a paragraph starts farther
to the left than subsequent lines.
It is
1) Global template
2) Frame
3) Field
4) Hanging indent
5) None of these
112. It refers to a special document template in which form fields allow the user to
complete the form online without affecting the text and formatting of the form.
It is
1) Global template
2) Frame
3) Form
4) Hanging indent
5) None of these
113. It is a template with the filename NORMAL.DOT that contains default menus,
dialog box setting and styles. It is
1) Global template
2) Frame
3) Field
4) Hanging indent
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
114. It is a set of coded instructions that inserts many types of information into
your document. It is
1) Global template
2) Frame
3) Field
4) Hanging indent
5) None of these
115. It is family of types styles such as Arial, Geneva, Modern etc. It is
1) Format
2) Font
3) Form letter
4) Form
5) None of these
116. It is the way text appears on a page. It is
1) Format
2) Font
3) Form letter
4) Form
5) None of these
117. It is document consisting of boilerplate text and personalized information. It is
1) Format
2) Font
3) Form letter
4) Form
5) None of these
118. It refers to a title for a part of a document.
1) Header
2) Heading
3) Indent
4) Leader characters
5) None of these
119. These characters are usually dots or hyphens and fill the space between words
separated by tabs to draw the readers eye across a line.
1) Header
2) Heading
3) Indent
5) None of these
120. It refers to the distance between text boundaries and page margins.
1) Header
2) Heading
3) Indent
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
Answers
Q
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
A
3
3
4
1
2
1
3
4
2
1
Q
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
A
3
4
2
1
2
4
4
4
1
4
Q
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
A
1
1
4
2
2
3
4
3
1
1
Q
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
A
4
1
3
4
2
1
4
4
3
4
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
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25.
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28.
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30.
4
4
4
2
4
2
1
4
3
2
2
4
1
2
2
3
4
4
3
1
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
4
1
3
2
4
4
2
3
3
5
3
4
2
3
4
1
2
2
2
4
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
1
4
1
2
4
4
3
1
4
3
1
1
4
2
4
4
3
4
4
4
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
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111.
112.
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115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
4
4
1
2
4
1
4
3
2
2
4
3
1
3
2
1
3
2
4
3
K KUNDAN
MS Excel
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Which of the following is the latest version of Excel

1) Excel 2002
2) Excel XP
3) Excel 2013
4) Excel ME
5) None of these
Which of the following is a popular DOS based spreadsheet?
1) Excel
2) Word
3) Smart Cell
4) Lotus 1-2-3
5) None of these
Files created with Lotus 1-2-3 have an extension
1) .DOC
2) .XLS
3) .123
4) .WK1
5) None of these
The default MS Excel file extension is
1) .XLR
2) .EXE
3) .EXL
4) .XLS
5) None of these
Which of the following is the oldest spread sheet package?
1) Lotus 1-2-3
2) Excel
3) StarCalc
4) VisiCalc
5) None of these
An excel worksheet can have a maximum of ________ number of rows .
1) 65535
2) 256
3) 1048576
4) 65536
5) None of these
An excel worksheet can have a maximum of ________ number of columns.
1) 256
2) 255
3) 16384
4) 258
5) None of these
MS Excel is a :
1) Window based word processor package
2) Window based spread sheet package
3) DOS based spread sheet package
4) Window based accounting package
5) None of these
In Excel the intersection of a column and a row is called:
1) Cell
2) Grid
3) Table
4) Box
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
10. A collection of worksheets is called:

1) Excel Book
2) Excel Book
3) Excel Sheets
4) Workbook
5) None of these
11. Which of the following is not an example of a value?
1) 350
2) May 2, 2013
3) 64%
4) Serial No. 50771
5) None of these
12. In its default setting, an excel workbook is made up of sheets and the default
number is :
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
5) 5
13. In Excel each sheet in a workbook is displayed as :
1) Tab
2) Down Pointing Arrow
3) Floating Point Arrow
4) Marker
5) None of these
14. In its default settings, Excel Margin tabs are set at :
1) 1.9 inch for top and bottom margins
2) 1.8 inch for the left and right margins
3) 0.8 inch for header and footer
4) All the above
5) None of these
15. A worksheet can be opened by clicking on the :
1) Start Button
2) Open Button
3) Both 1) and 2)
4) Either 1) or 2)
5) None of these
16. A worksheet is made of columns and rows, wherein
1) columns run horizontally and rows run vertically
2) columns run vertically and rows run horizontally
3) the run is dependent on the application being used
4) Both 2) and 3)
5) None of these
17. Anything that is typed in a worksheet appears:
1) in the formula bar only
2) in the active cell only
3) in both active cell and formula bar
4) in the formula bar first and when we press ENTER it appears in active cell
5) None of these
18. Which area in an Excel window allows entering values and formulas?
1) Standard Toolbar
2) Menu Bar
3) Title Bar
4) Formula Bar
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
19. On saving a worksheet, the Save As Dialog Box

1) is used to open the saved Excel files
2) is used for saving the file for the first time
3) is used for saving the file by some alternative name
4) Both 2) and 3)
5) None of these
20. The file responsible for starting MS Excel is
1) MS.EXCEL
2) MS.EXE
3) EXCEL.EXE
4) EXCEL.COM
5) None of these
21. Ctrl + Pg Up will take you to
1) Previous sheet
2) Next sheet
3) Last cell in the column
4) First cell in the column
5) None of these
22. Crtl + C is equivalent to
1) Copy
2) Cut
3) Paste
4) Delete
5) None of these
23. Pressing Crtl + A does the following
1) Deletes the cell
2) Copies the content of cell
3) Select the entire work sheet
4) Delete the entire row
5) None of these
24. Crtl + O is equivalent to
1) Save the file
2) Open a new file
3) Open an existing file
4) Delete a file
5) None of these
25. Which command is used to closed the window of Excel
1) Alt + F4
2) Ctrl + W
3) Ctrl + R
4) Ctrl + C
5) None of these
26. Roman Symbol for last column in an Excel sheet is represented by
1) XFA
2) XFB
3) XFC
4) XFD
5) None of these
27. Which one is the shortcut key of Save
1) F1
2) F6
3) F12
4) Ctrl + S
5) None of these
28. Which is the shortcut to Goto Option in Excel
1) F5
2) F7
3) F8
4) F2
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
29. Which is the Shortcut key to cut a object

1) Ctrl + C
2) Ctrl + V
3) Ctrl + X
4) Ctrl + D
5) None of these
30. Which shortcut command is used to reach the next worksheet
1) Page down
2) Ctrl + Page down
3) Ctrl + ->
4) Tab
5) None of these
31. Which command is used to copy the formula not the value from one data to
another
1) Paste
2) Paste special
3) Ctrl + V
4) Hyperlink
5) None of these
32. Which short cut command is used to insert the current time
1) Alt + T
2) Alt + Shift + T
3) Shift + T
4) Ctrl + :
5) None of these
33. Which short cut command is used to insert the current date
1) Alt + Shift + d
2) Alt + d
3) Ctrl + Shift + ;
4) Ctrl + ;
5) None of these
34. Which command is used to calculate the total characters in a cell
1) Len
2) Length
3) mid
4) Sid
5) None of these
35. Named the shortcut key to fill the value of just above cell
1) Ctrl + D
2) Ctrl + E
3) Ctrl + T
4) Ctrl + O
5) None of these
36. Ctrl + I shortcut key is used to
1) Formatting Cell
2) Invoke the goto option
3) Auto Fill
4) change the contents of a cell to italics
5) None of these
37. The formulas in Excel are made up of:
1) arithmetical operators and functions 2) only functions
3) only arithmetic operators
4) only symbols
5) None of these
38. Which command we will use to get the specified string from the left:
1) Left
2) right
3) Proper
4) Len
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
39. Which command we will use to repeat a string certain time

1) Rept
2) Repeat
3) Repte
4) Proper
5) None of these
40. By which command attach another package file in Excel
1) Hyperlink
2) Object
3) Name
4) Comment
5) None of these
41. By which menu we can make database of our worksheet data
1) Form
2) Filter
3) Database
4) Data
5) None of these
42. By which option we can show and print the gridlines
1) Page Setup
2) Format
3) Auto Format
4) Style
5) None of these
43. Which menu kept the fill command
1) Insert
2) Edit
3) Format
4) Data
5) None of these
44. Which menu kept the Goal seek command
1) Data
2) Tools
3) Insert
4) Format
5) None of these
45. Which menu kept the Group and Outline command
1) Data
2) Format
3) Tools
4) Insert
5) None of these
46. In which table we find the pivot table command
1) Tools
2) Data
3) Insert
4) Window
5) None of these
47. By default the cell content alignment is
1) Left aligned
2) Centrally aligned
3) Text left aligned and numbers right
4) Text right aligned and numbers left aligned
5) None of these
48. To remove the grid lines the option is available under
1) Tools>Options
2) Views>Options
3) Format
4) Tools>Wizard
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
49. Which sign is used to specify a cell range

1) : (colon)
2) / (slash)
3) * (asterisk)
4) - (hyphen)
5) None of these
50. Which sign we use to enter formula
1) =
2) /
3) *
4) 5) None of these
51. In which tool bar will you find Autosum short button
1) Formatting Bar
2) Standard Bar
3) Clipboard Bar
4) Formula Bar
5) None of these
52. In which Menu will you get the validation command
1) Insert
2) Data
3) Tools
4) Format
5) None of these
53. How many chart types available in Excel
1) 12
2) 18
3) 14
4) 20
5) None of these
54. From which Tool Bar we can change chart type
1) Chart Tool Bar
2) Formatting Tool Bar
3) Formula Bar
4) Clipboard Bar
5) None of these
55. By which menu we can protect our worksheet
1) Tools
2) Format
3) Data
4) Window
5) None of these
56. How many types of cell references are available in Excel
1) 3
2) 4
3) 8
4) 10
5) None of these
57. Which is the comparison operator
1) =
2) /
3) *
4) ^
5) None of these
58. Which menu has function wizard
1) Insert
2) Format
3) Tools
4) Data
5) None of these
59. By which Menu you can ungroup the data
1) Data
2) Insert
3) Edit
4) View
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
60. Legends are used in

1) Chart Wizard
2) function Wizard
3) Auto Sum
4) Validation
5) None of these
61. How many types of drawing objects are available in drawing toolbar
1) 4
2) 5
3) 10
4) 12
5) None of these
62. In Excel, Pie charts can be plotted on
1) multiple data series
2) only one data series
3) only two data series
4) only three data series
5) None of these
63. The function TODAY( ) of Excel, enters the current
1) system time in a cell
2) system date and time in a cell
3) system date only
4) time at which the current file was opened
5) None of these
64. Excel worksheet data can be shared with Word document by
1) Inserting an Excel file into Word
2) Copy and Paste Excel worksheet into Word document
3) Link Excel data in a Word document
4) All the above
5) None of these
65. To change the cell reference C4:C9 to an absolute row and column reference,
we would enter it as
1) C4:C9
2) C$4:C$9
3) $C$4:$C$9
4) $C4:$C9
5) None of these
66. When we create a chart on the same sheet as our data, we can view both the
data and the chart at the same time.
This type of chart is called as
1) chart sheet
2) embedded chart
3) view sheet
4) view chart
5) None of these
67. Excel uses another name for database. It is called as
1) listing
2) organizer
3) sequencer
4) list
5) None of these
68. A template is a
1) Pattern of work sheet
2) Heading
3) Title
4) Theme
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
69. Which one is the example of spreadsheet package

1) VisiCalc
2) Unify
3) Ada
4) Snowball
5) None of these
70. Comments put in cells are called :
1) Smart Tip
2) Cell Tip
3) Web Trip
4) Soft Trip
5) None of these
71. Which of the following is not a valid data type in Excel?
1) Number
2) Label
3) Character
4) Date/Time
5) None of these
72. Comments can be added to cells using :
1) Edit->Comments
2) Insert->Comments
3) File->Comments
4) View->Comments
5) None of these
73. Data can be arranged in a worksheet in an easy to understand manner using :
1) Auto Formatting
2) Applying Styles
3) Changing Fonts
4) All of these
5) None of these
74. Multiple calculations can be made in a single formula using :
1) Standard Formulas
2) Array Formula
3) Complex Formulas
4) Smart Formula
5) None of these
75. How many characters can be typed in a single cell in Excel?
1) 256
2) 1024
3) 32,000
4) 65,536
5) None of these
76. Which menu option can be used to split windows into two?
1) Format->Window
2) View->Window->Split
3) Window->Split
4) View->Split
5) None of these
77. Which elements of a worksheet can be protected from accidental modification?
1) Contents
2) Objects
3) Scenarios
4) All the above
5) None of these
78. Getting data from a cell located in a different sheet is called ________.
1) Accessing
2) Referencing
3) Updating
4) Functioning
5) None of these
79. A numeric value can be treated as a label value if it precedes with:
1) Apostrophe ( )
2) Exclamation ( ! )
3) Hash ( # )
4) Tilde (~)
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
80. Concatenation of text can be done using:

1) Apostrophe ( )
2) Exclamation ( ! )
3) Hash ( # )
4) Ampersand (&)
5) None of these
81. A function in Excel :
1) can be build using a Function Wizard 2) is a shortcut formula
3) is a readymade formula
4) All the above
5) None of these
82. Excel can display upto ________ fields of a data form :
1) 16
2) 32
3) 64
4) 128
5) None of these
83. We can convert existing Excel worksheet data and charts to an HTML document
by using the :
1) Linking Assistant Wizard
2) HTML Assistant Wizard
3) Internet Assistant Wizard
4) Intranet Assistant wizard
5) None of these
84. When we copy and paste Excel data into a Word document :
1) it automatically gets updated when data in Excel changes
2) we will be able to edit the data using Word editing features
3) we will be able to use Excel menus and toolbars to edit the data
4) a hyperlink is automatically created
5) None of these
85. When we embed Excel worksheet into a Word document :
1) it leaves the data in its original Excel format and the data must be edited with
Word features
2) it is inserted into Word as an pasted table
3) editing change the data and formatting gets changed in the original Excel
worksheet
4) editing does not change the data and formatting in the original Excel
worksheet
5) None of these
86. Which of the following statements is not true about linking Microsoft Excel
data to Word document :
1) it is not necessary for this setup for the source file be always available to
provide data for the destination file
2) when we edit the linked data, we actually open the source application and
file and all editing is done in the source file
3) in this process the Word document automatically gets updated when data
in MS-Excel changes
4) the destination file contains only a reference point to the source file
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
87. A clipboard :
1) is used to save data on disk in the event of a power failure
2) is able to retain the contents even when computer is switched off
3) is available only in Microsoft Word
4) is a temporary storage in the computers memory and temporarily stores the
cut or copied data
5) None of these
88. The Edit menu has an option Clear in it. Its sub menu has the following
options:
1) All, Formats, Contents and Notes 2) Only All and Formats
3) It is without a sub menu
4) All, Formats and Contents
5) None of these
89. The purpose of Undo button is to :
1) restore a deleted file from the disk
2) remove both the existing text and the previous one permanently
3) remove the existing text and restore the pre-edited text
4) all of the above
5) None of these
90. Using the ChartWizard, we can quickly and easily turn our :
1) data into charts and vice-versa
2) charts into data
3) data into charts
4) charts into most advanced charts
5) None of these
91. Page Break command on the Insert menu will result in insertion of page break :
1) above the selected row
2) below the selected row
3) middle of the selected row
4) on the top of the current page
5) None of these
92. When we print a worksheet, it automatically adds the :
1) name of our worksheet file and the page number to the footer area
2) name of our worksheet file to the header area and the page number to the
footer area
3) name of our worksheet file and the page number to the header area
4) name of our document and the page number to the footer area
5) None of these
93. Selecting Landscape changes our page from :
1) a wide to tall orientation
2) a tall to wide orientation
3) a normal font size to a condensed one
4) a condensed font size to a normal one
5) None of these
94. Selecting Portrait changes our page from :
1) a wide to tall orientation
K KUNDAN
2) a tall to wide orientation

3) a normal font size to a condensed one
4) a condensed font size to a normal one
5) None of these
95. In order to tell Excel that we are entering a formula ina cell, we must begin the
entry with an operator such as :
1) $
2) @
3) =
4) #
5) None of these
96. Scenario Manager in Excel is used to :
1) create graphic representation
2) create data
3) analyze data
4) all of the above
5) None of these
97. When we create a chart on a separate sheet in the same workbook it is called a
1) view chart
2) view sheet
3) embedded chart
4) chart sheet
5) None of these
98. The comparison operators used in Excel to compute criterias are
1) = , > , < , >=, <= and <>
2) only =
3) only =, > and <
4) only >= and <=
5) None of these
99. When excel copies a formula from one cell to another , it identifies the number
it needs by :
1) position
2) cell address
3) cell values
4) any of the above
5) None of these
100. The purpose of AutoSum is to :
1) total and range that we select
2) locate and total the rows and columns in a range nearest to the current cell
3) add grand totals to a range containing other totals
4) all of the above
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
Answers
Q
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
A
3
4
3
4
4
3
3
2
Q
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
A
4
4
1
3
1
2
4
3
Q
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
A
2
2
3
1
1
1
1
1
Q
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
A
3
4
1
1
4
4
2
3
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
1
4
4
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1
4
2
2
3
4
4
3
1
1
3
3
1
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
1
1
4
1
1
4
1
4
1
2
2
1
2
3
1
1
1
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
1
1
3
2
3
4
3
1
4
1
1
2
3
2
4
2
4
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
2
3
1
4
1
3
3
1
5
2
1
3
3
4
1
1
4
K KUNDAN
MS Access
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
How many types of computing models are there?

1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 7
5) None of these
Which of the following is a DBMS software?
1) Access
2) Excel
3) Word
4) Powerpoint
5) None of these
How many types of relationships are there in MS-Access
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
5) None of these
How many types of normalization form are there in MS-Access
1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
5) None of these
By which command we can create a table from a query
1) Simple query wizard
2) Make table query
3) Cross table query
4) Append query
5) None of these
Attributes can be defined for
1) Entity
2) Switch Board
3) Macro
4) Pages
5) None of these
By which command we can link a table with Excel worksheet
1) Get external data
2) Join
3) Attach
4) Merge
5) None of these
How many types of database objects are there in MS-Access?
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
5) None of these
Why we use the input mask in MS-Access?
1) For formatting of text
2) For alignment of text
3) For formatting of numbers
4) Ole
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
10. What is the default size of the data type in MS-Access?

1) 50
2) 60
3) 70
4) 80
5) None of these
11. A memo data type of access can hold ________ characters.
1) 31000
2) 32000
3) 33000
4) 34000
5) None of these
12. Which symbol is used to right align the text in table?
1) <
2) >
3) @
4) $
5) None of these
13. Which symbol is used to display the contents in lower case?
1) <
2) >
3) $
4) %
5) None of these
14. How many modes or view are available to open a query
1) 3
2) 5
3) 6
4) 7
5) None of these
15. Which command is used to close Datasheet view of the table?
1) Ctrl + W
2) Ctrl + c
3) Ctrl + O
4) Alt + F4
5) None of these
16. Which menu kept the relationships command?
1) Tools
2) Insert
3) Format
4) View
5) None of these
17. Where will we find the referential integrity command?
1) Tools
2) View
3) Format
4) Table
5) None
18. In order to include picture data type must be________
1) OLE
2) Hyperlink
3) Yes/No
4) Picture
5) None of these
19. Which option will we use to give heading in the form?
1) Label
2) Textbox
3) Option Group
4) Insert 4) None of these
20. By which command we can add records to a table from different tables.
1) Simple query wizard
2) Cross tab wizard
3) Find match query
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
21. How many types of queries are available in the query menu?
1) 4
2) 5
3) 6
4) 7
5) None of these
22. Which menu kept the parameter command?
1) Tools
2) Query
3) Insert
4) View
5) None of these
23. Name the step to create the summary query
1) Simple Query wizard
2) Summary query
3) Cross tab query
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
24. How many types of summary operators in access?
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
5) None of these
25. Unlike filters queries can be saved as________ in a database
1) Objects
2) Filters
3) Database
4) Any of these
5) None of these
26. The chart must be created as part of
1) Table
2) Forms
3) Reports
4) 2 and 3
5) None of these
27. We cannot validate the cell value by macros
1) True
2) False
3) Sometimes
4) Cant say
5) None of these
28. Which menu kept the compact database command?
1) Tools
2) View
3) Edit
4) Insert
5) None of these
29. Which command we will give if we want to show the database objects with its
description?
1) Details
2) Show
3) List
4) Any of these
4) None of these
30. We can open two database at a time
1) True
2) False
3) Sometimes
4) Cant say
5) None of these
31. In which menu we will find the command document
1) File
2) Insert
3) Tools
4) Data
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
32. Which is the short cut key to reach view menu?

1) Ctrl + V
2) Alt + W
3) F4
4) Alt+V
5) None of these
33. We cant make query by insert menu?
1) True
2) False
3) Cant say
4) Sometimes
5) None of these
34. Which name is suitable to run a macro at starting time of database
1) Start.exe
2) Autoexec
3) Macro.exe
4) Any of these
5) None of these
35. Which is the short key to invoke the spell checker in MS Access
1) F2
2) F7
3) Alt + F7
4) F3
5) None of these
36. In which toolbar we will find the filter command
1) Standard Toolbar
2) Table Datasheet toolbar
4) Forms Toolbar
5) None of these
37. We cant rename a object created in MS Access
1) True
2) False
3) Cant say
4) Sometimes
5) None of these
38. By which start menu option we can a shortcut of access in the start menu
1) Find
2) Run
3) Control Panel
4) Compile
5) None of these
39. Select the short cut key of refresh
1) F2
2) F3
3) F4
4) F5
5) None of these
40. Select the short key to delete an object
1) Ctrl + X
2) Ctrl + c
3) Del
4) Ctr+E
5) None of these
41. In which menu we will find the macro command
1) Insert
2) View
3) File
4) Start
5) None of these
42. In which tool bar we will find the sort command
1) Standard toolbar
2) Table Datasheet toolbar
4) Forms Toolbar
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
43. Select the shortcut key to close the database

1) Alt + F4
2) Ctrl + W
3) Ctrl + C
4) Ctr + F4
5) None of these
44. We cant start access from the run command
1) True
2) False
3) In operating system above Win 98 4) In some cases
5) None of these
45. Select the short key for paste
1) Alt + C
2) Alt + Paste
3) Ctrl + V
4) Alt+ F4
5) None of these
46. Access is a
1) RDBMS (Relational DBMS)
2) DDBMS (Distributed DBMS)
3) OODBMS (Object Oriented DBMS) 4) All of these
5) None of these
47. What is a database?
1) It is a collection of data arranged in rows
2) It is a collection of data arranged in columns
3) It is a collection of data arranged in rows and columns
4) All of these
5) None of these
48. ________ is a process of summarizing data from more than one source :
1) Data Validation
2) Data Consolidation
3) Data Form
4) Data Filter
5) None of these
49. ________ helps us to display the records which meets a particular condition :
1) Auto Fill
2) Auto Filter
3) Auto Shape
4) Auto Sum
5) None of these
50. External database is :
1) Database created in EXCEL
2) Database created using DBMS package
3) Database created in MS-Word
4) All the above
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
Answers
Q
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
2
1
1
1
Q
14.
15.
16.
17.
A
1
1
1
5
Q
27.
28.
29.
30.
A
2
1
1
2
Q
40.
41.
42.
43.
A
3
5
2
1
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
2
1
1
3
3
1
2
4
1
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
1
1
1
1
2
1
1
1
4
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
3
5
2
5
2
2
2
5
4
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
2
3
1
3
2
2
2
K KUNDAN
MS-Power Point
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Power Point 2007 has ________ number of views :

1) 3
2) 4
3) 5
4) 6
5) None of these
Power Point can display data from which of the following add-in software of
MS-Office :
1) Equation Editor
2) Organization Chart
3) Photo Album
4) All of these
5) None of these
The maximum Zoom percentage in MS-PowerPoint is :
1) 100 %
2) 200 %
3) 400 %
4) 500 %
5) None of these
The arrangement of elements such as Title and subtitle text, pictures, tables
etc.
is called :
1) Layout
2) Presentation
3) Design
4) Scheme
5) None of these
A file which contains readymade styles that can be used for a presentation is
called :
1) Auto Style
2) Template
3) Wizard
4) Pre formatting
5) None of these
Which view in Power Point can be used to enter Speakers Comments:
1) Normal
2) Slide Show
3) Slide Sorter
4) Notes Page view
5) All of these
Which key on the key-board can be used to view Slide show:
1) F1
2) F2
3) F5
4) F10
5) None of these
To insert a new slide in the current presentation, we can choose :
1) CTRL+M
2) CTRL+N
3) CTRL+O
4) CTRL+F
5) None of these
Animation Schemes can be applied to ________ in the presentation.
1) All slides
2) Select slide
3) Current slide
4) All the above
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
10. Ellipse Motion is a pre-defined 1) Design Template

2) Color Scheme
3) Animation Scheme
4) All of these
5) None of these
11. Which type of fonts are best suited for titles and headlines?
1) Serif Fonts
2) Sans Serif Fonts
3) Text Fonts
4) Picture Fonts
5) None of these
12. Which type of fonts are best suited to display large amount of text?
1) Serif Fonts
2) Sans Serif Fonts
3) Text Fonts
4) Picture Fonts
5) None of these
13. A chart can be put up as a part of the presentation using ________ .
1) Insert ->Chart
2) Insert ->Picture Chart
3) Edit ->Chart
4) View -> Chart
5) None of these
14. We can replace a font on all slides with another by using the ________ option.
1) Edit ->Fonts
2) Tools ->Font
3) Tools->Replace Fonts
4) Format->Replace Fonts
5) None of these
15. Which option in Power Point allows to carry slides from one computer to
another?
1) Save as
2) Save and Go
3) Pack and Go
4) Web and Go
5) None of these
16. The boxes that are displayed to indicate that the text, pictures or objects are
placed in it is called ________.
1) Placeholder
2) AutoText
3) Text box
4) Word Art
5) None of these
17. Which option can be used to set custom timings for slides in a presentation?
1) Slider Timings
2) Slider Timer
3) Rehearsal
4) Slide Show Setup
5) None of these
18. Which option can be used to create a new slide show with the current slides
but presented in a different order?
1) Rehearsal
2) Custom Slide Show
3) Slide Show Setup
4) Slide Show View
5) None of these
19. After choosing a predefined template, ________ option has to be chosen to
change the background color.
1) Color Scheme
2) Animation Scheme
3) Design Template
4) Color Effects
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
20. Which of the following is an example for Automatic Text formatting?

1) Underlining Hyperlink
2) Adjusting extra space
3) Replacing two s with an em hyphen
4) All of these
5) None of these
21. The following button is absent in the formatting toolbar in PowerPoint :
1) Left Align
2) Right Align
3) Center
4) Justify
5) None of these
22. The following wizards & templates exist in PowerPoint :
1) Auto content wizard
2) Template
3) Blank presentation
4) All the above
5) None of these
23. The following view is not present in PowerPoint :
1) Normal
2) Outline
3) Slide sorter
4) Slide show
5) None of these
24. PowerPoint provides ________ number of layouts for use with blank
presentations :
1) 20
2) 22
3) 24
4) 26
5) None of these
25. To duplicate a slide using the edit menu we have to go to :
1) Normal View
2) Slide sorter View
3) Slide show View
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
26. The following key is used to run a presentation in PowerPoint :
1) F2
2) F3
3) F4
4) F5
5) None of these
27. The auto content wizard consists of ________ steps :
1) 5
2) 6
3) 7
4) 8
5) None of these
28. There are a total of ________ action buttons in PowerPoint:
1) 12
2) 15
3) 16
4) 18
5) None of these
29. To prevent a slide from being displayed during the slide show we:
1) have to delete the slide
2) can hide the slide by using the animation button
3) can hide the slide by using the slide show menu
K KUNDAN
4) any of the above

5) None of these
30. Which command is used to quit Power Point?
1) Alt + F4
2) Alt + Shift + F4
3) F4
4) Either 1) or 2)
5) None of these
Answers
Q
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
A
4
4
3
1
2
4
3
1
Q
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
A
4
3
2
1
2
4
3
1
Q
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
A
3
2
1
4
4
4
2
5
Q
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A
2
4
4
2
1
3
K KUNDAN
MS-Tally
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
Can the financial year from and the book beginning from dates be different?
1) Yes
2) No
3) Cant say
4) In some cases
5) None of these
Which option allows you to set a password to the company name, when
creating a company
1) Use password control
2) Use system control
3) Use security control
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
Can the company position be altered without selecting the company
1) No
2) Yes
3) Cant say
4) In some cases
5) None of these
Select the primary group from the following
1) Loans and advances
2) Sundry creditors
3) Unsecured loans
4) Investments
5) None of these
Select the subgroup of the loans from the following
1) Bank OD Accounts
2) Sundry creditors
3) Duties and taxes
4) Provisions
5) None of these
Press key to close an opened company from gateway to TALLY menu
1) ALT + F6
2) ALT + F2
3) ALT +F1
4) ALT + F5
5) None of these
________ is a category where you group, stock items of different brands
1) Stock group
2) Stock category
3) Stock item
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
To return the goods to supplier which note will you use
1) Sales return
2) Stock return
3) Purchase return
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
How do you create a stock item
1) From Gateway to TALLY choose Inventory Info>StockItem>SingleCreate
2) From Gateway to TALLY choose Accounts Info>VoucherType>Create
3) From Gateway to TALLY choose VoucherEntry>Purchase
K KUNDAN
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
4) Any of the above

5) None of these
Which section deals with additional fields you would input during creation of
a stock item
1) Advanced usage
2) Part No.
3) Category
4) Alternate Units
5) None of these
Name an advanced language with which you can create new reports and screens
1) VATL
2) TDL
3) DLR
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
Name the accounts related with intangible and invisible things which do not
have a specified shape
1) Personal Accounts
2) Nominal Accounts
3) Real Accounts
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
Pressing the function keys one enter a payment voucher
1) F4
2) F2
3) F1
4) F5
5) None of these
What is the debit account of receipt voucher
1) Ledger Account
2) Expense Account
3) Cash Account or any bank account 4) Any of the above
5) None of these
Which voucher is used for entering the sale of fixed assets
1) Sales Voucher
2) Payment Voucher
3) Receipt Voucher
4) Purchase Voucher
5) None of these
________ is used to enter the transaction related to purchase returns or when
a customer is short billed
1) Credit Note
2) Debit Note
3) Credit & debit
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
Which voucher is used to transfer of material
1) Journal Voucher
2) Stock Journal
3) Sales Voucher
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
Every payment voucher has two accounts and
1) Debit and Credit
2) Receivable and Payable
3) Purchase and Sale
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
An invoice is a
1) Sales Bill
2) Receipt
3) Quotation
4) Credit Note
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20. Which type of voucher is used to make the entry of sales return
1) Credit Note
2) Debit Note
3) Credit and Debit
4) Payment Voucher
5) None of these
21. Which type of voucher is used to make the entry of transactions related to
suspense payments
1) Purchase Voucher
2) Payment Voucher
3) Memo Voucher
4) Journal Voucher
5) None of these
22. Which type of voucher you pass to enter the actual items in the godown
1) Journal Voucher
2) Purchase Voucher
3) Stock Voucher
4) Physical Stock Voucher
5) None of these
23. How to display vouchers entered
1) Gateway of Tally>Accounts Info>Voucher Type
2) Gateway of Tally>Voucher Entry>Sales
3) Gateway of Tally>Display>Daybook 4) Any of the above
5) None of these
24. Voucher you pass for entering the purchaser of fixed assets by making a cheque
payment
1) Purchase Voucher
2) Journal Voucher
3) Payment Voucher
4) Receipt Voucher
5) None of these
25. Which report will show the financial position of the company
1) Ledger Accounts
2) Balance Sheet
3) Sales Accounts
4) Bank Statement
5) None of these
26. Name one accounting report that can be printed or displayed in TALLY
1) Stock Item Report
2) Cash Book
3) Physical Stock Register
4) Any of these
5) None of these
27. Which report will display the list of all vouchers entered
1) Day Book
2) Cash Book
3) Bank Book
4) All the above
5) None of these
28. Personal accounts is related to
1) Persons
2) Intangible and visible things such as cash, all types of assets
3) Intangible and invisible things, which do not have specified shape
4) All the above
5) None of these
29. How to delete a voucher
1) Display the voucher and press ALT + D
K KUNDAN
2) Display the voucher and press DEL

3) Display the voucher and press ALT + F1
4) Any of these
5) None of these
30. The report displays the working capital analysis of the companys
1) Cash Flow
2) Funds Flow
3) Cash and Funds
4) Debt
5) None of these
Answers
Q
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
A
1
3
1
4
1
3
2
5
Q
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
A
1
3
3
2
4
3
3
2
Q
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
A
2
1
1
1
2
4
3
3
Q
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A
2
3
1
1
1
2
K KUNDAN
Internet and Networking

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
The first net work that planted the seeds of internet was:
1) ARPANET
2) NSF net
3) V net
4) I net
5) None of these
Acronym www in www.yahoo.com, stands for
1) World Word in Wonder
2) World Wide Web
3) World Web is Widening
4) Wonderful World Web
5) None of these
We often use ________ for World Wide Web
1) Network
2) Server
3) Web
4) E-Resources
5) None of these
An inter-company network which used to distribute information, documents
files and databases, is called as
1) LAN
2) Extranet
3) WAN
4) MAN
5) None of these
Which of the following is not a network device
1) Router
2) Switch
3) Modem
4) Bridge
5) None of these
Which of the following is the fastest communication channel
1) Radio wave
2) Micro wave
3) Optical fiber
4) All are operating at nearly the same propagation speed
5) None of these
Maximum bandwidth supported by any channel is
1) 20 MB
2) 1 GB
3) 2 GB
4) 100 GB (in lab conditions)
5) None of these
Ethernet, LAN, Token Ring and Token Bus are types of
1) WAN
2) Communication Channels
3) LAN
4) Physical Medium
5) None of these
Which of the following is not an application protocol in TCP/IP suit
1) FTP
2) SMTP
3) SNMP
4) MRTP
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
10. Which protocol provides E-Mail facility among different hosts?

1) SMTP
2) FTP
3) TELNET
4) SNMP
5) None of these
11. 192.9.200.153 is an
1) Ethernet Address
2) IP Address
3) Computer Address
4) Any of the above
5) None of these
12. Which is the other name for LAN Card?
1) NIC
2) Network Connector
3) MODEM
4) Internet Card
5) None of these
13. Which of the following cables can transmit data at high speeds?
1) Co-axial Cables
2) Optical Fibre Cable
3) UTP
4) Twisted Pair Cable
5) None of these
14. What is the address given to a computer connected to a network?
1) System Address
2) SYSID
3) Process ID
4) IP Address
5) None of these
15. Web site is a collection of:
1) HTML documents
2) Graphic files
3) Audio and video files
4) All the above
5) None of these
16. Internet is governed by:
1) Ministry of I and B
2) IETF
3) Inter NIC
4) Internet Society (Voluntary Membership Organisation)
5) None of these
17. Which of the following protocols is used for WWW?
1) FTP
2) HTTP
3) W3C
4) UDP
5) None of these
18. The communication protocol used by internet is:
1) HTTP
2) WWW
3) TCP/IP
4) All the above
5) None of these
19. The first page that you normally view at a Web site is its:
1) Home page
2) Master page
3) First page
4) Banner page
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
20. Internet is:

1) Complex system
2) Decentralized system
3) Dynamic system
4) All the above
5) None of these
21. For connection of the internet, you will need:
1) An IP address
2) A TCP/IP connection
3) An ISP
4) All the above
5) None of these
22. The server on the Internet is also known as a:
1) Repeater
2) Host
3) Gateway
4) ISP
5) None of these
23. A user can get files from another computer on the Internet by using:
1) FTP
2) UTP
3) HTTP
4) a and b both
5) None of these
24. In reality, Internet protocol recognizes only:
1) A postal mail address
2) A location of the host
3) An IP address
4) Server
5) None of these
25. The ground station in VSAT communication is called:
1) HTTP
2) Multiplexer
3) Hub
4) Repeater
5) None of these
26. A small network making up the Internet and also having a small numbers of
computers with in it is called:
1) Host
2) Address
3) Sub domain
4) Domain
5) None of these
27. Computers on the Internet owned and operated by education institution from
part of the:
1) Com domain
2) Edu domain
3) Mil domain
4) In domain
5) None of these
28. For a small web site, one needs to buy space from the:
1) Network administrator
2) Telephone exchange
3) ISP
4) Internet Society
5) None of these
29. A host on the Internet finds another host by its:
1) Postal address
2) Electronic address
3) IP address
4) Name
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
30. What do you need to put your web pages on the WWW?
1) A connection to the Internet
2) A web Browser
3) A web Server
4) All the above
5) None of these
31. Which of the following topology is least affected by addition\removal of a
node?
1) Ring
2) Star
3) Bus
4) Net
5) None of these
32. Netscape Navigator and other browsers such as the following are available
free on the Internet:
1) Internet Explore
2) Hot Dog
3) Adobe Page-maker
4) Visual Basic
5) None of these
33. Most news readers present newsgroup articles in:
1) Threads
2) Mails
3) Columns
4) All the above
5) None of these
34. Usenet discussion groups have their own system of organization to help you
find things just as:
1) Internet Excel
2) Gopher
3) Archie
4) All the above
5) None of these
35. The WWW standard allows programmers on many different computer
platforms to show the information on a server. Such programmers are known
as:
1) ISP
2) Web servers
3) Web browsers
4) Gopher
5) None of these
36. Some Web pages are divided into independent pages named as:
1) Excel
2) Outlook Express
3) Frames
4) Sub-page
5) None of these
37. The Web server can be addressed by either its domain name or by the address
in numerical:
1) Network host
2) IRC network
3) Archie
4) Gopher
5) None of these
38. Which of the following protocols is used by Internet mail?
1) HTTP
2) TCP/IP
3) FTP
4) UTP
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
39. What is an E-mail:

(A) An electronic mail that establishes person-to-person connectivity
(B) It enables the computer users to send, store and retrieve messages by
computer at any time of the day or night from any location
1) Both (A) and (B)
2) Either (A) or (B)
3) Only (B)
4) Neither (A) nor (B)
5) Only (A)
40. Host differs from desktop computers in that they can handle:
1) Multiple connections
2) Single connection
3) No connection
4) All the above
5) None of these
41. Many Internet access tools provide bookmarks so that you can return to
your favorites site without:
1) having to remember exactly how you got there
2) using your Internet connection
3) using keyboard or mouse on your PC
4) All the above
5) None of these
42. Favorites are accessible from the________ menu
1) Start
2) Title
3) Stop
4) File
5) None of these
43. The new favourites entry will be named________ to the title of Web page.
1) field
2) long run
3) short-cut
4) All the above
5) None of these
44. When you start a Web browser, the first Web page that gets loaded in the
browser is called:
1) User Web page
2) First Web page
3) Beginning
4) All the above
5) None of these
45. A stored link to a Web page, in order to have a quick and easy access to it later,
is called:
1) WP-Link
2) Bookmark
3) Field
4) All the above
5) None of these
46. What is the name of the list that stores the URLs of web pages and links visited
in the past few days?
1) Link list
2) Page list
3) History list
4) List
5) None of these
47. Who among the following pays for the internet?
1) USA
2) The Government
3) Microsoft
4) Everyone pays for its part
5) None of these
K KUNDAN
48. What is a web-site?

1) A place from where we can get information in documents and files
2) A site that is owned by any particular company
3) A location on the World Wide Web
4) A place from where we can access internet
5) None of these
49. What is a Home page?
1) The main page of the website that serves as an index or table of contents for
other documents stored at the site
2) The page that is displayed in a readable form
3) The screen saver that appears on the monitor while the PC is on
4) The page displaying information about the various sites on the internet
5) None of these
50. A browser is ________
(A)
a piece of software that acts as an
interface between the user and the inner workings of the internet
(B)
it connects a web server and sends
request for information, receives information and displays on the users
computer
1) Both (A) and (B)
2) Either (A) or (B)
3) Only (B)
4) Neither (A) nor (B)
5) Only (A)
K KUNDAN
Answers
Q
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
A
1
2
3
2
3
4
4
3
4
1
2
1
2
4
4
Q
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
A
4
2
3
1
4
3
3
1
3
2
3
2
3
3
4
Q
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
A
1
1
1
1
2
3
1
1
1
1
1
1
3
5
2
Q
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
A
3
4
3
1
1

MCQ Computer Awareness

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1

The earliest calculating devices are:

3) Packed computer system formed by joining together of various computer

1) Arithmetic and logical unit

36. The OCR is used for the preparation of:

47. CRT stands for:

68. Memory is made up of:

78. PROM supplied by the manufacturer as________.

98. 1 Kilobyte (KB) is

What does DOS stand for?

A bootable disk is ________:

3) displays the amount of used and free memory on your computer.

4) All the above.

10. An animated character that gives help in MS-Office is ________ .

40. To cut the selected text, these keys should be pressed

3) can create a new or use an existing address list

58. Macros stored in the global macro sheet can be used

66. Paragraph marks shows

74. Replace option is available on

4) only gif format.

Which of the following is the latest version of Excel

10. A collection of worksheets is called:

19. On saving a worksheet, the Save As Dialog Box

29. Which is the Shortcut key to cut a object

39. Which command we will use to repeat a string certain time

49. Which sign is used to specify a cell range

60. Legends are used in

69. Which one is the example of spreadsheet package

80. Concatenation of text can be done using:

2) a tall to wide orientation

How many types of computing models are there?

10. What is the default size of the data type in MS-Access?

32. Which is the short cut key to reach view menu?

43. Select the shortcut key to close the database

Power Point 2007 has ________ number of views :

10. Ellipse Motion is a pre-defined 1) Design Template

20. Which of the following is an example for Automatic Text formatting?

4) any of the above

4) Any of the above

2) Display the voucher and press DEL

Internet and Networking

10. Which protocol provides E-Mail facility among different hosts?

20. Internet is:

39. What is an E-mail:

48. What is a web-site?

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