Professional Documents
Culture Documents
WEEKEND-12
BOTANY
1) Find out the false statements
(1) The end of reproductive phase can be
considered as one of the parameters of senescence
or old age
(2) Hormones are responsible for the transition
between jevenile phase and reproductive phase
(3) Many of the mammals are continous breeders
(4) Always in sexual reproduction two organisms
are involved.
2) Which of the following sequences correctly
represents the series of events that take place during
sexual reproduction?
(1) Gametogenesis - Gamete transfer - Fertilisation
Zygote formation - Embryogenesis
2) Gamete transfer - Fertilisation-Gametogenesis Zygote formation - Embryogenesis
(3) Fertilisation - Zygote formation
Gametetransfer - Gameto genesis -Embryogenesis
(4)Zygote formation - Gametetransfer Embryogenesis - Fertilisation
Gametogenesis
3) Which of the following statement is correct
regarding the bisexual conditions in plants?
(1) Homothallic and monoecious terms are used to
describe bisexual condition in plants.
(2) Heterothallic and dioecious terms used to
describe bisexual condition in plants
(3)Heterothallic and monoecious terms are used to
describe unisexual condition in plants
(4) Homothallic and dioecious terms are used to
describe unisexual condition in plants
4) The ratio of synergids and antipodals in
embryosac
(1) 2 : 3
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 1 : 1
(4) 4 : 1
5) Identify correct match.
(1) Orthotropous Polygonum
(2) Ategmic ovule - Opuntia
(3) Hemianatropous ovules - Brassica
(4) Unitegmic and Amphitropous ovules Helianthus.
DT: 13/09/2015
6) For the production of last cells of gametophytes
in flowering plants
(1) First cells of sporophyte have to undergo
meiosis which is followed by mitosis
(2) Last cell of sporophyte have to udergo
mitosis followed by meiosis
(3) First cell of gametophyte has to udergo
mitosis
(4) Last Cells of sporophyte have to undergo
mitosis only
7) Needle like pollengrains are seen in
(1) Vallisneria
(2) Pinus
(3) Zostera
(4) Ceratophyllum
8) Assertion(A): Hydrophily is seen in all
hydrophytes.
Reason(R): In Vallisneria pollination occurs on
surface of water
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
9) Assertion(A): The ratio between mitotic
divisions before and after pollination during the
development of male gametophyte is 1 : 1 in
over 60% of Angiosperms
Reason(R): One mitotic division occurs with in
stamen and other after reaching stigma.
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false
10) The body of the ovule is perpendicular to
funicle initially but during further growth, the
micropyle and funicle become closer in
(1) Circinotropous
(2) Campylotropous
(3) Hemianatropous
(4) Anatropous
11) The total number of genomes present in all the
nuclei of Polygonum tpe of embryosac after the
fusion of polar nuclei with each other is
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 5
(4) 3
12) A cell of the embryosac of angiosperm which is
initially dikaryotic and haploid and later becomes
uninucleate and diploid is
(1) Egg cell
(2) Synergid
(3) Antipodal cell
(4) Central cell
13) Ratio of vegetative cells in the male and female
gametophytes of an angiosperm plant respectively
(1) 3 : many
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1
14) Starting with microspore mother cells, what is
the least number of meiotic and mitotic divisions
(respectively) that should occur for the formation
of 500 male gemetes in an angiosperm
(1) 65 & 500
(2) 63 & 252
(3) 63 & 500
(4) 63 & 504
15) Ategmic ovules do not have
A) Integuments
B) Necellus
C) Micropyle
D) Embryosac
(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) C and D
16) Multicarpellary apocarpous gynoecium present
in
(1) Hibiscus
(2) Papaver
(3) Bean
(4) Michelia.
17) Assertion(A): Distribution of Bryophytes and
pteridophytes is limited
Reason(R): Bryophytes and pteridophytes need
for water for the transport of malegametes
and fertilization
(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true
18)Match the following
LIST A
LIST B
A)Ornithophily
i) Birds
B) Chiropterophily
ii) Squirrels
C) Ophiophily
iii) Bats
D) Therophily
iv) Snakes
(1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(1) Cocos
(2) Tridax
(3) Hibiscus
(4) Yucca
25) How many times primary micropylar nucleus
divides mitotically during the development of
polygonum type of embryosac in angiosperm
(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 2
(4) Several
26) Asymmetric spindle is formed during the
development of
(1) Male gametophyte of angiosperms
(2) Endosperm from PEN
(3) Embryo from zygote
(4) Female gametophyte( embryosac)
27) Centrifugal arrangement of various layers in
anther wall is
A) Endothecium
B) Epidermis
C) Tapetum
D) Middle layers
(1) CDAB
(2) BADC
(3) CDBA
(4) BACD
28) The stored pollen can be used as pollen banks
when stored under the following conditions
ZOOLOGY
41) Study the statements and choose correct
statements
A) Any natural habitat on earth that is
inhabited Just by a single species? There is
no such habitat and such a situation is
imaginable
B) It is obvious that in nature animals, plants
and microbes do not live in isolation but
cannot interact in various ways
C) Even in minimal communities many
interactive linkages exist, although all are
visible
(1) A only
(2) B only (3) C only
(4) None
42) One species is harmed but the other is
unaffected. This interaction is
(1) Parasitism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Amensalism
(4) All
43) In these associations the interacting species
live close together
(1) Predation
(2) Parasitism
(3) Commensalism
(4) All
44) For plants herbivores are
(1) Commensels
(2) Parasites
(3) Predators
(4) Hosts
45) Cattle or goats do not browse calotropis
because of the presence of chemical in it
46)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Gause
i) Inter specific competition
B) Connell
ii) Competitive release
C) Mac Arthur
iii) Competitive exclusion
D) Darwin
iv) Co-existence
A
B
C
D
1)
i
ii
iii
iv
2)
iii
ii
i
iv
3)
iii
ii
iv
i
4)
iv
iii
ii
i
47) Nearly 25% of all insects are known to be
(1) Parasites
(2) Symbionts
(3) Phytophagous
(4) None
48) In some shallow South American lakes visiting
flamingos and resident fishes compete for their
common food, in shallow waters is an example
for
(1) Competitive release
(2) Co-existence
(3) Interference competition
(4) Competitive exclusion
49) Mac Arthur showed that five closely related
species of warblers living on the same tree is an
example of
(1) Co-existence
(2) Resource partitioning
(3) Behavioral differences in their foraging
activities
(4) All
50) In some shallow South American lakes using
Flamingors and resident Fishes complete for their
common food which is
(1) Suspended zooplankton
(2) Suspended phytoplankton
(3) Suspended small fish
(4) Suspended algae
51) Which of the following appear to be more
adversely affected by competition than carnivores
(1) Herbivores
(2) Plants
(3) Omnivores
(4) 1 & 2
52) Whose experiments prove competitive release
(1) MacArthur
(2) Gause
(3) Darwin
(4) Connell
53) Which organism pollinates the flowers of the
fig plant while searching for suitable egg-laying
sites
(1) Bee
(2) Bumble bee bat
(3) Female wasp
(4) All
54) The Mediterranean orchid ophrys employ
which trick to get pollination by specific species
of bee
(1) Sexual deceit
(2) Co-evolution
(3) Releases phenemones
(4) Offer juicy stamens
55)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Sexual deceit
i) Petal of ophrys
B) Developing seeds as
ii) Partner wasp
food for developing
wasp larvae
C) Male bee is attracted by iii) Mediterranean
Orchid ophrys
D) Sea-anemone
iv) Clown fish
v) Fig species
A
B
C
D
1)
iii
v
i
iv
2)
iii
v
i
ii
3)
ii
v
iii
iv
4)
iv
v
ii
i
56) Cattle egret (a kind of bird) and grazing cattle
living in close association is a classic example of
(1) Parasitism
(2) Commensalism
(3) Mutualism
(4) Amensalism
57) Snail and fish are the two intermediate hosts to
completes its life cycle in case of
(1) Human tapeworm
(2) Plasmodium
(3) Human liverfluke
(4) None
58) Plants offer Juicy and nutrients fruits as fees for
(1) Pollination
(2) Seed dispersal
(3) Nourishment
(4) Protection
59)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Mutualism
i) MacArthur
B) Commensalism
ii) Lichen
C) Brood parasitism
iii) Koel & crow
D) Co-existance
iv) Custa & hedge
Plant
v) Sea Anemone & clown fish
A
B
C
D
1)
ii
v
iii
i
2)
ii
v
iii
iv
3)
iv
v
iii
i
4)
i
ii
iii
v
60) The zone of lake that has no contact with the
bottom of lake
(1) Profundal zone (2) Littoral zone
(3) Limnetic zone (4) Benthic zone
61)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Emengent vegetation
i) Pistia,wolffia,
Lemna, Azolla
B) Rooted plants with
ii) Live in open
Floating leaves
waters
C) Submerged plants
iii) Typha,scirpus,
sagiltaria
D) Free floating
iv) Hydrilla,chara,
Potamogeton
E) Pedonic forms
v) Nymphea,
Nelumbo
F) Limnetic forms
vi) Neuston
vii) Live at bottom
of lake
A
B
C
D
E
F
1)
iii
v
iv
i
vii
vi
2)
ii
v
iv
i
vii
iii
3)
iii
v
iv
i
vii
ii
4)
ii
iii
iv
v
vi
vii
5)
iii
iv
v
I
vii
ii
6)
I
iv
ii
iii
v
vi
62) The imaginary line that separates the limnetic
zone from profundal zone is
(1) Zone of compensation
(2) Compensation point
(3) Light compensation level
(4) All
63) Diatoms, green algae, euglenoids, and
dinoflagellates are
(1) Phytoplankton of Littoral zone
(2) Consumers of littoral zone
(3) Zooplankton of liltoral zone
(4) None
64) The animals that rest on or move on the bottom
of the lake constitute
(1) Phytoplankton
(2) Zooplankton
(3) Benthos
(4) Periphyton
65) Hot type of deserts and cold type of deserts
seen in respectively
(1) Ladakh and Rajasthan
2)
ii
v
iii
iv
vi
3)
vi
v
iv
iii
ii
4)
ii
iii
iv
v
vi
72) Zooplanktonic organisms of Limnetic zone of a
lake
(1) Fishes
(2) Red annelids
(3)Copepods
(4) Chaoborous
73)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Areas less than
i) Grassland Ecosystem
25 cm rainfall
B) Himalayan region ii) Desert
C) Tropical rain forest iii) Ladak
D) Cold type of desert iv) Hot type
v) Forest ecosystem
A
B
C
D
1)
ii
i
iv
iii
2)
ii
i
v
iii
3)
ii
v
i
iv
4)
ii
iv
iii
v
74)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Begin with dead i) Major conduit for energy
Organic matter
flow in Aquatic ecosystem
B) Meet Nutrient
ii) Major conduit for energy
Requirements by flow in terrestrial
ecosystem
degrading detritus
C) GFC
iii) DFC
D) DFC
iv) Saprotrophs
A
B
C
D
1)
iv
iii
i
ii
2)
ii
iii
i
iv
3)
iii
iv
i
ii
4)
i
ii
iii
iv
75) Study the following and pick the correct
statements
A) DFC is connected with GFC at some levels
B) Some of the organisms of DFC may form the
prey of the GFC animals
C) The earthworm of DFC may become the food
of the birds of the GFC
D) It is to be understood that food chains are
isolated always
(1) A & B only
(2) B & C only
(3) C & D only
(4) A,B & C only
76) The natural inter connections of food chains
form a network called
(1) DFC (2) GFC (3) Food web (4) All
77)
LIST A
A) Source of energy of all
Ecosystems on earth
B) Source of energy of
deep Sea ecosystem
C) Entropy
D) Standing crop
LIST B
i) Biomass per unit
area
ii) Energy not
available for work
iii) Energy flow
iv) Sun
v) Chemical energy
A
B
C
D
1)
iv
v
ii
i
2)
v
iv
ii
i
3)
ii
i
v
iv
4)
iv
v
ii
iii
78) The earliest and most widely used measures of
ecological efficiency is explained by
(1) Gauses rule of trophic efficiency
(2) Lindermans rule of trophic efficiency
(3) Lindemans rule of trophic efficiency
(4) Connells rule of trophic efficiency
79) If the NPP in produces is 300 KJ, calculate the
body mass of secondary carnivores of that
ecosystem
(1) 30 KJ
(2) 15 KJ (3) 1.5 KJ (4) 0.3KJ
80)
LIST A
LIST B
A) Rate production of biomass i) GPP-R
B) Rate of production of
ii) productivity
organic matter during
photosynthesis
C) NPP
iii) Standing crop
D) On average this percent
iv) GPP
of GPP is used for catabolic
activity
v) 20 25%
A
B
C
D
1)
ii
iv
i
v
2)
ii
iv
i
iii
3)
iii
iv
i
v
4)
i
ii
iii
iv
PHYSICS
101) The equation of motion of a particle executing
SHM is y = 2 sin ( + ) m. if the particle
2
s
3
(3) t = 5 s
6
1
s
3
(4) t = 8 s
9
(1) t =
(2) t =
d2 y
dt2
2
2
C
(4)
C
C
2
2 t
2
m. The maximum
(2)
(3) 1/(
- 1)
- 1)
(4)
-1
7
s
44 3
(3) 7 s
22
(1)
(2) 1/(
(2) 2
(3) 2 C
is y= 10cos
(1) 1
of oscillations is
(1)
(3) 2
(4)
(2)
(4)
(2) 2
m/s
3 m/ s
(4) 1 m/s
1
s
12
(4)
(2) 1 s
(3)
1
s
3
1
s
2
(1)
T
12
(2) T
(3)
T
4
(4)
7T
12
) m, where
6
) m. The amplitude
t+
3
(4) 2
3 cm
cm
(2)
m
(4)
3
3
m
/2 m
CHEMISTRY
(1) 54
(2) 36
(3) 180
(4) 18
124) 138 gms of ethyl alcohol is mixed with 72 gm
of water. The ratio of mole-fraction of alcohol to
water is
(1) 3:4
(2) 1:2
(3) 1:4
(4)1:1
125) The volume of two HCl solutions A(0.5N) and
B(0.1 N) to be mixed for preparing 2 lit. of 0.2 N
HCl solution
(1) 0.5, 1.5
(2) 1.5, 0.5
(3) 1,1
(4) 0.75,1.25
126) The molarity of water is
(1) 18
(2) 55.55
(3) 10
(4) 0.01
127) 250 ml of a solution contains 2.65 grams of
Na2CO3. 10 ml of this solution is added to x ml
of water to obtain 0.001 M Na2CO3 solution.
What is the value of x in ml?
(1) 1000
(2) 990
(3) 9990
(4)90
128) The volume of water to be added to convert 10
ml of decamolar HCl solution to deci molar
solution is
(1) 99 ml
(2) 100 ml
(3) 1000ml
(4) 990ml
(2) 0.1
(3)
17.1
100 (4) 1
106.2