Test 1

Test-1 (Code A)
Time : 3 Hrs.
All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)
TEST - 1
MM : 600
[ SCIENCE]
Choose the correct answer :
1.
4.
One pascal of pressure is generated by
Match the columns and choose the correct option:
(1) Force of 1 N on 1 cm2 area
Phenomena
(2) Force of 1 N on 1 mm2 area
a. A rolling ball stops
(3) Force of 1 N on 1 m2 area
2.
Cause
(i) Electrostatic force
on the ground
(4) Force of 1 kgf on 1 m2 area
b. A man rowing a boat (ii) Frictional force
A body is kept on a horizontal floor. If the area of

contact of the body is increased, then
c. Attraction of small
(iii) Muscular force
pieces of paper to
(1) Pressure increases
the charged glass rod
(2) Pressure decreases
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
(3) Pressure remains constant

(4) Pressure may increase or decrease
5.
3.
A body is kept on a rough horizontal floor and a

horizontal force is applied on it. Then the force of
friction acting on it will
The force of gravity acting on the box is 600 N. If an

upward vertical force of 200 N is applied on the box
then, how much minimum force is required to be
applied to lift the box?
(1) Always increase with increase in weight of the

body
(1) 200 N from above or 200 N from below in upward

direction
(2) Always decrease with increase in weight of the

body

direction
(3) Not be affected by the variation in weight of the

body

direction
(4) May increase or decrease with increase in the

weight of body

direction
Space for Rough Work
1/19

6.
7.
A brick weighing 50 N and having dimensions

25 cm 10 cm 5 cm is kept on the ground on
three different faces. The maximum pressure exerted
on the ground is
(1) 2 kPa
(2) 10 kPa
(3) 12 kPa
(4) 18 kPa
Test-1 (Code A)
10. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on the rough
horizontal surface. The two forces of 20 N and 50 N
are applied on the block as shown in figure given
below. If the block does not move in horizontal
direction, then the magnitude of frictional force acting
in between the block and surface is
20 N
Choose the incorrect option.

10 kg
The friction can be reduced in between the two

surfaces by
(1) Lubricating the surfaces
(1) 50 N
(2) 30 N
(2) Using ball bearings in between the surfaces
(3) 20 N
(4) 70 N
11. Tyres are provided with deep grooves on their surface

to
(3) By polishing the surfaces

(4) By reducing the area of contact in between the
surfaces
8.
9.
50 N
A man of weight W is standing on a cubical block

of weight 600 N and base area 400 cm 2. The
pressure exerted on the base is 18 kPa. The weight
W of the man is
(1) 100 N
(2) 120 N
(3) 140 N
(4) 160 N
A girl of mass 40 kg is standing on the pencil heel

of area 2 cm2. An almirah of mass 500 kg and base
area 250 cm2 is placed on the floor. If Fa, Fg are the
respective weights of almirah and girl and Pa, Pg are
their respective pressures exerted on the ground then
[Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) Reduce the manufacturing cost of material used

(2) Increase the friction
(3) Decrease the friction
(4) Make them look attractive
12. In the figure given below three containers of different
shapes but same bottom area contain liquids of
densities 1000 kg/m3, 900 kg/m3 and 800 kg/m3 up
to the heights 8 cm, 9 cm and 10 cm respectively.
Then ratio of pressures at the bottom of container is
10 cm
8 cm
9 cm
Density of
Density of
Density of
liquid = 1000 liquid = 900 liquid = 800
kg/m3
kg/m3
kg/m3
(1) Fa > Fg, Pa > Pg

(2) Fg > Fa, Pg > Pa
(3) Fa > Fg, Pg > Pa
(1) 80 : 81 : 90
(2) 80 : 90 : 80
(4) Fa = Fg, Pg > Pa
(3) 80 : 80 : 90
(4) 80 : 81 : 80
2/19
Test-1 (Code A)
13. In the figure given below, which of the following case

is possible [Given density of water = 1 g/cm 3 ;
density of mercury = 13.6 g/cm3]
Mercury
Water
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
16. Two glass balls hanging separately with the help of

string, when rubbed against polyester cloth repel
each other because
(1) Gravitational force and electrostatic force both are
repulsive
(2) Gravitational force is repulsive and electrostatic
force is attractive
(3) Gravitational force is attractive and electrostatic
force is repulsive and gravitational force is greater
in magnitude than electrostatic force
(4) Gravitational force is attractive and electrostatic
force is repulsive and gravitational force is less
in magnitude than electrostatic force
17. A block of mass m is attached to the hook of
spring balance as shown in the figure below. The
reading of the spring balance is [Take g as
acceleration due to gravity]
14. In the above figure, a container contains liquid of

density . Points A and B are at depths h1 and h2
from the top surface of the liquid. The pressure
difference in between points B and A is [Take g as
aceleration due to gravity]
h1
h2
mg
2
(3) mg
(1)
(1) (h1 + h2)g
(2) h2g
(3) (h2 h1)g
(4) Zero
15. A cubical block of mass 20 kg is kept on levelled

surface. If it exerts a pressure of 50 Pa on the surface,
the volume of the block is [Take g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 4
m3
(2) 2
m3
(2) 2 mg
(4) Zero
18. Ball bearings are used in between the axles of

bicycles because
(1) They completely remove the friction
(2) They increase the friction which helps axle to
rotate
(3) They convert static friction to dynamic friction
(3) 8 m3
(4) 2 2 m3
(4) They convert sliding friction into rolling friction

3/19

19. A body will just begin to slide when pulled
horizontally with a minimum force of 10 N. What will
be the net force acting on the body if a horizontal
force of 8 N is applied on it?
(1) 10 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 0 N
(4) 2 N
(2) 3 N
(3) 1 N
(4) 2 N
(1) Teflon
(2) Polypropene
(3) Melamine
(4) PVC
(1) Polyisoprene
(2) Neoprene
(3) Polyhydroxybutyrate (4) PHBV
(1) 7 N
25. All of the following are thermoplastics except
26. Natural rubber is
20. A block, under the action of forces F and 5 N, is

moving towards right as shown in the figure given
below. If the value of kinetic friction between the
block and surface is 2 N, then F is
5N
Test-1 (Code A)
27. Match the following :

Column-I
Column-II
a. Paper
(i) 10 to 15 years
b. Wood
(ii) 2 to 5 months
c. Cotton clothes
(iii) 10 to 30 days
d. Peels of vegetables (iv) 1 to 2 weeks

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(i), b(iii), c(iv), d(ii)
21. Polymer X is the first fully synthetic fibre and is

elastic and durable. It is used to make parachutes
and fishing nets. Polymer X is
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
28. A wool like-fibre used to make sweaters, shawls or
blankets is
(1) Nylon
(2) Cotton
(1) Terrycot
(2) Dacron
(3) Silk
(4) Rayon
(3) Orlon
(4) Rayon
29. Consider the following
22. Consider the given box.

Cotton, terylene, silk, wool, polyester
The total number of natural polymers is

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 1
(i)
: Polyester
(ii)
: Melamine
(iii)
: Starch
23. The polymer which is not found in human body is

(1) Proteins
(2) Glycogen
(3) DNA
(4) Cellulose
24. The cross linked polymer which is used for making

handles of utensils is
Now, find the incorrect match.
(1) Bakelite
(2) Melamine
(1) Only (i)
(2) Only (iii)
(3) Glycogen
(4) Nylon
(3) Both (i) & (ii)
(4) Both (ii) & (iii)
4/19
Test-1 (Code A)
30. All the given statements are the advantages of

synthetic fibres except
(1) They absorb less water, so they dry easily and
quickly
(2) They are generally less expensive and affordable
(3) They do not allow the air to pass through them
(4) They are strong and require less maintenance
36. Plastics cannot be classified on the basis of their

(1) Origin
(2) Structure
(3) Synthesis
(4) Composition
37. Compounds obtained from petroleum and natural gas

are known as
(1) Polymers
(2) Macromolecules
(3) Petrochemicals
(4) Copolymers
31. The monomer unit of teflon is

(1) Difluoroethene
(2) Styrene
(3) Ethene
(4) Tetrafluoroethene
32. The common factor between polyethene and

polystyrene is that, they both are
(1) Synthetic polymers (2) Biopolymers
(3) Natural polymers
(4) Cross-linked polymers
33. In 4R principle, R doesn't stand for

(1) Reduce
(2) Reuse
(3) Recycle
(4) Rediscover
38. Which of the following is not a variant of nylon?

(1) Nylon 66
(2) Nylon 610
(3) Nylon 6
(4) Nylon 666
39. Which of the following is not a characteristic of

plastics?
(1) Chemical resistance (2) Versatile use
(3) Light weight
34. The polyester which is widely used in making

bottles, wires and utensils is
(1) Terephthalate
(4) Biodegradability
40. The polymer that has comparatively low density and

low melting point due to irregular packing is
(2) Polyethylene terephthalate
(1) Starch
(2) Nylon
(3) Acrilan
(3) PVC
(4) Polyethene
(4) Kevlar
35. Read the following statements carefully.
Statement-1: Polyesters are the most disastrous
when they catch fire.
Statement-2: Silk is an expensive natural fibre.
Now, choose the correct option.
(1) Both the statements are correct
41. In chemistry lab, Surbhi accidently added

Acetobacter aceti in the jar containing solution of
ethyl alcohol. What would happen to ethyl alcohol
present in the jar?
(1) It would undergo aerobic fermentation and
release oxygen
(2) It would not be affected
(2) Both the statements are incorrect

(3) Only statement-1 is correct
(3) It would convert into acetic acid

(4) It would convert into methanol
5/19

42. Categorise the given breeds of cattle as, breeds of
cow and breeds of buffalo and select the correct
option.
Test-1 (Code A)
46. A farmer grows only oilseed crops and plantation
crops in his field. Which of the following groups of
plants are grown by him?
(1) Gram, barley, Sugarcane, beetroot, bean
(a) Sahiwal
(2) Sunflower, Coconut, Maize, barley, rubber
(b) Jersey
(3) Tea, Mustard, Groundnut, Castor, Coconut
(c) Jaffrabadi
(4) Tea, Coffee, Sugarcane, cotton, Jute, Oat
(d) Mehsana
47.
(e) Murrah
Breeds of cow
Breeds of buffalo
Pathogen
Diseases
Female
Anopheles
Filarial worm
Dengue virus
Dengue
Carrier
(1)
(a), (b)
(c), (d), (e)
(2)
(a), (c)
(d), (b), (e)
(3)
(a), (e), (d)
(b), (c)
Identify A, B, C, D and E.
(4)
(b), (d), (c)
(e), (a)
(1) A Male Culex mosquito

B Male Aedes mosquito
43. The grains should be stored at low temperature to
C Plasmodium
(1) Increase the population of pest
D Malaria
(2) Initiate germination of seeds
E Filariasis
(3) Increase the moisture content
(2) A Female Culex mosquito

B Female Aedes mosquito
(4) Prevent the growth of microbes
C Plasmodium
44. Which of the following is incorrect regarding viruses?

(1) They have either RNA or DNA coated with
proteins as their genetic material
D Malaria
E Filariasis
(3) A Female Aedes
(2) They lack a cellular structure
B Female Culex mosquito
(3) They are facultative parasites
C Leishmania
(4) They are neither living nor non-living
D Kala azar
E Sleeping sickness
45. The bacteria which causes cholera is

(1) Rod-shaped
(4) A Housefly
B Sandfly
(2) Spiral-shaped
C Trypanosoma
(3) Spherical shaped
D Sleeping Sickness
(4) Comma-shaped
E Kala azar
6/19
Test-1 (Code A)
48. A person with following symptoms was admitted to

the hospital. Identify the disease the person is
suffering from, its causal agent and its mode of
transmission.
Painless watery diarrhoea followed by vomiting.
Excessive loss of water from the body.
Rapid dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
Causal
Mode of
organism
transmission
(1) Tubercul- Mycobacterium Inhalation of
osis
tuberculosis
infected droplets
released through
coughing,
sneezing, etc.
Manoj- (a) Sprinkler method

(b) Seed drill
(c) Thresher
(d) Vermicompost
(e) Musk melon
Mansi- (a) Drip system
(b) Hoe
(c) Winnowing
Disease
(2) Typhoid
(3) Cholera
(4) Chicken
pox
Contaminated
Salmonella
food and water
typhi
Vibrio cholerae Contaminated
water and food
(d) Green manure

(e) Water melon
Puneet-(a) Sprinkler method
(b) Seed drill
(c) Thresher
(d) Vermicompost
(e) Water melon
Payal- (a) Moat
(b) Seed drill
Varicella zoster Dew drop like

rashes on skin,
virus
fever,
uneasiness
49. Shweta uprooted berseem and pea plants from the

field and saw nodules on the roots. These nodules
contain bacteria which
(1) Convert free atmospheric nitrogen into nitrates
(2) Enrich the soil with phosphorus and potassium
(3) Help in weeding
(4) Act as a fertilizer
50. In an examination, students were asked to name the
following.
(a) A modern method of irrigation useful for sandy
soil.
(b) A tool used for both sowing seeds and weeding.
(c) A machine which separates seeds from the chaff.
(d) A manure prepared using earthworms.
(e) A crop grown between March and June.
Some students gave the following answers.
(c) Khurpi
(d) Vermicompost
(e) Rice
Arya- (a) Drip system
(b) Seed drill
(c) Thresher
(d) Compost
(e) Wheat
Arti-
(a) Sprinkler method

(b) Seed drill
(c) Thresher
(d) Vermicompost
(e) Groundnut
Which students gave all the correct answers?

(1) Payal, Puneet and Arya
(2) Mansi, Payal and Arya
(3) Puneet and Arti
(4) Manoj and Puneet
7/19

51. Saumya, in her kitchen garden observed burnt
appearance of leaves, curling and wrinkling of leaves
of the okra plant. What is the causative agent of the
disease and its mode of transmission?
Causative agent
(1) Xanthomonas citri
Mode of
transmission
Air
(2) Yellow vein mosaic virus Insect

(3) Puccinia graminis
Air and seeds
(4) Yellow vein mosaic virus Air and water

52. After eating noodles, fried rice and Manchurian from
a road side food stall, Suresh started vomiting and
suffered from diarrhoea and nausea. The doctor said
he is suffering from food poisoning caused by
bacterial infection. Which of the following organisms
could be the cause of it?
Test-1 (Code A)
(3) P To produce eggs
Q To collect nectar
R To fertilize the queen
(4) P To produce bee wax
Q To produce honey
R To fertilize the queen
54. Categorize the given crops as rabi and kharif crops
and select the correct option.
(a) Maize
(b) Gram
(c) Jowar
(d) Bajra
(e) Linseed
(f) Soyabean
(g) Wheat
(h) Mustard
(i) Rice
(j) Ground nut
(k) Pea
(l) Barley
Rabi crop
(1) Salmonella and Clostridium
Kharif crop
(1) (c), (f), (g), (h), (k), (l) (a), (b), (d), (e), (i), (j)
(2) Aspergillus and Penicillium

(3) Salmonella and Penicillium
(2) (a), (b), (e), (f), (i), (j) (c), (d), (g), (h), (k), (l)
(4) Clostridium and Aspergillus
(3) (b), (e), (f), (h), (k), (l) (a), (c), (d), (g), (i), (j)
P Q Q R R R R
R
Q Q Q R R R
53.
Q Q R R R R
R R R R R R R R
Beehive
The P, Q and R are the different castes of a
honey bee. P and R are diploid and Q is haploid.
What are the functions of P, Q and R?
(1) P To make a beehive
(4) (b), (e), (g), (h), (k), (l) (a), (c), (d), (f), (i), (j)
55. Raghu's grandmother added oil and salt in raw
mangoes while preparing pickle. The purpose of
adding salt and oil is to
(1) Enhance the taste of the pickle
(2) Check the growth of microorganisms
(3) Smoothen the mangoes by breaking their cell
walls
(4) Increase the moisture content
Q To produce bee wax
56. Select the incorrect match.
R To lay eggs
(1) Rinderpest of cattle
Virus
(2) Anthrax
Bacteria
Q To fertilize the queen
(3) Mastitis of cattle
Protozoan
R To collect nectar and maintain the beehive
(4) Ranikhet of poultry birds Virus
(2) P To produce eggs
8/19
Test-1 (Code A)
57. While preparing curd, your mother adds small

amount of curd in the warm milk to
(1) Decrease the temperature of the milk
62. A doctor was explaining about different shots of BCG

and HBV vaccine to a couple who just gave birth to
twins. These two vaccines would prevent the twins
from
(2) Initiate fermentation

(1) Cholera and chicken pox
(3) Convert lactic acid into lactose

(4) Promote multiplication of Lactobacillus
58. All of the following prevents the growth of unwanted
plants in the field, except
(2) Tuberculosis and hepatitis

(3) Small pox and tuberculosis
(4) Typhoid and measles
63. ______was the first antibiotic discovered by ______.
(1) Atrazine
(2) Butachlor
(3) DDT
(4) 2, 4, 1- MCPA
59. Which of the following methods is the best irrigation

method for irrigating plants present in semi-arid and
arid zones?
(1) Penicillin, Alexander Fleming

(2) Tetracycline, Edward Jenner
(3) Chloramphenicol, Norman Borlaug
(4) Ampicillin, Alexander Fleming
(1) Moat
64. All of the following are chemical preservatives used

to preserve jams, jellies, etc., except
(2) Canal system

(3) Rahat
(1) Sodium metabisulphite
(4) Drip system
(2) Vinegar
60. A farmer dumps plant and animal wastes in a pit,

covers it and leaves it to decompose. After and
during the process they would obtain_____ and ____.
(1) Compost, biogas
(3) Sodium hydroxide

(4) Sodium benzoate
65. Akansha observed that farmers were using a curved
blade for harvesting the crop manually. The tool
used by farmers was
(2) Green manure, vermicompost

(3) Urea, biogas
(4) Potash, urea
61. All of the given reasons support that seeds should
be sown at proper depth, except
(1) To get enough air for respiration
(2) Thresher
(3) Cotton strippers
(4) Khurpi
66. Fumes of which of the following are sprayed over the

stored grains to prevent them against pest infection?
(1) Benzene hexachloride
(2) To prevent eaten by the birds

(3) To reduce the struggle while passing through the
layers of soil to get sunlight and fresh air
(4) To prevent overcrowding of plants
(1) Sickle
(2) Methyl bromide

(3) Malathion
(4) Butachlor
9/19

67. For a school project, students were asked to bring
the seeds of high yielding varieties of wheat.
Students brought the following.
Ranjan Jaya and Padma
Rohit Arjun, Sonalika and Pusa lerma
Test-1 (Code A)
70. In a school exhibition, a student was demonstrating
the preservation technique developed by Louis
Pasteur for preserving milk. Select the procedure
followed by him.
(1) He heated the chilled milk at 72C for 30 sec
Savita Ganga-101 and Pusa-205

Reema Sharbati Sonora and Kalyan Sona
(2) He added one spoon of sodium benzoate in

1 litre of milk.
Bhanu Kalyan Sona and Sonalika

(3) He heated the milk for about 15-30 seconds at
70C and suddenly chilled.
Karan Arjun and Sonalika

Jasmine Jaya, Padma and Pusa-205
How many students brought the correct varieties of
wheat?
(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two
68. Statement-1: White leghorn is the most popular

breed of broiler all over the world.
Statement-2: Poultry bird reared for meat is called
broiler.
(4) He added a spoon of sugar and curd in the milk

and heated for 15-30 seconds at 70C and
chilled suddenly.
71. X is a fungus which affects the wheat crop and
causes a disease Y in which brown pustules can
be observed on the stalk, leaves and leaf sheath.
The pustules burst and release a mass of black
spores.
Identify X, Y and the mode of transmission of Y.

(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are incorrect

69. Match the following columns and select the correct
option
Column-I
Column-II
a. Anthrax
(i) Salmonella typhi
b. Tuberculosis
(ii) Bacillus anthracis
c. Typhoid
(iii) Varicella zoster virus
d. Chicken pox
(iv) Mycobacterium
tuberculosis
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(1) Puccinia
graminis
Rust of wheat
(2) Xanthomonas Citrus canker

citri
Mode of
transmission
of Y
Air and
Seeds
Air
(3) Bacillus
anthracis
Yellow Vein
Water
mosaic disease
(4) Yellow Vein

mosaic virus
Anthrax
(3) a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
10/19
Insect
Test-1 (Code A)
72. Which of the following is not the correct difference

between manure and fertilizers?
Manures
Fertilizers
(1) They are prepared in

fields
They are prepared

in factories
(2) They contain small

amounts of essential
plant nutrients
They are rich in

plants nutrients
(3) They do not add any

humus to the soil
They add a lot of

humus to the soil
(4) Nutrients present in

them are absorbed
slowly by the crop
Being soluble in
water, they are
readily absorbed
by the crop plants
73. Identify the tool according to the given information.
(i) Used for weeding
(ii) Used for loosening of the soil
(iii) Has a long rod of wood or iron and a strong,
broad and bent plate of iron fixed at one end.
(1) Combine
(2) Khurpi
(3) Cultivator
(4) Hoe
74. Identify the incorrect statement regarding the fungus
used for the anaerobic conversion of sugar into
alcohol.
(1) It is grown on natural sugars present in barley,
wheat, etc.
(2) It is Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) It is unicellular
(4) It is also used for preparation of curd
75. Select the correct sequence of practices followed
while growing a crop.
(1) Tilling Sowing Manuring Irrigation
Harvesting
(2) Sowing Tilling Irrigation Manuring
Harvesting
(3) Ploughing Irrigation Sowing Harvesting
Manuring
(4) Irrigation Manuring Sowing Ploughing
Harvesting
76. Today many people are suffering from vitamin-D

deficiency. Which of the following should they
in-corporate in their diet to fulfil the deficiency?
(1) Papaya and carrot
(2) Boiled eggs
(3) Cod and shark liver oil
(4) Apricot and chicken
77. The vaccine for infantile paralysis was introduced by
(1) Louis Pasteur
(2) Alexander Fleming
(3) Sabin and Salk
(4) Edward Jenner
78. Select the incorrect match.
(1) Edward Jenner Father of immunology
(2) Anton Van Leeuwenhoek Father of microbiology
(3) Robert Koch Discovered Bacillus anthracis
(4) Alexander Fleming Discovered fermentation
79. Categorise the following diseases as bacterial, viral
and protozoan and select the correct option.
(a) Cholera
(b) AIDS
(c) Typhoid
(d) Tuberculosis
(e) Polio
(f) Hepatitis
(g) Malaria
(h) Chicken pox
(i) Measles
Bacterial
Viral
Protozoan
(1) (a), (b), (d)
(c), (e), (f), (i)
(2) (a), (c), (d)
(b), (e), (f), (h), (i) (g)
(g), (h)
(3) (f), (g), (h), (i) (a), (b), (c)
(d), (e)
(4) (b), (e), (f)
(a), (g), (h)
(i), (d), (c)
80. Why do farmers remove plants such as motha,

chauli, bathua, growing along with the main crops?
(1) These compete with the main crop for water,
nutrients, space and light which reduces the
growth of main crop
(2) Their yield is high than the main crop
(3) Their demand is less
(4) They take more time to grow than the main
crop
11/19
Test-1 (Code A)
[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. If two adjacent sides of a quadrilateral are given,
then to draw a unique quadrilateral, we need
(1) One angle
(2) Two angles
(3) Three angles
(4) One side
85. The quadrilateral PQRS shown below can be

constructed with ease, if the construction is started
with
P
8 cm
82. Given four distinct quadrilaterals, a square, a

rectangle, a kite and a rhombus, which of the
following quadrilaterals must have perpendicular
diagonals?
30 Q
40
m
12 c
(1) Rectangle and square
9 cm
(2) Square, kite and rhombus

(3) Kite and rectangle
(4) Rhombus, kite and rectangle
83. A farmer has 10 sheep and 8 chickens. If the ratio
of their heads to legs is k, then the additive inverse
of k is
9
(1)
28
(3)
3
26
(1) Diagonal QS
(2) Side PS
(3) Side PQ
(4) Side RS
86. In the given figure, if a regular pentagon and a regular

hexagon overlap each other, then which of the
following options is correct?
7
(2)
27
(4)
3
26
84. If N, W, Z and Q represent the system of natural

numbers, whole numbers, integers and rational
numbers respectively, then which of the following
systems must follow the closure property under
subtraction, addition and multiplication?
(2) b > c > a
(3) c > b > a
(4) a > c > b
87. Which of the following is not a linear equation?

(1) x(x2 + 2x + 3) = x2(x + 2) 7x + 4
(2)
1
4
=
x3
x2
(3)
3( x 2 1) 2( x 2 4 x )
3
2
(3) W, Z and Q
(4) Z and Q
(4) x + 4 =
12/19
(1) a > b > c
(1) N and W
(2) N, W, Z and Q
3
2
x
Test-1 (Code A)
88. If the reciprocal of a number x is same as x and b

is the number whose reciprocal is
3
more than the
2
square of x, then the number c b
2
is not a/an
5
(1) Natural number
(2) Rational number
(3) Integer
(4) Whole number
89. If one side and two diagonals are given in a

parallelogram, then which of the following properties
is used to construct a parallelogram?
(2) Opposite sides are parallel and equal
(4) Co-interior angles are supplementary
90. The sum of all the interior angles of a septagon is
(3) 900
(4) 1440
91. Denominator of a rational number is 3 more than its

numerator. If 7 is added to the numerator and 1 is
subtracted from the denominator, then the new
number becomes
4
. The rational number is
3
(1)
13
16
(2)
17
13
(3)
13
15
(4)
14
17
(2) Three acute angles
(3) Four acute angles
(4) One acute angle
xa xb xc
3 , where a, b and c are

bc ca ab
positive real numbers, then x is equal to
95. If
(1) a + 2b c
(2) a + b + c
(3) 3a + 2b + c
(4) a + 2b + 3c
(1) 2
(3) Diagonals bisect each other
(2) 750
(1) Two acute angles
96. The minimum number of known measurements to

construct a kite uniquely is
(1) Opposite angles are equal
(1) 1080
94. The interior angles of a convex polygon cannot be

more than
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5
97. If a, b and c are chosen from the three numbers
2
, 4 and 6, then the largest possible value of the
3
a 2
expression c is
b
(1)
8
27
(2)
4
3
(3)
3
2
(4)
2
3
98. In the given figure, if PQRS is a parallelogram such

that QRS = 70, SPT = 37 and PQ = PT, then
the measure of TQR is
1 1
1
1 x 0, then 6x is not a/an

x 2x 3 x
(1) Natural number
(2) Odd number
92. If
(3) Prime number
(4) Even number
93. A quadrilateral whose one measurement is enough

for its construction is a
70
37
(1) Square
(2) Parallelogram
(1) 103.5
(2) 73.5
(3) Rectangle
(4) Rhombus
(3) 97.5
(4) 94.5
13/19

99. In which of the following options, we cannot
construct a unique quadrilateral ABCD?
(1) AB = 6 cm, AD = 7 cm and A = 60, where
ABCD is a parallelogram
(2) BC = 7 cm and C = 30, where ABCD is a
rhombus
(3) CD = 6 cm and BC = 8 cm, where ABCD is a
rectangle
(4) AC = 8 cm and BD = 10 cm, where ABCD is
a kite
100. If the sum of two numbers is 21 and the difference
between them is 3, then the smaller number is
(1) 9
(2) 12
(3) 14
(4) 7
101. If a and b are integers such that a < b, then the

number of integers between 2a and 2b is
(1) a + b 1
(2) 2b 2a 2
(3) 2b 2a 1
(4) 2b a + 2
102. In the given figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle

whose vertices lie on a rhombus PQCS. If AB = PQ,
then which of the following options is correct?
P
b
Test-1 (Code A)
104. The difference of the digits of a two digit number is
4. If the sum of the number formed by reversing the
digits and the original number is 110, then the
product of its digits is
(1) 21
(2) 12
(3) 13
(4) 32
105. The quadrilateral which can be constructed with the

help of only two diagonals uniquely is a
(1) Kite
(2) Parallelogram
(3) Rhombus
(4) Rectangle
106. If a, b, c and d are rational numbers such that

a + 1 = b + 2 = c + 3 = d + 4 = a + b + c + d + 5,
then a + b + c + d is equal to
(1)
17
3
(2)
10
3
(3)
8
3
(4)
23
3
107. If x and y are two numbers such that 2002x 4004x

= 8008 and 2002y + 6006y = 40040, then the
average of x and y is
(1) 6
B
Q
(3)
1
2
(2)
5
2
(4) 7
108. ABCD is a rhombus such that AC = 6 cm and

BD = 8 cm. The length of DA is
(1) b + d = a
C
(2) b + a + d = 160
(3) a > b + d
(4) b + a + 2d = 180
103. Sumaiya had to multiply two positive integers. She

incorrectly took 54 instead of taking 45 as one of
the multipliers. As a result, the product went up by
720. Then, the new product is
(1) 8 cm
(2) 5 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 14 cm
109. Which of the following options is incorrect?

(1) An octagon has 20 diagonals.
(2) A hexagon has 4 diagonals more than a
pentagon.
(1) 4320
(2) 2340
(3) Triangle has no diagonal.
(3) 3600
(4) 4230
(4) A diagonal always lie inside the polygon.

14/19
Test-1 (Code A)
110. If a and b are positive integers such that a > 1 and

b > 1, then which of the following has greatest
value?
114. If the sum of the three different positive integers is

7, then which of the following rational numbers does
not lie between its sum and product?
(1)
a
b 1
(2)
a
b 1
(1)
36
5
(2)
127
14
(3)
2a
2b 1
(4)
2a
2b 1
(3)
102
13
(4)
25
3.5
111. If z 1, z 2 and z 3 are rational numbers such that
1
1
1
< z 1 < z 2 < z3 <
and z1
= z2 z1 =
4
3
4
z3 z2 =
1
z3, then z1 is equal to
3
25
(1)
48
(3)
115. In the given figure, if a square, an equilateral triangle

and a regular pentagon share a common point P,
then the value of is
13
(2)
48
5
24
(4)
1
48
112. The product of two rational numbers is 3. If one

rational number is 16, then the multiplicative inverse
of the other number is
(1)
16
3
(2)
3
16
(3)
16
3
(4)
3
16
(1) 102
(2) 103
(3) 78
(4) 63
116. Two rational numbers are removed from the six

rational numbers
2
. The product of the
3
two removed rational numbers is
sum of the remaining four is
(1)
1
180
(2)
1
216
(3)
1
125
(4)
1
108
113. In the given figure, if LIKE is an isosceles trapezium

with LI | | EK, then the length of LM is
20 cm
I
cm
10
(1) 5 cm
N
36 cm
(2) 6 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 8 cm
1 1 1 1 1
1
, , , ,
and
so that the
3 6 9 12 15
18
117. The length of a rectangle exceeds its breadth by

3 cm. If the length and breadth are each increased
by 4 cm, the perimeter of the new rectangle will be
22 cm more than half the perimeter of the given
rectangle, then the breadth of the given rectangle is
(1) 1.5 cm
(2) 2.6 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 3.4 cm
15/19

118. In the given figure, ABCD is a cyclic quadrilateral,
if A = (a + 30), B = (20 + b) and
C = (2b a + 40), then the measure of D is
Test-1 (Code A)
119. If a = 1
1
......., then b in terms of a is equal to
49
A
B
1 1 1
1 1

........, and b = 1
+
4 9 16
9 25
(1)
4a
3
(2)
3a
4
(3)
2a
3
(4)
4a
7
120. In a polygon, if the number of sides is same as the

number of diagonals, then the polygon must be a/an
C
(1) 75
(2) 105
(1) Square
(2) Pentagon
(3) 95
(4) 55
(3) Octagon
(4) Triangle
[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
Directions (Q.121 to Q.123): Find the missing term in
following patterns
125. If p > q > r + s, then
121. 125, 127, 130, 135, 142, 153, ?

(1) 165
(2) 166
(3) 167
(4) 168
(2) 16
(3) 21
(4) 20
(2) 625
(3) 676
(4) 576
(3) p > s q < r
(4) p > r q < s
(1) p > r + s > q
(2) r < s p < q
(3) q > r + s > p
(4) p < q r < s
Directions (Q.127 to Q.129): Read the information given

below carefully and answer the following question:
123. 289, 324, 361, 400, 484, 529, ?

(1) 586
(2) p > s r < q
126. If p < q > r s, then
122. 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ?
(1) 18
(1) p > s + q < r
Directions (Q.124 to Q.126): Read the given information

and answer the following question:
a bmean a is greater than b, a + b means a is less
than b, a > b means a b and a < b means a + b
124. If p < q p < r, then
(i)
Some person P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are standing

in a row, not necessarily in order.
(ii)
T is standing exactly in the middle of the row and

second to the right of P.
(iii) Q, R and V are not at the ends, but R and V are

adjacent to each other.
(iv) Q is standing at the 4th position to the left of S.
127. Who is standing at left end?
(1) q + r
(2) q r
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) r q
(4) p < q + p < r
(3) U
(4) R
16/19
Test-1 (Code A)
128. The person standing at second to the left of sixth

position from left is
(1) S
(2) U
(3) V
(4) T
Directions (Q.133 to Q.135): In this question Column-I

has some words which are coded in numbers given in
Column-II.
129. The person who is adjacent to U and Q is

(1) S
(2) P
(3) R
(4) T
2 1
3 2
Column-II
ROSE
1246
SUN
257
NOSE
7246
Read the above information carefully and answer the

following questions.
130. The three position of a same dice is given
Column-I
133. The code for R is
4 3
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 1
(4) 2
134. 7 is code for

Which number is opposite to 1?
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 3
(2) 250
(3) 150
(4) 170
(2) N
(3) S
(4) U
135. The code for ONES can be
131. A cube is painted blue on all of its faces. Now it cut

into 343 smaller cubes of equal size. How many
smaller cubes are painted on one surface only?
(1) 160
(1) O
132. Count the number of cubes in adjacent figure.
(1) 4672
(2) 4572
(3) 7614
(4) 4172
Directions (Q.136 to Q.138): Four friends Shweta, Ruchi,

Indu and Bhanu likes to speak in French, Spanish, Hindi,
and Sanskrit, not necessarily in order. Each one likes to
speak only one language. The person who speak Hindi
did not like to eat Poha or Noddles. The person speak
French like Pizza. Indu like poha and did not speak
Sanskrit. Ruchi not like idli or Noddles. Shweta does not
speak French or Sanskrit. Each one like only one food.
136. Who speak French?
(1) Shweta
(2) Indu
(3) Ruchi
(4) Bhanu
137. Who like Noddles?

(1) Shweta
(2) Indu
(3) Ruchi
(4) Bhanu
138. Which of the following pair is correct?

(1) 100
(2) 112
(1) Spanish Poha
(2) Shweta Pizza
(3) 84
(4) 108
(3) Bhanu Idli
(4) Indu Hindi
17/19

139. If south becomes north-east, then north-west
becomes
(1) North-east
(2) North
(3) South
(4) East
140. Akhil starts from point A towards east and after 10
m he reaches at B. He take left turn and move
further 10 m to reaches at point C. Now he take
right turn and move further 10 m to point D. He is
facing now towards.
(1) North
(2) East
(3) South
(4) West
141. A person facing towards north turned by 135 in
clockwise and 90 in anticlokwise and 135 further in
same direction. Now the person is facing towards
(1) South-west
(2) North-west
(3) South
(4) West
142. 86 : 7 : : 66 : 6 : : 46 : 5 : : 28 : ?
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 8
Directions (Q.143 & Q.144): Choose an answer figure
which has same relation with figure(C) as figure(A) and
(B) have in problem figure:
Test-1 (Code A)
144. Problem figure
Answer Figure
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Directions (Q.145 to Q.147): Find the mirror image in the

following questions.
145.
143. Problem figure
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Answer Figure
(1)
(2)
146. HOVERCRAFT
(3)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
18/19
Test-1 (Code A)
147. 1728195642
149.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Directions (Q.148 to Q.150): Choose a correct option to
complete the given figure in the following questions.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
148.
150.
?
(1)
(3)
(2)
(4)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

19/19
Test-1 (Code A) - (Answers & Hints)
TEST - 1
Test Date : 18-10-2015
ANSWERS
1.
(3)
31.
(4)
61.
(4)
91.
(1)
121. (2)
2.
(2)
32.
(1)
62.
(2)
92.
(4)
122. (3)
3.
(1)
33.
(4)
63.
(1)
93.
(1)
123. (4)
4.
(2)
34.
(2)
64.
(3)
94.
(2)
124. (2)
5.
(4)
35.
(1)
65.
(1)
95.
(2)
125. (1)
6.
(2)
36.
(4)
66.
(2)
96.
(2)
126. (4)
7.
(4)
37.
(3)
67.
(2)
97.
(4)
127. (3)
8.
(2)
38.
(4)
68.
(2)
98.
(2)
128. (4)
9.
(3)
39.
(4)
69.
(4)
99.
(4)
129. (2)
10.
(1)
40.
(1)
70.
(3)
100. (1)
130. (4)
11.
(2)
41.
(3)
71.
(1)
101. (3)
131. (3)
12.
(4)
42.
(1)
72.
(3)
102. (3)
132. (4)
13.
(2)
43.
(4)
73.
(4)
103. (1)
133. (3)
14.
(3)
44.
(3)
74.
(4)
104. (1)
134. (2)
15.
(3)
45.
(4)
75.
(1)
105. (3)
135. (1)
16.
(4)
46.
(3)
76.
(3)
106. (2)
136. (3)
17.
(3)
47.
(2)
77.
(3)
107. (3)
137. (4)
18.
(4)
48.
(3)
78.
(4)
108. (2)
138. (1)
19.
(3)
49.
(1)
79.
(2)
109. (4)
139. (3)
20.
(1)
50.
(4)
80.
(1)
110. (2)
140. (2)
21.
(1)
51.
(2)
81.
(3)
111. (2)
141. (4)
22.
(3)
52.
(1)
82.
(2)
112. (1)
142. (1)
23.
(4)
53.
(2)
83.
(1)
113. (2)
143. (2)
24.
(1)
54.
(4)
84.
(4)
114. (2)
144. (4)
25.
(3)
55.
(2)
85.
(1)
115. (1)
145. (3)
26.
(1)
56.
(3)
86.
(4)
116. (1)
146. (2)
27.
(4)
57.
(4)
87.
(4)
117. (1)
147. (1)
28.
(3)
58.
(3)
88.
(1)
118. (2)
148. (2)
29.
(4)
59.
(4)
89.
(3)
119. (2)
149. (2)
30.
(3)
60.
(1)
90.
(3)
120. (2)
150. (3)
1/7
Hints to Selected Questions

[ SCIENCE]
9.
Answer (3)
1.
Answer (3)
2.
Answer (2)
3.
Answer (1)
= 500 10
4.
Answer (2)
= 5000 N
5.
Answer (4)
Fa = 500g
Fg = 40g
Fg = 400 N
200 N
600 N
Fa Fg
Pg =
F = 400 N
400
2 2 10 4
= 1000 kPa
Pg = 1000 kPa
600 N
Pa
200 N
Pa = 200 kPa
F + 200 = 600
F = 400 N
6.
5000 104
250
Pg > Pa
10. Answer (1)
Answer (2)
11. Answer (2)
P=
Force
50
= 10 kPa
Area(minimum) 10 5 104
12. Answer (4)

P = hg
7.
Answer (4)
P1 : P2 : P3
8.
Answer (2)
1h1 : 2h2 : 3h3
0.08 1000 : 0.09 900 : 0.1 800
80 : 81 : 80
13. Answer (2)

14. Answer (3)
15. Answer (3)
600 N
P=
Pressure =
W 600
= 18 103
Area
W + 600 = 18 103 400 104

W + 600 = 720
W = 720 600 = 120 N
2/7
Force 200
2
Area
L
50 =
200
L2
L2 = 4
L = 2 meter
Volume = (2)3 = 8 m3

42. Answer (1)
16. Answer (4)
Sahiwal and Jersey are breeds of cow.
17. Answer (3)
43. Answer (4)
18. Answer (4)
Micro-organisms and enzymes are most active at

moderate temperature.
19. Answer (3)
8N
44. Answer (3)

Viruses are obligate parasites.
8N
45. Answer (4)

Limiting friction = 10 N
Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae
F=88=0N
46. Answer (3)
20. Answer (1)
47. Answer (2)

A Female Culex mosquito
5N
2N
F 7N
21. Answer (1)
B Female Aedes mosquito

C Plasmodium
D Malaria
E Filariasis
22. Answer (3)
48. Answer (3)
23. Answer (4)
49. Answer (1)
24. Answer (1)
50. Answer (4)
25. Answer (3)
(a) Sprinkler method
26. Answer (1)
(b) Seed drill
27. Answer (4)
(c) Thresher
28. Answer (3)
(d) Vermicompost
29. Answer (4)
(e) Zaid crops, watermelon and muskmelon
30. Answer (3)
51. Answer (2)
31. Answer (4)
52. Answer (1)
32. Answer (1)

33. Answer (4)
34. Answer (2)
35. Answer (1)
36. Answer (4)
37. Answer (3)
38. Answer (4)
39. Answer (4)
40. Answer (1)
41. Answer (3)
Acetobacter aceti converts ethyl alcohol into acetic
acid.
Salmonella and Clostridium are bacteria which cause

food poisoning and Aspergillus and Penicillium are
fungi which cause food poisoning.
53. Answer (2)
P queen, Q drone, R worker
54. Answer (4)
Kharif crops are sown in the month of June and
harvested in September and rabi crops are sown in
October and harvested in March.
55. Answer (2)
56. Answer (3)
Mastitis of cattle is caused by bacteria.
3/7

57. Answer (4)

68. Answer (2)
58. Answer (3)

DDT is a pesticide and the other three are
weedicides.
White leghorn is the most popular breed of egg

laying poultry.
69. Answer (4)
59. Answer (4)

70. Answer (3)
60. Answer (1)

61. Answer (4)
Placing seeds at proper intervals prevent
overcrowding of plants.
62. Answer (2)
Louis Pasteur invented the technique of

pasteurisation.
71. Answer (1)
72. Answer (3)
HBV vaccine is given against hepatitis and BCG

vaccine is given against tuberculosis.
73. Answer (4)

74. Answer (4)
63. Answer (1)

Penicillin was the first antibiotic to be discovered.
Yeast undergo anaerobic fermentation.
64. Answer (3)
75. Answer (1)
65. Answer (1)
76. Answer (3)
Sickle is a curved blade used for harvesting.
77. Answer (3)
66. Answer (2)

Polio is known as infantile paralysis.
Methyl bromide is a fumigant
78. Answer (4)
67. Answer (2)

Sharbati Sonora, Kalyan sona, Pusa Lerma,
Sonalika, Arjun are the HYVs of wheat.
79. Answer (2)

80. Answer (1)
[ MATHEMATICS ]
81. Answer (3)
91. Answer (1)
82. Answer (2)
Let the numerator be x.
83. Answer (1)
Then, the denominator = x + 3
84. Answer (4)

Original rational number =
85. Answer (1)

86. Answer (4)
According to the question,
a + c = 120
(i)
and a + b = 108
(ii)
Also, a + 2 120 + 2 108 = 5 108

a = 84
From (i) and (ii), we get
c = 36 and b = 24
a>c>b
87. Answer (4)
88. Answer (1)
89. Answer (3)
90. Answer (3)
4/7
x
x3
New rational number =
x7
x7
x 3 1 x 2
x7 4
x2 3
On cross multiplying, we get

3x + 21 = 4x + 8
x = 13
So, the original rational number =
x
13
x 3 16
92. Answer (4)

93. Answer (1)
94. Answer (2)
We know that the sum of all the exterior angles in
a polygon is 360. At each vertex of the polygon
where there is an acute angle, the exterior angle is
greater than 90. If there are four or more acute
angles, then the sum of the exterior angles at these
vertices will be greater than 360, which is
impossible.
95. Answer (2)
xa xb xc
3
bc ac ba
xa
xb
xc
1
1
1 0
bc
ac
ba
x (a b c ) x (a b c ) x ( c b a )
0
bc
ac
ba
103. Answer (1)

Let the number be x.
Now, 54x 45x = 720
x = 80
So, the new product = 80 54 = 4320.
104. Answer (1)
105. Answer (3)
106. Answer (2)
a+1=b+2=c+3=d+4=a+b+c+d+5
a+1=b+2
b=a1
Similarly, a + 1 = c + 3, d = a 3 and c = a 2
Now, a + b + c + d + 5 = d + 4
a+b+c=1
a + a 1 + a 2 = 1
3a = 2
a=
1
1
1
0
[x (a + b + c)]
b c c a a b
x=a+b+c
2
3
a+b+c+d=a4=
96. Answer (2)

=
97. Answer (4)

98. Answer (2)
107.
108.
109.
110.
99. Answer (4)

100. Answer (1)
101. Answer (3)
102. Answer (3)
Since, AB = PQ
AC = SC
SAC = ASC = a
ACS = 180 2a
PQCS is a rhombus,
S = Q = a
Now,
A
a
QC = BC
CBQ = BQC = a
Also, a + b + ABC = 180
a + b = 120
(i)
Also, d = 180 2a
(ii)
S + C = 180
[ PQCS is a rhombus]
a + 180 2a + 180 2a + 60 = 180

3a = 240
a = 80
From (ii), d = 20
and from (i), b = 40
10
3
Answer (3)
Answer (2)
Answer (4)
Answer (2)
Since a > 1 and b > 1,
b+1>b1
or
2
4
3
or
1 1
If a b, then a b
1
1
b 1 b 1
a
a
b 1 b 1
(i)
1 1
m
m
If c d , then c > d , where m 0
Similarly, we can say that
2a
2a
2b 1 2b 1
(ii)
a
2a
2b 1 b 1
2ab 2a 2ab a
(2b 1)(b 1)
a
< 0 [ a > 1 and b > 1]
(2b 1)(b 1)
2a
a
2b 1 b 1
5/7

116. Answer (1)
111. Answer (2)

Let z1
1
1
= z2 z1 = z3 z2 =
z3 = d
4
3
117. Answer (1)

118. Answer (2)
119. Answer (2)
1 1
1
Now,
, which is equal to 4d
3 4 12
d=
1
48
z1 =
1 1 13

48 4 48
ab=
1 1
1
......
4 16 36
ab=
1
1 1
1 ....
4
4 9
ab=
1
a
4
112. Answer (1)

113. Answer (2)
114. Answer (2)
115. Answer (1)
b =
3a
4
120. Answer (2)
[ MENTAL ABILITY ]
121. Answer (2)
124. Answer (2)
125 + 2 = 127
p<qp<r
127 + 3 = 130
p+q>p+r
130 + 5 = 135
q>r
135 + 7 = 142
qr
142 + 11 = 153
153 + 13 = 166
122. Answer (3)
125. Answer (1)

p>q>r+s
pqr<s
1+1=2
ps<q+r
1+2=3
p>s+q<r
2+3=5
126. Answer (4)
3+5=8
p<q>rs
5 + 8 = 13
p+qr>s
8 + 13 = 21
p+q>r+s
123. Answer (4)
p<qr<s
(17)2
= 289
(18)2
= 324
(19)2
= 361
128. Answer (4)
(20)2 = 400
129. Answer (2)
(21)2 = 441
130. Answer (4)
(22)2
= 484
131. Answer (3)
(23)2
= 529
(24)2 = 576
6/7
127. Answer (3)

U P Q T R V S or U P Q T V R S
(n 2)2 6, where n is cube root of total number

(7 2)2 6 = 25 6 = 150

132. Answer (4)

140. Answer (2)
133. Answer (3)

Column-I
Column-II
R O S E
2 4 6
S U N
N O S E
4 6
10 m
10 m
A 10 m B
141. Answer (4)
134. Answer (2)

135. Answer (1)
O N E S
135
6 7 2
136. Answer (3)
135
90
Name Subject Food

Shweta Hindi
Idli
Ruchi
French
Pizza
Indu
Spanish Poha
Bhanu
Sanskrit Noddles
S
142. Answer (1)
137. Answer (4)
ab :
138. Answer (1)
a + b
2
143. Answer (2)
139. Answer (3)
144. Answer (4)
N
(S) NW
145. Answer (3)
NE
146. Answer (2)
147. Answer (1)

148. Answer (2)
SW
SE
S (NE)
149. Answer (2)

150. Answer (3)

7/7

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Test-1 (Code A)

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

One pascal of pressure is generated by

Match the columns and choose the correct option:

(1) Force of 1 N on 1 cm2 area

(2) Force of 1 N on 1 mm2 area

a. A rolling ball stops

(3) Force of 1 N on 1 m2 area

(4) Force of 1 kgf on 1 m2 area

b. A man rowing a boat (ii) Frictional force

A body is kept on a horizontal floor. If the area of

(iii) Muscular force

(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

(3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)

(4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)

(3) Pressure remains constant

A body is kept on a rough horizontal floor and a

The force of gravity acting on the box is 600 N. If an

(1) Always increase with increase in weight of the

(1) 200 N from above or 200 N from below in upward

(2) Always decrease with increase in weight of the

(2) 200 N from above or 400 N from below in upward

(3) Not be affected by the variation in weight of the

(3) 400 N from above or 200 N from below in upward

(4) May increase or decrease with increase in the

(4) 400 N from above or 400 N from below in upward

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

A brick weighing 50 N and having dimensions

Choose the incorrect option.

The friction can be reduced in between the two

(2) Using ball bearings in between the surfaces

11. Tyres are provided with deep grooves on their surface

(3) By polishing the surfaces

A man of weight W is standing on a cubical block

A girl of mass 40 kg is standing on the pencil heel

(1) Reduce the manufacturing cost of material used

(1) Fa > Fg, Pa > Pg

(4) Fa = Fg, Pg > Pa

Space for Rough Work

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

13. In the figure given below, which of the following case

16. Two glass balls hanging separately with the help of

14. In the above figure, a container contains liquid of

(1) (h1 + h2)g

(3) (h2 h1)g

15. A cubical block of mass 20 kg is kept on levelled

18. Ball bearings are used in between the axles of

(4) They convert sliding friction into rolling friction

All India Aakash Test Series (Junior) - 2016 (Class VIII)

(3) Polyhydroxybutyrate (4) PHBV

25. All of the following are thermoplastics except

26. Natural rubber is

20. A block, under the action of forces F and 5 N, is

27. Match the following :

d. Peels of vegetables (iv) 1 to 2 weeks

21. Polymer X is the first fully synthetic fibre and is

29. Consider the following

22. Consider the given box.

The total number of natural polymers is

23. The polymer which is not found in human body is

24. The cross linked polymer which is used for making

Now, find the incorrect match.