3.

AIPG 2006 (DENTAL)

4.
7.
1.

All of the following are correct with regard to acute

necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, except:
1.
2.
3.
4.

2.

2.
3.
4.

The most common site of occurrence of lateral

periodontal cyst is1.
2.
3.
4.

4.

2.
3.
4.

3.
4.
9.

Elongated, large pulp chambers and short

roots.
Elongated, small pulp chambers and short
roots.
Elongated, small pulp chambers and large
roots.
Short, small pulp chambers and large roots.

3.

Requires least amount of mercury.

Achieves lowest compressive strength at 1 hr.

Liquefaction degeneration
Coagulation necrosis
Neoangiogenesis
Epithelial dysplasia

Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by:

1.
2.
3.
4.

13.

Single mix materials have higher viscosity

Shear thinning is related to viscosity of mono
phase impression material
Improper mixing of material can cause
permanent deformation of impression
Putty-wash technique of impression reduces
dimensional change on setting

Apoptosis is suggestive of:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Lambda.
Inion.
Pterion.
Vertex.

Which of the following statements is true regarding

lathe cut silver alloy?
1.
2.

4.

12.

Liquefies between 71-100C

Solidifies between 50-70C
Facilitates fabrication of metal dyes
Can not register fine surface details

Which of the following is not true about

elastomeric impression?
1.
2.

11.

Reduces contraction.
Increases the strength of lathe-cut alloy but
reduces the strength of spherical alloy
amalgam.
Decreases creep.
Gives a dull and crumbly amalgam mix.

Which of the following is true about Agar

hydrocolloid impression material?
1.
2.
3.
4.

10.

Can extend upto a depth of 100-500 m.

Decreases if tin content of alloy increases.
Is promoted by gama phase of alloy particles.
Is resisted the most by copper-tin phase in high
copper amalgams.

Over-trituration of silver alloy and mercury:

1.
2.

Between the mandibular cuspid and first

premolar.
Maxillary tuberosity area.
Between the maxillary premolars.
Mandibular third molar area.

Which one of the junction of the frontal, parietal,

temporal and greater wing of sphenoid?
1.
2.
3.
4.

6.

8.

In the taurodontism, the teeth exhibit:

1.

5.

Trauma to the tooth germ during root

development.
Abnormal displacement of tooth germ during
root development.
Abnormal proliferation of enamel epithelium
during tooth development.
Abnormal displacement of Ameloblasts during
tooth formation.

Corrosion of amalgam restoration: 1.

2.
3.
4.

Which one of the following is the cause of

dilacerations?
1.

3.

There is necrosis of the interdental papillae.

Sloughing of the necrotic tissue presents as a
pseudo membrane over the tissues.
It is associated with decreased resistance to
infection.
It causes chronic inflammation of the gingival.

Has tensile strength, both at 15 minutes and 7

days is comparable to high copper,
unicompositional alloys.
Has lower creep value

Acanthosis
Acantholysis
Auspitzs sign
Wickhams striae

Which one of the following is oral precancer?

1.
2.
3.

Oral hairy leukoplakia

While spongy nevus
Hairy B cell leukemia

4.

Speckeled leukoplakia
22.

14

1.
2.
3.
4.

1.
2.
3.
4.

Actinomyosis Actinobacillus
Borrelia vincentii
Streptococcus mutans
Streptococcus viridans
23.

15.

Radiographically
suggests:
1.
2.
3.
4.

16.

driven

appearance

Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour

Calcifying odontogenic cyst
Calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour
Keratocyst
24.

10
250
1/10
1/250

2.
3.
4.
26.

1.
2.
3.
4.
19.

Risk factors can be identified

It measures incidence
Used in the study of rare diseases
Required few subjects

1.
2.
3.
4.

3.
4.

Lower border of L1
Lower border of L3
Lower border of SI
Lower border of L5
27.

20.

Iron is present in all of the following EXCEPT;

1.
2.
3.
4.

21.

Myoglobin
Cytochrome
Catalase
Pyruvate Kinase

Calcium carbonate, calcium phosphate and

Calcium Sulphate
Sodium bicarbonate, aluminum oxide
Sodium lauryl sulplate and sodium lauryl
Succinate
Carboxymethyl cellulose, alginate amylase

Which of the following techniques would be the

best preventive measure for dental caries?
1.
2.

In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at:.

Sero Surveillance
Health Education & Information
Screening of blood and blood products
Banning of sexual contact with foreigners

Which of the following is used as a thickening

agent in dentifrices?
1.

Regarding case control study all the following are

correct, except:

Panel discussion
Symposium
Group discussion
Workshop

The National AIDS Control Program has the

following components, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.

25.

Standard error of mean

Standard error of difference of means
Standard error of proportions
Standard error of difference in proportions

In health education program, a group of 10 people

are planning to speak on a topic of common
interest. Which one of following is best educational
approach?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Tetracycline
Rh incompatibility
Neonatal liver disease
Vitamin C deficiency

If incidence = 50 cases/1000 population/year and

mean duration of disease 5 years, then prevalence
would be:
1.
2.
3.
4.

18

snow

Which of the following is not responsible for

endogenous staining of teeth during development?
1.
2.
3.
4.

17.

Square root of pg/n indicates:

The important microorganism for dentinal caries is

Elimination of sugars from the diet

Reduce frequency of intake of cariogenic food
stuffs
Rinse and swish with water after each meal
Substitution of alcohol based sugar for
sucrose

Which of the following factors in the Stephans

curve is related to the caries incidence and sugar
intake?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Physical form of sugar

Frequency of sugar intake
pH of plaque
Quantity of sugar intake

Break point chlorination means

28
1.
2.
3.
4.

Start of chlorination process

End of chlorination process
When free residual chlorine starts appearing
After partial saturation of water with chlorine

The prevalence of dental caries in a community in

the year 2000 and 200 was 11% and 38%
respectively the incidence of caries of the same
population in three years would be

1.
2.
3.
4.

38%
20%
10%
56%

2.
3.
4.
36.

29.

The mean DMFT values for 12 year old school

children is 2/5. 68% of the population has DMFT
values 2 and 3. The standard deviation for the
population is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

30.

4.

38.

1. Arbitrary face bow

2. Kinemetic face bow
Either arbitrary or kinemetic face bow
4. An Ear bow only

Modified ridge lap

Ridge lap
Ovoid
Sanitary

41.
1.
2.
3.
4.
34.

Vacuum in posterior part of palate

Vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
Partial vacuum beneath the maxillary denture
A close adaptation of maxillary denture at
tuberosity

42.

1.

Soft palatal tissue

43

Epulis Granuloma
Epulis Fissuratum
Papillary Hyperplasia
Pyogenic Granuloma

Beading of the rigid major connector is done to:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Anterior vibrating line is located on:

Centric occlusion
Centric relation
Lateral excursion
Terminal Hinge Position

Tissue reaction that is common due to

overextension of labial flanges of complete denture
is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

The correctly placed posterior palatal seal creates

1.
2.
3.
4.

35.

Zinc oxide eugenol

Addition silicon
Condensation silicon
Plaster of Paris

Shallow
Decreased and flat
Increased and prominent
Reversed

Only pure hinge movements of the mandible occur

at:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Impression material of choice in patients with

submucous fibrosis is:

Short clinical crown height

Root formation is not completed
Pulp horns are wide and high
Maintenance of oral hygiene is difficult

For a balanced occlusion when condylar inclination

is increased the compensating curve should be
1.
2.
3.
4.

40.

Shoulder
Chamfer
Shoulder with bevel
Depends upon operators choice

All ceramic crowns are not indicated for young

children because of:
1.
2.
3.
4.

39

An improper extension of denture base

A deflective occlusal contacts
A high vertical dimension
An over extended denture flanges

The most suitable margin design for porcelain

crown is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

To replace a missing canine, the best pontic design

is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

33.

37.

To transfer the axis orbital plane we require:

3.
32.

Scaling & polishing and filling.

Extractions, RCT and periodontal
Wearing gloves and sterilization of the
instruments
Replacements of lost teeth and orthodontic
treatment

A edentulous patient has a complaint that his

denture becomes loose several hours after wearing,
this indicates:
1.
2.
3.
4.

An example for primary prevention of dental

diseases is:
1.
2.
3.

31.

0.5
1
2
3

Hard palatal tissue

Either on soft or hard palatal tissue
Posterior to fovea palatini

Increase the rigidity

Produce a positive contact with the tissue
Increase the retention of RPD
Improve the esthetics

The first step in major connector construction is

1.
2.
3.
4.
44.

3.
4.

52.

53.

55.

Hot salt sterilizer

Chemical solutions
Autoclaving
Dry Heat

The most important aspect of emergency treatment

for an acute apical abscess is to:
1.
2.
3.
4.

57.
49.

A polyp may arise in connection

1.
2.
3.
4.

50.

Chronic open pulpitis

Pulp necrosis
Acute pulpitis
A chronic periapical lesion

58.
Increase the strength of the restoration
Improved marginal adaptation
To prevent the fracture of enamel
To prevent the fractures of amalgam

12 hours
1-2 days
3-5 days
One week

Creep value of which of the following is the

highest?
Low copper amalgam alloy
Admix alloy
Single composition alloys
Creep value of all the-mentioned alloys is
same

Which of the following cements bonds to tooth

structure, which has an anticariogenic effect, has a
degree of translucency and does not irritate the
pulp?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Beveling the pulpoaxial line angle of a class II

cavity is done to:
1.
2.
3.
4.

1. Is in response to ageing
2. Does not relate to the periodontal condition
3. Precedes internal resorption
4. Indicates presence of additional canal
How soon after contamination by moisture does
zinc containing amalgam restoration start
expanding?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Produce sedation
Establish drainage
Maintain obturations
Adjust the occlusion

Pain of pulpal origin

Pulp necrosis
Periodontal pain
Referred pain

Calcification of pulp

1.
2.
3.
4.
56.

Facilitate canal medication

Provide good access for irrigation
Aid in locating canal orifices
Provide straight line access to the apex

A cold test best localizes

1.
2.
3.
4.

54

Ether
Chloroform
Superoxol
Sodium hypochlorite

The primary function of access openings is to:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Gutta Percha can effectively be sterilized by

1.
2.
3.
4.

48.

Prevents displacement of restoration

Permits the restorations of withstand occlusal
forces
Allows adequate instrumentation
Allows the restoration to withstand occlusal
forces and prevent displacement

Which one of the following is used to bleach a

discovered, endodontically treated tooth?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Gingival third
Occlusal third
Middle third
Junction of middle and gingival third

The resistance form is that shape of cavity which:

1.
2.

47.

Establishment of guiding plane

Establishment of undercuts for retention
Establishment of tooth contour for esthetics
Establishment of interference for major
connector

The terminal end of retentive arm of extra coronal

retainer is placed at:
1.
2.
3.
4.

46.

51.

The first step in surveying the cast for Removable

Partial Denture is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

45.

Design of stress bearing area

Design to non stress bearing area
Making the outline of the strap line
Selection of the strap type

Polycarboxylate cement
Resin cement
Silicate cement
Glass lonomer cement

The microorganism causing smooth surface dental

caries is:
1.
2.

Streptococcus viridians
Streptococcus mutans

3.
4.
59

Electric pulp tests may not be performed on

patients who have
1.
2.
3.
4.

60.

Streptococcus salivarius
Lactobacillus

3.
4.
67.

Hip Implant
Pace maker
Dental Implant
Prosthetic eye

1.
2.
3.
4.
68.

Angle former
Hoe
Hatchet
Spoon excavator

1. 6mm
2. 6.3mm
3. 6.5mm
4. 5.9mm
For root canal therapy of maxillary canine (Distal
caries), the isolation done is:
2nd Premolar to opposite lateral incisor
1st molar to opposite lateral incisor
Adjacent 2 teeth of both the sides
Not required, only the tooth to be treated

70

71

1.
2.
3.
4.
65

The lowest blood mercury level at which the

earliest non specific symptom starts appearing at
1.
2.
3.
4.

66

45-55%
55-65%
65-85%
>85%

25 ng/ml
35 ng/ml
40 ng/ml
45 nglml

In which condition papilla preservation flap is

indicated
1.
2.

lnfrabony defects
One walled defects

Enamel
Dental Caries
Dental plaque
Saliva

Incipient or recurrent caries can be detected before

they are visible on the radiograph by:
1.
2.
3.
4.

74.

Wilson
Willet
Wilhem
Roche

The bioflims found on tooth surfaces are termed as:

1.
2.
3.
4.

73.

Bowen in 1974
Clarke
Cvek in 1978
WilIetin 1980

Distal Shoe was first advocated by whom in t929?

1.
2.
3.
4.

72.

Mac Conkey medium

Mitis Salivarius Bacitracin Agar
Nutrient Agar
Tellurite medium

The patient pulpotomy technique was advocated by

1.
2.
3.
4.

20%
50%
80%
100%

What fraction of inhaled mercury vapor is retained

in the body?

The most used selective medium for Streptococcus

Mutans is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

How much fraction of methyl mercury is absorbed

from the gut?
1.
2.
3.
4.

64.

2 hours
3 hours
4 hours
Indefinitely

The distance between 2 holes in a rubber dam

sheet is ideally:

1.
2.
3.
4.
63.

To help overall healing

Prevention of epithelial migration
To stop bleeding
To prevent the underlying tissues from the
infection

Avulsed tooth may be stored in saliva for upto:

1.
2.
3.
4.

69.

62.

Which one of the following is the role of barrier

membrane in GTR?

Instrument that has a 4-digit formula

1.
2.
3.
4.

61.

Horizontal bone loss in upper anterior teeth

Crater types of bony defect

Visible light
Ultrasonic light
Fibreoptic transillumination
Digital Imaging fibreoptic transillurnination

Stainless steel crowns are contraindicated in:

1.
2.
3.

Medically compromised patient (VSD, ASO)

After endodontic therapy
Rampant caries

4.
75

The first community water fluoridation was carried

out in
1.
2.
3.
4.

76

78.

79

84

Amelogenesis imperfecta
Tetracycline hypoplasia
Fluorosis
Osteogenesis imperfecta

Necrotic area
Subdermal layer
Border of an ulcerated area
Centre of an ulcerated area

Metronidazole
Penicillin
Sanguinarine
Tetracycline

88.
Cellular respiration
Cellular oxidation
Cell wall synthesis
Cellular division

Hyperparathyroidim
Hodgkins disease
Multiple myeloma
Christians syndrome

4.
89

90.
1.
2.

Gardners syndrome
Oster Rendu Weber syndrome

Deep pockets
Severe periodontal attachment loss
Nature of the inflammatory changes in the
pocket wall
Shallow pockets

An advanced diagnostic technique, which has been

suggested as an alternative to culture methods, is
1.
2.
3.
4.

The syndrome which is associated with

predisposition to the development of carcinoma of
oral mucous membrane is:

Only the pocket depth

Only the CEJ
CEJ and pocket depth
Furcation involvement

Purulent exudation from the gingival sulci is an

indication of:
1.
2.
3.

Bence Jones protein found in the urine may be

suggestive of:
1.
2.
3.
4.

The electronic probing system Foster Miller

Probe detects:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Pencillin exerts its effect on bacteria by interfering

with:
1.
2.
3.
4.

82.

The Local Drug Delivery system ELYZOL

contains:
1.
2.
3.
4.

87.

81.

Le-Fort II fracture
Le-Fort III fracture
Naso ethemoidal complex fracture
Le-Fort I fracture

A specimen for a biopsy should be taken from

1.
2.
3.
4.

80.

Submentovertex view
Occipitomental view
Lateral view of skull
Postero - anterior view of skull

Bilateral subconjunctival ecchymosis is not

associated with:
1.
2.
3.
4.

86.

Symphysis
Bilateral angles
Bilateral condyles
Unilaterat condyle

Zygomatic arch fractures are best seen in

1.
2.
3.
4.

85.

Sturge Weber syndrome

Plummer Vinson syndrome

Anterior open bite occurs in fracture of

1.
2.
3.
4.

Ischemic heart disease (IHD)

Hypertension
Congestive cardiac failure
Congenital heart disease

Blue sclera is characteristic of:

1.
2.
3.
4.

83

Referred pain
Orthodontic treatment
Recurrent pericoronitis
Chronic periodontal disease

The antibiotic cover is mandatory before

extraction in the following condition of the heart:
1.
2.
3.
4.

3.
4.

1945, Colorado
1945, Grand Rapids
1945, Oak Park
1045, Evanston

The most common reason for the removal of

impacted mandibular third molars
1.
2.
3.
4.

77.

Amelogenesis Imperfecta

Phase contrast microscopy

Direct immunofluorescence
Latex agglutination
Indirect immunofluorscent microscope assays

The pocket epithelium shows a series of

histopathological changes. Which of the following
is true in this regard?

1.
2.
3.
4.
91.

98.

Clay like
Flint like
Brick like
Soft

99

2.
3.
4.

Interdental papillae appear bulbous but facial

9Ifl9!v is not affected
Interdental papillae and facial gingiva both are
enlarged
Interdental gingiva marginal gingiva and
attached gingiva all are enlarged
Both marginal gingiva and at gingival are
enlarged

Which of the following is the diagnostic

characteristic of peripheral giant cell granuloma?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Mass of granulation tissue

Multinuclear giant cells
Keliod like enlargement
Epithelium is atrophic in some areas

1.

How many osseous walls are present in onewalled vertical defects?

1.
2.
3.
4.

95.

What do you understand by Isograft?

1.
2.
3.
4.

96

3.

One wall present

Two wall present
Three wall present
Four wall present

4.

102.

Bone taken from same individual

Bone taken from generally similar individual
Bone taken from identical twin
Bone taken from the same individual

103
1.
2.
3.
4.
97

1%
2%
3%
4%

Lower
Slightly higher
Significantly higher
About the same

One of the greatest advantages of using extraoral

anchorage is that
1.
2.

Which microorganism has 90% presence in

localized aggressive periodontitis?

3.

1.
2.

4.

Spirochetes
P Gingival is

Maintained until the premolar root is 213

developed
Closed slightly to accommodate the smaller
premolar
Ignored, because the second premolar will
erupt in a short time
Left untreated, because the difference in size
between the primary molar and the premolar
will compensate for any drifting that might
occur

Relative to a heterogeneous population, the

incidence of malocclusion in a homogeneous
population generally is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Which percentage of sodium fluoride is used in

iontophoresis?

Tooth to tooth
Bone to bone
Tooth to bone
Soft palate to gingiva

An 8 year old child with normal tooth calcification

and eruption has primary mandibular second molar
extracted. The resulting space should be:

2.
94.

Marginal gingivitis
Gingival fibrosis
Ulcerative gingiva
Fulminating periodontitis

Cephalometrics is useful in assessing all of the

following relationships EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.

101.

Intra-oral radiograph
Digital intra-oral radiography
Orthopantamograph
Spiral Computed Tomography

Which of the following soft tissue responses may

occur as a reaction to orthodontic bands?
1.
2.
3.
4.

100.

P Inter media
A Actinomyecetemcomitans

Which radiographic technique gives threedimensional view of the alveolar bony defects?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Which type of gingival enlargement is seen in

puberty?
1.

93.

3.
4.

The consistency of the sub gingival calculus is

described to be
1.
2.
3.
4.

92

Necrotic changes
Proliferative changes
Degenerative changes
Proliferative and degenerative changes

More force can be applied

It has direct reciprocal action on the opposing
arch
It permits posterior movement of teeth in one
arch without adversely dirsturbing the opposite
arch
It can be used for all type of malocclusion

104.

The Supervision of a childs development of

occlusion is most critical at ages:
1.
2.
3.
4.

105.

113

2.
3.
4.

Frontal zone
S-N plane
Mandibular plane
Occlusal plane

109.

Malocclusion representing a transverse deficiency

is often referred to as:
1.
2.
3.
4.

110.

Open bite
Closed bite
Cross bite
Deep bite

Which of the following cephalometric landmarks is

not a midline structure?

Second molar
Central incisor
Canine
First molar

Anchorage obtained from the nape of the neck

represents:
1.
2.
3.
4.

117.

Pressure and tension zones from in the

periodontal ligament
Force is applied tin the tooth
Osteoclasts create undermining resorption
Tooth moves by direct resorption

The tooth that is used to identify the type of

occlusion universally is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

116.

An oversized lower jaw

Teeth that dont touch when jaw is frilly closed
Spacing between the teeth
Crowded teeth

The first reaction that takes lace an orthodontist

attempts active tooth movement with a removable
appliance is
1.

115.

Activation of the spring

Increase the force
Decrease the force
Decrease the stiffness of the wire

Which aspect of malocclusion is the most common

among Indian population?
1.
2.
3.
4.

114

Fracture of the wire

Permanent deformation
Spring back
Increase In stiffness

The purpose of incorporation of a coil into a

cantilever spring is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Frontal zone
Hyalanized zone
Undermining zone
Clear zone

Which is the most often and most stable used plane

for the superimposition of lateral cephalograms in
studying the?
1.
2.
3.
4.

112.

Nasion
Menton
Sella
Gonion

Which one of the following is the result of

applying a load to a wire below its modulus of
elasticity on a load deflection diagram?
1.
2.
3.
4.

a&b
a, b, & d
b, c ,& e
c&e

The histological section of tooth under orthodontic

force representing an a vascular area in the
periodontal ligament is often referred as:
1.
2.
3.
4.

108.

Initially be Class II
Initially be Class Ill
Immediately assume a normal relationship
Erupt immediately into an end-to-end
relationship

Read the following carefully:

Spheno-occipital synchondrosis suture
Mandibular condyle
Frontomaxillary
Nasal septum
Alveolar process
Which of the following are sites of cartilaginous
growth postnatally?
1.
2.
3.
4.

107.

111.

With a flush terminal plane, permanent first molars

will:
1.
2.
3.
4.

106.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

3-6 years
7-10 years
11-14 years
14-l7years

1.
2.
3.
4.

Occipital anchorage
Cervical anchorage
Facial anchorage
Parietal anchorage

Which of the following is the most important factor

to be considered before attempting to dose a
midline diastema using a removable appliance?
1.

The size of the teeth

2.
3.
4.
118.

4.
125.

The Y-axis is also known as growth axis because:

1.
2.
3.
4.

119.

Age of the patient

Vitality of the teeth
Amount of overjet

Its axis is parallel to patients growth in height

It is an indicator of the direction of growth
pattern
It is an indicator of the amount of facial
growth
It increases in size as the growth increases

127.

120

Considering the growth of the face in all three

planes growth ceases last in which direction?
1.
2.
3.
4.

121.

123.

124.

131.

Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour

Pindborg tumour
Odontogenic myxoma

1. Calcium hydroxide
2. Zinc phosphate cement
3. Zinc oxide eugenol
4. Zinc oxide eugenol and formocresol
A diagnosis of small occlusal cavities is most
readily made by
Bite wing radiographs
Periapical radiographs
Tran illumination
An explorer and compressed air

An affected male infant born to normal parents

could be an example of all of the following,
EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.

132.

Hyper parathyroidism
Fibrous dysplasia
Condensing Osteitis
Osteoporosis

A radiopaque line is observed in the dentin

underlying a three month old Class II amalgam
restoration. Which of the following bases was used
in this restoration?

1.
2.
3.
4.

Vagus nerve
Facial nerve
Trigeminal nerve
Glossopharyngeal nerve

Which of the following is a tumor of odontogenic

epithelium with duct like structures and structures
and well encapsulated lesion that prevents need for
block resection?
1.
2.
3.

130

270 to 285
300 to 320
350 to 375
200 to 250

Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated

by:
1.
2.
3.
4.

129.

Mesiodens
Incisor with talon/cusp
Mandibular first molar
Maxillary premolars

Ground glass appears in bone is seen in:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Transcranial
Transethmoidal
Transphenoidal
Transcallosal

The normal range of serum osmolality (in Osm/L)

is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

128.

Premolars
Premolars
Lateral incisors
Maxillary canine

Taurodontism is usually seen in:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Antero posterior
Sagittal
Transverse
Vertical

The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery

at the present time is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

122.

Intrusion of tooth
Extrusion of tooth
Rotation of tooth
Breakage of Bracket

>2cm
>4cm
<4cm
>4cm with invasion of adjacent structure

Dense in dente is most commonly seen in:

1.
2.
3.
4.

If an edgewise bracket is not pressed completely on

to a tooth on the mesial side while bonding, the
side effect would be:
1.
2.
3.
4.

In TNM classification T stands for tumour size

1.
2.
3.
4.

126.

Ameloblastic fibroma

An autosomal dominant disorder

An autosomal recessive disorder
A polygenic disorder
A vertically transmitted disorder

A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the

face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and
developmental disability can have all of the
following, EXCEPT:
1.

A chromosomal syndrome

2.
3.
4.
133.

1.
2.

Autosomal dominant
Autonomic recessive
Xlinked dominant
Xlinked recessive

3.
4.
140.

Germinal
Somatic
Haemopoetic
Tumour

141.

1.
2.
3.
4.

Diarrhea
Lacrimation
Mydriasis
Excessive speech

142.

Which of the following inhalational agents is the

induction agent of choice in children?
1.
2.
3.
4.

137.

138.

144.

Morphine
Ketamine
Propofol
Diazepam

A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy

On the day of surgery he had running nose
temperature 3750 C and dry cough Which of the

Binds the antibiotic Rifampicin

Is inhibited by - amanitin
Specifically recognizes the promoter site.
Is part of the core enzyme

Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of

modified base?
1.
2.
3.
4.

146.

VLDL
Chylomicrons
HDL
LDL

The sigma (a) subunit of prokaryotic RNA

Polymerase:
1.
2.
3.
4.

145.

Of its large size

The vesicle looses is clathrin coat
Of the acidic pH of the vesicle
Of the basic pH of the vesicle

The human plasma lipoprotein containing the

highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Miosis
Exopthalmus
Nasal congestion
Conjunctiva redness

Which of the following intravenous induction

agents is the most suitable for day care surgery:
1.
2.
3.
4.

139

Methoxyflurane
Sevoflurane
Desfiurane
Isoflurane

Which of the following is not a sign of stellate

ganglion block?
1.
2.
3.
4.

143.

Is citrate dehydrogenises
Homocysteine methyl transferase
Glycogen synthase
0-6-P dehydrogenase

The ligand receptor complex dissociates in the

endosome because:
1.
2.
3.
4.

136.

Oxidase
Hydrolase
Peroxides
Dehydrogenase

Vitamin B12 acts as coenzyme to which one of the

following enzymes?
1.
2.
3.
4.

All are symptoms of opiate withdrawals EXCEPT:

Surgery should be cancelled

Can proceed for surgery if chest is clear and
there is no history of asthma
Should get X ray chest before proceeding to
surgery
Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be en
antibiotic

During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called

respiratory burst involves the activation of:
1.
2.
3.
4.

All of the following cell types contain the enzyme

which protects the length of telomerase at the end
of chromosomes, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.

135.

following should be the most appropriate decision

for surgery?

In a family, the father has widely spaced e

increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three
children has deafness with similar facial features.
The mother is normal. Which one of the following
is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case?
1.
2.
3.
4.

134.

A Teratogenic syndrome
A Mendelian syndrome
A polygenic syndrome

Mrna
tRNA
rRNA
snRNA

Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They

fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these
folded structures associate to form homo or

hetero dimers. Which one of the following refers

to this associated form?
1.
2.
3.
4.
147

The structural proteins are involved in maintaining

the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices
in the body. The shape of these proteins is
1.
2.
3.
4.

148

Denatured state
Molecular aggregation
Precipitation
Quaternary structure

4.
153

Globular
Fibrous
Stretch of Beads
Planar

The major purpose of randomization in a clinical

trial is to

155.

1.
2.
3.
4.
150.

Efficacy
Effectiveness
Efficiency
Effect modification

158.

Apolipoproteins
VLDL
HDL
Total lipoproteins

All the following are true in a randomized control

trial (RCT), EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.

Baseline characteristics of intervention arid

control groups should be s
Investigators bias is minimized by double
blinding
The sample size required depends on the
hypothesis

Hyponatremia
Hypocalcaemia
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesaemia

All of the following antibacterial agents act by

inhibiting cell wall synthesis EXCEPT
1.
2.
3.
4.

160.

Increased waist hip ratio

Hyperhomocysteinemia
Decreased fibrinogen levels
Decreased HDL levels

A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with

suicidal intent. She complains of generalized
muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte
abnormality is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

159

Fluorosis
Hypogonadism
Hyperthyrodism
Hyperparathyroidism

All of the following are risk factors for

atherosclerosis, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Which of the following is most strongly associated

with coronary heart disease?
1.
2.
3.
4.

152.

157.

Neck muscle involvement

Extra ocular muscle involvement
Dysphasia
Abdominal muscle involvement

All of the following are the known causes

ofosteoporosis EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.

When a drug is evaluated for its usefulness in

controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial
signifying?
1.
2.
3.
4.

151.

Achieve comparability between study and

control groups
Avoid observer bias
Avoid subject bias
Avoid observer and subject bias

Protease inhibitor
Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
Fusion inhibitor

Which of the following clinical findings excludes

the diagnosis of poliomyelitis?
1.
2.
3.
4.

156.

Rheumatoid arthritls
Psoriasis
Multicentric reticUlohistiocytosis
Systemic lupus erythematosus

Nevirapine is a:
1.
2.
3.
4.

1.
2.

149.

Facilitate double
Help ensure the study subjects are
representative of general population
3. Ensure the groups are comparable on base line
characteristics
4. Reduce selection bias in allocation to
treatment
The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is
to:

Joint erosions are not is feature of

1.
2.
3.
4.

154.

The dropouts from the trial should be excluded

from the analysis

Carbapenems
Monobactams
Cephamycins
Nitrofurantoin

A veterinary doctor has pyrexia of unknown origin.

His blood culture in special laboratory media was
positive for gram-negative short bacilli, which was

oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the

likely organism grown in culture:
1.
2.
3.
4.
161.

2.
3.
4.
162.

164.

Vancomycin
lmipenem
Teichoptanin
Linezolid

1.
2.
3.
4.

It occurs at the growing end of bone

Growth continues after skeletal maturity
It is covered by cartilaginous cap
Malignant transformation may occur

168.

Rugger Jersey Spine is seen in:

169.

1. Fluorosis
2. Achondroplasia
3. Renal Osteodystrophy
4. Marfans syndrome
Brown tumors are seen in;
1.
2.
3.
4.

170.

Which of the following malignant tumors is

radioresistant?
1.
2.
3.
4.

171.

Hyperparathyroid
Pigmented villonodular synovitis
Osteomalacia
Neurofibromatosis

Ewings sarcoma
Retinoblastoma
Osteosarcoma
Neuroblastoma

Middle meningeal artery is distal branch of

1.
2.
3.
4.

1.
2.
3.
4.

External carotid artery

Internal maxillary artery
Superficial temporal artery
Middle cerebral artery

Calcitonin is secreted by:

172

Thyroid gland
Parathyroid gland
Adrenal glands
Ovaries

173
Aneurismal bone cyst
Giant cell tumor
Fibrous cortical defect
Simple bone cyst

1.
2.
3.
4.

Increasing the osteoid formation

Increasing the mineralization of osteoid
Decreasing the osteoclast mediated resorption
of bone
Decreasing the parathyroid hormone secretion

174.

Anticipation
Mosaicism
Non penetrance
Genomic imprinting

Megaloblastic anemia due to folic acid deficiency

is commonly due to
1.
2.
3.
4.

Bisphosphonates act by:

Constitutional delay in growth

Genetic short stature
Primordial dwarfism
Hypopituitarism

The process underlying differences in expression

of a gene according which parent has transmitted is
called.
1.
2.
3.
4.

Which of the following conditions is least likely to

present as an eccentric osteolytic lesion?
1.
2.
3.
4.

166.

All the statements are true tout exostosis,

EXCEPT:

A child is below the third percentile for height. His

growth velocity is normal, but chronologic age is
more than skeletal age. The most likely diagnosis
is:

1.
2.
3.
4.
165.

M. tuberculosis is more pathogenic than M.

bovis to the humans
M. kansasii
can cause a disease
indistinguishable from tuberculosis
M. africanum infection is acquired from the
environmental source
M. marinum is responsible for tubercular
lymphadenopathy

A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to

Staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be
Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity
testing. All the following antibiotics will be
appropriate, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.

163

Pasturella spp.
Francisella spp.
Bartonella spp.
Brucella spp.

Which one of the following statement is true

regarding pathogen city of Mycobacterium
species?
1.

167.

Inadequate dietary intake.

Defective intestinal absorption
Absence of folic acid binding protein in serum
Absence of glutei acid in the intestine

Actinic cell carcinomas of the salivary gland arise

most often in the:
1.
2.
3.

Parotid salivary gland

Minor salivary glands
Submandibular salivary gland

4.
175.

Sublingual salivary gland

2.
3.
4.

Fine needle aspiration cytology is not suitable for

diagnosing:
183.

176.

1. Tubercular lymphadenitis
2. Papillary carcinoma thyroid
3. Plasmacytoma
4. Aneurismal bone cyst
All of the following immunohistochemical markers
are positive in the neoplastic cells of granulocytic
sarcoma, EXCEPT:

177.

CD 45 RO
C 43
Myeloperoxidase
Lysozyme

185.

178.

Norfloxacin
Streptomycin
Doxycycline
Cefotaxime

Which one of the following

antipseudomonal penicillin?

drugs

186.
1.
2.
3.
4.
179.

Cephalexin
Cloxacillin
Piperacillin
Dicloxacillin

187.
1.
2.
3.
4.
180.

Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the

maximum duration of action?
1.
2.
3.
4.

181

Procaine
Bupivacaine
Lignocaine
Mepivacaine

Which one of the following agents sensitizes the

myocardium to catecholamine?
1.

188

Isoflurane

Kidney
Bronchus
Breast
Prostate

Ultrasonography
Tomography
MRI
Radiography

Mixed tumour of the salivary glan1 are

1.
2.
3.
4.

189.

are

All of them use non- ionizing radiation, EXCEPT:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Atracurium
Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Doxacurium

Which one of the following local anaesthetics

belongs to the ester group?
1.
2.
3..
4.

182.

Bacterial meningitis Rickettsial infection

Syphilis
Anthrax

Neurofibroma
Meningioma
Cavernous hemangioma
Schwannoma

Expansile
lytic
osseous
metastases
characteristic of primary malignancy of:
1.
2.
3.
4.

All of the following are therapeutic uses of PM

EXCEPT.

Gastric juice
Pancreatic juice
Bile in gall bladder
Saliva

The most common retro bulbar orbital mass in

adults is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

is

Kidneys
Skin
Intestines
Lungs

Which of the following secretions has a very high

pH?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Which one of the following antibacterial should not

be used with d-tubocurarine?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Which of the following organs is not involved in

calcium homeostasis?
1.
2.
3.
4.

184.
1.
2.
3.
4.

Ether
Halothane
Propofol

Most common in submandibular gland

Usually malignant
Most common in parotid gland
Associated with calculi

A malignant tumour of childhood that metastasizes

to bones most often is:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Wilma tumour
Neuroblastoma
Adrenal gland tumour
Granulose cell tumour of ovary

190.

All of the following radioisotopes are used as

systemic radionuclide, EXCEPT:
1.
2.
3.
4.

191.

Phosphorus-32
Strontium-89
Iridium-192
Samarium153

3.
4.
196.

1.
2.
3.
4.

Beta particles
Alfa particles
Neutrons
X-rays

Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal

mucosa through the following membrane:
1.
2.
3.
4.

Phosphorous-32 emits:
197.

Which one of the following imaging techniques

gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient?
1.
2.
3.
4.

2.
3.

Chest X-ray
MRI
CT scan
Bone scan

4.
198

193

Which one of the following has the maximum

ionization potential?
1.
2.
3.
4.

199.
194.

Which of the following is not a major criteria for

diagnosis of multiple myeloma?
1.
2.
3.
4.

195.

Lytic bone lesions

Plasmacytoma on tissue biopsy
Bone marrow plasmacytosis > 30%
M spike >3g% for Ig G, >2g% for Ig A

Which of the following medications is

contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulfa?
1.
2.

Levobunolol
Bimatoprost

Endothelial cells
Collagen fibers
Smooth muscle cells
Elastic fibers

Dacron vascular graft is:

1.
2.
3.
4.

200.

Frequent cause of anterior midline neck

masses in the first decade of life
The cyst is located within 2 cm of the midline
Incision and Drainage is the treatment of
choice
The swelling moves upwards on protrusion of
tongue

Noontimes hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure

as a result of hypertrophy at
1.
2.
3.
4.

Electron
Proton
Helium ion
Gamma (y) Photon

Thyrohyoid
Cricothyroid
Crico-tracheal
Cricosternal

The following statements about thyroglossal cyst

are true, EXCEPT:
1.

192.

Brinzolamide
Brimonidine

Nontextile synthetic
Textile synthetic
Nontextile biologic
Textile biologic

Mycotic abscesses are due to:

1.
2.
3.
4.

Bacterial infection
Fungal infection
Viral infection
Mixed infection