PAPER CODE:

Reg. No.

Name : ___________________________________

Class: X
Date : 30/11/2014

Time allowed : 3 hours

Maximum Marks : 250

Please read the instructions in Question Booklet before answering the

question paper.
INSTRUCTIONS
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
(ix)
(x)
(xi)
(xii)

The question paper has '24' printed pages. Please ensure that the copy of the question paper you have
received contains all pages.
Before starting the paper, fill up the required details in the blank space provided in the answer sheet.
Write your name and Seven digit Reg. No. in the space provided at the top of this booklet.
The question paper consists of '125' objective type questions. Each question carry 2 marks and all of
them are compulsory.
Each question contains four alternatives out of which only ONE is correct.
There is NEGATIVE marking. For each wrong answer 0.5 mark will be deducted.
Indicate the correct answer for each question by filling appropriate bubble in your answer sheet.
Use only HB pencil for darkening the bubble.
For rough work, use the space provided at the bottom of each page. No extra sheet will be provided for
rough work and you are not supposed to bring the same.
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gadgets in any form is "NOT PERMISSIBLE".
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of the test and take it back from him/her at 2 pm, after the exam.
TheAnswer Sheet will be checked through computer hence the answer of the questions must be marked
by shading the circles against the question by dark HB pencil only.
For example if only 'C' choice is correct then,
the correct method for filling the bubble is
1
2
3
4
the wrong method for filling the bubble are
(a)
1
2
3
4
Tick Mark
(b)

4
Cross Mark

(c)

4
Half filled or Semi Dark

The answer of the questions in wrong or any other manner will be treated as wrong.

Q.1

When an athlete runs a circular track in 40 sec.

What is the displacement after 3 minutes.
(1) R
(2) 2R
(3)

Q.2

Q.3

Q.4

R
2

(4)

Equation of motion is applicable for

(1) Uniform acceleration
(2) non-uniform acceleration
(3) both
(4) none of these

Q.7

When a train of 60 m long crosses a pole in

12 sec. Find the time required to cross a platform
of length 7 m more than twice the length of train.
(1) 24.5 sec
(2) 25.4 sec
(3) 25 sec
(4) 24 sec

Q.8

When an object covers 40 m in 7th sec and 80 m

in 12th sec. Find the distance travelled in 20th sec.
(1) 100 m
(2) 120 m
(3) 134 m
(4) 144 m

Q.9

When a boy is travelling along rectangular park

with the speed of 72 km/hr and covers half of
complete round in 7 sec. Find the total rounds
after covering 700 m.

1
a(2n 1) [Equation of
2

distance for Nth second].

(1) U
(2) Ut
(3) Ut2
(4) None of these
Q.5

When a particle is thrown upwards and after

reaching at maximum height it comes down to
surface which time would be more
(1) time for upwards
(2) time for downwards
(3) same
(4) none of these

R
4

In non-uniform accelerated motion the distance

between two positions _____________.
(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) doesnt change
(4) none of these

Snth = _________ +

Q.6

When a particle is thrown vertically upwards

acceleration _____________.
(1) g, constant
(2) g, changing
(3) a variable
(4) a constant

1
rounds
2

(1) 2 rounds

(2) 2

(3) 3 rounds

(4) 7 rounds

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Q.10

An object is thrown form a height of 600 m. At

the same instant an object is thrown vertically
upwards with 60 m/sec. Find the instant when they
meet. (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10 sec
(2) 20 sec
(3) 5 sec
(4) none of these

Q.11

Two blocks which are connected through pulley

of mass 6 kg and 8 kg. Find the acceleration
through which heavy block moves down.
(Take g = 9.8 m/sec2)
(1) 1.2 m/sec2
(2) 1.4 m/sec2
(3) 1.6 m/sec2
(4) none of these

Q.12

When a bullet is fired with 72 km/hr and it is

expected that velocity remains same. Find how
much far bullet is from gun after 2 minutes.
(1) 240 m
(2) 2400 m
(3) 2000 m
(4) 14 m

Q.13

Find the % change in g (acceleration due to

gravity) at the height of 60 km.
(1) 12.75%
(2) 16.25%
(3) 18.75%
(4) 20%

Q.14

Q.15

Keplers 2nd law which is generallytermed as laws

of area is also a law of
(1) conservation of angular momentum
(2) torque
(3) energy
(4) none of these

Q.16

Constant k =

4 2
is used in
GM

(1) Gravitational force

(2) Time Perivale of satellites
(3) rocket propulsion
(4) none of these
Q.17

When a vehicle is moving with velocity of

60 km/hr and retarded with 3 m/sec2. Find the
distance and time before stop. (distance and time
respectively)
(1)

2500 50
,
54 3

(2)

2500 50
,
9
9

(3)

2500 50
,
54 9

(4) none of these

Find the height where g = 5 m/sec2.

(Take g = 10 m/sec2)
(1) 1600 km
(2) 6400 km
(3) 3200 km
(4) 800 km
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Q.18. Streching spring and throwing a ball upwards is

an example of
(1) conservative work
(2) Non-conservative work
(3) Mechanical work
(4) Electric work
Q.19

Rating of a machine is 0.05 HP. it can be better

expressed in __________ watt.
(1) 0.365 watt
(2) 36.5 watt
(3) 36.75 watt
(4) 365 watt

Q.20

Cellings of theatre is inclined for

(1) decoration
(2) better visiblity
(3) better surroundings
(4) irregular reflaction of sound

Q.21

Gas liquid chromatography cannot be used to

separate components which
(1) are volatile
(2) are non volatile
(3) are liquids
(4) vaporize without decomposition

Q.22 The formula for magnesium nitrate is

(1) Mg(NO3)2
(2) Mg2NO3
(3) MgNO3
(4) Mg2(NO3)3
Q.23 What is the formula of chromium (III) sulphide?
(1) CrS3
(2) Cr2S3
(3) Cr3S2
(4) Cr3S
Q.24 A molecule of a binary compound must
(1) consist of two atoms
(2) contain a metal and a non-metal
(3) result from electron transfer
(4) contain only two elements
Q.25 Complete and balance the following chemical
reaction. ______________ magnesium
phosphate + hydrogen. What is the coefficient
in front of magnesium phosphate?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Q.26 Find the molecular mass of zinc nitrate
(1) 127
(2) 189
(3) 192
(4) 261
Q.27 Calculate the molar mass of a compound if
0.372 mole of it has a mass of 152 g.
(1) 0.372 g/mol
(2) 152 g/mol
(3) 56.5 g/mol
(4) 409 g/mol

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Q.28 The molecular formula of aspirin is C9H8O4.

How many aspirin molecules are present in one
500-milligram tablet?
(1) 2.77 molecules
(2) 2.77 10-3 molecules
(3) 1.67 1024 molecules
(4) 1.67 1021 molecules
Q.29 How many moles of oxygen atoms are there in
10 moles of KClO3?
(1) 3 mol
(2) 3.3 mol
(3) 10 mol
(4) 30 mol
Q.30 Solution of soap in water is a
(1) True solution
(2) Colloidal solution
(3) Suspension
(4) None of these
Q.31 Which of these elements is not metalloid.
(1) Tungsten
(2) Germanium
(3) Bismuth
(4)Antimany
Q.32 which pair is miscible liquid mixture?
(1) Methyl alchol and acetone
(2) Mercury and alcohol
(3) Benzene and water
(4) Carbon disulphide and water

Q.33 Which of the following can be classified as a

pure substance?
(1) Milk
(2) Sea-water
(3) Ice
(4) Cast iron
Q.34 Oxygen has two isotopes O16 and O18 if the
percentage of O16 is 90 then the atomic weight
of Oxygen will be
(1) 16
(2) 16.2
(3) 16.4
(4) none of these
Q.35 Which is more effective in cooling?
(1) Ice at OC
(2) water at 0C
(3) water at 100C
(4) Ice at 100C
Q.36 The latent heat of fusion of ice is
(1) 33.4 105 J/kg
(2) 22.5 105 J/kg
(3) 33.4 104 J/kg
(4) 2.25 104 J/kg
Q.37 Which of the following processes release heat?
(i) Condensation
(ii) Veporisation
(iii) Freezing
(iv) Melting
(1) (i) and (iii)
(2) only (i)
(3) Only (iv)
(4) (ii) and (iv)

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Q.38 What is the color of the residue left in the lest

tubne after thermal decomposition of ferrous
sulphate?
(1) white
(2) black
(3) Green
(4) Yellowish brown

Q.42

M
140

130
Q

P
(1) 50
(3) 90
Q.43

D
E

(2) 27
(4) 64

(2) 40
(4) 145

452
Find R if 0.R 56
,
990 R Z

(1) 4
(3) 256

In trapeziumABCD,AD || BC whereAD = 7 cm,

BC = 15 cm E & F are the mid points of diagonals
BD &AC respectively then the length of EF

(4) None of these

Q.41

Q.39 Which one of the following setts of ions

represents a collection of isoelecronic species
(1) K+, Cl, Ca2+
(2) Ba2+, K+, S2
(3) N3, O2, F
(4) Li+, Na+, Mg2+
Q.40 During the formation of chemical bond.
(1) Energy decreases
(2) Energy increases
(3) Energy of the system does not charge

In the given figure, find the measure of LMN if

LPR NQC

F
C

(1) 9
(3) 8

(2) 3
(4) 4

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Q.44

If 3x + 2y = 15 = 2x + 3y then find x2y

(1) 25
(2) 27
(3) 30
(4) 45

Q.48

A parcel weight 12 kg, is to be sent from New

Delhi to Jaipur, a distance of 1450 km. The parcel
postage rates are Rs. 70 upto 2 kg and for every
additional kg over 2 kg is Rs. 25. How much is
the cost to sent the parcel.
(1) 320 INR
(2) 95 INR
(3) 85 INR
(4) 340 INR

Q.49

If a linear equation has solution (2, 2), (0, 0) and

(2, 2) then it is of the form
(1) x + y = 0
(2) 2x + y = 0
(3) y x = 0
(4) x + 2y = 0

Q.50

If f(x) = ax7 + bx3 + cx 5 where a, b, c are

constants & f(7) = 7 then f(7) equal to
(1) 22
(2) 17
(3) 7
(4) None of these

Q.51

If

Q.45 The value of

(x 5)3 + (x 4)3 + (x 7)3 3 (x 5)(x 4)(x 7)
when x =

16
3

(1) 0
(3)

(2) 1

121
3

(4)

977
3

Q.46

Find the value of

12 22 + 32 42 + 52 62 ..... + 992 1002
(1) 5010
(2) 5040
(3) 4050
(4) 5050

Q.47

ABCD is a quadrilateral in the adjoining figure,

AP and BP areangle bisector of A and Bwhich
meets at P, then APB = ? (if A = 70 &
C = 100)
D
A
70
P
100
B
(1) 170
(3) 90

C
(2) 85
(4) 100

1
1
1
1

0 then x = ?
x 1 x 2 x 3 x 4

(1) 3
(3) 2

1
2

(2) 3
(4) 2

1
2

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Q.52

1
If y 2 and y are the factors of py2 + 5y + r
2

then:
(1) p < r
(3) p = r

Q.53

When x
(1) 0
(3) 4

Q.54

Q.55

(2) p > r
(4) None of these
1
1
91
2 then find the value of x 91
x
x

Q.56 If
f(x) = 3 + a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3 + a4x4 +..... + a10x10
where a0, a1 ...... a10 are constants, then the sum
of coefficients of terms can be express as
(1) F(0) 3
(2) F(1)
(3) F(1) 3
(4) None of these
Q.57

Find the value of (a3 + 1)(1 a)(1 + a + a2)(1 + a6)

(1) 1 a12
(2) 1 a36
(3) 1 + a12
(4) 1+ a36

Q.58

Find the area of the trapezium ABCD where

AD || BC, and AD = AB = DC = 1 cm,
BC = 2 cm

(2) 1
(4) 2

Thelength of the sides formingright angledtriangle

are 5x cm and (3x 1) cm. If the are of the is
60 cm2. Find its hypotenuse
(1) 15 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 17 cm
(4) none of these
Find the area of a right angled triangle, if the radius
of its circumcircle is 5 cm and the altitude drawn
to the hypotenuse is 4cm
(1) 20 cm2
(2) 10 cm2
(3) 40 cm2
(4) 25 cm2

1 cm

1 cm

B
(1) 3 3cm 2
(3)

3 3
cm 2
4

1 cm

2 cm
(2)

3 3
cm 2
2

(4) None of these

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Q.59

The equation (1+ m2)x2 + 2mcx + c2 a2 = 0 has

equal roots, if
(1) a2 = c2 (1 m2)
(2) c2 = a2 (1 m2)
2
2
2
(3) a = c (1 + m )
(4) c2 = a2 (1 + m2)

Q.63

ABCDE is a regular pentagon. The bisector of

the A of the pentagon meets the side CD at M.
The AMC is?

E
M

Q.60
B
A

In the given figure XY ||AB, AC || BY, BC ||AX.

If area of parallelogram XABN = 64 cm2. Find
the area of BYC + AXC = ?
(1) 32 cm2
(2) 16 cm2
2
(3) 64 cm
(4) None of these
Q.61

If (a + b 2 )( 2 + 1)3 = 1, then a b has the

value equal to
(1) 6
(2) 12
(3) 2
(4) 2

Q.62

Point B(3, 4) is the mid point of the line segment

joining the pointA (1, 1) and C. The coordinates
of C are
(1) 2, 3
(2) 4, 6
(3) 5, 8
(4) 5, 7

Q.64

(1) 60
(2) 45
(3) 90
(4) 36
If in the ABC, P is anypoint on BC that divides
BC in the ratio 5 : 7 then the ratio of area
ABC : area of APC
A

B
(1) 5 : 7
(3) 5 : 12

C
(2) 25 : 49
(4) 12 : 7

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Q.65

Let and the solutions to the equation

2x 2 x 2 = 0 then the value of
2 + 2 + ()2008 is
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3

Q.66 Normally, in the process of osmosis, the net

flow of water molecular is or out of the cell
depends upon differences in the
(1) Concentration of water molecular inside
and outside the cell
(2) Concentration of enzymes on either side of
the cell membrane
(3) Rate of molecular motion on either side of
the cell membrane
(4) Rate of movement of insoluble molecular
inside the cell.
Q.67 Ribosome are made up of subunits
(1) 0 (they are whole)
(2) 2
(3) 4
(4) 3

Q.68 The cell organelle involved in forming complex

sugars from simple sugars are:
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Ribosomes
(3) Plastids
(4) Golgi apparatus
Q.69 Which of the following ecosystems will exhibit
maximum fixation of carbon averaged over a
year through photosynthesis?
(1) Farm ecosystem.
(2) Ocean ecosystem.
(3) Rainforest ecosystem.
(4) Pond ecosystem
Q.70 What is common feature of both bryophytes
and pteridophytes
(1) Semi-parasitic gametophytic stage.
(2) Presence of vascular tissues.
(3) Independent gametophytic and sporophytic
generations.
(4) Water is essential for fertilization.

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Q.71 Cartilage is a connective tissue that smoothens

bone surfaces at the joints. It is also present in
nose, ear, trachea and larynx. Matrix of hyaline
cartilage is predominantly composed of
(1) Proteins and sugars.
(2) Calcium and phosphorus.
(3) Calcium and fibres
(4) Sugars and calcium
Q.72 Transitional epithelial layer is thinner and more
stretchable as compared to the stratified
epithelium. The best possible explanation for
such a structural feature of transitional
epithelium is that it
(1) Prevents infection to the organs.
(2) Accommodates fluctuation of volume of the
liquid in an organ.
(3) Enables re-absorption of salts from urine.
(4) Helps in micturition (process of urination).

Q.73 A rare plant in a botanical garden has been

infected with specific fungi that feed on sugar
molecules. After careful examination, a
botanists suggested the following surgical
intervention to get rid of the fungi and prevent
its spread to apical portions: removing the
infected portion so that a ring of bark about 2
inches in height and about1-2 cms wide is
removed. This will remove the cambial cells,
phloem, endodermis, cortex and epidermis of
the stem. Which of the following will be a
consequence of such a surgical intervention?
(1) Flow of food will be affected but flow of
water upwards will be maintained.
(2) Flow of water upward will be lost but flow
of food will be maintained.
(3) Both flow of food and water upward will be
lost
(4) Neither the flow of food nor water
movement will be affected.
Q.74 In a bee hive, there are thousands of worker
bees performing number of day-to-day
activities. Genetically, the worker bees are
(1) Sterile males.
(2) Fertile males.
(3) Fertile females
(4) Sterile females

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Q.75 If an axolotl larva of Mexican Salamander is

kept in iodine depleted water; then
(1) It will fail to metamorphose but become
sexually mature
(2) There will be no effect on its etamorphosis
(3) It will metamorphose but remain sexually
immature
(4) It will fail to metamorphose and will remain
sexually immature
Q.76 Which of the following can be categorized as a
parasite in true sense?
(1) The female Anopheles mosquito sucks
blood from human
(2) Human foetus developing in uterus draws
nourishment from mother
(3) Head louse lives on human scalp and lays
eggs on hair.
(4) The cuckoo lays eggs in crow's nest for
subsequent parental care.
Q.77 Experts recommend less use of fertilizers and
instead use biofertilizers as they have many
advantages over chemical fertilizers. Which of
the following is NOT true for biofertilizers?
(1) They are economical.
(2) They help in reducing pollution in the lake
(3) They are renewable
(4) They require large set-up for their
production.

Q.78 A considerable increase in plant life in the lake

was noticed after the farming activity intensified.
The most likely reason for this could be:
(1) Chemical fertilizers leached into the lake
from the field.
(2) Pesticides leached into the lake from the
field.
(3) Organic manure leached into the lake from
the field.
(4) Smoke particles from the industry got
settled in moist surroundings of the lake
Q.79 Consider the following characters
I. Flowers with trimerous symmetry.
II. Vascular bundles scattered in ground tissue.
III. Leaves with reticulate venation.
IV. Plant with tap root system.
The characters exhibited by monocotyledons
are
(1) I and III only.
(2) III and IV only.
(3) I and II only.
(4) II and IV only
Q.80 The organisms which cause diseases in plants
and animals are called:
(1) Pathogens
(2) Vectors
(3) Insects
(4) Worms

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Direction (Q.81 to 88): Find out the correct answer for the place of sign of interrogation out of the given
alternatives?
Q.81 1, 3, 7, 15, 31, 63, 127, ?
(1) 250
(2) 150
(3) 255
(4) 350
Q.82

Q.83

Q.84

Q.85

Q.86

Q.87

Q.88

2, 3, 8, 27, 112, ?
(1) 226

(2) 339

(3) 452

(4) 565

45, 54, 47, ?, 49, 56, 51, 57, 53

(1) 48
(2) 50

(3) 55

(4) None of these

11, 10, ?, 100, 1001, 1000, 10001

(1) 101
(2) 110

(3) 111

(4) None of these

DHL, PTX, BFJ, ?

(1) CGK

(2) KOS

(3) NRV

(4) RVZ

XYA, UVB, RSC, OPD, ?

(1) LME
(2) MNE

(3) LMF

(4) MNF

2A11, 4D13, 12G17, ?

(1) 36I19
(2) 36J21

(3) 48J21

(4) 48J23

CEGI : BDFH : : ? : LNPR

(1) MNPR
(2) NPRT

(3) MOQS

(4) SUWY

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Q.89

Find out the wrong term in the given series.

10, 26, 74, 218, 654, 1946, 5834
(1) 26
(2) 74

(3) 218

(4) 654

Direction (Q.90 to 92): The following question are based on the letter series. In each series some letters are
missing. The letters in the series are arranged in a proper sequence. Find the sequence and encircle the
correct group of letters given in the choice.
Q.90 ab _ cb _ c _ c _ _ b
(1) bcaaa
(2) aabbc
(3) abcab
(4) acbca
Q.91

Q.92

a _ bc _ c _ abb _ bca _
(1) cccbc
(2) cbbac

(3) accba

(4) abbba

mnonopqopqrst_____
(1) mnopq
(2) oqrst

(3) pqrst

(4) qrstu

Directions (Q.93 & Q.94) : Read the following statements and answer the questions :
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a closed circle facing the centre. E is to the left of D. C is between
A and B. F is between E and A.
Q.93 Who is to the left of B ?
(1) A
(2) D
(3) E
(4) C
Q.94

Who is to the right of C ?

(1) E
(2) F

(3) B

(4) A

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Q.95

Mr. X, a mathematician, defines a number as 'connected with 6' if it is divisible by 6 or if the sum of its digits is
6, or if 6 is one of the digits of the number. Other numbers are all 'not connected with 6'.As per this definition,
the number of integers from 1 to 60 (both inclusive) which are not connected with 6 is
(1) 18
(2) 22
(3) 42
(4) 43

Q.96

A river flows west to east and on the way turns left and goes in a semicircle round a hillock, and then turn left
in a right-angles. In which direction is the river finallyflowing ?
(1) North
(2) South
(3) East
(4) West

Directions (Q.97 & Q.98) :

means greater than;
means equal to;
means not less than
means less than;
means not equal to;
and
means not greater than
Which one of the following could be a correct or proper inference given the following :
Q.97 a 2b and 2b r :
(1) a r
(2) a r
(3) a r
(4) a r
Q.98

2x y and x o :
(1) 2x o

Q.99

A girl counted in the following way on the fingers of her left hand : She started bycalling the thumb 1, the index
finger 2, middle finger 3, ring finger 4, little finger 5 and then reversed direction calling the ring finger 6, middle
finger 7 and so on. She counted upto 1994. She ended counting on which finger ?
(1) Thumb
(2) Index finger
(3) Middle finger
(4) Ring finger

(2) y o

(3) x z

(4) o y

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Q.100 The figure (X) given on the left hand side, in the problem, is folded to form a box. Choose from amongst the
alternatives (a), (b), (c) and (d), the boxes that are similar to the box formed.

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a only

(2) a, b and c only

(3) b and c only

(4) a, b, c and d

Q.101 In a class Vidya ranks 7th from the top. Divya is 7 ranks ahead of Medha and 3 ranks behindVidya. Sushma who
is 4th from the bottom is 32 ranks behind Medha. How many students are there in the class?
(1) 49
(2) 50
(3) 52
(4) 51
Directions (Q.102 & Q.103) : Read the following statements to answer these questions.
Nine cricket fans are watching a match in a stadium. Seated in one row, they are J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, and
R. Lis at the right of M and at third place at the right of N. K is at one end of the row. Q is immediately next to
O and P. O is at the third place at the left of K. J is right next to left of O.
Q.102 Who is sitting in the centre of the row.
(1) L
(2) O

(3) J

Q.103 Which of the following statement is true ?

(1) R and P are neighbours
(3) M is at extreme end

(2) There is one person between L and O

(4) N is two seats away from J

(4) Q

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Q.104 How many triangles and squares are there in the following figure ?

(1) 26 triangles, 5 squares

(3) 26 triangles, 6 squares

(2) 28 triangales, 5 squares

(4) 28 triangales, 6 squares

Q.105 A and B are married couple. X and Y are brothers. X is the brother of A. How Y is related to B ?
(1) Brother
(2) Brother-in-law
(3) Son
(4) Son-in-law
Direction (Q.106 and 107) : In the following diagram, the triangle stands for Hindi-speaking people, circle
for French-speaking, square for English-speaking and rectangle for German-speaking. Study the diagram
carefully and answer the following questions.
H
F
G

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Q.106 In the above diagram, which one of the following statement is true?
(1)All French-speaking people speak Hindi also.
(2)All German-speaking people speak English and Hindi.
(3)All French-speaking people speak English also.
(4) None of these
Q.107 In the diagram, which one of the following statement is true?
(1) There are some people who speak all four languages.
(2)All Hindi-speaking people who speak French but not German.
(3) Some German-speaking people can speak either Hindi or English
(4) Some English speaking people cannot speak all the language

Q.108 If BEAUTY is coded as YVZFGB, then CHARM is coded as

(1) XSINZ
(2) XSZIN
(3) ZINSX

(4) BGZQL

Q.109 Choose the correct venn diagram for the following

Indian,Asian,Actors

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

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Q.110 In the following question, a matrix of certain characters is given. These characters follow a certain trend, rowwise or column-wise. Find out this trend and choose the missing character from the given alternative
13
17
25
29

(1) 7

12 5
15 8
24 ?
21 20

(2) 9

(3) 11

(4) 15

Directions (Q.111 & 112) : Seven poles A, B, C, D, E, F and G are put in such a way that the distance
between the next two decreases by 1 metre. The distance between the first two poles, A and B, is
10 metres. Now answer the following questions ?
Q.111 If the authorities decide to remove one pole and place the remaining one equal distances among the poles, then
each set of two poles should be ......... metres apart.
(1) 8

1
2

(2) 7

1
2

(3) 9

(4) None of these

Q.112 If a monkey hops from pole G to pole C, then how much distance did it cover ?
(1) 26m
(2) 19m
(3) 22m
(4) None of these
Q.113 Choose the alternative which most closely resembles the water - image of the given combination.
(X)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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Q.114 Choose the alternative which most closelyresembles the mirror image of the following
AN 5 4 W M G 3
(1)
N
(2)
MW
A
(3) 3
(4)
Directions (Q.115 to Q.117) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Adhir Mishra has three children, Urmila, Raghu and Sumit. Sumit married Roma, the eldest daughter of Mr.
and Mrs. Mohan. The Mohans married their youngest daughter to the eldest son of Mr. and Mrs. Sharma and
they had two children Sandeep and Shaifali. The Mohans have two more children, roshan and Bimla, both
elder to Sheila. Sohan and Shivendar are sons of Sumit and Roma. Leela is the daughter of Sandeep.
Q.115 How is Mrs. Mohan related to Sumit ?
(1)Aunt
(2) Mother-in-law

(3) Mother

(4) Sister-in-law

Q.116 What is the surname of Sohan ?

(1) Sharma
(2) Mohan

(3) Mishra

(4) Raghu

Q.117 What is the surname of Leela?

(1) Sharma
(2) Mohan

(3) Mishra

(4) None of these

Q.118 Count the number of triangles and squares in the following figure:

(1) 28 triangles, 10 squares

(3) 32 triangles, 10 squares

(2) 28 triangles, 8 squares

(4) 32 triangles, 8 squares
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Directions (Q.119 to Q.122) : Select the figure which will continue the series established by the problem
figures.

Q.119

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q.120

Q.121

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Q.122

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q.123 In the following question the problem figure II has certain relationship with I. Find the figure that would have
same relation with figure III.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

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Direction (Q.124 & Q.125)

In each question below are given two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to
take the given two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonlyknown facts. Read
the conclusion and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two given statements,
disregarding commonlyknown facts.
Q.124 Statements : Some engineers are fools.Anand is an engineer.
Conclusions : I. Some fools are engineers.
II. Anand is a fool.
(1) if only conclusion I follows;
(2) if only conclusion II follows;
(3) if either conclusion I or II follows;
(4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows;

Q.125 Statements : Some bricks are trees. All trees are pens. All pens are boats.
Conclusions : I. Some boats are bricks.
II. Some pens are bricks.
III. Some trees are bricks.
IV. Some bricks are boats.
(1) Only I and II follow
(2) Only III and IV follow
(3) None follows
(4)All follow

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ROUGH WORK