1.

The most commonly associated condition for the development of abruption placenta is / are
a. external trauma
c. cocaine abuse
b. PIH*
d. ethanol consumption
e. A and B
2. Bleeding in the presence of firmly contracted uterus is evidence of the following:
a. genital tract laceration
c. placenta accreta
b. retained placental fragments
d. A and B *
e. A, B, C
3. Immediately after placental explusion, the fundus of the contracted uterus is at the
a. above the umbilicus
c. true pelvis
b. below the umbilicus*
d. regains its nonpregnant position e. none of the above
4. True regarding subinvolution of the uterus:
a. accompanied by prolongation of the lochial discharge
b. the uterus is noted to be larger and softer
c. dilatation and curettage is the treatment of choice
d. A, B, C
e. A and B only*
5. True regarding the Dilatational Division of labor
5
a. dilatation occurs at a most rapid rate
b. unaffected by sedation and conduction anesthesia
c. commences with deceleration phase
d. A, B, C
e. A and B *
6. Average rate of cervical dilatation of a nullipara is
a. 1.0 cm/hr
b. 1.2 cm/hour *
c. 1.5 cm/hour
d. 2 cm/hr
7. The end of the embryonic period and the beginning of the fetal period is said to occur at:
6
a. 8 weeks after fertilization**
c. 10 weeks after fertilization
b. 8 weeks after the onset of the LMP
d. 3rd week after ovulation
8. In the very early embryo, hemopoiesis is demonstrable first in the:
a. Yolk sac*
b. Liver
c. Bone marrow
d. Kidney
9.The single most significant risk factor for the development of postpartum uterine infection
a. route of delivery*
c. number of cervical examination
b. length of labor
d. pregnancy associated with preterm delivery
10. . The following are the bacteria that commonly cause postpartum uterine infection include
a. streptococcus
c. mycobacterium
b. enterococcus
d. A, B, C
e. A and B *
11. The diagnosis is made in women whose blood pressure reaches 140/90 mmHg or greater for
the first time during pregnancy, in whom proteinuria has not developed:
a. Preeclampsia
c. Chronic hypertension
b. Gestational hypertension*
d. Eclampsia
12. The basic pathophysiology of preeclampia-eclampsia:
a. Vasospasm*
c. Genetic
7
b. Inflammatory
d. Excessive trophoblast
13. The following tocolytic agents can be used to inhibit preterm labor, EXCEPT:
a. Magnesium sulfate
c. Indomethacin
b. Ritodrine
d. Hydralazine*
14. The postmature infant presents a unique and characteristic appearance which includes the
following, EXCEPT:
a. Smooth skin*
b. Thin body
c. Worried-looking
d. Long nails

15. The main maternal risks for pregnancy include/s the following:
a. Postpartum hemorrhage and infection
d. All of the above
8
b. Increase operative deliveries
e. A and B only*
c. Fetal distress and hypoxia
16. Used to differentiate symmetrical from asymmetrical IUGR:
a. Head circumference / abdominal circumference ratio*
d. All of the above
9
b. Head circumference / femur length ratio
e. A and C only
c. Abdominal circumference / femur length ratio
17. The following are risk factor/s for intrauterine growth restriction:
a. Poor maternal weight gain and nutrition
d. All of the above
10
b. Chromosomal abnormalities
e. A and B only*
c. Low altitude
18. The following describe normal menstruation, EXCEPT:
11
a. Time of onset: 10 to 16 years of age
12
b. Duration: 2 to 8 days
13
c. Amount of blood lost / menstruation: > 85 ml*
14
d. Modal interval: 28 days
19. Endometrial receptivity to blastocytst implantation in the human corresponds to menstrual
cycle days:
a. 14 to 16
b. 17 to 19
c. 20 to 24* d. 25 to 28
20. This is the earliest histological evidence of progesterone action in the endometrium.
It begins 36 to 48 hours after ovulation.
a. pseudostratification of nuclei
c. secretion
15
b. basal vacuolation*
d. predecidual reaction
21. Which is/are TRUE about monozygotic twins:
16
a. usually identical
17
b. refers to fertilization of 2 ova during a single ovulatory cycle
18
c. have an increased incidence of structural malformation*
19
d. all of the above
22. The phenomenon of locked twins is more common in this type of presentation:
20
a. Twin I cephalic, twin II cephalic
21
b. Twin I breech, twin II transverse lie
22
c. Twin I breech, twin II cephalic*
23
d. Twin I cephalic, twin II breech
23. The head is presumed to be engaged:
24
a. when the caput succedanum is almost visible at the introitus
25
b. when the lowermost portion of the fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines*
26
c. when there are late decelerations on CTG
27
d. All of the above
24. The fetal heart rates are checked ________ of a contraction to identify pathological slowing:
a. At the beginning
c. at the end and immediately after*
b. During the peak
d. All of the above
25. Signs of placental separation include the following EXCEPT:
28
a. uterus becomes globular
d. uterus felt just above the symphysis pubis*
b. sudden gush of blood
e. All of the above
29
c. umbilical cord protrudes further out

26. The strongest layer of the amnion is:

a. inner surface
c. compact layer*
30
b. basement membrane
d. zona spongiosa
27. The umbilical cord at term normally contains:
a. one artery and one vein
c. two veins and one artery
31
b. two arteries and two veins
d. two arteries and one vein*
28. A condition characterized by collection of amniotic fluid of more than 2 liters in the
amniotic cavity is called:
a. oligohydramnios
c. hydatidiform mole
32
b. hydramnios*
d. hydropic degeneration
29. Congenital anomaly associated with oligohydramnios:
a. renal agenesis*
c. non-immune hydrops
33
b. anencephaly
d. esophageal atresia
30. It is also known as restitution:
34
a. descent
c. external rotation*
b. flexion
d. internal rotation
31. It is a type of abdominal incision in cesarean delivery employing a transverse curvilinear cut
over the skin and subcutaneous tissue:
a. Kerr incision
c. Pfannenstiel incision*
35
b. Kronig incicion
d. Classical cesarean section
32. Increased rate of fetal descent is ordinarily observed during the:
a. Latent phase
c. Phase of Maximum Slope*
36
b. Acceleration phase
d. deceleration Phase
33. The three stages of labor is found within what phase of parturition:
a. Phase 0
b. Phase 1
c. Phase 2*
d. Phase 3
34. Characterized by gross rupture of membranes with cervical dilatation:
a. Threatened abortion
c. imminent abortion
37
b. Inevitable abortion*
d. Incomplete abortion
35. Ovulation may resume as early as ____ weeks after abortion:
a. 1
b. 2*
c. 3
d. 4
36. Which of the following is present in ectopic pregnancy:
38
a. Softening of the cervix & isthmus
d. A & B
b. Endometrium is converted to deciduas
e. A, B & C*
c. Arias stellar reaction
37. Tubal pregnancy accompanied by co existing uterine gestation is:
a. Heterotypic tubal pregnancy*
c. both
39
b. Multifetal tubal pregnancy
d neither
38. The hormone which is responsible for prolonging the life of the corpus luteum during
pregnancy is:
a. human placental lactogen
c. estrogen
40
b. human chorionic gonadotrophin*
d. progesteron
39. The levels of hCG in maternal plasma reaches a nadir by about ___ weeks
a. 8-10
b. 9 - 11
c. 12
d. 20*
40. The rate of synthesis of the ___ sub-unit of hCG is believed to be limiting in the formation
of the complete hCG molecule:

a.
b. *
c. gamma
d. delta
41. Vaginal delivery of fetuses in breech presentation most often may be complicated by
41
a. compression of the umbilical cord* c. spinal cord injury
42
b. clavicular fracture
d. shoulder dystocia
42. To deliver the after coming head if the fetus is in supine position, the following maneuver
will be done
a. Pinard
b. Mauriceau-Smellie-Veit
c. Bracht
d. Prague*
43. One procedure that can be done at or near term to decrease the incidence of breech
presentation or transverse lie is:
a. cesarean delivery
c. internal podalic version
43 b. abdominal ultrasound
d. external cephalic version*
44. Gestational DM is said to be present when the glucose tolerance test value is ______ or
higher:
a. 130 mg/dl
b. 140 mg/dl*
c. 150 mg/dl
d. 160 mg/dl
45. The following signs are seen in mild thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy EXCEPT:
a. Tachycardia above the increase associated with pregnancy
b. Abnormally decreased sleeping pulse rate*
c. Thyromegaly
44 d. Exopthalmos
46. Physiologic changes in the lung capacity during pregnancy are increased EXCEPT:
a. vital capacity
c. residual volume*
b. inspiratory capacity
d. minute ventilation
47. Which of the following is contraindicated in pregnant patient?
a. Pneumococcal vaccine
c. Influenza vaccin
b. Varicella pneumoniae vaccine*
d. Amantadine
48. This presentation if persistent will not allow vaginal delivery:
a. mentum posterior*
c. brow presentation
b. mentum anterior
d. occiput anterior position
49. Which of the following warrants abdominal delivery?
a. transverse lie
c. breech delivery in primi
b. persistent mentum posterior
d. All of the above*
e. A & B only
50. Which of the following are TRUE statements regarding pregnancy luteoma? (PAGE 171)
a. It is a cystic ovarian lesion but not a true neoplasm
b. It contains large acidophilic luteinized cells
c. It represents exaggeration of the luteinization reaction of the ovary
d. A and B only
e. B and C only*
51. This is the midline brownish-black pigment that is observed in pregnant patients.
a. striae gravidarum
c. melasma
b. linea nigra*
d. chloasma gravidarum
52. The following are TRUE statements regarding sperm analysis EXCEPT:
45 a. Abstinence of 2-3 days prior to collection is recommended
46 b. Normal sperm count is 10 x 106/ml*
47 c. Abnormal results should be confirmed by repeating for 2-3 occassions
48 d. wide-mouthed jar is ideal for collection

53. Endometriosis can cause infertility by:

49 a. tubal blockage from kinking
50 b. adhesions around tube and ovaries
51 c. Prevention of implantation of fertilized ovum in the endometrium*
52 d. A & B only
53 e. A & C only
54. Primary amenorrhea is absence of any spontaneous menses in an individual older than:
a. 14.5 yrs. Old
b. 15.5 yrs old
c. 16.5 yrs old *
d. 17.5 yrs old
55. Microorganisms that have been commonly associated with chronic bacterial endometritis
include:
a. Chlamydia trachomatis
c. Streptococcal agalactiae*
54 b. Neisseria gonorrhea
d. A & B only
e. All of the above
56. By far, the most frequent symptom/s of acute pelvic inflammatory disease is:
A. fever
B. elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C. adnexal tenderness or mass
D. pain in the lower abdomen*
E. all of the above
57. True statement about syphilis:
A. It is a chronic complex systemic disease produce by T. pallidum
B. The classic finding of 1 syphilis is a hard chancre
C. The classic rash of tertiary syphilis is red macules and papules over the palms of the
hands and soles of the feet
D. All of the above
E. A & B only*
58. Which of the following is a physiologic ovarian cyst?
a. Dermoid cyst
c. Endometrioma*
55 b. Fibroma
d. serous cystadenoma
59. This is a characteristic of benign ovarian tumor:
a. Thick septae
c. Papillary excrescences
56 b. Smooth capsule*
d. Solid nodules
60. The tumor marker HCG is positive in this tumor :
a. embryonal carcinoma
c. endodermal sinus tumor
57 b. choriocarcinoma*
d. adenocarcinoma
61. The most common ovarian tumor is:
a. Arrhenoblastoma
c. thecoma
58 b. granulose cell tumor
d. mucinous cystadenoma*
62. Myomas originate from:
a. endometrium glands
c. serosal layer
59 b. muscle layer of the uterus*
d. neoplastic cells
63. This type of myoma insinuates itself between the leaves of the broad ligament is called:
a. Parasitic
c. interstitial
60 b. Serosal
d. intraligamentary*
64. This variety of myoma is notorious for bleeding complications:
a. submucus*
b. subserous
c. intraligamentary
d. interstitial
65. Myomas undergo this change/characteristic during pregnancy:

a. malignant degeneration
c. decrease in size
b. carneous degeneration*
d. disappearance
66. The embryologic precursor of the uterus and fallopian tubes is:
A. Mesonephros
B. mesonephric duct
C. paramesonephric duct*
67. Menstrual age is nearly ______ weeks before implantation:
A. 1
B. 2*
C. 3-D. 4
68. The most common vaginal cancer is:
61 a. squamous cell CA*
c. melanoma
62 b. adenocarcinoma
d. sarcoma
69. Premalignant phase of vaginal CA is called:
A. VIN
B. VAIN*
C. VIS
D. VAIS
70. The most common symptom of vaginal CA is:
63 a. vaginal bleeding*
c. vaginal pain
64 b. vaginal discharge
d. vaginal mass
71. Vaginal cancer spreads most often by:
65 a. lymphatic route
c. direct extension*
66 b. hematogenous route
d. transcoelomic route
72. HPV infection mimic charges of:
a. CIN I
b. Mild dysplasia
c. LSIL
d. A & B
e. A, B & C*
73. Which of the following is both diagnostic & therapeutic:
A. LEEP
C. Cryotherapy
B. Conization
D. A & B*
E. A, B & C
74. Potential risk factors for cervical neoplasia includes:
67 a. Early intercourse
c. early child bearing
b. Multiple sexual partners
d. A & B
e. A, B, & C*
75. LH acts primarily on the:
a. Theca cells to induce steroidogenesis*
c. both
68 b. Granulosa cell to stimulate follicular growth
d. either
76. GnRH is mainly produced in the:
a. Anterior hypothalamus
c. dorso-medial nucleus
69 b. Medial basal hypothalamus
d. A & B*
e. A, B & C
77. Hyperprolactinemia may be caused by:
a. Prolactinoma
c. Chronic renal disease
70 b. Hypothyroidism
d. A & B
e. A, B & C*
78. Clinical diagnosis of women with elevated prolactin without evidence of an adenoma
a. Functional hyperprolactinemia*
c. both
71 b. Primary empty sella syndrome
d. neither
79. Estrogen replacement therapy for postmenopausal women w/ uterine prolapse for 30 days
may
a. help improve the vitality of the vaginal epithelium & cervix
b. improve the vasculature of these organs
c. make the operative procedure & healing process efficient
d . All of the above*

80. Descensus is almost always associated with:

a. rectocele
b. cystocele
c. enterocele
d. all of the above*
81. The following are colposcopic findings suggestive of invasion, EXCEPT:
a. lack of endothelial lining*
c. color tone changes
b. abnormal blood vessels
d. irregular surface contour
82. The mainstay in the management of invasive cervical cancer is:
a. surgery
c. neoadjuvant chemotherapy
b. radiotherapy*
d. all of the above
83. This is the most dependent variable associated with survival after for cervical CA:
a. tumor size
c. depth of invasion
b. paracervical tissue involvement
d. lymph node status*
84. Which is/are true about primary dysmenorrhea?
A. The cause is increased endometrial prostaglandin production
B. Women affected have higher uterine tone
C. Vasopressin concentrations are also higher in those affected
D. all of the above*
85. The pathophysiology of cystitis in women involves:
A. always a primary infection of the urinary tract*
B. the colonization of the vagina and urethra with coliform bacteria from the rectum
C. S. saprophyticus is the most common pathogen isolated from the urine of young women
with cystitis
D. all of the above
86. Complete moles are characterized by the following pathologic features which include/s the
following:
A. Identifiable embryonic or fetal tissues
D. All of the above
B. Diffuse trophoblastic proliferation
E. B and C only*
C. Chorionic villi exhibit generalized hydatidiform swelling
87. The most common presenting symptom in patient with complete molar pregnancy which
occurs in 97% of cases:
A. Vaginal bleeding*
C. Hyperemesis gravidarum
B. Excessive uterine size
D. Hyperthyroidism
88. The most common malignant germ cell tumor:
A. Dysgerminoma*
C. Endodermal sinus tumor
B. Immature teratoma
D. Choriocarcinoma
89. Call-Exner bodies is the characteristic features of:
A. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor
C. Endodermal sinus tumor
B. Granulose cell tumor*
D. Klrukenberg tumor
90. Reason/s why children is/are susceptible to infections:
A. Absence of labial fat and pubic hair
D. All of the above
B. Poor perineal hygiene
E. A and only*
C. Vaginal pH is acidic
91. A self-limiting consequence of chronic vulvitis in which denuded epithelium of adjacent
labia minora agglutinates and fuses the two labia together:
A. Vulvovagintis
C. Psoriasis

B. Adhesive vulvitis*
D. Lichen sclorosus
92. Endometrial biopsy is indicated in the following condition, EXCEPT:
A. Postmenopausal bleeding
B. Follow up of previously diagnosed endometrial hyperplasia
C. Pap smear with atypical cells favoring cervical origin*
D. Endometrial dating
93. Risk of endometrial hyperplasia progressing to carcinoma is related to:
a. presence of cytologic atypia*
c. absence of cytologic atypia
b. presence of complex hyperplasia
d. not related to anything
94. Very effective in reversing endometrial hyperplasia
a. estrogen
b. progesterone*
c. androgen
d. A & B
e. A, B, C
95. Serial CA 125 determinations may be useful in endometriosis in:
a. diagnosing the condition
b. planning in the management
c. predicting the recurrence after therapy*
d. A, B, C
e. A and C only
96. Microscopically, the following must be always seen to diagnose endometriosis:
a. endometrial glands
b. endometrial stroma
c. hemosiderin-laden macrophages
d. A, B, C
e. A and B only*
97. The most frequent cause of irregular bleeding in the reproductive age group is:
a. hormonal *
b. pregnancy-related
c. tumor
d. blood dyscrasias
e. trauma
98. Most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding:
a. endometrial cancer
b. endometrial hyperplasia c. endometrial polyp
d. atrophic endometrium * e. cervical cancer
99. The following are non-infectious causes of vulvar conditions in the reproductive age
group EXCEPT:
a. contact dermatitis
c. Behcets disease
b. labial agglutination*
d. acanthosis nigricans
e. Crohns disease
100. Most common white lesion of the vulva which is encountered by both prepubertal &
postmenopausal age groups:
a. lichen sclerosus*
c. cherry hemangiomas
b. seborrheic keratins
d. granuloma inguinale
e. all of the above