MODULE SIX

AIRCRAFT MATERIALS -FERROUS

1. When metal is heated slightly above its critical temperature, then cooled rapidly, it is
common that the metal will increase in;
a brittleness
b hardness
*c both of the above answers are correct
2. There is a type of heat treatment that produces a hard wear-resistant surface, or case, over
a strong, tough core:
a normalizing
b heat tempering
* c case hardening
3. Steel is tempered:
* a after hardening
b before hardening
c to increase hardening
4. After a product has been manufactured and all heat treatment is carried out, the stress
remaining, if any is termed;
a working stress
* b residual stress
c applied stress.
5. To harden steel it is:
a heated and quenched
* b heated above its upper critical temperature and quenched
c applied stress
6. Annealing is to;
* a soften steel for shaping by hand or machine
b avoid age hardening
c give a smooth finish
7. Strength is defined as;
* a the ability to resist tensile and shear forces
b the ability to resist corrosion
c the ability to resist penetration

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8. Cast iron is;

* a heavy and brittle
b very malleable
c tough
9. The critical process in heat treatment is;
a method of heating only
b temperature and method of heating only
* c temperature and rate of cooling.
10. Case hardening can be carried out on;
a duralumin
* b titanium
c any non-ferrous metal
11. Normalising steels;
a increases the hardness
* b relieves the stresses
c increases toughness
12. Annealing steels;
a hardens the metal
b makes the metal brittle
* c makes the metal malleable
13. In a muffler type furnace,;
* a combustion takes place outside the furnace chamber
b combustion takes place inside the furnace chamber
c metal becomes more malleable.
14. What is annealing
a hardening of metal
* b softening of metal
c artificial age hardening
15. What is Nitriding
* a case hardening of alloy steels
b case hardening of non ferrous metals
c softening of alloy steel
16. Chromium added to straight carbon steel;
a turns it into a non-ferrous alloy
b makes the metal softer
* c increases the resistance to corrosion.

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17. The object of case hardening is to;

*a produce a hard case over a tough core
b introduce carbon into the steel
c reduce carbon in the steel.
18. The colour code on sheet metal indicates
* a. only the specification of the material
b. the specification and gauge of the material
c. that the material is from an approved source
19. Stress relieving by heat treatment:
a. restores the full fatigue life to 'life limited' structural components
* b. reduces residual stresses due to manufacturing processes
c. reduces the hardness of heat treated materials
23. The addition of chromium to steel will produce;
*aextra strength in the metal
b qualities of ductility
c great hardness.
24. When steel has a high carbon content it is:
a more elastic.
b tougher than low carbon steel.
* c more brittle than low carbon steel.
25. A material described as tough will:
* a withstand repeated blows.
b shatter after a blow.
c have a low melting temperature.
26. Steel has:
a more carbon than cast iron.
* b less carbon than cast iron.
c the same amount of carbon as cast iron.
27. An advantage of nitriding is:
* a less distortion.
b takes less time to produce a hard skin.
c produces a uniform depth of case.

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28. Carbon added to steel increases its:

* a hardness
b ductility
c malleability
29. Ferrous metal is defined as:
a being non-metallic.
b metal containing little or no iron.
* c metal containing a great deal of iron.
30. Strength is defined as:
* a the ability to resist tensile and shear forces.
b the ability to resist corrosion.
c the ability to resist penetration.
32. The hardness achieved in the hardening process will depend on :
a the method of heating .
b the carbon content of the steel.
* c the carbon content and rate of cooling.
33. Normalising steels:
a increases the hardness.
* b relieves the stresses.
c increases toughness.
34. The fastest way to cool metal when heat treating is quenching it in:
* a water
b oil
c ashes
35. When tempering metal, the cooling method used is normally:
* a allowing the metal to cool in still air.
b quenching in acid.
c quenching in brine.
36. When hardening metal, the cooling method used is normally:
* a cooling rapidly.
b cooling slowly.
c not critical.

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37. Steel is tempered:

* a after hardening.
b before hardening.
c to increase hardness.
38. The object of case hardening is to:
* a produce a hard case over a tough core.
b introduce Nitrogen into the steel.
c reduce carbon in the steel.
39 What gas is used in nitriding case hardening?
a oxygen.
b carbon Dioxide.
* c ammonia.
40. A magnet will:
a be attracted to aluminium.
* b not be attracted to aluminium.
c not be attracted to steel.
41. Copper sulphate will leave a red deposit when in contact with:
a stainless steel.
* b steel.
c magnesium.
42. A tensile test on a metal will:
* a pull the metal apart.
b squash the metal.
c cut the metal.
43. The Brinell test will:
a polish the metal.
b shear load the metal.
* c penetrate the metal.
44 The hardness of steel at room temperature is determined by:
a number of iron particles
b number of carbon particles
* c ratio of iron to carbon particles

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AIRCRAFT MATERIALS - NON-FERROUS

1. Age hardening of aluminium is;
a never carried out
b not necessary
* c gradual hardening over a period of time
2. Aluminium is;
* a highly resistant to corrosion
b not resistant to corrosion
c reasonably resistant to corrosion
3. Alclad is:
a aluminium with duralumin cladding
b duralumin with magnesium cladding
* c duralumin with aluminium coating
4. The oxide film formed on the surface of aluminium is;
a porous
* b non-porous
c hard and porous
5. Duralumin is;
a a metallic element
* b an aluminium alloy
c a ferrous alloy
6. The metal w hich must not be heated in a salt bath is;
a duralumin
* b magnesium alloy
c rivets made of duralumin.
7. Caustic soda applied to a metal turns black; this would indicate that the metal was:
a aluminium
* b duralumin
c an aluminium alloy
8. When drilling light alloy which lubricant should be used
a oil
* b kerosine/paraffin
c no lubricant is required

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9. The British identification of the heat treatment to which an aluminium alloy item has been
subjected is shown by:
a. a letter and number code
b. a number
* c. a letter
10. After solution treatment of aluminium alloy, the effect of immediate refrigeration at a
temperature within the range of -15 EC to -20 EC is:
* a. to suspend natural ageing for a limited period
b. to increase the rate of artificial ageing
c. to permanently soften the metal to retard the onset of fatigue
11. Alclad materials can be heat treated:
a. as many times as required
* b. 3 times only
c. once only
12. Aluminium clad alloy sheet should not be polished with mechanical buffing w heels:
a. as this will cause large static charges to build up
* b. as this may remove the aluminium coating
c. as this may remove the alloy coating
13. 3L72 indicates:
a. specification and gauge
* b. specification and year of manufacture
c. specification, heat treatment and year of manufacture
14. The identification marking, L72W on a sheet of aluminium alloy indicates:
* a. material specification and heat treatment
b. material thickness and specification
c. material specification and fatigue strength
15. What chemical is used to identify aluminium alloys;
*acaustic soda
b copper sulphate
c nitric acid.
16 Pure Aluminium is;
*ahighly resistant to corrosion
b not resistant to corrosion
c reasonably resistant to corrosion.

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17. Alclad can be identified by using;

a nitric acid
*b caustic soda
c selenious acid.
18. Aluminium is:
a a ferrous alloy.
b a non-ferrous alloy.
*c a non-ferrous element.
19. Aluminium ore is called:
a ferrous oxide.
b malachite.
*c bauxite.
20. The electrodes in an aluminium furnace are made from:
*a carbon.
b alumina.
c copper.
21. Duralumin is an aluminium alloy that has:
a more carbon than steel.
*b similar tensile properties to steel.
c is softer than raw aluminium.
22. Why is raw aluminium seldom used?
a It is too brittle.
b It is too expensive.
*c It is too soft.
23. Where is heat treatment of aluminium carried out?
*a In a salt bath.
b In a furnace.
c In an oven.
24. A heated solution of potassium and sodium nitrates are used to:
a identify aluminium.
*b heat treat aluminium.
c cold work aluminium.
25. Why is it necessary to remove any salt deposits on aluminium?
a To prevent further hardening.
*b To prevent corrosion.
c To recycle the salt deposits.

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26. What temperature does pure aluminium melt at?

*a 660EC
b 1200EC
c 660EF
27. What process softens aluminium after cold working?
*a Annealing.
b Quenching.
c Precipitation treatment.
28. Precipitation treatment:
a softens aluminium after working.
*b speeds up age hardening.
c cleans salt from aluminum.
29. Solution treatment is carried out:
a before annealing.
b after annealing.
*c instead of annealing
30. Caustic soda on duralumin will:
a turn white.
*b turn black.
c turn red.
31. Caustic soda on aluminum w ill:
*a turn white.
b turn black.
c turn red.

AIRCRAFT MATERIALS - COMPOSITE AND NON-METALLIC

1. Aircraft fabrics are woven from spun yarns or threads known as warp and weft threads,
the warp threads:
a run crosswise from left to right
*b run lengthwise
c run diagonally from corner to corner
2. When inspecting metal bonded honeycomb structure, delamination damage can be
detected:
a by use of straightforward radiography (x-ray)
*b by bouncing or tapping a medium weight coin on the surface
c by electrical conductivity measurements

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3. When carrying out a fibreglass repair, if a backing support is used, it should be faced w ith:
a paper
*b cellophane
c glass fibre cloth
4. To prevent the repair sticking to the support plate, when carrying out a fibre glass repair:
*a cellophane sheet is used
b paper sheet is used
c fibre glass is used
5. Nylon is used for bagging because:
* a it has high tensile strength
b it is porous
c it is resistant to temperature
6. Nomex is:
a aluminium foil
b glass fibre honeycomb
* c aramid honeycomb
7. In an epoxy resin mix, the ratio of resin to hardener is 100:45 How much hardener would
be required to cure a resin of 60g?
a 133g
*b 27g
c 186g
8. When repairing damaged honeycomb structure the core is removed using:
a a wood chisel
b an abrasive wheel
*c a router
9. Micro-balloons as used in composite repairs are:
a cheaper than normal agents
*b lighter than normal agents
c used to give better bonding with the resin than normal agents
10. How is the air extracted from between the laminates when using an autoclave?
a by pressure
* b by vacuum
c by rolling
11. When applied to aircraft structures, a hot bond is the name given to:
a a blind rivetted joint
b a machined rivetted joint
*c a resin sealed joint
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12. When carrying out a fibre glass repair, the direction of the fibres in each layer must be
layed:
a in the same direction layer upon layer
b outer layer facing one way and the inner layer the same way
*c each layer is layed in a different direction to the next layer
13. Why are micro-balloons mixed with the resin when carrying out composite repairs?
*a to keep the repair as light as possible
b because they are cheaper than other additives
c because they interlock with the fibres of the composite
14. Before inspecting damage to an aramid composite panel, how is the surface finish
removed?
a with paint stripper
*b with wet and dry in a circular motion
c mechanically by vacuum sandblasting
15. After using an epoxy resin compound, what is used to put oil back into your skin?
a acetone/lanolin mixture
*b refatting cream
c resin removing compound
16. What do you refer to when carrying out repairs to a composite panel?
a aircraft maintenance manual
b CAIP
*c aircraft structural repair manual
17. What is separation of the layers in an aramid panel called?
*a delamination
b debonding
c detachment
18. When applying flame spray treatment of Kevlar, how is the depth and thickness
measured?
*a by ultrasonic
b by X-ray
c by eddy current
19. Which composite material must be shielded from sunlight?
a glass fibre
b carbon fibre
*c Kevlar

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20. Thermosetting plastics:

*a harden with temperature and cannot be reworked
b can be reworked with temperature
c can be reworked provided the original mould is used
21. When mixing resins:
*a do not add resin to accelerator
b do not add catalyst to resin
c do not add accelerator to catalyst
22. How can you measure the thickness of flame spraying?
*a ultra-sonic
b x-ray
c dye penetrant
23. If you add a catalyst to a cold cure poly-ester resin
a it would cause a weak composite structure
b it would cause a strong composite structure
*c it would decrease the pot life
24. Defusion bonding of dissimilar metallic materials is particularly suited for joints needing
a low strength with low toughness
b high strength with high toughness
*c high strength with stiffness
25. Carbon fibre composite panels are bonded by
a inter woven cables /wires within the composite
*b flame spraying
c bonding leads
26. Adding too much accelerator to a composite mix will
a have no effect on its strength
b increase the mix strength
*c decrease the mix strength
27. What material is used for cargo bay liners
a Nomex
*b resin reinforced fibre glass
c Kevlar
28. What are the two common types of fiberglass used in aircraft construction
*a E glass & S glass
b E glass & P glass
c M glass & S glass

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29. What characteristics does Kevlar possess

a excellent compression strength and flexibility
b excellent shear strength and flexibility
*
c excellent tensile strength and flexibility
30. Which statement is correct
*a carbon/graphite is stronger in compressive strength than Kevlar, however, it is more
brittle
b carbon/graphite is weaker in compressive strength than Kevlar, but it is not as brittle
c carbon/graphite is stronger in tensile strength than K evlar, however, it is more brittle
31. When carbon/graphite panels are in contact with aluminium structure
a it must be attached with corrosion resistance bolts
b it must be attached with two part epoxy corrosion resistance resin
*c there must be a layer of fibreglass between carbon and aluminium
32. With regard to composite fibre fabric the bias is
*a at 45 to the angle of the warp
b the edge of the material
c the force which apposes the bending moment of the weft
33. Unidirectional fabric
a has both warp and weft threads
*b warp threads only
c weft threads only
34. Fibreglass mats are
a chopped fibres that are compressed together and are ideal for repairs
*b chopped fibres that are compressed together and are unsuitable for repairs
c chopped fibres that are compressed together and because of the random sequence of the
fibres are ideal for load carrying structure
35. The main advantages of composite materials are
a they are lighter than alloys
*b they have a good weight to strength ratio
c they are stronger and weigh considerably less than alloys and are inexpensive, available
and easy to mould
36. Thermoplastic resins
*a can be re-moulded after heating
b cannot be re-moulded after heating
c are always used in the wet lay up process

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37. It is important to mix the resin system correctly this should be done by
a volume by weight and as quickly as possible
*b volume by weight and the mixing process should take between 3 to 5 minutes
c volume by quantity and mixing should be as slow as possible
38. If a resin is removed from a refrigerator
*a It should be allowed to warm up before mixing, as cold resin will be heavier than the
same amount at room temperature
b it should be allowed to warm up before mixing, as cold resin will be lighter than the
same amount at room temperature
c it can be mixed straight from the refrigerator as temperature does not matter
39. What type of container should the resin system be mixed in
a a wax coated container
*b a wax free container
c the special container supplied by the resin manufacture
40. What does the term pot life refer to
a the amount of time the resin can be stared in the pot
*b the amount of time you have to work with the resin
c the amount of time it takes for the resin to cure
41. With advance composites Resin Rich refers to
*a a weak structure which is brittle and has extra weight
b the extra resin that is required when using pre-preg material
c any fabric material which has been coated in resin
42. With advance composites Resin Starved refers to
*a where not enough resin was used, causing the part to be weak because the matrix cannot
transfer the stresses to the fibres
b where not enough resin was used, causing the part to be weak because the matrix
transfers sheer loads onto the fibres material
c this is the desired state of the fibre material during lay-up as all excess resin must be
removed
43. The correct amount of resin ratio is important to get the desired strength In advance
composite 50/50 ratio is good, however,
*a a 60/40 fibre to resin ratio is better as the fibres gives you the strength not the resin
b a 40/60 resin to fibre is better as the resin gives you the strength not the fibre
c a 60/40 fibre to resin ratio is better as the resin gives you the strength not the fibre

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44. When a filler agent is added to a resin system as a thixotropic agent

a it must be added to the resin systems as a percentage of the hardener
b it must be added to the resin systems as a percentage of the catalyst
*c it must be added to the resin systems that have already been properly weighed and mixed
together
45. Microballoons are added to a resin system to
a add strength to matrix and reduce weight
b act as a thixotropic agent and increase strength
*c act as a thixotropic agent
46. If a hole is accidentally drilled in the wrong place
a the component must be discarded
b the hole should be filled with resin
*c the hole may be filled with flox and resin
47. How could you find the ribbon direction in a honeycomb core material
*a by tearing along one side of the honeycomb, the direction of tear is parallel to the
direction of the ribbon
b it is marked with a thin dotted line
c by making a direct reference to the manufactures specifications
48. When carrying out a repair to honeycomb structure the core material should
*a be joined to the repair with a foam adhesive and the ribbon direction aligned with the
original lay pattern
b cut 15 mm undersize of the cutout, and secured in place with a two part epoxy resin and
the ribbon direction aligned with the original lay pattern
c trimmed to the correct size with a sharp kraft knife, joined to the original structure with
potting compound and the ribbon direction 90 to the original lay
49. What is the correct adhesive to use with Styrofoam
a polyester resin
*b epoxy resin
c bostick 328
50. What is Tedlar
*a a plastic coating which acts serves as an additional moisture barrier
b the trade name for a special paint which contains aluminium partials
c honeycomb core material
51. What type of paint is used to protect composite structure
a only paint with an anti-pigmentation agent
*b same paint as used on aluminium structure
c the manufactures of the composite material always provide a paint product to suit their
material
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52. How is composite structure electrically bonded

a electrical bonding is not required as all composites are conductors
b ferrous based paint is flame sprayed onto composite components
*c aluminium wires or a fine aluminium screen is woven under the top layer some
companies just paint structure with aluminised paint
53. How are graphite/carbon components electrically bonded
a same method as aramid components
*b a barrier agent must be used between conductive material and the carbon structure
c aluminium wires or a fine aluminium screen is woven under the top layer some
companies just paint structure with aluminised paint
54. What is a Gel Coat
*a an outer coat of polyester resin which provides a smooth finish
b an outer coat of epoxy resin which provides a smooth finish
c this method is never used in the construction of aircraft components as it does not
provide any structural strength
55. During an inspection of composite components the gel coat is found to be cracked what
action is required
a it must be filled with epoxy resin and sanded to aerodynamic smoothness
*b no action is required providing the fibre themselves are not cracked
c the crack must be injected with polyester resin to restored the structural strength
56. Where can you find the information with regards to personal safety for working with
composite materials
a safety precautions are always printed on resin container and must be followed implicitly
b COSHH will give all relevant information regarding personal safety
*c Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) for the material you are working with, contains
information on health precautions, flammability, and ventilation etc
57. What is a caul plate
*a used on flat composite repairs to ensure a smooth finish
b used on contoured composite repairs to ensure the correct shape
c used as a backing plate to ensure the repair stays in position
58. During a composite repair how are the outer plies removed
*a with mechanical sanding to scarf an angle to reveal inch on each lower ply
b with a sharp skin knife to reveal one inch of lower plies
c with a router making vertical sides to the cutout
59. What is the maximum acceptable pressure drop from a vacuum bag during a repair
*a 5 inches of mercury 25 psi or 02 bar in five minutes
b 75 inches of mercury 4 psi or 04 bar in ten minutes
c 75 inches of mercury 4 psi or 04 bar in five minutes
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60. When drilling aramid composites the hole may appear to be fuzzy:
a extending fibres should be removed with a rotary file
*b quick curing epoxy resin should be applied to the fuzzy area and filed smooth after
curing
c if a fastener is being fitted through the hole the fuzziness can be left untreated as the
fastener will seal it
61. Nomex and other aramid honeycombs should :
a cut to size and used immediately after they have been removed from storage as they are
hygroscopic and may absorb moisture
*b be dried out at a temperature 40c (104F) for sixteen hours prior to use
c there is no prerequisite requirement prior to us
62. How much should a heat mat overlap surrounding structure when carrying out a
composite repair requiring heat to allow matrix to cure?
*
a 2 inches
b 3 inches
c 4 inches
63. Where should the vacuum gauge be placed in a vacuum bag
a next to the vacuum hose
b next to the repair material
*c at the opposite side to the vacuum hose
64. What grade of Kevlar is use on aircraft
a 129
*b 49
c 29
65. The accelerator in a matrix resin should
*a be added to the resin
b be added to the catalyst
c be added to the accelerator
66. When drilling aramid composites fuzzy holes can be avoided by
a using a high speed and high feed rate
*b using a brad point drill
c using a pilot drill
67. When drilling aramid composites fuzzy holes can be avoided by
a using a high speed and high feed rate
*b using a high speed and low feed rate
c using a pilot drill

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68. The time out of the pre-preg material is

a exposure time required during the curing process
*b the time for which the pre-preg can safely be kept at room temperature
c the maximum storage time prior to use
69. A ring test is used in
a sheet metal work
*b composite material work
c on precision measuring equipment
70. If a composite material is found to be damaged, with no apparent damage to the core, it
can be repaired by:
a plug patch
*b surface plate
c rivetting
71. Dis-bonding of a composite material can be detected by
*a an acoustic test
b X-rays
c eddy currents
72. Sandwich material of composite structures are mainly used for :
a non-critical surfaces
b load bearing members
*c flight control surfaces
73. Improved strength characteristics of composite materials as a result of adding micro
spheres is due to:
*a the thixotropic nature of the microsphere
b density of microsphere
c uniform shrinkage during the curing process
74. When drilling a composite material it should be carried out at
a low speed
b medium speed
*c high speed
75. How can water be detected in composite material
*a with use of a ohmmeter which would indicate continuity if water was present
b if moisture is present the gel coat will be dis-coloured
c composite materials are impervious to moisture

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76. Between what temperature range should polyester resins be used

*a 65 f to 85 f
b 42 f to 87 f
c 56 f to 85 f
77. Where should the vacuum gauge be placed in a vacuum bag
a next to the vacuum hose
b next to the repair material
*c at the opposite side to the vacuum hose
78. The accelerator in a matrix resin should
*a be added to the resin
b be added to the catalyst
c be added to the accelerator
79 What type of resin is use in conjunction w ith Styrofoam
a polyester resin
*b epoxy resin
c double bond
80 What is the normal method of cutting Styrofoam
a with a sharp Stanley Knife
b with a fine hack saw
*c with a hot wire cutter
81 What is the normal method of cutting Urethane
*a with a sharp Stanley Knife, than sanded to shape
b with a fine hack saw
c with a hot wire cutter
82 Why cant Urethane be cut with a hot wire cutter
a it is inflammable, and would ignite
*b hazardous gas is created when urethane is subjected to heat
c the edges would bubble which would make it unsuitable for aircraft work
83 During vacuum bagging what would be regarded as a good vacuum pressure
*a 28 Hg at sea level
b 32 Hg at sea level
c 14.7 Hg at seal level
84 A vacuum bagging repair is being carried out in a repair facility with a field elevation of
6000 ft
*
a the pressure on the repair will be less than a repair carried out at sea level
b the pressure on the repair will be more than a repair carried out at sea level
c the pressure on the repair will be the same as a repair carried out at sea level
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85 A repair is being carried out on penetration damage and both surfaces are damaged:
a both surfaces are vacuum bagged at the same time
*b while carrying out the first repair, the opposite side must be sealed with bagging
material before commencing the vacuum bagging operation
c a coat of double bond is applied to one side of the penetration before commencing the
vacuum bagging operation, this will prevent air being drawn through the repair
86 The sealant tape used to seal the bagging material should be:
a applied in a circle
*b applied in straight lines overlapping at the corners
c applied in straight lines curved at the corners
87 If a heat blanket is used during the bagging process, the thermocouple wires should placed
a to one side of the heat blanket
b on top of the heat blanket
*c under the heat blanket
88 Bagging film is
*a hydrophilic
b hydroponic
c hygroscopic
89 Bagging film is stored enclosed in a plastic wrap this is to:
*a stop the water content escaping (which would make the bagging material brittle)
b stop the bagging film from absorbing moisture in humid conditions
c stop it sticking together, which would make if difficult to unroll.
90 On completion of a repair the lower layer (peel ply) is removed, the top surface of the
repair is slightly rough in appearance, this should be:
a sanded with 400 grit to leave a smooth finish
b sanded with 250 grit to leave a smooth finish
*c it is permitted to leave in the rough condition as this allows the paint to adhere
91 What is the purpose of the bleeder layer as used during the bagging process:
*a to absorb excess resin
b to allow excess moisture to escape
c to allow vacuum pressure to bear down on the repair
92 Insulation plies are sometime used during the bagging process
*a over the heat blanket to minimise heat loss during the curing process
b under the heat blanket to minimise heat loss during the curing process
c to encapsulate the whole repair to minimise heat loss

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93. To enable a composite panel to dissipate static charge it would be:

*a sprayed with aluminium paint
b sprayed with ferrous paint
c sprayed with polyurethane paint
94. What type of resin is use in conjunction w ith Styrofoam
a polyester resin
*b epoxy resin
c double bond
95. What is the normal method of cutting Styrofoam
a with a sharp Stanley Knife
b with a fine hack saw
*c with a hot wire cutter
96. What is the normal method of cutting Urethane
*a with a sharp Stanley Knife, then sanded to shape
b with a fine hack saw
c with a hot wire cutter
97. Why cant Urethane be cut with a hot wire cutter
a it is inflammable, and would ignite
*b hazardous gas is created when urethane is subjected to heat
c the edges would bubble which would make it unsuitable for aircraft work
98. During vacuum bagging what would be regarded as a good vacuum pressure
*a 28 Hg at sea level
b 32 Hg at sea level
c 14.7 Hg at seal level
99. A natural material with good heat resisting properties is:
a wood.
* b asbestos.
c wool.
100. Asbestos must be handled using special safety precautions because:
* a the fibres are dangerous if breathed in.
b the asbestos is poison if swallowed.
c asbestos can be very hot.
101. A Cermet is:
a a low melting point metal.
b a type of jet engine part.
* c a high melting point ceramic.
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102. A thermosetting material is a material that:

a once set can return to its former state using heat.
* b once set can not return to its former state.
c once set resists corrosion.
103. An example of a thermosetting material is:
* a ceramics.
b metals.
c perspex.
104. A plastic that can be re-moulded is called:
* a thermo plastic.
b thermo setting.
c thermo rigid
105. A material that can withstand temperatures in excess of 2000
a thermo setting plastic.

EC is:

b P.T.F.E.
* c ceramic.
106. A disadvantage of a ceramic is:
a a high melting point.
b hardness.
* c brittleness.
107. Expanded honeycomb structure:
*a bends with the web
b
c
108. Which composite material has the greater stiffness?
a Kevlar
*b carbon fibre
c G.F.R.P.
109. On a Kevlar structure, electrical charge is dissipated using:
a aluminium wire woven into the fabric
*b a layer of aluminium or copper sprayed onto the surface
c

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Revised 26 Feb 2002

110. Resin and hardener are mixed to a ratio of 3:1 respectively, therefore 9 grams of hardener
would require:
a 3 grams of resin
b 6 grams of resin
*c 27 grams of resin
111 A composite solid joint is:
a cement and mechanical
b specific and mechanical
c
112 Thermo-plastic resins are usually supplied:
a alkaline etched
b solvent wiped
c
113 The vacuum bag on a composite repair should:
a overlap the breather fabric
b overlap the release film
c
114 When carrying out a composite repair the order of mixing is:
a Accelerator, catalyst, resin
b catalyst, resin, accelerator
*c resin, catalyst, accelerator
CORROSION
1. Corrosion is;
*a electro-chemical action
b electro-mechanical action
c hydro-electro action.
2. Corrosion on copper alloy can be recognised by a;
a white deposit
b black deposit
*c blue/green colour.
3. Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as;
*a layer corrosion
b sub-surface corrosion
c filiform corrosion.

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4. After welding, stainless steel is susceptible to corrosion known as;

*a weld decay
b weld rot
c weld deterioration.
5. Anodising is a form of;
*a artificial passivation
b sacrificial protection
c metallic coating.
6. When dissimilar metals are brought together or the same metal in different stages, one
metal forms the anode and the other the cathode. Which one will suffer from corrosion?
a the cathode
b both will corrode equally
*c the anode.
7. What would oily deposits around a fastener indicate
a galvanic corrosion
b intergranular corrosion
*c fretting corrosion
8. A small black oily stain originating from under the head of a rivet in light alloy structure,
may be indicative of:
a. dissimilar metal corrosion
* b. fretting corrosion
c. hydraulic oil leakage
9. Corrosion may be identified on a magnesium alloy component:
a. by a red powder, accompanied by blistering
b. by a green powder, accompanied by pitting
* c. by a grey powder, accompanied by pitting
10. Mercury attack on aluminium alloys can be recognised visually by:
* a. a greyish powder, fuzzy deposits, or whiskery growth
b. a yellowish stain or coating
c. a black stain turning to a reddish powder
11. Fretting corrosion of steel parts may be detected:
a. by rust on the surface of the component
b. by cracking of the component due to expansion of the corrosion
* c. by a deposit of dark coloured powder in the vicinity of a join

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12. In the procedure to be followed after spillage of battery acid, neutralising is carried out:
* a. with a dilute solution of sodium bicarbonate
b. by washing with distilled water
c. by applying a coating of Vaseline
13 A smoke black substance found on a metal component may be:
a inter-crystalline corrosion
b galvanic action
*c fretting corrosion
14. What is the indication of fretting corrosion on aluminium alloy;
*a black powder
b brown powder
c white powder.
15. How does filiform corrosion appear on aluminium alloy;
*a worm casts
b flakiness
c cocoa.
16. Which is the following correct statement;
a all corrosion is a chemical action
b selenious acid is used for the re-protection of aluminium alloy
*c the chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate.
17. Which type of atmospheres will encourage the highest rates of corrosion?
a temperate, Suburban.
* b tropical, Industrial, Marine.
c arctic, Rural, Inland.

18. What happens when corrosion occurs?

a the metal returns to its original state.
b the metal changes to another metal.
c the material goes red.
19. Surface corrosion on steel will appear as:
a blue green deposit.
b white deposit.
* c red brown deposit.
20. Fine hair line cracks on a piece of metal may indicate:
*a intergranular corrosion.
b filiform corrosion.
c exfoliation corrosion.
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21. What is corrosion between tw o different types of metals called?

a filiform Corrosion.
*b electrolytic Corrosion.
c steel Corrosion.
22. How can fretting corrosion be detected on the surface of an aluminium alloy?
*a by a black powder deposit.
b by a red deposit.
c by a microscope.
23. How can fretting corrosion be prevented?
*a components should be correctly mounted.
b all components should be dry.
c components should never touch.
24. Where would stress corrosion take place?
*a in minute cracks at stress points.
b on the surface of stressed parts.
c intergranular stress relief.
25. Sulphur can corrode metal very quickly and can be found in:
*a exhaust gasses.
b brake components.
c toilet areas.
26. What is the cause of Micro Biological Corrosion?
*a fungal growth in fuel tanks.
b biological contamination of the skin.
c bacterial growth in water tanks.
27. Corrosion that spreads in thin layers and lifts the surface of the metal is called:
a filiform Corrosion.
b laminated Corrosion.
*c exfoliation Corrosion.
28. White lines that appear like worm casts is evidence of which type of corrosion?
a dissimilar metal corrosion.
*b filiform corrosion.
c crevice corrosion.

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Revised 26 Feb 2002

FASTENERS
1. How is a 5% magnesium alloy rivet identified
a green in colour and the letter M on the head or shank
*b green in colour and the letter X on the head or shank
c natural in colour with the letter M on head or shank
2. What is the tangential approach when wire locking
*a 90
b 45
c 120
3. A tandard taper on a taper pin is
*a 1 in 48
b 1 in 20
c 1 in 600
4. What is the pitch of a screw thread
*a the distance between the centre of one crests to the centre of the next
b the distance between the roots of adjacent threads
c the distance travelled by a nut during one revolution
5. How many times can a rivet be heat treated
a2
b4
* c3
6. Hi-loc fasteners are in safety when:
a the hexagonal head has sheared off
*b there are at least one thread protruding from the top of the locking collar
c the collar is free to rotate
7. The major diameter of a screw thread is;
a the diameter taken across the roots
b the diameter taken across the crests of an internal thread
*c the diameter taken across the crests of an external thread.
8. When comparing a 3/8 in. BSW and a 3/8 in. BSF thread;
a the BSW will have a larger minor diameter than the BSF
b the BSF will have a smaller minor diameter than the BSW
*c the BSW will have a smaller minor diameter than the BSF.
9. Multi start threads;
*a increase the lead without increasing the pitch
b increase the lead and pitch
c increase the pitch without increasing the lead.
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Revised 26 Feb 2002

10. B.A. threads are used in;

a heavy engineering
b american aero engines
*c instruments and electrical equipment.
11. The thread angle of a BSW and BSF thread is;
a 47.5
*b 55
c 60
12. UNF means;
*a Unified Fine
b United Nations Fine
c Union National Fine.
13. Shouldered studs are used;
a to provide a strong anchorage in soft metal
b to save weight without loss of strength
*c where maximum rigidity is required.
14. Studs which have a size larger thread at one end are called;
a shouldered studs
b plain studs
*c stepped studs.
15. The tools used to restore a damaged thread are;
a plain nut with spanner
*b die nut with spanner
c cap nut with in. tap wrench.
16. To aid marking out, the surface of steel components may be treated with:
a. sal ammoniac
* b. copper sulphate solution
c. graphite grease

17. Apart from length, how is a taper pin classified:

* a. diameter of the small end
b. diameter of the middle portion
c. diameter of the large end
18. The standard taper as used for a taper pin is:
a. 1 in 20
b. 1 in 38
* c. 1 in 48
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Revised 26 Feb 2002

19. When fitting a hi-lock fastener, the lubrication used would be:
a. as specified in the maintenance manual
* b. none as it is pre-lubricating
c. as specified on the repair drawing
20. 31J on the head of a bolt indicates:
a. 3/8 dia. bolt 3.1" overall length
b. 5/16 dia. bolt 3.7/8" overall length
* c. 3/8 dia. bolt 3.1 plain portion
21. A UNJF thread is a unified thread:
* a. of high fatigue resisting properties
b. for joint application (Military and Civil)
c. for jet engine use only
22. How is a close tolerance bolt identified:
* a. by a raised disc ring
b. by "SS" on the head
c. by a machined ring under the head
23. The word "MOD" after the designation of a unified thread would specify a thread which:
* a. is for use in high temperature zones
b. is a fatigue resisting thread
c. is for use in shear applications only
24. A self locking nut provides its locking by:
a. different rates of expansion of the bolt and nut
b. needing more torque loading than a plain nut
* c. deformation of the "out of pitch" of the nut
25. Cap nuts:
* a. seal the threads on which they are fitted against leakage
b prevent over-tightening of the nut by restricting the amount of thread which may
protrude through the nut
c. indicate correct torque loading of the nut by movement of the cap
26. Stiffnuts incorporating non-metallic friction elements should not be used:
a. where torque loading is to be applied to the nut
* b. on structure exposed to excessive heat
c. unless stainless steel split pins are called for
27. Stiff nuts w hich secure control system adjusters:
* a. should have at least one thread projecting through the nut
b. should always be fitted so that the male threaded part is flush with the top of the nut
c. should be fitted with the locking device adjacent to the component
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Revised 26 Feb 2002

28. Peening:
a. should be used with stiffnuts to give positive locking
* b. should only be used when specified on a drawing
c. should be used whenever a thread projects through a nut
29. A spring washer can be used:
* a. repeatedly provided there is sufficient springiness
b. only once
c. repeatedly provided the torque loading is correct
30.

The correct size spanner for use on a 5/16" unified threaded hexagon headed bolt is:
a 5/16" A/F
b 1/4" A/F
c 1/2" A/F

31 When inserting HELICOIL insert, which w ay does the TANG face

*atowards the hole
b away from the hole
c towards the mandril
32. What tap do you use when fitting a Helicoil insert
a a tap of the original thread size
b a tap the next size up of the original thread size
*c the tap supplied with the Helicoil kit
33. When a torque loading is specified for a castellated or slotted nut on an undrilled bolt:
a. the bolt should be pre-drilled, and the torque increased if necessary to allow the split pin
to be fitted
*b the torque should be applied and the bolt suitably drilled for the split pin
c the bolt should be pre-drilled, the torque applied and the nut eased back, if necessary,
to allow the split pin to be fitted
34 The angle between starts on a double start thread is:
a 120E
b 90E
*c 180E
35 A steel stud which has broken off below the surface should be removed:
a using a stud box
*b by selecting a stud extractor for the task, and drilling a suitable size hole in the centre
of the stud
c by cutting a slot across the broken stud and using a screwdriver to extract the stud

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36 The threads on a stud:

a are of opposite hand at each end of the plain portion
b are continuous throughout its length and there is no
plain portion
*c are of the same hand at each end of the plain portion
37 On the drawing shown the bolts used are
a both left hand threads
*b both right hand threads
c one left hand and one right hand thread
39. Buttress threads are used;
a to transmit power in both directions
*b to transmit power in one direction
c on nuts and bolts.
40. Studs which have a size larger thread at one end are called;
*a stepped studs
b plain studs
c shouldered studs.
41. A spring washer when used on an aluminium component must be used;
a by itself
b with a tab washer
*c with a plain washer.
42. Nickel alloy steel split pins can be used;
a repeatedly provided they remain a good fit
*b only once, because the legs are spread and bent
c with a spring washer and stiff nut.
43 How are UNF bolts identified;
a UNF stamped on the head
b Nicks around the edge of the head
*c A series of rings on the head.
44 What does an embossed ring on the head of a bolt indicate;
a low tensile steel
*b high tensile steel, cold forged
c high tensile steel, machined.

45 What is the lead on a multi start thread;

a pitch x lead
*b pitch x starts
c pitch x thread angle.
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Revised 26 Feb 2002

46 What does 18N and contiguous circles on the head of a bolt indicate;
a 1.8 nominal length BSF.
*b 1.8 plain shank, UNF
c 1.8 threaded portion and plain shank, UNF.
47 The crest of a thread is;
a the tip of an external thread and the bottom of an internal thread
b the bottom of an external thread and the tip of an internal thread
*c the tip of the thread whether it is internal or external.
48 The lead of a thread is;
a the same as the pitch
*b the linear distance moved by a nut when turned through one revolution on a bolt
c the same as the start.
49 A coarse thread will have;
a more threads per inch than a fine thread
*b less threads per inch than a fine thread
c the same number of threads per inch as a fine thread.
50 Taper taps are used first to cut a screw thread because;
*a it is easier to start cutting the thread
b it has a smaller thread angle
c it is stronger than a plug tap.
51 It is necessary to cut the internal thread of a threaded pair first because;
a the tap is adjustable
*b the die can be adjusted to cut the external thread to the correct depth
c the die cannot be adjusted.
52 The abbreviation A/F means; aluminium
a American Fine
b Associated Fine
*c Across Flats.
53 When is a locking plate used as a locking device in preference to a tab washer;
*a When the nut is removed frequently
b When the nut is removed infrequently
c When the nut is removed from an inaccessible place.

54 On the drawing shown the bolts used are

*a both left hand threads
b both right hand threads
c one left hand and one right hand thread
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Revised 26 Feb 2002

55 An AN -12bolt is:
a 1 inch long
b 1 inches long
c 1 inches long

RIVETS
1. The heat treatment carried out to light alloy rivets, before fitment, is known as:
a. annealing
b. precipitation
* c. solution treatment
2. How is a 5% magnesium alloy rivet identified:
a. by a green anodic coating and a letter "M"
* b. by a green anodic coating and a letter "X"
c. by a violet anodic coating and a letter "S"
3. A dural rivet is identified by:
a. natural colour and a letter "S"
* b. natural colour and a letter "D"
c. anodic coating and a letter "X"
4 An aluminium alloy, snap head rivet, violet anodic finish with the identification O has
a material specification;
a L37
b L16
*c L86.
5 The anodized coating on a rivet:
a allows better paint adhesion
b reduces case hardening stress
c
6 A joggle in a rivet indicates
a shear failure
b torsion failure
c compression failure

7. The rivet allow ance to form a snap tail w ould be:

a 3xD
b 1.5D
c .75D

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Revised 26 Feb 2002

PIPES AND UNIONS

1. A marker number on a pipe indicates:
a. the type of fluid used to pressure test the pipe
b. the thickness of the wall of the pipe
* c. the specification of the pipe throughout the pipe run
2 Pipe damage on the heel of a bend is:
a not allowed
b **** 5%
c **** 10%
SPRINGS
1. Springs are manufactured from:
a high carbon alloy steel with low strength requirements
b low carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements
*c high carbon alloy steel with high strength requirements
2. Springs are usually
*a made from high carbon steel and have high working stresses
b made from high carbon steel and have low working stresses
c made from low carbon steel and have high working stresses
4 Springs are usually made from
*a made from high carbon steel
b made from alloy sprung steel
c made from copper based sprung steel
BEARINGS
1. What loads can spherical bearings take
a thrust only
b radial only
*c high radial and small angular
2. What is brinnelling on a bearing
a pitting
*b shallow spherical depressions
c scoring
3 A tapered roller bearing takes:
a thrust loads
b journal loads
*c thrust and journal loads
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Revised 26 Feb 2002

4 A spherical roller bearing will accept:

a loadings in an axial direction only
*b a minor degree of misalignment between opposite bearings
c loadings in a radial direction only
5 When inspecting an installed one dot ball bearing for rust spots and ingress of foreign
matter, the bearing should be:
*a oscillated and turned slowly to determine roughness
b spun at operational speed to determine roughness
c ultrasonic techniques must always be used
6 A needle roller bearing is used where the loading is:
a a combination of axial and radial
b axial only
*c radial only
7 Tufnol bearings used in various systems, are normally:
a lightly lubricated
b not lubricated
c pre-packed
8 What type of bearings does a hardy-spicer connector have:
a roller bearings
b needle roller bearings
c

TRANSMISSIONS
1. A small cog has 20 teeth the adjoining cog has 120 teeth, for one revolution of the small cog
what degree w ill the large one turn:
a. 45
* b. 60
c. 90
2 On a bevel gear
a the small gear is the heel
b the small gear is the toe
c the small gear is the foot
3 Gear teeth are:
*acase hardened
b hardened all the way through
c

35

Revised 26 Feb 2002

4 Gear pattern is the:

a shape of the gear
b pattern left by the engineers blue
*c layout of the gear assembly
5 With intermeshing gears the correct contact area is:
a the tip
b the mid section
c bottom of the gear
6 Epicyclic gears are used to:
*a increase or reduce the rpm on a common shaft
b
c
7 What type of gear would normally be used to reduce the rpm of a propellor drive shaft?
*a bevel or spur epicyclic
b
c
CONTROL CABLES
1. How would you inspect a chain for articulation
a proof loading
*b passing over one finger
c measuring
2. When should you proof load a cable
a Every time the cable is inspected
*b Only on manufacture
c Only required if a portion on an assembly has been replaced
3. When should you proof load a control cable
a every time the cable is inspected
*b only after swaging or splicing
c every 4 years
4. An endless chain can be identified by
*a odd numbered links
b even numbered links
c could be both as above
5 American type flying control cables are designated:
a by their minimum breaking load in hundred weights
*b by their diameter and minimum breaking load in pounds
c by the number of strands and minimum breaking load in hundred weights
36

Revised 26 Feb 2002

6 The formula used w hen checking the elongation of a chain, where:

M= Measured length under loads in inches
X= Number of pitches measured
P= Pitch of chain in inches is:
a M + (X x P) x 100
XxP
b M - (X - P) x 100
XxP
*c M - (X x P) x 100
XxP
7 Pulleys employed in a control cable system would be manufactured from
a stainless steel
*b composite material
c high tensile steel
ELECTRICAL CABLES AND CONNECTORS
1. On an electrical plug type connector the pin numbering when viewed end on
a rotates clockwise from the centre out
*b rotates anti-clockwise from the centre out
c rotates clockwise from the centre in
2. What temperature can Nyvin cable stand
*a up to 140c
b up to 200c
c up to 400
3. A thermo-couple can be
a cut to length as required
b can not be cut as it has a set capacitance
*c should not be cut
4. The pins in a front release connector are
a released from behind
*b released from the front
c released from the side
5. What temperature range should tinned copper cable connectors be used in
*a up to 135C
b up to 200C
c up to 400C

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Revised 26 Feb 2002

6. What is a HT cable
a multi core single strand
b multi strand single core
*c both of above
7. What is w et arc tracking
*a when cables are contaminated due to moisture which causes arcing
b water ingress in an electric motor
c tracking in a fuel tank
8. How can w et arc tracking be avoided
a by not doing up p clips too tight
*b avoiding hot stamp printing as this could cause insulation damage
c by protecting cables with water proof insulation
9. Electronic instrument w ires are:
*a not usually insulated
b always insulated
c
10 An X on an electrical wire indicates
*a a.c. use only
b a.c. and dc use
c d.c. use only
11. Has a 14 AWG cable a higher rating than an 18 AWG cable
*a yes
b no
c they are the same
12. The maximum load carrying capacity of an 18 AWG copper conductor:
a 7.5 amps
b 5.0 amps
*c 10 amps
13 During a fire, fire resistant cables should maintain electrical insulation for a period of:
a 10 mins
*b 5 mins
c 15 mins
14 Conductor knuckling through is caused by:
*a excessive tension when cables are being pulled through
b excessive flux residue
c hot stamp printing

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Revised 26 Feb 2002

15. The maximum temperature rating for tin coated copper cable is:
a 200c
b 260c
*c 135c
16. What is the effect of aluminium oxide on electrical cables?
a none
*b increases the resistance
c reduces the resistance
17 What is the advantage of co-axial cable over normal cable
*a it is shielded from interferance
b no corrosion on the inner core
c less internal impedance
18 When is a hydraulic crimping action complete?
a when pressure is released
b when the tool will not close any further
*c when the by-pass valve opens
19 Co-axial cable has:
*a a single conductor
b a pair of conductors twisted together
c two or more conductors
20 An HT lead is:
*a single core, screened
b multi-core, screened
c 3 strand screened
21. Equipment wire is:
*a flexible and suitable for soldering
b suitable for interconnect cables
c
22 When should a hydraulic crimping tool be checked for fluid level?
*a Before use checking it horizontally
b
c
23 On an electrical cable, what does the fourth digit in from the left indicate?
*a cable segment letter
b cable number
c cable segment letter

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Revised 26 Feb 2002

24 Interconnect cable has what thickness of insulation?

a same as normal cable
*b thinner than normal cable
c thicker than normal cable
25 Co-axial cable is preferred to airframe cable in which applications?
a high frequency interference
*b less space required
c
23 On an electrical cable, what does the fifth digit in from the left indicate?
a cable segment letter
*b cable number
c cable segment letter
24 On an electrical cable, what does the fourth digit in from the left indicate?
a circuit designation letter
*b cable segment letter
c cable number
25 What is the maximum value of secondary bonding
a 0.05 ohms
b 0.5 ohms
*c 1.0 ohms
26 what is the maximum value of primary bonding?
*a 0.05 ohms
b 0.5 ohms
c 1.0 ohms
27 The 6ft / 60ft leads on a bonding tester:
*a must stay with the bonding tester and should be sent back to the manufacturer if
damaged
b may be shortened if damaged
c new leads may be manufactured locally provided that they are of the same material
28 What is this device
*a voltage divider (potentiometer)
b fixed resister
c variable resister (rheostat
29 What is this device
a voltage divider (potentiometer)
b fixed resister
*c variable resister (rheostat)
40

Revised 26 Feb 2002

30 On the wire number shown, what does the first number indicate?
*a Unit number
b
c

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Revised 26 Feb 2002