1.

When assessing the adequacy of sperm for

conception to occur, which of the following is
the most useful criterion?
A. Sperm count
B. Sperm motility
C. Sperm maturity
D. Semen volume
2. A couple who wants to conceive but has
been unsuccessful during the last 2 years
has undergone many diagnostic procedures.
When discussing the situation with the
nurse, one partner states, We know several
friends in our age group and all of them have
their own child already, Why cant we have
one?. Which of the following would be the
most pertinent nursing diagnosis for this
couple?
A. Fear related to the unknown
B. Pain related to numerous procedures.
C. Ineffective family coping related to infertility.
D. Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
3. Which of the following urinary symptoms
does the pregnant woman most frequently
experience during the first trimester?
A. Dysuria
B. Frequency
C. Incontinence
D. Burning
4. Heartburn and flatulence, common in the
second trimester, are most likely the result of
which of the following?
A. Increased plasma HCG levels
B. Decreased intestinal motility
C. Decreased gastric acidity
D. Elevated estrogen levels
5. On which of the following areas would the
nurse expect to observe chloasma?
A. Breast, areola, and nipples
B. Chest, neck, arms, and legs
C. Abdomen, breast, and thighs
D. Cheeks, forehead, and nose
6. A pregnant client states that she waddles
when she walks. The nurses explanation is
based on which of the following as the
cause?
A. The large size of the newborn
B. Pressure on the pelvic muscles
C. Relaxation of the pelvic joints
D. Excessive weight gain

7. Which of the following represents the

average amount of weight gained during
pregnancy?
A. 12 to 22 lb
B 15 to 25 lb
C. 24 to 30 lb
D. 25 to 40 lb
8. When talking with a pregnant client who is
experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the
nurse would explain that this is most
probably the result of which of the following?
A. Thrombophlebitis
B. Pregnancy-induced hypertension
C. Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging
uterus
D. The force of gravity pulling down on the
uterus
9. Cervical softening and uterine souffle are
classified as which of the following?
A. Diagnostic signs
B. Presumptive signs
C. Probable signs
D. Positive signs
10. Which of the following would the nurse
identify as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
A. Hegar sign
B. Nausea and vomiting
C. Skin pigmentation changes
D. Positive serum pregnancy test
11. Which of the following common emotional
reactions to pregnancy would the nurse
expect to occur during the first trimester?
A. Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism
B. Awkwardness, clumsiness, and
unattractiveness
C. Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
D. Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
12. During which of the following would the
focus of classes be mainly on physiologic
changes, fetal development, sexuality, during
pregnancy, and nutrition?
A. Prepregnant period
B. First trimester
C. Second trimester
D. Third trimester
13. Which of the following would be
disadvantage of breast feeding?
A. Involution occurs more rapidly
B. The incidence of allergies increases due to
maternal antibodies
C. The father may resent the infants demands

on the mothers body

D. There is a greater chance for error during
preparation
14. Which of the following would cause a
false-positive result on a pregnancy test?
A. The test was performed less than 10 days
after an abortion
B. The test was performed too early or too late in
the pregnancy
C. The urine sample was stored too long at room
temperature
D. A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion
is impending
15. FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope
as early as which of the following?
A. 5 weeks gestation
B. 10 weeks gestation
C. 15 weeks gestation
D. 20 weeks gestation
16. A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD
should be which of the following?
A. January 2
B. March 28
C. April 12
D. October 12
17. Which of the following fundal heights
indicates less than 12 weeks gestation when
the date of the LMP is unknown?
A. Uterus in the pelvis
B. Uterus at the xiphoid
C. Uterus in the abdomen
D. Uterus at the umbilicus
18. Which of the following danger signs
should be reported promptly during the
antepartum period?
A. Constipation
B. Breast tenderness
C. Nasal stuffiness
D. Leaking amniotic fluid
19. Which of the following prenatal laboratory
test values would the nurse consider as
significant?
A. Hematocrit 33.5%
B. Rubella titer less than 1:8
C. White blood cells 8,000/mm3
D. One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL
20. Which of the following characteristics of
contractions would the nurse expect to find
in a client experiencing true labor?
A. Occurring at irregular intervals
B. Starting mainly in the abdomen

C. Gradually increasing intervals

D. Increasing intensity with walking
21. During which of the following stages of
labor would the nurse assess crowning?
A. First stage
B. Second stage
C. Third stage
D. Fourth stage
22. Barbiturates are usually not given for pain
relief during active labor for which of the
following reasons?
A. The neonatal effects include hypotonia,
hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and
reluctance to feed for the first few days.
B. These drugs readily cross the placental
barrier, causing depressive effects in the
newborn 2 to 3 hours after intramuscular
injection.
C. They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and
lack of an antagonist make them generally
inappropriate during labor.
D. Adverse reactions may include maternal
hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction or partial
or total respiratory failure
23. Which of the following nursing
interventions would the nurse perform during
the third stage of labor?
A. Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory
tests.
B. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.
C. Coach for effective client pushing
D. Promote parent-newborn interaction.
24. Which of the following actions
demonstrates the nurses understanding
about the newborns thermoregulatory
ability?
A. Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.
B. Suctioning with a bulb syringe
C. Obtaining an Apgar score
D. Inspecting the newborns umbilical cord
25. Immediately before expulsion, which of
the following cardinal movements occur?
A. Descent
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. External rotation
26. Before birth, which of the following
structures connects the right and left auricles
of the heart?
A. Umbilical vein
B. Foramen ovale

C. Ductus arteriosus
D. Ductus venosus
27. Which of the following when present in
the urine may cause a reddish stain on the
diaper of a newborn?
A. Mucus
B. Uric acid crystals
C. Bilirubin
D. Excess iron
28. When assessing the newborns heart rate,
which of the following ranges would be
considered normal if the newborn were
sleeping?
A. 80 beats per minute
B. 100 beats per minute
C. 120 beats per minute
D. 140 beats per minute
29. Which of the following is true regarding
the fontanels of the newborn?
A. The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior
is diamond shaped.
B. The posterior closes at 18 months; the
anterior closes at 8 to 12 weeks.
C. The anterior is large in size when compared
to the posterior fontanel.
D. The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears
sunken.
30. Which of the following groups of newborn
reflexes below are present at birth and
remain unchanged through adulthood?
A. Blink, cough, rooting, and gag
B. Blink, cough, sneeze, gag
C. Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, and cough
D. Stepping, blink, cough, and sneeze
31. Which of the following describes the
Babinski reflex?
A. The newborns toes will hyperextend and fan
apart from dorsiflexion of the big toe when one
side of foot is stroked upward from the ball of the
heel and across the ball of the foot.
B. The newborn abducts and flexes all
extremities and may begin to cry when exposed
to sudden movement or loud noise.
C. The newborn turns the head in the direction of
stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins to suck
when cheek, lip, or corner of mouth is touched.
D. The newborn will attempt to crawl forward
with both arms and legs when he is placed on
his abdomen on a flat surface
32. Which of the following statements best
describes hyperemesis gravidarum?

A. Severe anemia leading to electrolyte,

metabolic, and nutritional imbalances in the
absence of other medical problems.
B. Severe nausea and vomiting leading to
electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances
in the absence of other medical problems.
C. Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that
commonly results in dehydration and ultimately
decreasing maternal nutrients
D. Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause
gastrointestinal irritation and possibly internal
bleeding
33. Which of the following would the nurse
identify as a classic sign of PIH?
A. Edema of the feet and ankles
B. Edema of the hands and face
C. Weight gain of 1 lb/week
D. Early morning headache
34. In which of the following types of
spontaneous abortions would the nurse
assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a
negative pregnancy tests?
A. Threatened
B. Imminent
C. Missed
D. Incomplete
35. Which of the following factors would the
nurse suspect as predisposing a client to
placenta previa?
A. Multiple gestation
B. Uterine anomalies
C. Abdominal trauma
D. Renal or vascular disease
36. Which of the following would the nurse
assess in a client experiencing abruptio
placenta?
A. Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding
B. Concealed or external dark red bleeding
C. Palpable fetal outline
D. Soft and nontender abdomen
37. Which of the following is described as
premature separation of a normally implanted
placenta during the second half of
pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?
A. Placenta previa
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Incompetent cervix
D. Abruptio placentae
38. Which of the following may happen if the
uterus becomes overstimulated by oxytocin
during the induction of labor?

A. Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70

seconds
B. Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than
90 seconds
C. Increased pain with bright red vaginal
bleeding
D. Increased restlessness and anxiety
39. When preparing a client for cesarean
delivery, which of the following key concepts
should be considered when implementing
nursing care?
A. Instruct the mothers support person to remain
in the family lounge until after the delivery
B. Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia
department to explain what to expect
postoperatively
C. Modify preoperative teaching to meet the
needs of either a planned or emergency
cesarean birth
D. Explain the surgery, expected outcome, and
kind of anesthetics
40. Which of the following best describes
preterm labor?
A. Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation
and before 37 weeks gestation
B. Labor that begins after 15 weeks gestation
and before 37 weeks gestation
C. Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation
and before 28 weeks gestation
D. Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation
and before 40 weeks gestation
41. When PROM occurs, which of the
following provides evidence of the nurses
understanding of the clients immediate
needs?
A. The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours
before the onset of labor.
B. PROM removes the fetus most effective
defense against infection
C. Nursing care is based on fetal viability and
gestational age.
D. PROM is associated with malpresentation and
possibly incompetent cervix
42. Which of the following factors is the
underlying cause of dystocia?
A. Nurtional
B. Mechanical
C. Environmental
D. Medical
43. When uterine rupture occurs, which of the
following would be the priority?

A. Limiting hypovolemic shock

B. Obtaining blood specimens
C. Instituting complete bed rest
D. Inserting a urinary catheter
44. Which of the following is the nurses
initial action when umbilical cord prolapse
occurs?
A. Begin monitoring maternal vital signs and
FHR
B. Place the client in a knee-chest position in
bed
C. Notify the physician and prepare the client for
delivery
D. Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the
exposed cord
45. Which of the following amounts of blood
loss following birth marks the criterion for
describing postpartum hemorrhage?
A. More than 200 ml
B. More than 300 ml
C. More than 400 ml
D. More than 500 ml
46. Which of the following is the primary
predisposing factor related to mastitis?
A. Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources
localizing in the lactiferous glands and ducts
B. Endemic infection occurring randomly and
localizing in the periglandular connective tissue
C. Temporary urinary retention due to decreased
perception of the urge to avoid
D. Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis,
and cracking of the nipples
47. Which of the following best describes
thrombophlebitis?
A. Inflammation and clot formation that result
when blood components combine to form an
aggregate body
B. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually
become lodged within the pulmonary blood
vessels
C. Inflammation and blood clots that eventually
become lodged within the femoral vein
D. Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with
clot formation on the vessel wall
48. Which of the following assessment
findings would the nurse expect if the client
develops DVT?
A. Midcalf pain, tenderness and redness along
the vein
B. Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after
delivery

C. Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign,

and swelling in the affected limb
D. Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10
to 14 days after delivery
49. Which of the following are the most
commonly assessed findings in cystitis?
A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea,
chills, and flank pain
B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria,
hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain
C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria,
suprapubic pain, chills, and fever
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting,
dysuria, and frequency
50. Which of the following best reflects the
frequency of reported postpartum blues?
A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
When assessing the adequacy of sperm for
conception to occur, which of the following is the
most useful criterion?
Sperm count
Sperm motility
Sperm maturity
Semen volume
A couple who wants to conceive but has been
unsuccessful during the last 2 years has
undergone many diagnostic procedures. When
discussing the situation with the nurse, one
partner states, We know several friends in our
age group and all of them have their own child
already, Why cant we have one?. Which of the
following would be the most pertinent nursing
diagnosis for this couple?
Fear related to the unknown
Pain related to numerous procedures.
Ineffective family coping related to infertility.
Self-esteem disturbance related to infertility.
Which of the following urinary symptoms does
the pregnant woman most frequently experience
during the first trimester?
Dysuria
Frequency
Incontinence
Burning

Heartburn and flatulence, common in the second

trimester, are most likely the result of which of
the following?
Increased plasma HCG levels
Decreased intestinal motility
Decreased gastric acidity
Elevated estrogen levels
On which of the following areas would the nurse
expect to observe chloasma?
Breast, areola, and nipples
Chest, neck, arms, and legs
Abdomen, breast, and thighs
Cheeks, forehead, and nose
A pregnant client states that she waddles when
she walks. The nurses explanation is based on
which of the following as the cause?
The large size of the newborn
Pressure on the pelvic muscles
Relaxation of the pelvic joints
Excessive weight gain
Which of the following represents the average
amount of weight gained during pregnancy?
12 to 22 lb
15 to 25 lb
24 to 30 lb
25 to 40 lb
When talking with a pregnant client who is
experiencing aching swollen, leg veins, the nurse
would explain that this is most probably the
result of which of the following?
Thrombophlebitis
Pregnancy-induced hypertension
Pressure on blood vessels from the enlarging
uterus
The force of gravity pulling down on the uterus
Cervical softening and uterine souffle are
classified as which of the following?
Diagnostic signs
Presumptive signs
Probable signs
Positive signs
Which of the following would the nurse identify
as a presumptive sign of pregnancy?
Hegar sign
Nausea and vomiting
Skin pigmentation changes
Positive serum pregnancy test
Which of the following common emotional
reactions to pregnancy would the nurse expect
to occur during the first trimester?
Introversion, egocentrism, narcissism

Awkwardness, clumsiness, and unattractiveness

Anxiety, passivity, extroversion
Ambivalence, fear, fantasies
During which of the following would the focus of
classes be mainly on physiologic changes, fetal
development, sexuality, during pregnancy,
and nutrition?
Prepregnant period
First trimester
Second trimester
Third trimester
Which of the following would be disadvantage of
breast feeding?
Involution occurs more rapidly
The incidence of allergies increases due to
maternal antibodies
The father may resent the infants demands on
the mothers body
There is a greater chance for error during
preparation
Which of the following would cause a falsepositive result on a pregnancy test?
The test was performed less than 10 days after
an abortion
The test was performed too early or too late in
the pregnancy
The urine sample was stored too long at room
temperature
A spontaneous abortion or a missed abortion is
impending
FHR can be auscultated with a fetoscope as
early as which of the following?
5 weeks gestation
10 weeks gestation
15 weeks gestation
20 weeks gestation
A client LMP began July 5. Her EDD should be
which of the following?
January 2
March 28
April 12
October 12
Which of the following fundal heights indicates
less than 12 weeks gestation when the date of
the LMP is unknown?
Uterus in the pelvis
Uterus at the xiphoid
Uterus in the abdomen
Uterus at the umbilicus
Which of the following danger signs should be
reported promptly during the antepartum period?

Constipation
Breast tenderness
Nasal stuffiness
Leaking amniotic fluid
Which of the following prenatal laboratory test
values would the nurse consider as significant?
Hematocrit 33.5%
Rubella titer less than 1:8
White blood cells 8,000/mm3
One hour glucose challenge test 110 g/dL
Which of the following characteristics of
contractions would the nurse expect to find in a
client experiencing true labor?
Occurring at irregular intervals
Starting mainly in the abdomen
Gradually increasing intervals
Increasing intensity with walking
During which of the following stages of labor
would the nurse assess crowning?
First stage
Second stage
Third stage
Fourth stage
Barbiturates are usually not given for pain relief
during active labor for which of the following
reasons?
The neonatal effects include hypotonia,
hypothermia, generalized drowsiness, and
reluctance to feed for the first few days.
These drugs readily cross the placental barrier,
causing depressive effects in the newborn 2 to 3
hours after intramuscular injection.
They rapidly transfer across the placenta, and
lack of an antagonist make them generally
inappropriate during labor.
Adverse reactions may include maternal
hypotension, allergic or toxic reaction or partial
or total respiratory failure
Which of the following nursing interventions
would the nurse perform during the third stage of
labor?
Obtain a urine specimen and other laboratory
tests.
Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes.
Coach for effective client pushing
Promote parent-newborn interaction.
Which of the following actions demonstrates the
nurses understanding about the newborns
thermoregulatory ability?
Placing the newborn under a radiant warmer.
Suctioning with a bulb syringe

Obtaining an Apgar score

Inspecting the newborns umbilical cord
Immediately before expulsion, which of the
following cardinal movements occur?
Descent
Flexion
Extension
External rotation
Before birth, which of the following structures
connects the right and left auricles of the heart?
Umbilical vein
Foramen ovale
Ductus arteriosus
Ductus venosus
Which of the following when present in the urine
may cause a reddish stain on the diaper of a
newborn?
Mucus
Uric acid crystals
Bilirubin
Excess iron
When assessing the newborns heart rate, which
of the following ranges would be considered
normal if the newborn were sleeping?
80 beats per minute
100 beats per minute
120 beats per minute
140 beats per minute
Which of the following is true regarding the
fontanels of the newborn?
The anterior is triangular shaped; the posterior is
diamond shaped.
The posterior closes at 18 months; the anterior
closes at 8 to 12 weeks.
The anterior is large in size when compared to
the posterior fontanel.
The anterior is bulging; the posterior appears
sunken.
Which of the following groups of newborn
reflexes below are present at birth and remain
unchanged through adulthood?
Blink, cough, rooting, and gag
Blink, cough, sneeze, gag
Rooting, sneeze, swallowing, and cough
Stepping, blink, cough, and sneeze
Which of the following describes the Babinski
reflex?
The newborns toes will hyperextend and fan
apart from dorsiflexion of the big toe when one
side of foot is stroked upward from the ball of the
heel and across the ball of the foot.

The newborn abducts and flexes all extremities

and may begin to cry when exposed to sudden
movement or loud noise.
The newborn turns the head in the direction of
stimulus, opens the mouth, and begins to suck
when cheek, lip, or corner of mouth is touched.
The newborn will attempt to crawl forward with
both arms and legs when he is placed on his
abdomen on a flat surface
Which of the following statements best describes
hyperemesis gravidarum?
Severe anemia leading to electrolyte, metabolic,
and nutritional imbalances in the absence of
other medical problems.
Severe nausea and vomiting leading to
electrolyte, metabolic, and nutritional imbalances
in the absence of other medical problems.
Loss of appetite and continuous vomiting that
commonly results indehydration and ultimately
decreasing maternal nutrients
Severe nausea and diarrhea that can cause
gastrointestinal irritation and possibly internal
bleeding
Which of the following would the nurse identify
as a classic sign of PIH?
Edema of the feet and ankles
Edema of the hands and face
Weight gain of 1 lb/week
Early morning headache
In which of the following types of spontaneous
abortions would the nurse assess dark brown
vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy
tests?
Threatened
Imminent
Missed
Incomplete
Which of the following factors would the nurse
suspect as predisposing a client to placenta
previa?
Multiple gestation
Uterine anomalies
Abdominal trauma
Renal or vascular disease
Which of the following would the nurse assess in
a client experiencing abruptio placenta?
Bright red, painless vaginal bleeding
Concealed or external dark red bleeding
Palpable fetal outline
Soft and nontender abdomen

Which of the following is described as premature

separation of a normally implanted placenta
during the second half of pregnancy, usually with
severe hemorrhage?
Placenta previa
Ectopic pregnancy
Incompetent cervix
Abruptio placentae
Which of the following may happen if the uterus
becomes overstimulated by oxytocin during the
induction of labor?
Weak contraction prolonged to more than 70
seconds
Tetanic contractions prolonged to more than 90
seconds
Increased pain with bright red vaginal bleeding
Increased restlessness and anxiety
When preparing a client for cesarean delivery,
which of the following key concepts should be
considered when implementing nursing care?
Instruct the mothers support person to remain in
the family lounge until after the delivery
Arrange for a staff member of the anesthesia
department to explain what to expect
postoperatively
Modify preoperative teaching to meet the needs
of either a planned or emergency cesarean birth
Explain the surgery, expected outcome, and kind
of anesthetics
Which of the following best describes preterm
labor?
Labor that begins after 20 weeks gestation and
before 37 weeks gestation
Labor that begins after 15 weeks gestation and
before 37 weeks gestation
Labor that begins after 24 weeks gestation and
before 28 weeks gestation
Labor that begins after 28 weeks gestation and
before 40 weeks gestation
When PROM occurs, which of the following
provides evidence of the nurses understanding
of the clients immediate needs?
The chorion and amnion rupture 4 hours before
the onset of labor.
PROM removes the fetus most effective defense
against infection
Nursing care is based on fetal viability and
gestational age.
PROM is associated with malpresentation and
possibly incompetent cervix

Which of the following factors is the underlying

cause of dystocia?
Nurtional
Mechanical
Environmental
Medical
When uterine rupture occurs, which of the
following would be the priority?
Limiting hypovolemic shock
Obtaining blood specimens
Instituting complete bed rest
Inserting a urinary catheter
Which of the following is the nurses initial action
when umbilical cord prolapse occurs?
Begin monitoring maternal vital signs and FHR
Place the client in a knee-chest position in bed
Notify the physician and prepare the client for
delivery
Apply a sterile warm saline dressing to the
exposed cord
Which of the following amounts of blood loss
following birth marks the criterion for describing
postpartum hemorrhage?
More than 200 ml
More than 300 ml
More than 400 ml
More than 500 ml
Which of the following is the primary
predisposing factor related to mastitis?
Epidemic infection from nosocomial sources
localizing in the lactiferous glands and ducts
Endemic infection occurring randomly and
localizing in the periglandular connective tissue
Temporary urinary retention due to decreased
perception of the urge to avoid
Breast injury caused by overdistention, stasis,
and cracking of the nipples
Which of the following best describes
thrombophlebitis?
Inflammation and clot formation that result when
blood components combine to form an
aggregate body
Inflammation and blood clots that eventually
become lodged within the pulmonary blood
vessels
Inflammation and blood clots that eventually
become lodged within the femoral vein
Inflammation of the vascular endothelium with
clot formation on the vessel wall

Which of the following assessment findings

would the nurse expect if the client develops
DVT?
Midcalf pain, tenderness and redness along the
vein
Chills, fever, malaise, occurring 2 weeks after
delivery
Muscle pain the presence of Homans sign, and
swelling in the affected limb
Chills, fever, stiffness, and pain occurring 10 to
14 days after delivery
Which of the following are the most commonly
assessed findings in cystitis?
Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea, chills,
and flank pain
Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria, hematuria,
fever and suprapubic pain
Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria, suprapubic
pain, chills, and fever
High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting,
dysuria, and frequency
Which of the following best reflects the frequency
of reported postpartum blues?
Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers report
some form of postpartum blues
Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers report
some form of postpartum blues
Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers report
some form of postpartum blues
Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers report
some form of postpartum blues
For the client who is using oral contraceptives,
the nurse informs the client about the need to
take the pill at the same time each day to
accomplish which of the following?
Decrease the incidence of nausea
Maintain hormonal levels
Reduce side effects
Prevent drug interactions
When teaching a client about contraception.
Which of the following would the nurse include
as the most effective method for preventing
sexually transmitted infections?
Spermicides
Diaphragm
Condoms
Vasectomy
When preparing a woman who is 2 days
postpartum for discharge, recommendations for
which of the following contraceptive methods
would be avoided?

Diaphragm
Female condom
Oral contraceptives
Rhythm method
For which of the following clients would the nurse
expect that an intrauterine device would not be
recommended?
Woman over age 35
Nulliparous woman
Promiscuous young adult
Postpartum client
A client in her third trimester tells the nurse, Im
constipated all the time! Which of the following
should the nurse recommend?
Daily enemas
Laxatives
Increased fiber intake
Decreased fluid intake
Which of the following would the nurse use as
the basis for the teaching plan when caring for a
pregnant teenager concerned about gaining too
much weight during pregnancy?
10 pounds per trimester
1 pound per week for 40 weeks
pound per week for 40 weeks
A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds
The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual
period started on January 14 and ended on
January 20. Using Nageles rule, the nurse
determines her EDD to be which of the
following?
September 27
October 21
November 7
December 27
When taking an obstetrical history on a pregnant
client who states, I had a son born at 38 weeks
gestation, a daughter born at 30 weeks gestation
and I lost a baby at about 8 weeks, the nurse
should record her obstetrical history as which of
the following?
G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
G4 T2 P1 A1 L2
When preparing to listen to the fetal heart rate at
12 weeks gestation, the nurse would use which
of the following?
Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic region

Fetoscope placed midway between the umbilicus

and the xiphoid process
External electronic fetal monitor placed at the
umbilicus
When developing a plan of care for a client
newly diagnosed with gestational diabetes,
which of the following instructions would be the
priority?
Dietary intake
Medication
Exercise
Glucose monitoring
A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained 6
pounds in 4 weeks. Which of the following would
be the priority when assessing the client?
Glucosuria
Depression
Hand/face edema
Dietary intake
A client 12 weeks pregnant come to the
emergency department with abdominal cramping
and moderate vaginal bleeding. Speculum
examination reveals 2 to 3 cms cervical dilation.
The nurse would document these findings as
which of the following?
Threatened abortion
Imminent abortion
Complete abortion
Missed abortion
Which of the following would be the priority
nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic
pregnancy?
Risk for infection
Pain
Knowledge Deficit
Anticipatory Grieving
Before assessing the postpartum clients uterus
for firmness and position in relation to the
umbilicus and midline, which of the following
should the nurse do first?
Assess the vital signs
Administer analgesia
Ambulate her in the hall
Assist her to urinate
Which of the following should the nurse do when
a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that
she has sore nipples?
Tell her to breast feed more frequently
Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
Use soap and water to clean the nipples

The nurse assesses the vital signs of a client, 4

hours postpartum that are as follows: BP 90/60;
temperature 100.4F; pulse 100 weak, thready;
R 20 per minute. Which of the following should
the nurse do first?
Report the temperature to the physician
Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff
Assess the uterus for firmness and position
Determine the amount of lochia
The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal
discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the
following assessments would warrant notification
of the physician?
A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum
client
A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5
days postpartum
Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client
2 weeks after delivery
A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
A postpartum client has a temperature of
101.4F, with a uterus that is tender when
palpated, remains unusually large, and not
descending as normally expected. Which of the
following should the nurse assess next?
Lochia
Breasts
Incision
Urine
Which of the following is the priority focus of
nursing practice with the current early
postpartum discharge?
Promoting comfort and restoration of health
Exploring the emotional status of the family
Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn
care
Teaching about the importance of family planning
Which of the following actions would be
least effective in maintaining a neutral thermal
environment for the newborn?
Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing
Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior
to weighing
Placing crib close to nursery window for family
viewing
Covering the infants head with a knit stockinette
A newborn who has an asymmetrical Moro reflex
response should be further assessed for which
of the following?
Talipes equinovarus
Fractured clavicle

Congenital hypothyroidism
Increased intracranial pressure
During the first 4 hours after a male circumcision,
assessing for which of the following is the
priority?
Infection
Hemorrhage
Discomfort
Dehydration
The mother asks the nurse. Whats wrong with
my sons breasts? Why are they so enlarged?
Whish of the following would be the best
response by the nurse?
The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma
experienced with birth
A decrease in material hormones present before
birth causes enlargement,
You should discuss this with your doctor. It
could be a malignancy
The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby
was in the uterus
Immediately after birth the nurse notes the
following on a male newborn: respirations 78;
apical hearth rate 160 BPM, nostril flaring; mild
intercostal retractions; and grunting at the end of
expiration. Which of the following should the
nurse do?
Call the assessment data to the physicians
attention
Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
Suction the infants mouth and nares
Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity
The nurse hears a mother telling a friend on the
telephone about umbilical cord care. Which of
the following statements by the mother indicates
effective teaching?
Daily soap and water cleansing is best
Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs
An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents
infection
He can have a tub bath each day
A newborn weighing 3000 grams and feeding
every 4 hours needs 120 calories/kg of body
weight every 24 hours for proper growth and
development. How many ounces of 20 cal/oz
formula should this newborn receive at each
feeding to meet nutritional needs?
2 ounces
3 ounces
4 ounces
6 ounces

The postterm neonate with meconium-stained

amniotic fluid needs care designed to especially
monitor for which of the following?
Respiratory problems
Gastrointestinal problems
Integumentary problems
Elimination problems
When measuring a clients fundal height, which
of the following techniques denotes the correct
method of measurement used by the nurse?
From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
From the fundus to the umbilicus
A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted
with of BP 160/110, proteinuria, and severe
pitting edema. Which of the following would be
most important to include in the clients plan of
care?
Daily weights
Seizure precautions
Right lateral positioning
Stress reduction
A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, When
can we have sexual intercourse again? Which
of the following would be the nurses best
response?
Anytime you both want to.
As soon as choose a contraceptive method.
When the discharge has stopped and the
incision is healed.
After your 6 weeks examination.
When preparing to administer the vitamin
K injection to a neonate, the nurse would select
which of the following sites as appropriate for the
injection?
Deltoid muscle
Anterior femoris muscle
Vastus lateralis muscle
Gluteus maximus muscle
When performing a pelvic examination, the nurse
observes a red swollen area on the right side of
the vaginal orifice. The nurse would document
this as enlargement of which of the following?
Clitoris
Parotid gland
Skenes gland
Bartholins gland
To differentiate as a female, the hormonal
stimulation of the embryo that must occur
involves which of the following?

Increase in maternal estrogen secretion

Decrease in maternal androgen secretion
Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad
Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad
A client at 8 weeks gestation calls complaining
of slight nausea in the morning hours. Which of
the following client interventions should the
nurse question?
Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in an
8-ounce glass of water
Eating a few low-sodium crackers before getting
out of bed
Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning
hours
Eating six small meals a day instead of thee
large meals
The nurse documents positive ballottement in
the clients prenatal record. The nurse
understands that this indicates which of the
following?
Palpable contractions on the abdomen
Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
Fetal kicking felt by the client
Enlargement and softening of the uterus
During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a purpleblue tinge of the cervix. The nurse documents
this as which of the following?
Braxton-Hicks sign
Chadwicks sign
Goodells sign
McDonalds sign
During a prenatal class, the nurse explains the
rationale for breathing techniques during
preparation for labor based on the understanding
that breathing techniques are most important in
achieving which of the following?
Eliminate pain and give the expectant parents
something to do
Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing
uteroplacental perfusion
Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the
perception of pain
Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and
anesthesia are needed
After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that
the contractions of a primigravida client are not
strong enough to dilate the cervix. Which of the
following would the nurse anticipate doing?
Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion
Administering a light sedative to allow the patient
to rest for several hour

Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to

progress
Increasing the encouragement to the patient
when pushing begins
A multigravida at 38 weeks gestation is admitted
with painless, bright red bleeding and mild
contractions every 7 to 10 minutes. Which of the
following assessments should be avoided?
Maternal vital sign
Fetal heart rate
Contraction monitoring
Cervical dilation
Which of the following would be the nurses most
appropriate response to a client who asks why
she must have a cesarean delivery if she has a
complete placenta previa?
You will have to ask your physician when he
returns.
You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.
The placenta is covering most of your cervix.
The placenta is covering the opening of the
uterus and blocking your baby.
The nurse understands that the fetal head is in
which of the following positions with a face
presentation?
Completely flexed
Completely extended
Partially extended
Partially flexed
With a fetus in the left-anterior breech
presentation, the nurse would expect the fetal
heart rate would be most audible in which of the
following areas?
Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right of
midline
In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant
In the lower-right maternal abdominal quadrant
Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left of
midline
The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint.
The nurse interprets this to be the result of which
of the following?
Lanugo
Hydramnio
Meconium
Vernix
A patient is in labor and has just been told she
has a breech presentation. The nurse should be
particularly alert for which of the following?
Quickening
Ophthalmia neonatorum

Pica
Prolapsed umbilical cord
When describing dizygotic twins to a couple, on
which of the following would the nurse base the
explanation?
Two ova fertilized by separate sperm
Sharing of a common placenta
Each ova with the same genotype
Sharing of a common chorion
Which of the following refers to the single cell
that reproduces itself after conception?
Chromosome
Blastocyst
Zygote
Trophoblast
In the late 1950s, consumers and health care
professionals began challenging the routine use
of analgesics and anesthetics during childbirth.
Which of the following was an outgrowth of this
concept?
Labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum (LDRP)
Nurse-midwifery
Clinical nurse specialist
Prepared childbirth
A client has a midpelvic contracture from a
previous pelvic injury due to a motor vehicle
accident as a teenager. The nurse is aware that
this could prevent a fetus from passing through
or around which structure during childbirth?
Symphysis pubis
Sacral promontory
Ischial spines
Pubic arch
When teaching a group of adolescents about
variations in the length of the menstrual cycle,
the nurse understands that the underlying
mechanism is due to variations in which of the
following phases?
Menstrual phase
Proliferative phase
Secretory phase
Ischemic phase
When teaching a group of adolescents about
male hormone production, which of the following
would the nurse include as being produced by
the Leydig cells?
Follicle-stimulating hormone
Testosterone
Leuteinizing hormone
Gonadotropin releasing hormone

While performing physical assessment of a 12

month-old, the nurse notes that the infants
anterior fontanelle is still slightly open. Which of
the following is the nurses most appropriate
action?
Notify the physician immediately because there
is a problem.
Perform an intensive neurologic examination.
Perform an intensive developmental
examination.
Do nothing because this is a normal finding for
the age.
When teaching a mother about introducing solid
foods to her child, which of the following
indicates the earliest age at which this should be
done?
1 month
2 months
3 months
4 months
The infant of a substance-abusing mother is at
risk for developing a sense of which of the
following?
Mistrust
Shame
Guilt
Inferiority
Which of the following toys should the nurse
recommend for a 5-month-old?
A big red balloon
A teddy bear with button eyes
A push-pull wooden truck
A colorful busy box
The mother of a 2-month-old is concerned that
she may be spoiling her baby by picking her up
when she cries. Which of the following would be
the nurses best response?
Let her cry for a while before picking her up, so
you dont spoil her
Babies need to be held and cuddled; you wont
spoil her this way
Crying at this age means the baby is hungry;
give her a bottle
If you leave her alone she will learn how to cry
herself to sleep
When assessing an 18-month-old, the nurse
notes a characteristic protruding abdomen.
Which of the following would explain the
rationale for this finding?
Increased food intake owing to age
Underdeveloped abdominal muscles

Bowlegged posture
Linear growth curve
If parents keep a toddler dependent in areas
where he is capable of using skills, the toddle will
develop a sense of which of the following?
Mistrust
Shame
Guilt
Inferiority
Which of the following is an appropriate toy for
an 18-month-old?
Multiple-piece puzzle
Miniature cars
Finger paints
Comic book
When teaching parents about the childs
readiness for toilet training, which of the
following signs should the nurse instruct them to
watch for in the toddler?
Demonstrates dryness for 4 hours
Demonstrates ability to sit and walk
Has a new sibling for stimulation
Verbalizes desire to go to the bathroom
When teaching parents about typical toddler
eating patterns, which of the following should be
included?
Food jags
Preference to eat alone
Consistent table manners
Increase in appetite
Which of the following suggestions should the
nurse offer the parents of a 4-year-old boy who
resists going to bed at night?
Allow him to fall asleep in your room, then move
him to his own bed.
Tell him that you will lock him in his room if he
gets out of bed one more time.
Encourage active play at bedtime to tire him out
so he will fall asleep faster.
Read him a story and allow him to play quietly in
his bed until he falls asleep.
When providing therapeutic play, which of the
following toys would best promote imaginative
play in a 4-year-old?
Large blocks
Dress-up clothes
Wooden puzzle
Big wheels
Which of the following activities, when voiced by
the parents following a teaching session about
the characteristics of school-age cognitive

development would indicate the need for

additional teaching?
Collecting baseball cards and marbles
Ordering dolls according to size
Considering simple problem-solving options
Developing plans for the future
A hospitalized schoolager states: Im not afraid
of this place, Im not afraid of anything. This
statement is most likely an example of which of
the following?
Regression
Repression
Reaction formation
Rationalization
After teaching a group of parents about accident
prevention for schoolagers, which of the
following statements by the group would indicate
the need for more teaching?
Schoolagers are more active and adventurous
than are younger children.
Schoolagers are more susceptible to home
hazards than are younger children.
Schoolagers are unable to understand potential
dangers around them.
Schoolargers are less subject to parental control
than are younger children.
Which of the following skills is the most
significant one learned during the schoolage
period?
Collecting
Ordering
Reading
Sorting
A child age 7 was unable to receive the measles,
mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine at the
recommended scheduled time. When would the
nurse expect to administer MMR vaccine?
In a month from now
In a year from now
At age 10
At age 13
The adolescents inability to develop a sense of
who he is and what he can become results in a
sense of which of the following?
Shame
Guilt
Inferiority
Role diffusion
Which of the following would be most
appropriate for a nurse to use when describing
menarche to a 13-year-old?

A females first menstruation or menstrual

periods
The first year of menstruation or period
The entire menstrual cycle or from one period
to another
The onset of uterine maturation or peak growth
A 14-year-old boy has acne and according to his
parents, dominates the bathroom by using the
mirror all the time. Which of the following
remarks by the nurse would be least helpful in
talking to the boy and his parents?
This is probably the only concern he has about
his body. So dont worry about it or the time he
spends on it.
Teenagers are anxious about how their peers
perceive them. So they spend a lot of time
grooming.
A teen may develop a poor self-image when
experiencing acne. Do you feel this way
sometimes?
You appear to be keeping your face well
washed. Would you feel comfortable discussing
your cleansing method?
Which of the following should the nurse suspect
when noting that a 3-year-old is engaging in
explicit sexual behavior during doll play?
The child is exhibiting normal pre-school
curiosity
The child is acting out personal experiences
The child does not know how to play with dolls
The child is probably developmentally delayed.
Which of the following statements by the parents
of a child with school phobia would indicate the
need for further teaching?
Well keep him at home until phobia subsides.
Well work with his teachers and counselors at
school.
Well try to encourage him to talk about his
problem.
Well discuss possible solutions with him and his
counselor.
When developing a teaching plan for a group of
high school students about teenage pregnancy,
the nurse would keep in mind which of the
following?
The incidence of teenage pregnancies is
increasing.
Most teenage pregnancies are planned.
Denial of the pregnancy is common early on.
The risk for complications during pregnancy is
rare.

When assessing a child with a cleft palate, the

nurse is aware that the child is at risk for more
frequent episodes of otitis media due to which of
the following?
Lowered resistance from malnutrition
Ineffective functioning of the Eustachian tubes
Plugging of the Eustachian tubes with food
particles
Associated congenital defects of the middle ear.
While performing a neurodevelopmental
assessment on a 3-month-old infant, which of
the following characteristics would be expected?
A strong Moro reflex
A strong parachute reflex
Rolling from front to back
Lifting of head and chest when prone
By the end of which of the following would the
nurse most commonly expect a childs birth
weight to triple?
4 months
7 months
9 months
12 months
Which of the following best describes parallel
play between two toddlers?
Sharing crayons to color separate pictures
Playing a board game with a nurse
Sitting near each other while playing with
separate dolls
Sharing their dolls with two different nurses
Which of the following would the nurse identify
as the initial priority for a child with acute
lymphocytic leukemia?
Instituting infection control precautions
Encouraging adequate intake of iron-rich foods
Assisting with coping with chronic illness
Administering medications via IM injections
Which of the following information, when voiced
by the mother, would indicate to the nurse that
she understands home care instructions
following the administration of a diphtheria,
tetanus, and pertussis injection?
Measures to reduce fever
Need for dietary restrictions
Reasons for subsequent rash
Measures to control subsequent diarrhea
Which of the following actions by a community
health nurse is most appropriate when noting
multiple bruises and burns on the posterior trunk
of an 18-month-old child during a home visit?

Report the childs condition to Protective

Services immediately.
Schedule a follow-up visit to check for more
bruises.
Notify the childs physician immediately.
Don nothing because this is a normal finding in a
toddler.
Which of the following is being used when the
mother of a hospitalized child calls the student
nurse and states, You idiot, you have no idea
how to care for my sick child?
Displacement
Projection
Repression
Psychosis
Which of the following should the nurse expect to
note as a frequent complication for a child with
congenital heart disease?
Susceptibility to respiratory infection
Bleeding tendencies
Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
Seizure disorder
Which of the following would the nurse do first
for a 3-year-old boy who arrives in the
emergency room with a temperature of 105
degrees, inspiratory stridor, and restlessness,
who is learning forward and drooling?
Auscultate his lungs and place him in a mist tent.
Have him lie down and rest after encouraging
fluids.
Examine his throat and perform a throat culture
Notify the physician immediately and prepare for
intubation.
Which of the following would the nurse need to
keep in mind as a predisposing factor when
formulating a teaching plan for child with a
urinary tract infection?
A shorter urethra in females
Frequent emptying of the bladder
Increased fluid intake
Ingestion of acidic juices
Which of the following should the nurse do first
for a 15-year-old boy with a full leg cast who is
screaming in unrelenting pain and exhibiting right
foot pallor signifying compartment syndrome?
Medicate him with acetaminophen.
Notify the physician immediately
Release the traction
Monitor him every 5 minutes

At which of the following ages would the nurse

expect to administer the varicella zoster vaccine
to child?
At birth
2 months
6 months
12 months
When discussing normal infant growth and
development with parents, which of the following
toys would the nurse suggest as most
appropriate for an 8-month-old?
Push-pull toys
Rattle
Large blocks
Mobile
Which of the following aspects of psychosocial
development is necessary for the nurse to keep
in mind when providing care for the preschool
child?
The child can use complex reasoning to think out
situations.
Fear of body mutilation is a common preschool
fear
The child engages in competitive types of play
Immediate gratification is necessary to develop
initiative.
Which of the following is characteristic of a
preschooler with mid mental retardation?
Slow to feed self
Lack of speech
Marked motor delays
Gait disability
Which of the following assessment findings
would lead the nurse to suspect Down syndrome
in an infant?
Small tongue
Transverse palmar crease
Large nose
Restricted joint movement
While assessing a newborn with cleft lip, the
nurse would be alert that which of the following
will most likely be compromised?
Sucking ability
Respiratory status
Locomotion
GI function
When providing postoperative care for the child
with a cleft palate, the nurse should position the
child in which of the following positions?
Supine
Prone

In an infant seat
On the side
While assessing a child with pyloric stenosis, the
nurse is likely to note which of the following?
Regurgitation
Steatorrhea
Projectile vomiting
Currant jelly stools
Which of the following nursing diagnoses would
be inappropriate for the infant with
gastroesophageal reflux (GER)?
Fluid volume deficit
Risk for aspiration
Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
Altered oral mucous membranes
Which of the following parameters would the
nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of
thickened feedings for an infant with
gastroesophageal reflux (GER)?
Vomiting
Stools
Uterine
Weight
Discharge teaching for a child with celiac
disease would include instructions about
avoiding which of the following?
Rice
Milk
Wheat
Chicken
Which of the following would the nurse expect to
assess in a child with celiac disease having a
celiac crisis secondary to an upper respiratory
infection?
Respiratory distress
Lethargy
Watery diarrhea
Weight gain
Which of the following should the nurse do first
after noting that a child with Hirschsprung
disease has a fever and watery explosive
diarrhea?
Notify the physician immediately
Administer antidiarrheal medications
Monitor child ever 30 minutes
Nothing, this is characteristic of Hirschsprung
disease
A newborns failure to pass meconium within the
first 24 hours after birth may indicate which of
the following?
Hirschsprung disease

Celiac disease
Intussusception
Abdominal wall defect
When assessing a child for possible
intussusception, which of the following would be
least likely to provide valuable information?
Stool inspection
Pain pattern
Family history
Abdominal palpation
1. For the client who is using oral
contraceptives, the nurse informs the client
about the need to take the pill at the same
time each day to accomplish which of the
following?
A. Decrease the incidence of nausea
B. Maintain hormonal levels
C. Reduce side effects
D. Prevent drug interactions
2. When teaching a client about
contraception. Which of the following would
the nurse include as the most effective
method for preventing sexually transmitted
infections?
A. Spermicides
B. Diaphragm
C. Condoms
D. Vasectomy
3. When preparing a woman who is 2 days
postpartum for discharge, recommendations
for which of the following contraceptive
methods would be avoided?
A. Diaphragm
B. Female condom
C. Oral contraceptives
D. Rhythm method
4. For which of the following clients would
the nurse expect that an intrauterine device
would not be recommended?
A. Woman over age 35
B. Nulliparous woman
C. Promiscuous young adult
D. Postpartum client
5. A client in her third trimester tells the
nurse, Im constipated all the time! Which
of the following should the nurse
recommend?
A. Daily enemas
B. Laxatives

C. Increased fiber intake

D. Decreased fluid intake
6. Which of the following would the nurse use
as the basis for the teaching plan when
caring for a pregnant teenager concerned
about gaining too much weight during
pregnancy?
A. 10 pounds per trimester
B. 1 pound per week for 40 weeks
C. pound per week for 40 weeks
D. A total gain of 25 to 30 pounds
7. The client tells the nurse that her last
menstrual period started on January 14 and
ended on January 20. Using Nageles rule,
the nurse determines her EDD to be which of
the following?
A. September 27
B. October 21
C. November 7
D. December 27
8. When taking an obstetrical history on a
pregnant client who states, I had a son born
at 38 weeks gestation, a daughter born at 30
weeks gestation and I lost a baby at about 8
weeks,the nurse should record her
obstetrical history as which of the following?
A. G2 T2 P0 A0 L2
B. G3 T1 P1 A0 L2
C. G3 T2 P0 A0 L2
D. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2
9. When preparing to listen to the fetal heart
rate at 12 weeks gestation, the nurse would
use which of the following?
A. Stethoscope placed midline at the umbilicus
B. Doppler placed midline at the suprapubic
region
C. Fetoscope placed midway between the
umbilicus and the xiphoid process
D. External electronic fetal monitor placed at the
umbilicus
10. When developing a plan of care for a
client newly diagnosed with gestational
diabetes, which of the following instructions
would be the priority?
A. Dietary intake
B. Medication
C. Exercise
D. Glucose monitoring
11. A client at 24 weeks gestation has gained
6 pounds in 4 weeks. Which of the following

would be the priority when assessing the

client?
A. Glucosuria
B. Depression
C. Hand/face edema
D. Dietary intake
12. A client 12 weeks pregnant come to the
emergency department with abdominal
cramping and moderate vaginal bleeding.
Speculum examination reveals 2 to 3 cms
cervical dilation.The nurse would document
these findings as which of the following?
A. Threatened abortion
B. Imminent abortion
C. Complete abortion
D. Missed abortion
13. Which of the following would be the
priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an
ectopic pregnancy?
A. Risk for infection
B. Pain
C. Knowledge Deficit
D. Anticipatory Grieving
14. Before assessing the postpartum clients
uterus for firmness and position in relation to
the umbilicus and midline, which of the
following shouldthe nurse do first?
A. Assess the vital signs
B. Administer analgesia
C. Ambulate her in the hall
D. Assist her to urinate
15. Which of the following should the nurse
do when a primipara who is lactating tells the
nurse that she has sore nipples?
A. Tell her to breast feed more frequently
B. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
C. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
D. Use soap and water to clean the nipples
16. The nurse assesses the vital signs of a
client, 4 hours postpartum that are as
follows: BP 90/60; temperature 100.4F; pulse
100 weak, thready; R 20 per minute. Which of
the following shouldthe nurse do first?
A. Report the temperature to the physician
B. Recheck the blood pressure with another cuff
C. Assess the uterus for firmness and position
D. Determine the amount of lochia
17. The nurse assesses the postpartum
vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients.
Which of the following assessments would
warrant notification of the physician?

A. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum

client
B. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who
is 5 days postpartum
C. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a
client 2 weeks after delivery
D. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
18. A postpartum client has a temperature of
101.4F, with a uterus that is tender when
palpated, remains unusually large, and not
descending as normally expected. Which of
the following shouldthe nurse assess next?
A. Lochia
B. Breasts
C. Incision
D. Urine
19. Which of the following is the priority
focus of nursing practice with the current
early postpartum discharge?
A. Promoting comfort and restoration of health
B. Exploring the emotional status of the family
C. Facilitating safe and effective self-and
newborn care
D. Teaching about the importance of family
planning
20. Which of the following actions would be
least effective in maintaining a neutral
thermal environment for the newborn?
A. Placing infant under radiant warmer after
bathing
B. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket
prior to weighing
C. Placing crib close to nursery window for family
viewing
D. Covering the infants head with a knit
stockinette
21. A newborn who has an asymmetrical
Moro reflex response should be further
assessed for which of the following?
A. Talipes equinovarus
B. Fractured clavicle
C. Congenital hypothyroidism
D. Increased intracranial pressure
22. During the first 4 hours after a male
circumcision, assessing for which of the
following is the priority?
A. Infection
B. Hemorrhage
C. Discomfort
D. Dehydration

23. The mother asks the nurse. Whats

wrong with my sons breasts? Why are they
so enlarged? Whish of the following would
be the best response by the nurse?
A. The breast tissue is inflamed from the trauma
experienced with birth
B. A decrease in material hormones present
before birth causes enlargement,
C. You should discuss this with your doctor. It
could be a malignancy
D. The tissue has hypertrophied while the baby
was in the uterus
24. Immediately after birth the nurse notes
the following on a male newborn:
respirations 78; apical hearth rate 160 BPM,
nostril flaring; mild intercostal retractions;
and grunting at the end of expiration. Which
of the following shouldthe nurse do?
A. Call the assessment data to the physicians
attention
B. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
C. Suction the infants mouth and nares
D. Recognize this as normal first period of
reactivity
25. The nurse hears a mother telling a friend
on the telephone about umbilical cord care.
Which of the following statements by the
mother indicates effective teaching?
A. Daily soap and water cleansing is best
B. Alcohol helps it dry and kills germs
C. An antibiotic ointment applied daily prevents
infection
D. He can have a tub bath each day
26. A newborn weighing 3000 grams and
feeding every 4 hours needs 120 calories/kg
of body weight every 24 hours for proper
growth and development. How many ounces
of 20 cal/oz formula should this newborn
receive at each feeding to meet nutritional
needs?
A. 2 ounces
B. 3 ounces
C. 4 ounces
D. 6 ounces
27. The postterm neonate with meconiumstained amniotic fluid needs care designed to
especially monitor for which of the
following?
A. Respiratory problems
B. Gastrointestinal problems

C. Integumentary problems
D. Elimination problems
28. When measuring a clients fundal height,
which of the following techniques denotes
the correct method of measurement used by
the nurse?
A. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus
B. From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid
process
C. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
D. From the fundus to the umbilicus
29. A client with severe preeclampsia is
admitted with of BP 160/110, proteinuria, and
severe pitting edema. Which of the following
would be most important to include in the
clients plan of care?
A. Daily weights
B. Seizure precautions
C. Right lateral positioning
D. Stress reduction
30. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse,
When can we have sexual intercourse
again? Which of the following would be the
nurses best response?
A. Anytime you both want to.
B. As soon as choose a contraceptive method.
C. When the discharge has stopped and the
incision is healed.
D. After your 6 weeks examination.
31. When preparing to administer the vitamin
K injection to a neonate, the nurse would
select which of the following sites as
appropriate for the injection?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Anterior femoris muscle
C. Vastus lateralis muscle
D. Gluteus maximus muscle
32. When performing a pelvic examination,
the nurse observes a red swollen area on the
right side of the vaginal orifice. The nurse
would document this as enlargement of
which of the following?
A. Clitoris
B. Parotid gland
C. Skenes gland
D. Bartholins gland
33. To differentiate as a female, the hormonal
stimulation of the embryo that must occur
involves which of the following?
A. Increase in maternal estrogen secretion
B. Decrease in maternal androgen secretion

C. Secretion of androgen by the fetal gonad

D. Secretion of estrogen by the fetal gonad
34. A client at 8 weeks gestation calls
complaining of slight nausea in the morning
hours. Which of the following client
interventions should the nurse question?
A. Taking 1 teaspoon of bicarbonate of soda in
an 8-ounce glass of water
B. Eating a few low-sodium crackers before
getting out of bed
C. Avoiding the intake of liquids in the morning
hours
D. Eating six small meals a day instead of thee
large meals
35. The nurse documents positive
ballottement in the clients prenatal record.
The nurse understands that this indicates
which of the following?
A. Palpable contractions on the abdomen
B. Passive movement of the unengaged fetus
C. Fetal kicking felt by the client
D. Enlargement and softening of the uterus
36. During a pelvic exam the nurse notes a
purple-blue tinge of the cervix. The nurse
documents this as which of the following?
A. Braxton-Hicks sign
B. Chadwicks sign
C. Goodells sign
D. McDonalds sign
37. During a prenatal class, the nurse
explains the rationale for breathing
techniques during preparation for labor
based on the understanding that breathing
techniques are most important in achieving
which of the following?
A. Eliminate pain and give the expectant parents
something to do
B. Reduce the risk of fetal distress by increasing
uteroplacental perfusion
C. Facilitate relaxation, possibly reducing the
perception of pain
D. Eliminate pain so that less analgesia and
anesthesia are needed
38. After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse
notes that the contractions of a primigravida
client are not strong enough to dilate the
cervix. Which of the following would the
nurse anticipate doing?
A. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin
infusion
B. Administering a light sedative to allow the

patient to rest for several hour

C. Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to
progress
D. Increasing the encouragement to the patient
when pushing begins
39. A multigravida at 38 weeks gestation is
admitted with painless, bright red bleeding
and mild contractions every 7 to 10 minutes.
Which of the following assessments should
be avoided?
A. Maternal vital sign
B. Fetal heart rate
C. Contraction monitoring
D. Cervical dilation
40. Which of the following would be the
nurses most appropriate response to a client
who asks why she must have a cesarean
delivery if she has a complete placenta
previa?
A. You will have to ask your physician when he
returns.
B. You need a cesarean to prevent
hemorrhage.
C. The placenta is covering most of your cervix.
D. The placenta is covering the opening of the
uterus and blocking your baby.
41. The nurse understands that the fetal head
is in which of the following positions with a
face presentation?
A. Completely flexed
B. Completely extended
C. Partially extended
D. Partially flexed
42. With a fetus in the left-anterior breech
presentation, the nurse would expect the
fetal heart rate would be most audible in
which of the following areas?
A. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the right
of midline
B. In the lower-left maternal abdominal quadrant
C. In the lower-right maternal abdominal
quadrant
D. Above the maternal umbilicus and to the left
of midline
43. The amniotic fluid of a client has a
greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be
the result of which of the following?
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnio
C. Meconium
D. Vernix

44. A patient is in labor and has just been told

she has a breech presentation. The nurse
should be particularly alert for which of the
following?
A. Quickening
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Pica
D. Prolapsed umbilical cord
45. When describing dizygotic twins to a
couple, on which of the following would the
nurse base the explanation?
A. Two ova fertilized by separate sperm
B. Sharing of a common placenta
C. Each ova with the same genotype
D. Sharing of a common chorion
46. Which of the following refers to the single
cell that reproduces itself after conception?
A. Chromosome
B. Blastocyst
C. Zygote
D. Trophoblast
47. In the late 1950s, consumers and health
care professionals began challenging the
routine use of analgesics and anesthetics
during childbirth. Which of the following was
an outgrowth of this concept?
A. Labor, delivery, recovery, postpartum (LDRP)
B. Nurse-midwifery
C. Clinical nurse specialist
D. Prepared childbirth
48. A client has a midpelvic contracture from
a previous pelvic injury due to a motor
vehicle accident as a teenager. The nurse is
aware that this could prevent a fetus from
passing through or around which structure
during childbirth?
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Sacral promontory
C. Ischial spines
D. Pubic arch
49. When teaching a group of adolescents
about variations in the length of the
menstrual cycle, the nurse understands that
the underlying mechanism is due to
variations in which of the following phases?
A. Menstrual phase
B. Proliferative phase
C. Secretory phase
D. Ischemic phase
50. When teaching a group of adolescents
about male hormone production, which of the

following would the nurse include as being

produced by the Leydig cells?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
B. Testosterone
C. Leuteinizing hormone
D. Gonadotropin releasing hormone
1. While performing physical assessment of a 12
month-old, the nurse notes that the infants
anterior fontanel is still slightly open. Which of
the following is the nurses most appropriate
action?
A. Notify the physician immediately because
there is a problem.
B. Perform an intensive neurological
examination.
C. Perform an intensive developmental
examination.
D. Do nothing because this is a normal finding
for the age.
2. When teaching a mother about introducing
solid foods to her child, which of the following
indicates the earliest age at which this should be
done?
A. 1 month
B. 2 months
C. 3 months
D. 4 months
3. The infant of a substance-abusing mother is at
risk for developing a sense of which of the
following?
A. Mistrust
B. Shame
C. Guilt
D. Inferiority
4. Which of the following toys should the nurse
recommend for a 5-month-old?
A. A big red balloon
B. A teddy bear with button eyes
C. A push-pull wooden truck
D. A colorful busy box
5. The mother of a 2-month-old is concerned that
she may be spoiling her baby by picking her up
when she cries. Which of the following would be
the nurses best response?
A. Let her cry for a while before picking her up,
so you dont spoil her
B. Babies need to be held and cuddled; you
wont spoil her this way
C. Crying at this age means the baby is hungry;
give her a bottle

D. If you leave her alone she will learn how to

cry herself to sleep
6. When assessing an 18-month-old, the nurse
notes a characteristic protruding abdomen.
Which of the following would explain the
rationale for this finding?
A. Increased food intake owing to age
B. Underdeveloped abdominal muscles
C. Bowlegged posture
D. Linear growth curve
7. If parents keep a toddler dependent in areas
where he is capable of using skills, the toddle will
develop a sense of which of the following?
A. Mistrust
B. Shame
C. Guilt
D. Inferiority
8. Which of the following is an appropriate toy for
an 18-month-old?
A. Multiple-piece puzzle
B. Miniature cars
C. Finger paints
D. Comic book
9. When teaching parents about the childs
readiness for toilet training, which of the
following signs should the nurse instruct them to
watch for in the toddler?
A. Demonstrates dryness for 4 hours
B. Demonstrates ability to sit and walk
C. Has a new sibling for stimulation
D. Verbalizes desire to go to the bathroom
10. When teaching parents about typical toddler
eating patterns, which of the following should be
included?
A .Food jags
B. Preference to eat alone
C. Consistent table manners
D. Increase in appetite
11. Which of the following suggestions should
the nurse offer the parents of a 4-year-old boy
who resists going to bed at night?
A. Allow him to fall asleep in your room, then
move him to his own bed.
B. Tell him that you will lock him in his room if he
gets out of bed one more time.
C. Encourage active play at bedtime to tire him
out so he will fall asleep faster.
D. Read him a story and allow him to play
quietly in his bed until he falls asleep.

12. When providing therapeutic play, which of

the following toys would best promote
imaginative play in a 4-year-old?
A. Large blocks
B. Dress-up clothes
C. Wooden puzzle
D. Big wheels
13. Which of the following activities, when voiced
by the parents following a teaching session
about the characteristics of school-age cognitive
development would indicate the need for
additional teaching?
A. Collecting baseball cards and marbles
B. Ordering dolls according to size
C. Considering simple problem-solving options
D. Developing plans for the future
14. A hospitalized schoolager states: Im not
afraid of this place, Im not afraid of anything.
This statement is most likely an example of
whichof the following?
A. Regression
B. Repression
C. Reaction formation
D. Rationalization
15. After teaching a group of parents about
accident prevention for schoolagers, which of the
following statements by the group would indicate
the need for more teaching?
A. Schoolagers are more active and
adventurous than are younger children.
B. Schoolagers are more susceptible to home
hazards than are younger children.
C. Schoolagers are unable to understand
potential dangers around them.
D. Schoolargers are less subject to parental
control than are younger children.
16. Which of the following skills is the most
significant one learned during the schoolage
period?
A. Collecting
B. Ordering
C. Reading
D. Sorting
17. A child age 7 was unable to receive the
measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine at
the recommended scheduled time. When would
the nurse expect to administer MMR vaccine?
A. In a month from now
B. In a year from now
C. At age 10
D. At age 13

18. The adolescents inability to develop a sense

of who he is and what he can become results in
a sense of which of the following?
A. Shame
B. Guilt
C. Inferiority
D. Role diffusion
19. Which of the following would be most
appropriate for a nurse to use when describing
menarche to a 13-year-old?
A. A females first menstruation or menstrual
periods
B. The first year of menstruation or period
C. The entire menstrual cycle or from one
period to another
D. The onset of uterine maturation or peak
growth
20. A 14-year-old boy has acne and according to
his parents, dominates the bathroom by using
the mirror all the time.
Which of the following remarks by the nurse
would be least helpful in talking to the boy and
his parents?
A. This is probably the only concern he has
about his body. So dont worry about it or the
time he spends on it.
B. Teenagers are anxious about how their peers
perceive them. So they spend a lot of time
grooming.
C. A teen may develop a poor self-image when
experiencing acne. Do you feel this way
sometimes?
D. You appear to be keeping your face well
washed. Would you feel comfortable discussing
your cleansing method?
21. Which of the following should the nurse
suspect when noting that a 3-year-old is
engaging in explicit sexual behavior during doll
play?
A. The child is exhibiting normal pre-school
curiosity
B. The child is acting out personal experiences
C. The child does not know how to play with
dolls
D. The child is probably developmentally
delayed.
22. Which of the following statements by the
parents of a child with school phobia would
indicate the need for further teaching?
A. Well keep him at home until phobia
subsides.

B. Well work with his teachers and counselors

at school.
C. Well try to encourage him to talk about his
problem.
D. Well discuss possible solutions with him and
his counselor.
23. When developing a teaching plan for a group
of high school students about teenage
pregnancy, the nurse would keep in mind which
of the following?
A. The incidence of teenage pregnancies is
increasing.
B. Most teenage pregnancies are planned.
C. Denial of the pregnancy is common early on.
D. The risk for complications during pregnancy is
rare.
24. When assessing a child with a cleft palate,
the nurse is aware that the child is at risk for
more frequent episodes of otitis media due to
whichof the following?
A. Lowered resistance from malnutrition
B. Ineffective functioning of the Eustachian tubes
C. Plugging of the Eustachian tubes with food
particles
D. Associated congenital defects of the middle
ear.
25. While performing a neurodevelopmental
assessment on a 3-month-old infant, which of
the following characteristics would be expected?
A. A strong Moro reflex
B. A strong parachute reflex
C. Rolling from front to back
D. Lifting of head and chest when prone
26. By the end of which of the following would
the nurse most commonly expect a childs birth
weight to triple?
A. 4 months
B. 7 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
27. Which of the following best describes parallel
play between two toddlers?
A. Sharing crayons to color separate pictures
B. Playing a board game with a nurse
C. Sitting near each other while playing with
separate dolls
D. Sharing their dolls with two different nurses
28. Which of the following would the nurse
identify as the initial priority for a child with acute
lymphocytic leukemia?

A. Instituting infection control precautions

B. Encouraging adequate intake of iron-rich
foods
C. Assisting with coping with chronic illness
D. Administering medications via IM injections
29. Which of the following information, when
voiced by the mother, would indicate to the nurse
that she understands home care instructions
following the administration of a diphtheria,
tetanus, and pertussis injection?
A. Measures to reduce fever
B. Need for dietary restrictions
C. Reasons for subsequent rash
D. Measures to control subsequent diarrhea
30. Which of the following actions by a
community health nurse is most appropriate
when noting multiple bruises and burns on the
posterior trunk of an 18-month-old child during a
home visit?
A. Report the childs condition to Protective
Services immediately.
B. Schedule a follow-up visit to check for more
bruises.
C. Notify the childs physician immediately.
D. Don nothing because this is a normal finding
in a toddler.
31. Which of the following is being used when
the mother of a hospitalized child calls the
student nurse and states, You idiot, you have no
idea how to care for my sick child?
A. Displacement
B. Projection
C. Repression
D. Psychosis
32. Which of the following should the nurse
expect to note as a frequent complication for a
child with congenital heart disease?
A. Susceptibility to respiratory infection
B. Bleeding tendencies
C. Frequent vomiting and diarrhea
D. Seizure disorder
33. Which of the following would the nurse do
first for a 3-year-old boy who arrives in the
emergency room with a temperature of 105
degrees, inspiratory stridor, and restlessness,
who is learning forward and drooling?
A. Auscultate his lungs and place him in a mist
tent.
B. Have him lie down and rest after encouraging
fluids.
C. Examine his throat and perform a throat

culture
D. Notify the physician immediately and prepare
for intubation.
34. Which of the following would the nurse need
to keep in mind as a predisposing factor when
formulating a teaching plan for child with a
urinary tract infection?
A. A shorter urethra in females
B. Frequent emptying of the bladder
C. Increased fluid intake
D. Ingestion of acidic juices
35. Which of the following should the nurse do
first for a 15-year-old boy with a full leg cast who
is screaming in unrelenting pain and exhibiting
right foot pallor signifying compartment
syndrome?
A. Medicate him with acetaminophen.
B. Notify the physician immediately
C. Release the traction
D. Monitor him every 5 minutes
36. At which of the following ages would the
nurse expect to administer the varicella zoster
vaccine to child?
A. At birth
B. 2 months
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
37. When discussing normal infant growth and
development with parents, which of the following
toys would the nurse suggest as most
appropriate for an 8-month-old?
A. Push-pull toys
B. Rattle
C. Large blocks
D. Mobile
38. Which of the following aspects of
psychosocial development is necessary for the
nurse to keep in mind when providing care for
the preschool child?
A. The child can use complex reasoning to think
out situations.
B. Fear of body mutilation is a common
preschool fear
C. The child engages in competitive types of play
D. Immediate gratification is necessary to
develop initiative.
39. Which of the following is characteristic of a
preschooler with mid mental retardation?
A. Slow to feed self
B. Lack of speech

C. Marked motor delays

D. Gait disability
40. Which of the following assessment findings
would lead the nurse to suspect Down syndrome
in an infant?
A. Small tongue
B. Transverse palmar crease
C. Large nose
D. Restricted joint movement
41. While assessing a newborn with cleft lip, the
nurse would be alert that which of the following
will most likely be compromised?
A. Sucking ability
B. Respiratory status
C. Locomotion
D. GI function
42. When providing postoperative care for the
child with a cleft palate, the nurse should position
the child in which of the following positions?
A. Supine
B. Prone
C. In an infant seat
D. On the side
43. While assessing a child with pyloric stenosis,
the nurse is likely to note which of the following?
A. Regurgitation
B. Steatorrhea
C. Projectile vomiting
D. Currant jelly stools
44. Which of the following nursing diagnoses
would be inappropriate for the infant with
gastroesophageal reflux (GER)?
A. Fluid volume deficit
B. Risk for aspiration
C. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
D. Altered oral mucous membranes
45. Which of the following parameters would the
nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of
thickened feedings for an infant with
gastroesophageal reflux (GER)?
A. Vomiting
B. Stools
C. Uterine
D. Weight
46. Discharge teaching for a child with celiac
disease would include instructions about
avoiding which of the following?
A. Rice
B. Milk
C. Wheat
D. Chicken

47. Which of the following would the nurse

expect to assess in a child with celiac disease
having a celiac crisis secondary to an upper
respiratory infection?
A. Respiratory distress
B. Lethargy
C. Watery diarrhea
D. Weight gain
48. Which of the following should the nurse do
first after noting that a child with Hirschsprung
disease has a fever and watery explosive
diarrhea?
A. Notify the physician immediately
B. Administer antidiarrheal medications
C. Monitor child ever 30 minutes
D. Nothing, this is characteristic of Hirschsprung
disease
49. A newborns failure to pass meconium within
the first 24 hours after birth may indicate which
of the following?
A. Hirschsprung disease
B. Celiac disease
C. Intussusception
D. Abdominal wall defect
50. When assessing a child for possible
intussusception, which of the following would be
least likely to provide valuable information?
A. Stool inspection
B. Pain pattern
C. Family history
D. Abdominal palpation
1. Which of the following conditions will lead
to a small-for-gestational age fetus due to
less blood supply to the fetus?
A. Diabetes in the mother
B. Maternal cardiac condition
C. Premature labor
D. Abruptio placenta
2. The lower limit of viability for infants in
terms of age of gestation is:
A. 21-24 weeks
B. 25-27 weeks
C. 28-30 weeks
D. 38-40 weeks
3. Which provision of our 1987 constitution
guarantees the right of the unborn child to
life from conception is
A. Article II section 12
B. Article II section 15
C. Article XIII section 11
D. Article XIII section 15

4. In the Philippines, if a nurse performs

abortion on the mother who wants it done
and she gets paid for doing it, she will be
held liable because
A. Abortion is immoral and is prohibited by the
church
B. Abortion is both immoral and illegal in our
country
C. Abortion is considered illegal because you got
paid for doing it
D. Abortion is illegal because majority in our
country are catholics and it is prohibited by the
church
5. The preferred manner of delivering the
baby in a gravido-cardiac is vaginal delivery
assisted by forceps under epidural
anesthesiA. The main rationale for this is:
A. To allow atraumatic delivery of the baby
B. To allow a gradual shifting of the blood into
the maternal circulation
C. To make the delivery effort free and the
mother does not need to push with contractions
D. To prevent perineal laceration with the
expulsion of the fetal head
6. When giving narcotic analgesics to mother
in labor, the special consideration to follow
is:
A. The progress of labor is well established
reaching the transitional stage
B. Uterine contraction is progressing well and
delivery of the baby is imminent
C. Cervical dilatation has already reached at
least 8 cm. and the station is at least (+)2
D. Uterine contractions are strong and the baby
will not be delivered yet within the next 3 hours.
7. The cervical dilatation taken at 8:00 AM in
a G1P0 patient was 6 centimeters. A repeat
I.E. done at 10 A. M. showed that cervical
dilation was 7 cm. The correct interpretation
of this result is:
A. Labor is progressing as expected
B. The latent phase of Stage 1 is prolonged
C. The active phase of Stage 1 is protracted
D. The duration of labor is normal
8. Which of the following techniques during
labor and delivery can lead to uterine
inversion?
A. Fundal pressure applied to assist the mother
in bearing down during delivery of the fetal head
B. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to
deliver the placenta and hasten placental

separation
C. Massaging the fundus to encourage the
uterus to contract
D. Applying light traction when delivering the
placenta that has already detached from the
uterine wall
9. The fetal heart rate is checked following
rupture of the bag of waters in order to:
A. Check if the fetus is suffering from head
compression
B. Determine if cord compression followed the
rupture
C. Determine if there is utero-placental
insufficiency
D. Check if fetal presenting part has adequately
descended following the rupture
10. Upon assessment, the nurse got the
following findings: 2 perineal pads highly
saturated with blood within 2 hours post
partum, PR= 80 bpm, fundus soft and
boundaries not well defineD. The appropriate
nursing diagnosis is:
A. Normal blood loss
B. Blood volume deficiency
C. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to
hemorrhage
D. Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony
11. The following are signs and symptoms of
fetal distress EXCEPT:
A. Fetal heart rate (FHR) decreased during a
contraction and persists even after the uterine
contraction ends
B. The FHR is less than 120 bpm or over 160
bpm
C. The pre-contraction FHR is 130 bpm, FHR
during contraction is 118 bpm and FHR after
uterine contraction is 126 bpm
D. FHR is 160 bpm, weak and irregular
12. If the labor period lasts only for 3 hours,
the nurse should suspect that the following
conditions may occur:
1.Laceration of cervix
2.Laceration of perineum
3.Cranial hematoma in the fetus
4.Fetal anoxia
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
13. The primary power involved in labor and
delivery is

A. Bearing down ability of mother

B. Cervical effacement and dilatation
C. Uterine contraction
D. Valsalva technique
14. The proper technique to monitor the
intensity of a uterine contraction is
A. Place the palm of the hands on the abdomen
and time the contraction
B. Place the finger tips lightly on the suprapubic
area and time the contraction
C. Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal
area and try to indent the abdominal wall at the
height of the contraction
D. Put the palm of the hands on the fundal area
and feel the contraction at the fundal area
15. To monitor the frequency of the uterine
contraction during labor, the right technique
is to time the contraction
A. From the beginning of one contraction to the
end of the same contraction
B. From the beginning of one contraction to the
beginning of the next contraction
C. From the end of one contraction to the
beginning of the next contraction
D. From the deceleration of one contraction to
the acme of the next contraction
16. The peak point of a uterine contraction is
called the
A. Acceleration
B. Acme
C. Deceleration
D. Axiom
17. When determining the duration of a
uterine contraction the right technique is to
time it from
A. The beginning of one contraction to the end of
the same contraction
B. The end of one contraction to the beginning of
another contraction
C. The acme point of one contraction to the
acme point of another contraction
D. The beginning of one contraction to the end of
another contraction
18. When the bag of waters ruptures, the
nurse should check the characteristic of the
amniotic fluiD. The normal color of amniotic
fluid is
A. Clear as water
B. Bluish
C. Greenish
D. Yellowish

19. When the bag of waters ruptures

spontaneously, the nurse should inspect the
vaginal introitus for possible cord prolapse. If
there is part of the cord that has prolapsed
into the vaginal opening the correct nursing
intervention is:
A. Push back the prolapse cord into the vaginal
canal
B. Place the mother on semifowlers position to
improve circulation
C. Cover the prolapse cord with sterile gauze
wet with sterile NSS and place the woman on
Trendelenburg position
D. Push back the cord into the vagina and place
the woman on sims position
20. The fetal heart beat should be monitored
every 15 minutes during the 2nd stage of
labor. The characteristic of a normal fetal
heart rate is
A. The heart rate will decelerate during a
contraction and then go back to its precontraction rate after the contraction
B. The heart rate will accelerate during a
contraction and remain slightly above the precontraction rate at the end of the contraction
C. The rate should not be affected by the uterine
contraction.
D. The heart rate will decelerate at the middle of
a contraction and remain so for about a minute
after the contraction
21. The mechanisms involved in fetal delivery
is
A. Descent, extension, flexion, external rotation
B. Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension,
external rotation
C. Flexion, internal rotation, external rotation,
extension
D. Internal rotation, extension, external rotation,
flexion
22. The first thing that a nurse must ensure
when the babys head comes out is
A. The cord is intact
B. No part of the cord is encircling the babys
neck
C. The cord is still attached to the placenta
D. The cord is still pulsating
23. To ensure that the baby will breath as
soon as the head is delivered, the nurses
priority action is to
A. Suction the nose and mouth to remove
mucous secretions

B. Slap the babys buttocks to make the baby cry

C. Clamp the cord about 6 inches from the base
D. Check the babys color to make sure it is not
cyanotic
24. When doing perineal care in preparation
for delivery, the nurse should observe the
following EXCEPT
A. Use up-down technique with one stroke
B. Clean from the mons veneris to the anus
C. Use mild soap and warm water
D. Paint the inner thighs going towards the
perineal area
25. What are the important considerations
that the nurse must remember after the
placenta is delivered?
1.Check if the placenta is complete including
the membranes
2.Check if the cord is long enough for the
baby
3.Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood
vessels
4.Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a
shiny portion
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 3
26. The following are correct statements
about false labor EXCEPT
A. The pain is irregular in intensity and
frequency.
B. The duration of contraction progressively
lengthens over time
C. There is no vaginal bloody discharge
D. The cervix is still closeD.
27. The passageway in labor and deliver of
the fetus include the following EXCEPT
A. Distensibility of lower uterine segment
B. Cervical dilatation and effacement
C. Distensibility of vaginal canal and introitus
D. Flexibility of the pelvis
28. The normal umbilical cord is composed
of:
A. 2 arteries and 1 vein
B. 2 veins and 1 artery
C. 2 arteries and 2 veins
D. none of the above
29. At what stage of labor and delivery does a
primigravida differ mainly from a
multigravida?

A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
30. The second stage of labor begins with
___ and ends with __?
A. Begins with full dilatation of cervix and ends
with delivery of placenta
B. Begins with true labor pains and ends with
delivery of baby
C. Begins with complete dilatation and
effacement of cervix and ends with delivery of
baby
D. Begins with passage of show and ends with
full dilatation and effacement of cervix
31. The following are signs that the placenta
has detached EXCEPT:
A. Lengthening of the cord
B. Uterus becomes more globular
C. Sudden gush of blood
D. Mother feels like bearing down
32. When the shiny portion of the placenta
comes out first, this is called the ___
mechanism.
A. Schultze
B. Ritgens
C. Duncan
D. Marmets
33. When the babys head is out, the
immediate action of the nurse is
A. Cut the umbilical cord
B. Wipe the babys face and suction mouth first
C. Check if there is cord coiled around the neck
D. Deliver the anterior shoulder
34. When delivering the babys head the
nurse supports the mothers perineum to
prevent tear. This technique is called
A. Marmets technique
B. Ritgens technique
C. Duncan maneuver
D. Schultze maneuver
35. The basic delivery set for normal vaginal
delivery includes the following
instruments/articles EXCEPT:
A. 2 clamps
B. Pair of scissors
C. Kidney basin
D. Retractor
36. As soon as the placenta is delivered, the
nurse must do which of the following
actions?

A. Inspect the placenta for completeness

including the membranes
B. Place the placenta in a receptacle for disposal
C. Label the placenta properly
D. Leave the placenta in the kidney basin for the
nursing aide to dispose properly
37. In vaginal delivery done in the hospital
setting, the doctor routinely orders an
oxytocin to be given to the mother
parenterally. The oxytocin is usually given
after the placenta has been delivered and not
before because:
A. Oxytocin will prevent bleeding
B. Oxytocin can make the cervix close and thus
trap the placenta inside
C. Oxytocin will facilitate placental delivery
D. Giving oxytocin will ensure complete delivery
of the placenta
38. In a gravido-cardiac mother, the first 2
hours postpartum (4th stage of labor and
delivery) particularly in a cesarean section is
a critical period because at this stage
A. There is a fluid shift from the placental
circulation to the maternal circulation which can
overload the compromised heart.
B. The maternal heart is already weak and the
mother can die
C. The delivery process is strenuous to the
mother
D. The mother is tired and weak which can
distress the heart
39. The drug usually given parentally to
enhance uterine contraction is:
A. Terbutalline
B. Pitocin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Lidocaine
40. The partograph is a tool used to monitor
labor. The maternal parameters
measured/monitored are the following
EXCEPT:
A. Vital signs
B. Fluid intake and output
C. Uterine contraction
D. Cervical dilatation
41. The following are natural childbirth
procedures EXCEPT:
A. Lamaze method
B. Dick-Read method
C. Ritgens maneuver
D. Psychoprophylactic method

42. The following are common causes of

dysfunctional labor. Which of these can a
nurse, on her own manage?
A. Pelvic bone contraction
B. Full bladder
C. Extension rather than flexion of the head
D. Cervical rigidity
43. At what stage of labor is the mother is
advised to bear down?
A. When the mother feels the pressure at the
rectal area
B. During a uterine contraction
C. In between uterine contraction to prevent
uterine rupture
D. Anytime the mother feels like bearing down
44. The normal dilatation of the cervix during
the first stage of labor in a nullipara is
A. 1.2 cm./hr
B. 1.5 cm./hr.
C. 1.8 cm./hr
D. 2.0 cm./hr
45. When the fetal head is at the level of the
ischial spine, it is said that the station of the
head is
A. Station 1
B. Station 0
C. Station +1
D. Station +2
46. During an internal examination, the nurse
palpated the posterior fontanel to be at the
left side of the mother at the upper quadrant.
The interpretation is that the position of the
fetus is:
A. LOA
B. ROP
C. LOP
D. ROA
47. The following are types of breech
presentation EXCEPT:
A. Footling
B. Frank
C. Complete
D. Incomplete
48. When the nurse palpates the suprapubic
area of the mother and found that the
presenting part is still movable, the right term
for this observation that the fetus is
A. Engaged
B. Descended
C. Floating
D. Internal Rotation

49. The placenta should be delivered

normally within ___ minutes after the delivery
of the baby.
A. 5 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes
50. When shaving a woman in preparation for
cesarean section, the area to be shaved
should be from ___ to ___
A. Under breast to mid-thigh including the pubic
area
B. The umbilicus to the mid-thigh
C. Xyphoid process to the pubic area
D. Above the umbilicus to the pubic area
1. A postpartum patient was in labor for 30 hours
and had ruptured membranes for 24 hours. For
which of the following would the nurse be alert?
a. Endometritis
b. Endometriosis
c. Salpingitis
d. Pelvic thrombophlebitis
2. A client at 36 weeks gestation is schedule for
a routine ultrasound prior to an amniocentesis.
After teaching the client about the purpose for
the ultrasound, which of the following client
statements would indicate to the nurse in charge
that the client needs further instruction?
a. The ultrasound will help to locate the placenta
b. The ultrasound identifies blood flow through
the umbilical cord
c. The test will determine where to insert the
needle
d. The ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid
3. While the postpartum client is receiving
herapin for thrombophlebitis, which of the
following drugs would the nurse Mica expect to
administer if the client develops complications
related to heparin therapy?
a. Calcium gluconate
b. Protamine sulfate
c. Methylegonovine (Methergine)
d. Nitrofurantoin (macrodantin)
4. When caring for a 3-day-old neonate who is
receiving phototherapy to treat jaundice, the
nurse in charge would expect to do which of the
following?
a. Turn the neonate every 6 hours
b. Encourage the mother to discontinue breastfeeding

c. Notify the physician if the skin becomes

bronze in color
d. Check the vital signs every 2 to 4 hours
5. A primigravida in active labor is about 9 days
post-term. The client desires a bilateral pudendal
block anesthesia before delivery. After the nurse
explains this type of anesthesia to the client,
which of the following locations identified by the
client as the area of relief would indicate to the
nurse that the teaching was effective?
a. Back
b. Abdomen
c. Fundus
d. Perineum
6. The nurse is caring for a primigravida at about
2 months and 1 week gestation. After explaining
self-care measures for common discomforts of
pregnancy, the nurse determines that the client
understands the instructions when she says:
a. Nausea and vomiting can be decreased if I
eat a few crackers before arising
b. If I start to leak colostrum, I should cleanse
my nipples with soap and water
c. If I have a vaginal discharge, I should wear
nylon underwear
d. Leg cramps can be alleviated if I put an ice
pack on the area
7. Thirty hours after delivery, the nurse in charge
plans discharge teaching for the client about
infant care. By this time, the nurse expects that
the phase of postpartal psychological adaptation
that the client would be in would be termed
which of the following?
a. Taking in
b. Letting go
c. Taking hold
d. Resolution
8. A pregnant client is diagnosed with partial
placenta previa. In explaining the diagnosis, the
nurse tells the client that the usual treatment for
partial placenta previa is which of the following?
a. Activity limited to bed rest
b. Platelet infusion
c. Immediate cesarean delivery
d. Labor induction with oxytocin
9. Nurse Julia plans to instruct the postpartum
client about methods to prevent breast
engorgement. Which of the following measures
would the nurse include in the teaching plan?
a. Feeding the neonate a maximum of 5 minutes
per side on the first day

b. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple

shields
c. Breast-feeding the neonate at frequent
intervals
d. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48
hours
10. When the nurse on duty accidentally bumps
the bassinet, the neonate throws out its arms,
hands opened, and begins to cry. The nurse
interprets this reaction as indicative of which of
the following reflexes?
a. Startle reflex
b. Babinski reflex
c. Grasping reflex
d. Tonic neck reflex
11. A primigravida client at 25 weeks gestation
visits the clinic and tells the nurse that her lower
back aches when she arrives home from work.
The nurse should suggest that the client perform:
a. Tailor sitting
b. Leg lifting
c. Shoulder circling
d. Squatting exercises
12. Which of the following would the nurse in
charge do first after observing a 2-cm circle of
bright red bleeding on the diaper of a neonate
who just had a circumcision?
a. Notify the neonates pediatrician immediately
b. Check the diaper and circumcision again in 30
minutes
c. Secure the diaper tightly to apply pressure on
the site
d. Apply gently pressure to the site with a sterile
gauze pad
13. Which of the following would the nurse
Sandra most likely expect to find when
assessing a pregnant client with abruption
placenta?
a. Excessive vaginal bleeding
b. Rigid, boardlike abdomen
c. Titanic uterine contractions
d. Premature rupture of membranes
14. While the client is in active labor with twins
and the cervix is 5 cm dilates, the nurse
observes contractions occurring at a rate of
every 7 to 8 minutes in a 30-minute period.
Which of the following would be the nurses most
appropriate action?
a. Note the fetal heart rate patterns
b. Notify the physician immediately
c. Administer oxygen at 6 liters by mask

d. Have the client pant-blow during the

contractions
15. A client tells the nurse, I think my baby likes
to hear me talk to him. When discussing
neonates and stimulation with sound, which of
the following would the nurse include as a
means to elicit the best response?
a. High-pitched speech with tonal variations
b. Low-pitched speech with a sameness of tone
c. Cooing sounds rather than words
d. Repeated stimulation with loud sounds
16. A 31-year-old multipara is admitted to the
birthing room after initial examination reveals her
cervix to be at 8 cm, completely effaced (100 %),
and at 0 station. What phase of labor is she in?
a. Active phase
b. Latent phase
c. Expulsive phase
d. Transitional phase
17. A pregnant patient asks the nurse Kate if she
can take castor oil for her constipation. How
should the nurse respond?
a. Yes, it produces no adverse effect.
b. No, it can initiate premature uterine
contractions.
c. No, it can promote sodium retention.
d. No, it can lead to increased absorption of fatsoluble vitamins.
18. A patient in her 14th week of pregnancy has
presented with abdominal cramping and vaginal
bleeding for the past 8 hours. She has passed
several cloth. What is the primary nursing
diagnosis for this patient?
a. Knowledge deficit
b. Fluid volume deficit
c. Anticipatory grieving
d. Pain
19. Immediately after a delivery, the nursemidwife assesses the neonates head for signs
of molding. Which factors determine the type of
molding?
a. Fetal body flexion or extension
b. Maternal age, body frame, and weight
c. Maternal and paternal ethnic backgrounds
d. Maternal parity and gravidity
20. For a patient in active labor, the nursemidwife plans to use an internal electronic fetal
monitoring (EFM) device. What must occur
before the internal EFM can be applied?
a. The membranes must rupture
b. The fetus must be at 0 station

c. The cervix must be dilated fully

d. The patient must receive anesthesia
21. A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor
delivery area. Assessment reveals that she is in
early part of the first stage of labor. Her pain is
likely to be most intense:
a. Around the pelvic girdle
b. Around the pelvic girdle and in the upper arms
c. Around the pelvic girdle and at the perineum
d. At the perineum
22. A female adult patient is taking a progestinonly oral contraceptive, or minipill. Progestin use
may increase the patients risk for:
a. Endometriosis
b. Female hypogonadism
c. Premenstrual syndrome
d. Tubal or ectopic pregnancy
23. A patient with pregnancy-induced
hypertension probably exhibits which of the
following symptoms?
a. Proteinuria, headaches, vaginal bleeding
b. Headaches, double vision, vaginal bleeding
c. Proteinuria, headaches, double vision
d. Proteinuria, double vision, uterine contractions
24. Because cervical effacement and dilation are
not progressing in a patient in labor, Dr. Smith
orders I.V. administration of oxytocin (Pitocin).
Why must the nurse monitor the patients fluid
intake and output closely during oxytocin
administration?
a. Oxytoxin causes water intoxication
b. Oxytocin causes excessive thirst
c. Oxytoxin is toxic to the kidneys
d. Oxytoxin has a diuretic effect
25. Five hours after birth, a neonate is
transferred to the nursery, where the nurse
intervenes to prevent hypothermia. What is a
common source of radiant heat loss?
a. Low room humidity
b. Cold weight scale
c. Cools incubator walls
d. Cool room temperature
26. After administering bethanechol to a patient
with urine retention, the nurse in charge monitors
the patient for adverse effects. Which is most
likely to occur?
a. Decreased peristalsis
b. Increase heart rate
c. Dry mucous membranes
d. Nausea and Vomiting

27. The nurse in charge is caring for a patient

who is in the first stage of labor. What is the
shortest but most difficult part of this stage?
a. Active phase
b. Complete phase
c. Latent phase
d. Transitional phase
28. After 3 days of breast-feeding, a postpartal
patient reports nipple soreness. To relieve her
discomfort, the nurse should suggest that she:
a. Apply warm compresses to her nipples just
before feedings
b. Lubricate her nipples with expressed milk
before feeding
c. Dry her nipples with a soft towel after feedings
d. Apply soap directly to her nipples, and then
rinse
29. The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a
patient who is 8 weeks pregnant. The nurse
should tell the patient that she can expect to feel
the fetus move at which time?
a. Between 10 and 12 weeks gestation
b. Between 16 and 20 weeks gestation
c. Between 21 and 23 weeks gestation
d. Between 24 and 26 weeks gestation
30. Normal lochial findings in the first 24 hours
post-delivery include:
a. Bright red blood
b. Large clots or tissue fragments
c. A foul odor
d. The complete absence of lochia
1. You performed the Leopolds maneuver
and found the following: breech presentation,
fetal back at the right side of the mother.
Based on these findings, you can hear the
fetal heart beat (PMI) BEST in which
location?
A. Left lower quadrant
B. Right lower quadrant
C. Left upper quadrant
D. Right upper quadrant
2. In Leopolds maneuver step #1, you
palpated a soft broad mass that moves with
the rest of the mass. The correct
interpretation of this finding is:
A. The mass palpated at the fundal part is the
head part.
B. The presentation is breech.
C. The mass palpated is the back
D. The mass palpated is the buttocks.

3. In Leopolds maneuver step # 3 you

palpated a hard round movable mass at the
supra pubic area. The correct interpretation
is that the mass palpated is:
A. The buttocks because the presentation is
breech.
B. The mass palpated is the head.
C. The mass is the fetal back.
D. The mass palpated is the fetal small part
4. The hormone responsible for a positive
pregnancy test is:
A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
D. Follicle Stimulating hormone
5. The hormone responsible for the
maturation of the graafian follicle is:
A. Follicle stimulating hormone
B. Progesterone
C. Estrogen
D. Luteinizing hormone
6. The most common normal position of the
fetus in utero is:
A. Transverse position
B. Vertical position
C. Oblique position
D. None of the above
7. In the later part of the 3rd trimester, the
mother may experience shortness of breath.
This complaint maybe explained as:
A. A normal occurrence in pregnancy because
the fetus is using more oxygen
B. The fundus of the uterus is high pushing the
diaphragm upwards
C. The woman is having allergic reaction to the
pregnancy and its hormones
D. The woman maybe experiencing complication
of pregnancy
8. Which of the following findings in a woman
would be consistent with a pregnancy of two
months duration?
A. Weight gain of 6-10 lbs. and presence of
striae gravidarum
B. Fullness of the breast and urinary frequency
C. Braxton Hicks contractions and quickening
D. Increased respiratory rate and ballottement
9. Which of the following is a positive sign of
pregnancy?
A. Fetal movement felt by mother
B. Enlargement of the uterus

C. (+) pregnancy test

D. (+) ultrasound
10. What event occurring in the second
trimester helps the expectant mother to
accept the pregnancy?
A. Lightening
B. Ballotment
C. Pseudocyesis
D. Quickening
11. Shoes with low, broad heels, plus a good
posture will prevent which prenatal
discomfort?
A. Backache
B. Vertigo
C. Leg cramps
D. Nausea
12. When a pregnant woman experiences leg
cramps, the correct nursing intervention to
relieve the muscle cramps is:
A. Allow the woman to exercise
B. Let the woman walk for a while
C. Let the woman lie down and dorsiflex the foot
towards the knees
D. Ask the woman to raise her legs
13. From the 33rd week of gestation till full
term, a healthy mother should have prenatal
check up every:
A. week
B. 2 weeks
C. 3 weeks
D. 4 weeks
14. The expected weight gain in a normal
pregnancy during the 3rd trimester is
A. 1 pound a week
B. 2 pounds a week
C. 10 lbs a month
D. 10 lbs total weight gain in the 3rd trimester
15. In the Bartholomews rule of 4, when the
level of the fundus is midway between the
umbilicus and xyphoid process the estimated
age of gestation (AOG) is:
A. 5th month
B. 6th month
C. 7th month
D. 8th month
16. The following are ways of determining
expected date of delivery (EDD) when the
LMP is unknown EXCEPT:
A. Naegeles rule
B. Quickening

C. McDonalds rule
D. Batholomews rule of 4
17. If the LMP is Jan. 30, the expected date of
delivery (EDD) is
A. Oct. 7
B. Oct. 24
C. Nov. 7
D. Nov. 8
18. Kegels exercise is done in pregnancy in
order to:
A. Strengthen perineal muscles
B. Relieve backache
C. Strengthen abdominal muscles
D. Prevent leg varicosities and edema
19. Pelvic rocking is an appropriate exercise
in pregnancy to relieve which discomfort?
A. Leg cramps
B. Urinary frequency
C. Orthostatic hypotension
D. Backache
20. The main reason for an expected
increased need for iron in pregnancy is:
A. The mother may have physiologic anemia due
to the increased need for red blood cell mass as
well as the fetal requires about 350-400 mg of
iron to grow
B. The mother may suffer anemia because of
poor appetite
C. The fetus has an increased need for RBC
which the mother must supply
D. The mother may have a problem of digestion
because of pica
21. The diet that is appropriate in normal
pregnancy should be high in
A. Protein, minerals and vitamins
B. Carbohydrates and vitamins
C. Proteins, carbohydrates and fats
D. Fats and minerals
22. Which of the following signs will require a
mother to seek immediate medical attention?
A. When the first fetal movement is felt
B. No fetal movement is felt on the 6th month
C. Mild uterine contraction
D. Slight dyspnea on the last month of gestation
23. You want to perform a pelvic examination
on one of your pregnant clients. You prepare
your client for the procedure by:
A. Asking her to void
B. Taking her vital signs and recording the
readings

C. Giving the client a perineal care

D. Doing a vaginal prep
24. When preparing the mother who is on her
4th month of pregnancy for abdominal
ultrasound, the nurse should instruct her to:
A. Observe NPO from midnight to avoid vomiting
B. Do perineal flushing properly before the
procedure
C. Drink at least 2 liters of fluid 2 hours before
the procedure and not void until the procedure is
done
D. Void immediately before the procedure for
better visualization
25. The nursing intervention to relieve
morning sickness in a pregnant woman is
by giving
A. Dry carbohydrate food like crackers
B. Low sodium diet
C. Intravenous infusion
D. Antacid
26. The common normal site of
nidation/implantation in the uterus is
A. Upper uterine portion
B. Mid-uterine area
C. Lower uterine segment
D. Lower cervical segment
27. Mrs. Santos is on her 5th pregnancy and
has a history of abortion in the 4th pregnancy
and the first pregnancy was a twin. She is
considered to be
A. G 4 P 3
B. G 5 P 3
C. G 5 P 4
D. G 4 P 4
28. The following are skin changes in
pregnancy EXCEPT:
A. Chloasma
B. Striae gravidarum
C. Linea negra
D. Chadwicks sign
29. Which of the following statements is
TRUE of conception?
A. Within 2-4 hours after intercourse conception
is possible in a fertile woman
B. Generally, fertilization is possible 4 days after
ovulation
C. Conception is possible during menstruation in
a long menstrual cycle
D. To avoid conception, intercourse must be
avoided 5 days before and 3 days after
menstruation

30. Which of the following are the functions

of amniotic fluid?
1. Cushions the fetus from abdominal trauma
2. Serves as the fluid for the fetus
3. Maintains the internal temperature
4. Facilitates fetal movement
A. 1 & 3
B. 1, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 3
D. All of the above
31. You are performing abdominal exam on a
9th month pregnant woman. While lying
supine, she felt breathless, had pallor,
tachycardia, and cold clammy skin. The
correct assessment of the womans condition
is that she is:
A. Experiencing the beginning of labor
B. Having supine hypotension
C. Having sudden elevation of BP
D. Going into shock
32. Smoking is contraindicated in pregnancy
because
A. Nicotine causes vasodilation of the mothers
blood vessels
B. Carbon monoxide binds with the hemoglobin
of the mother reducing available hemoglobin for
the fetus
C. The smoke will make the fetus and the mother
feel dizzy
D. Nicotine will cause vasoconstriction of the
fetal blood vessels
33. Which of the following is the most likely
effect on the fetus if the woman is severely
anemic during pregnancy?
A. Large for gestational age (LGA) fetus
B. Hemorrhage
C. Small for gestational age (SGA) baby
D. Erythroblastosis fetalis
34. Which of the following signs and
symptoms will most likely make the nurse
suspect that the patient is having
hydatidiform mole?
A. Slight bleeding
B. Passage of clear vesicular mass per vagina
C. Absence of fetal heart beat
D. Enlargement of the uterus
35. Upon assessment the nurse found the
following: fundus at 2 fingerbreadths above
the umbilicus, last menstrual period (LMP) 5
months ago, fetal heart beat (FHB) not

appreciated. Which of the following is the

most possible diagnosis of this condition?
A. Hydatidiform mole
B. Missed abortion
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Ectopic pregnancy
36. When a pregnant woman goes into a
convulsive seizure, the MOST immediate
action of the nurse to ensure safety of the
patient is:
A. Apply restraint so that the patient will not fall
out of bed
B. Put a mouth gag so that the patient will not
bite her tongue and the tongue will not fall back
C. Position the mother on her side to allow the
secretions to drain from her mouth and prevent
aspiration
D. Check if the woman is also having a
precipitate labor
37. A gravidocardiac mother is advised to
observe bed rest primarily to
A. Allow the fetus to achieve normal intrauterine
growth
B. Minimize oxygen consumption which can
aggravate the condition of the compromised
heart of the mother
C. Prevent perinatal infection
D. Reduce incidence of premature labor
38. A pregnant mother is admitted to the
hospital with the chief complaint of profuse
vaginal bleeding, AOG 36 wks, not in labor.
The nurse must always consider which of the
following precautions:
A. The internal exam is done only at the delivery
under strict asepsis with a double set-up
B. The preferred manner of delivering the baby is
vaginal
C. An emergency delivery set for vaginal delivery
must be made ready before examining the
patient
D. Internal exam must be done following routine
procedure
39. Which of the following signs will
distinguish threatened abortion from
imminent abortion?
A. Severity of bleeding
B. Dilation of the cervix
C. Nature and location of pain
D. Presence of uterine contraction

40. The nursing measure to relieve fetal

distress due to maternal supine hypotension
is:
A. Place the mother on semi-fowlers position
B. Put the mother on left side lying position
C. Place mother on a knee chest position
D. Any of the above
41. To prevent preterm labor from
progressing, drugs are usually prescribed to
halt the labor. The drugs commonly given
are:
A. Magnesium sulfate and terbutaline
B. Prostaglandin and oxytocin
C. Progesterone and estrogen
D. Dexamethasone and prostaglandin
42. In placenta praevia marginalis, the
placenta is found at the:
A. Internal cervical os partly covering the
opening
B. External cervical os slightly covering the
opening
C. Lower segment of the uterus with the edges
near the internal cervical os
D. Lower portion of the uterus completely
covering the cervix
43. In which of the following conditions can
the causative agent pass through the
placenta and affect the fetus in utero?
A. Gonorrhea
B. Rubella
C. Candidiasis
D. moniliasis
44. Which of the following can lead to
infertility in adult males?
A. German measles
B. Orchitis
C. Chicken pox
D. Rubella
45. Papanicolaou smear is usually done to
determine cancer of
A. Cervix
B. Ovaries
C. Fallopian tubes
D. Breast
46. Which of the following causes of infertility
in the female is primarily psychological in
origin?
A. Vaginismus
B. Dyspareunia
C. Endometriosis
D. Impotence

47. Before giving a repeat dose of

magnesium sulfate to a pre-eclamptic patient,
the nurse should assess the patients
condition. Which of the following conditions
will require the nurse to temporarily suspend
a repeat dose of magnesium sulfate?
A. 100 cC. urine output in 4 hours
B. Knee jerk reflex is (+)2
C. Serum magnesium level is 10mEg/L.
D. Respiratory rate of 16/min
48. Which of the following is TRUE in Rh
incompatibility?
A. The condition can occur if the mother is Rh(+)
and the fetus is Rh(-)
B. Every pregnancy of an Rh(-) mother will result
to erythroblastosis fetalis
C. On the first pregnancy of the Rh(-) mother, the
fetus will not be affected
D. RhoGam is given only during the first
pregnancy to prevent incompatibility
49. Which of the following are the most
commonly assessed findings in cystitis?
A. Frequency, urgency, dehydration, nausea,
chills, and flank pain
B. Nocturia, frequency, urgency dysuria,
hematuria, fever and suprapubic pain
C. Dehydration, hypertension, dysuria,
suprapubic pain, chills, and fever
D. High fever, chills, flank pain nausea, vomiting,
dysuria, and frequency
50. Which of the following best reflects the
frequency of reported postpartum blues?
A. Between 10% and 40% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
B. Between 30% and 50% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
C. Between 50% and 80% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
D. Between 25% and 70% of all new mothers
report some form of postpartum blues
1. May arrives at the health care clinic and
tells the nurse that her last menstrual period
was 9 weeks ago. She also tells the nurse
that a home pregnancy test was positive but
she began to have mild cramps and is now
having moderate vaginal bleeding. During the
physical examination of the client, the nurse
notes that May has a dilated cervix. The
nurse determines that May is experiencing
which type of abortion?

a. Inevitable
b. Incomplete
c. Threatened
d. Septic
2. Nurse Reese is reviewing the record of a
pregnant client for her first prenatal visit.
Which of the following data, if noted on the
clients record, would alert the nurse that the
client is at risk for a spontaneous abortion?
a. Age 36 years
b. History of syphilis
c. History of genital herpes
d. History of diabetes mellitus
3. Nurse Hazel is preparing to care for a client
who is newly admitted to the hospital with a
possible diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy.
Nurse Hazel develops a plan of care for the
client and determines that which of the
following nursing actions is the priority?
a. Monitoring weight
b. Assessing for edema
c. Monitoring apical pulse
d. Monitoring temperature
4. Nurse Oliver is teaching a diabetic
pregnant client about nutrition and insulin
needs during pregnancy. The nurse
determines that the client understands
dietary and insulin needs if the client states
that the second half of pregnancy require:
a. Decreased caloric intake
b. Increased caloric intake
c. Decreased Insulin
d. Increase Insulin
5. Nurse Michelle is assessing a 24 year old
client with a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole.
She is aware that one of the following is
unassociated with this condition?
a. Excessive fetal activity.
b. Larger than normal uterus for gestational age.
c. Vaginal bleeding
d. Elevated levels of human chorionic
gonadotropin.
6. A pregnant client is receiving magnesium
sulfate for severe pregnancy induced
hypertension (PIH). The clinical findings that
would warrant use of the antidote , calcium
gluconate is:
a. Urinary output 90 cc in 2 hours.
b. Absent patellar reflexes.
c. Rapid respiratory rate above 40/min.
d. Rapid rise in blood pressure.

7. During vaginal examination of Janna who

is in labor, the presenting part is at station
plus two. Nurse, correctly interprets it as:
a. Presenting part is 2 cm above the plane of the
ischial spines.
b. Biparietal diameter is at the level of the ischial
spines.
c. Presenting part in 2 cm below the plane of the
ischial spines.
d. Biparietal diameter is 2 cm above the ischial
spines.
8. A pregnant client is receiving oxytocin
(Pitocin) for induction of labor. A condition
that warrant the nurse in-charge to
discontinue I.V. infusion of Pitocin is:
a. Contractions every 1 minutes lasting 70-80
seconds.
b. Maternal temperature 101.2
c. Early decelerations in the fetal heart rate.
d. Fetal heart rate baseline 140-160 bpm.
9. Calcium gluconate is being administered
to a client with pregnancy induced
hypertension (PIH). A nursing action that
must be initiated as the plan of care
throughout injection of the drug is:
a. Ventilator assistance
b. CVP readings
c. EKG tracings
d. Continuous CPR
10. A trial for vaginal delivery after an earlier
caesareans, would likely to be given to a
gravida, who had:
a. First low transverse cesarean was for active
herpes type 2 infections; vaginal culture at 39
weeks pregnancy was positive.
b. First and second caesareans were for
cephalopelvic disproportion.
c. First caesarean through a classic incision as a
result of severe fetal distress.
d. First low transverse caesarean was for breech
position. Fetus in this pregnancy is in a vertex
presentation.
11. Nurse Ryan is aware that the best initial
approach when trying to take a crying
toddlers temperature is:
a. Talk to the mother first and then to the toddler.
b. Bring extra help so it can be done quickly.
c. Encourage the mother to hold the child.
d. Ignore the crying and screaming.

12. Baby Tina a 3 month old infant just had a

cleft lip and palate repair. What should the
nurse do to prevent trauma to operative site?
a. Avoid touching the suture line, even when
cleaning.
b. Place the baby in prone position.
c. Give the baby a pacifier.
d. Place the infants arms in soft elbow restraints.
13. Which action should nurse Marian include
in the care plan for a 2 month old with heart
failure?
a. Feed the infant when he cries.
b. Allow the infant to rest before feeding.
c. Bathe the infant and administer medications
before feeding.
d. Weigh and bathe the infant before feeding.
14. Nurse Hazel is teaching a mother who
plans to discontinue breast feeding after 5
months. The nurse should advise her to
include which foods in her infants diet?
a. Skim milk and baby food.
b. Whole milk and baby food.
c. Iron-rich formula only.
d. Iron-rich formula and baby food.
15. Mommy Linda is playing with her infant,
who is sitting securely alone on the floor of
the clinic. The mother hides a toy behind her
back and the infant looks for it. The nurse is
aware that estimated age of the infant would
be:
a. 6 months
b. 4 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months
16. Which of the following is the most
prominent feature of public health nursing?
a. It involves providing home care to sick people
who are not confined in the hospital.
b. Services are provided free of charge to people
within the catchments area.
c. The public health nurse functions as part of a
team providing a public health nursing services.
d. Public health nursing focuses on preventive,
and not curative, services.
17. When the nurse determines whether
resources were maximized in implementing
Ligtas Tigdas (Measles Prevention), she is
evaluating:
a. Effectiveness
b. Efficiency

c. Adequacy
d. Appropriateness
18. Vangie is a new B.S.N. graduate. She
wants to become a Public Health Nurse.
Where should she apply?
a. Department of Health
b. Provincial Health Office
c. Regional Health Office
d. Rural Health Unit
19. Tony is aware the Chairman of the
Municipal Health Board is:
a. Mayor
b. Municipal Health Officer
c. Public Health Nurse
d. Any qualified physician
20. Myra is the public health nurse in a
municipality with a total population of about
20,000. There are 3 rural health midwives
among the RHU personnel. How many more
midwife items will the RHU need?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. The RHU does not need any more midwife
item.
21. According to Freeman and Heinrich,
community health nursing is a developmental
service. Which of the following best
illustrates this statement?
a. The community health nurse continuously
develops himself personally and professionally.
b. Health education and community organizing
are necessary in providing community health
services.
c. Community health nursing is intended
primarily for health promotion and prevention
and treatment of disease.
d. The goal of community health nursing is to
provide nursing services to people in their own
places of residence.
22. Nurse Tina is aware that the disease
declared through Presidential Proclamation
No. 4 as a target for eradication in the
Philippines is?
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Measles
c. Rabies
d. Neonatal tetanus
23. May knows that the step in community
organizing that involves training of potential
leaders in the community is:

a. Integration
b. Community organization
c. Community study
d. Core group formation
24. Beth a public health nurse takes an active
role in community participation. What is the
primary goal of community organizing?
a. To educate the people regarding community
health problems
b. To mobilize the people to resolve community
health problems
c. To maximize the communitys resources in
dealing with health problems.
d. To maximize the communitys resources in
dealing with health problems.
25. Tertiary prevention is needed in which
stage of the natural history of disease?
a. Pre-pathogenesis
b. Pathogenesis
c. Prodromal
d. Terminal
26. The nurse is caring for a primigravid
client in the labor and delivery area. Which
condition would place the client at risk for
disseminated intravascular coagulation
(DIC)?
a. Intrauterine fetal death.
b. Placenta accreta.
c. Dysfunctional labor.
d. Premature rupture of the membranes.
27. A full term client is in labor. Nurse Betty is
aware that the fetal heart rate would be:
a. 80 to 100 beats/minute
b. 100 to 120 beats/minute
c. 120 to 160 beats/minute
d. 160 to 180 beats/minute
28. The skin in the diaper area of a 7 month
old infant is excoriated and red. Nurse Hazel
should instruct the mother to:
a. Change the diaper more often.
b. Apply talc powder with diaper changes.
c. Wash the area vigorously with each diaper
change.
d. Decrease the infants fluid intake to decrease
saturating diapers.
29. Nurse Carla knows that the common
cardiac anomalies in children with Down
Syndrome (trisomy 21) is:
a. Atrial septal defect
b. Pulmonic stenosis

c. Ventricular septal defect

d. Endocardial cushion defect
30. Malou was diagnosed with severe
preeclampsia is now receiving I.V.
magnesium sulfate. The adverse effects
associated with magnesium sulfate is:
a. Anemia
b. Decreased urine output
c. Hyperreflexia
d. Increased respiratory rate
31. A 23 year old client is having her
menstrual period every 2 weeks that last for 1
week. This type of menstrual pattern is bets
defined by:
a. Menorrhagia
b. Metrorrhagia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Amenorrhea
32. Jannah is admitted to the labor and
delivery unit. The critical laboratory result for
this client would be:
a. Oxygen saturation
b. Iron binding capacity
c. Blood typing
d. Serum Calcium
33. Nurse Gina is aware that the most
common condition found during the secondtrimester of pregnancy is:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Respiratory acidosis
c. Mastitis
d. Physiologic anemia
34. Nurse Lynette is working in the triage
area of an emergency department. She sees
that several pediatric clients arrive
simultaneously. The client who needs to be
treated first is:
a. A crying 5 year old child with a laceration on
his scalp.
b. A 4 year old child with a barking coughs and
flushed appearance.
c. A 3 year old child with Down syndrome who is
pale and asleep in his mothers arms.
d. A 2 year old infant with stridorous breath
sounds, sitting up in his mothers arms and
drooling.
35. Maureen in her third trimester arrives at
the emergency room with painless vaginal
bleeding. Which of the following conditions
is suspected?

a. Placenta previa
b. Abruptio placentae
c. Premature labor
d. Sexually transmitted disease
36. A young child named Richard is
suspected of having pinworms. The
community nurse collects a stool specimen
to confirm the diagnosis. The nurse should
schedule the collection of this specimen for:
a. Just before bedtime
b. After the child has been bathe
c. Any time during the day
d. Early in the morning
37. In doing a childs admission assessment,
Nurse Betty should be alert to note which
signs or symptoms of chronic lead
poisoning?
a. Irritability and seizures
b. Dehydration and diarrhea
c. Bradycardia and hypotension
d. Petechiae and hematuria
38. To evaluate a womans understanding
about the use of diaphragm for family
planning, Nurse Trish asks her to explain
how she will use the appliance. Which
response indicates a need for further health
teaching?
a. I should check the diaphragm carefully for
holes every time I use it
b. I may need a different size of diaphragm if I
gain or lose weight more than 20 pounds
c. The diaphragm must be left in place for at
least 6 hours after intercourse
d. I really need to use the diaphragm and jelly
most during the middle of my menstrual cycle.
39. Hypoxia is a common complication of
laryngotracheobronchitis. Nurse Oliver
should frequently assess a child with
laryngotracheobronchitis for:
a. Drooling
b. Muffled voice
c. Restlessness
d. Low-grade fever
40. How should Nurse Michelle guide a child
who is blind to walk to the playroom?
a. Without touching the child, talk continuously
as the child walks down the hall.
b. Walk one step ahead, with the childs hand on
the nurses elbow.
c. Walk slightly behind, gently guiding the child
forward.

d. Walk next to the child, holding the childs

hand.
41. When assessing a newborn diagnosed
with ductus arteriosus, Nurse Olivia should
expect that the child most likely would have
an:
a. Loud, machinery-like murmur.
b. Bluish color to the lips.
c. Decreased BP reading in the upper
extremities
d. Increased BP reading in the upper extremities.
42. The reason nurse May keeps the neonate
in a neutral thermal environment is that when
a newborn becomes too cool, the neonate
requires:
a. Less oxygen, and the newborns metabolic
rate increases.
b. More oxygen, and the newborns metabolic
rate decreases.
c. More oxygen, and the newborns metabolic
rate increases.
d. Less oxygen, and the newborns metabolic
rate decreases.
43. Before adding potassium to an infants
I.V. line, Nurse Ron must be sure to assess
whether this infant has:
a. Stable blood pressure
b. Patent fontanelles
c. Moros reflex
d. Voided
44. Nurse Carla should know that the most
common causative factor of dermatitis in
infants and younger children is:
a. Baby oil
b. Baby lotion
c. Laundry detergent
d. Powder with cornstarch
45. During tube feeding, how far above an
infants stomach should the nurse hold the
syringe with formula?
a. 6 inches
b. 12 inches
c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
46. In a mothers class, Nurse Lynnette
discussed childhood diseases such as
chicken pox. Which of the following
statements about chicken pox is correct?
a. The older one gets, the more susceptible he
becomes to the complications of chickenpox.
b. A single attack of chickenpox will prevent

future episodes, including conditions such as

shingles.
c. To prevent an outbreak in the community,
quarantine may be imposed by health
authorities.
d. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there
is an impending outbreak in the community.
47. Barangay Pinoy had an outbreak of
German measles. To prevent congenital
rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can
give to women in the first trimester of
pregnancy in the Barangay Pinoy?
a. Advise them on the signs of German measles.
b. Avoid crowded places, such as markets and
movie houses.
c. Consult at the health center where rubella
vaccine may be given.
d. Consult a physician who may give them
rubella immunoglobulin.
48. Myrna a public health nurse knows that to
determine possible sources of sexually
transmitted infections, the BEST method that
may be undertaken is:
a. Contact tracing
b. Community survey
c. Mass screening tests
d. Interview of suspects
49. A 33-year old female client came for
consultation at the health center with the
chief complaint of fever for a week.
Accompanying symptoms were muscle pains
and body malaise. A week after the start of
fever, the client noted yellowish discoloration
of his sclera. History showed that he waded
in flood waters about 2 weeks before the
onset of symptoms. Based on her history,
which disease condition will you suspect?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Tetanus
d. Leptospirosis
50. Mickey a 3-year old client was brought to
the health center with the chief complaint of
severe diarrhea and the passage of ricewatery stools. The client is most probably
suffering from which condition?
a. Giardiasis
b. Cholera
c. Amebiasis
d. Dysentery

51. The most prevalent form of meningitis

among children aged 2 months to 3 years is
caused by which microorganism?
a. Hemophilus influenzae
b. Morbillivirus
c. Streptococcus pneumoniae
d. Neisseria meningitidis
52. The student nurse is aware that the
pathognomonic sign of measles is Kopliks
spot and you may see Kopliks spot by
inspecting the:
a. Nasal mucosa
b. Buccal mucosa
c. Skin on the abdomen
d. Skin on neck
53. Angel was diagnosed as having Dengue
fever. You will say that there is slow capillary
refill when the color of the nail bed that you
pressed does not return within how many
seconds?
a. 3 seconds
b. 6 seconds
c. 9 seconds
d. 10 seconds
54. In Integrated Management of Childhood
Illness, the nurse is aware that the severe
conditions generally require urgent referral to
a hospital. Which of the following severe
conditions DOES NOT always require urgent
referral to a hospital?
a. Mastoiditis
b. Severe dehydration
c. Severe pneumonia
d. Severe febrile disease
55. Myrna a public health nurse will conduct
outreach immunization in a barangay Masay
with a population of about 1500. The
estimated number of infants in the barangay
would be:
a. 45 infants
b. 50 infants
c. 55 infants
d. 65 infants
56. The community nurse is aware that the
biological used in Expanded Program on
Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in
the freezer?
a. DPT
b. Oral polio vaccine
c. Measles vaccine
d. MMR

57. It is the most effective way of controlling

schistosomiasis in an endemic area?
a. Use of molluscicides
b. Building of foot bridges
c. Proper use of sanitary toilets
d. Use of protective footwear, such as rubber
boots
58. Several clients is newly admitted and
diagnosed with leprosy. Which of the
following clients should be classified as a
case of multibacillary leprosy?
a. 3 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
b. 3 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
c. 5 skin lesions, negative slit skin smear
d. 5 skin lesions, positive slit skin smear
59. Nurses are aware that diagnosis of
leprosy is highly dependent on recognition of
symptoms. Which of the following is an early
sign of leprosy?
a. Macular lesions
b. Inability to close eyelids
c. Thickened painful nerves
d. Sinking of the nosebridge
60. Marie brought her 10 month old infant for
consultation because of fever, started 4 days
prior to consultation. In determining malaria
risk, what will you do?
a. Perform a tourniquet test.
b. Ask where the family resides.
c. Get a specimen for blood smear.
d. Ask if the fever is present everyday.
61. Susie brought her 4 years old daughter to
the RHU because of cough and colds.
Following the IMCI assessment guide, which
of the following is a danger sign that
indicates the need for urgent referral to a
hospital?
a. Inability to drink
b. High grade fever
c. Signs of severe dehydration
d. Cough for more than 30 days
62. Jimmy a 2-year old child revealed baggy
pants. As a nurse, using the IMCI guidelines,
how will you manage Jimmy?
a. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for
confinement.
b. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the
child in a feeding program.
c. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing
on menu planning for her child.

d. Assess and treat the child for health problems

like infections and intestinal parasitism.
63. Gina is using Oresol in the management
of diarrhea of her 3-year old child. She asked
you what to do if her child vomits. As a nurse
you will tell her to:
a. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for
further assessment.
b. Bring the child to the health center for
intravenous fluid therapy.
c. Bring the child to the health center for
assessment by the physician.
d. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue
giving Oresol more slowly.
64. Nikki a 5-month old infant was brought by
his mother to the health center because of
diarrhea for 4 to 5 times a day. Her skin goes
back slowly after a skin pinch and her eyes
are sunken. Using the IMCI guidelines, you
will classify this infant in which category?
a. No signs of dehydration
b. Some dehydration
c. Severe dehydration
d. The data is insufficient.
65. Chris a 4-month old infant was brought by
her mother to the health center because of
cough. His respiratory rate is 42/minute.
Using the Integrated Management of Child
Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, his
breathing is considered as:
a. Fast
b. Slow
c. Normal
d. Insignificant
66. Maylene had just received her 4th dose of
tetanus toxoid. She is aware that her baby
will have protection against tetanus for
a. 10 year
b. 5 years
c. 3 years
d. Lifetime
67. Nurse Ron is aware that unused BCG
should be discarded after how many hours of
reconstitution?
a. 2 hours
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. At the end of the day
68. The nurse explains to a breastfeeding
mother that breast milk is sufficient for all of
the babys nutrient needs only up to:

a. 5 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
d. 2 years
69. Nurse Ron is aware that the gestational
age of a conceptus that is considered viable
(able to live outside the womb) is:
a. 8 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. 32 weeks
70. When teaching parents of a neonate the
proper position for the neonates sleep, the
nurse Patricia stresses the importance of
placing the neonate on his back to reduce the
risk of which of the following?
a. Aspiration
b. Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)
c. Suffocation
d. Gastroesophageal reflux (GER)
71. Which finding might be seen in baby
James a neonate suspected of having an
infection?
a. Flushed cheeks
b. Increased temperature
c. Decreased temperature
d. Increased activity level
72. Baby Jenny who is small-for-gestation is
at increased risk during the transitional
period for which complication?
a. Anemia probably due to chronic fetal hypoxia
b. Hyperthermia due to decreased glycogen
stores
c. Hyperglycemia due to decreased glycogen
stores
d. Polycythemia probably due to chronic fetal
hypoxia
73. Marjorie has just given birth at 42 weeks
gestation. When the nurse assessing the
neonate, which physical finding is expected?
a. A sleepy, lethargic baby
b. Lanugo covering the body
c. Desquamation of the epidermis
d. Vernix caseosa covering the body
74. After reviewing the Myrnas maternal
history of magnesium sulfate during labor,
which condition would nurse Richard
anticipate as a potential problem in the
neonate?
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Jitteriness

c. Respiratory depression
d. Tachycardia
75. Which symptom would indicate the Baby
Alexandra was adapting appropriately to
extra-uterine life without difficulty?
a. Nasal flaring
b. Light audible grunting
c. Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute
d. Respiratory rate 60 to 80 breaths/minute
76. When teaching umbilical cord care for
Jennifer a new mother, the nurse Jenny
would include which information?
a. Apply peroxide to the cord with each diaper
change
b. Cover the cord with petroleum jelly after
bathing
c. Keep the cord dry and open to air
d. Wash the cord with soap and water each day
during a tub bath.
77. Nurse John is performing an assessment
on a neonate. Which of the following findings
is considered common in the healthy
neonate?
a. Simian crease
b. Conjunctival hemorrhage
c. Cystic hygroma
d. Bulging fontanelle
78. Dr. Esteves decides to artificially rupture
the membranes of a mother who is on labor.
Following this procedure, the nurse Hazel
checks the fetal heart tones for which the
following reasons?
a. To determine fetal well-being.
b. To assess for prolapsed cord
c. To assess fetal position
d. To prepare for an imminent delivery.
79. Which of the following would be least
likely to indicate anticipated bonding
behaviors by new parents?
a. The parents willingness to touch and hold the
newborn.
b. The parents expression of interest about the
size of the newborn.
c. The parents indication that they want to see
the newborn.
d. The parents interactions with each other.
80. Following a precipitous delivery,
examination of the clients vagina reveals a
fourth-degree laceration. Which of the
following would be contraindicated when
caring for this client?

a. Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12

to 24 hours.
b. Instructing the client to use two or more peri
pads to cushion the area.
c. Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if
ordered.
d. Instructing the client about the importance of
perineal (kegel) exercises.
81. A pregnant woman accompanied by her
husband, seeks admission to the labor and
delivery area. She states that shes in labor
and says she attended the facility clinic for
prenatal care. Which question should the
nurse Oliver ask her first?
a. Do you have any chronic illnesses?
b. Do you have any allergies?
c. What is your expected due date?
d. Who will be with you during labor?
82. A neonate begins to gag and turns a
dusky color. What should the nurse do first?
a. Calm the neonate.
b. Notify the physician.
c. Provide oxygen via face mask as ordered
d. Aspirate the neonates nose and mouth with a
bulb syringe.
83. When a client states that her water
broke, which of the following actions would
be inappropriate for the nurse to do?
a. Observing the pooling of straw-colored fluid.
b. Checking vaginal discharge with nitrazine
paper.
c. Conducting a bedside ultrasound for an
amniotic fluid index.
d. Observing for flakes of vernix in the vaginal
discharge.
84. A baby girl is born 8 weeks premature. At
birth, she has no spontaneous respirations
but is successfully resuscitated. Within
several hours she develops respiratory
grunting, cyanosis, tachypnea, nasal flaring,
and retractions. Shes diagnosed with
respiratory distress syndrome, intubated,
and placed on a ventilator. Which nursing
action should be included in the babys plan
of care to prevent retinopathy of prematurity?
a. Cover his eyes while receiving oxygen.
b. Keep her body temperature low.
c. Monitor partial pressure of oxygen (Pao2)
levels.
d. Humidify the oxygen.

85. Which of the following is normal newborn

calorie intake?
a. 110 to 130 calories per kg.
b. 30 to 40 calories per lb of body weight.
c. At least 2 ml per feeding
d. 90 to 100 calories per kg
86. Nurse John is knowledgeable that usually
individual twins will grow appropriately and
at the same rate as singletons until how
many weeks?
a. 16 to 18 weeks
b. 18 to 22 weeks
c. 30 to 32 weeks
d. 38 to 40 weeks
87. Which of the following classifications
applies to monozygotic twins for whom the
cleavage of the fertilized ovum occurs more
than 13 days after fertilization?
a. conjoined twins
b. diamniotic dichorionic twins
c. diamniotic monochorionic twin
d. monoamniotic monochorionic twins
88. Tyra experienced painless vaginal
bleeding has just been diagnosed as having
a placenta previa. Which of the following
procedures is usually performed to diagnose
placenta previa?
a. Amniocentesis
b. Digital or speculum examination
c. External fetal monitoring
d. Ultrasound
89. Nurse Arnold knows that the following
changes in respiratory functioning during
pregnancy is considered normal:
a. Increased tidal volume
b. Increased expiratory volume
c. Decreased inspiratory capacity
d. Decreased oxygen consumption
90. Emily has gestational diabetes and it is
usually managed by which of the following
therapy?
a. Diet
b. Long-acting insulin
c. Oral hypoglycemic
d. Oral hypoglycemic drug and insulin
91. Magnesium sulfate is given to Jemma
with preeclampsia to prevent which of the
following condition?
a. Hemorrhage
b. Hypertension

c. Hypomagnesemia
d. Seizure
92. Cammile with sickle cell anemia has an
increased risk for having a sickle cell crisis
during pregnancy. Aggressive management
of a sickle cell crisis includes which of the
following measures?
a. Antihypertensive agents
b. Diuretic agents
c. I.V. fluids
d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain
93. Which of the following drugs is the
antidote for magnesium toxicity?
a. Calcium gluconate (Kalcinate)
b. Hydralazine (Apresoline)
c. Naloxone (Narcan)
d. Rho (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
94. Marlyn is screened for tuberculosis
during her first prenatal visit. An intradermal
injection of purified protein derivative (PPD)
of the tuberculin bacilli is given. She is
considered to have a positive test for which
of the following results?
a. An indurated wheal under 10 mm in diameter
appears in 6 to 12 hours.
b. An indurated wheal over 10 mm in diameter
appears in 48 to 72 hours.
c. A flat circumcised area under 10 mm in
diameter appears in 6 to 12 hours.
d. A flat circumcised area over 10 mm in
diameter appears in 48 to 72 hours.
95. Dianne, 24 year-old is 27 weeks pregnant
arrives at her physicians office with
complaints of fever, nausea, vomiting,
malaise, unilateral flank pain, and
costovertebral angle tenderness. Which of
the following diagnoses is most likely?
a. Asymptomatic bacteriuria
b. Bacterial vaginosis
c. Pyelonephritis
d. Urinary tract infection (UTI)
96. Rh isoimmunization in a pregnant client
develops during which of the following
conditions?
a. Rh-positive maternal blood crosses into fetal
blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.
b. Rh-positive fetal blood crosses into maternal
blood, stimulating maternal antibodies.
c. Rh-negative fetal blood crosses into maternal
blood, stimulating maternal antibodies.

d. Rh-negative maternal blood crosses into fetal

blood, stimulating fetal antibodies.
97. To promote comfort during labor, the
nurse John advises a client to assume
certain positions and avoid others. Which
position may cause maternal hypotension
and fetal hypoxia?
a. Lateral position
b. Squatting position
c. Supine position
d. Standing position
98. Celeste who used heroin during her
pregnancy delivers a neonate. When
assessing the neonate, the
nurse Lynnette expects to find:
a. Lethargy 2 days after birth.
b. Irritability and poor sucking.
c. A flattened nose, small eyes, and thin lips.
d. Congenital defects such as limb anomalies.
99. The uterus returns to the pelvic cavity in
which of the following time frames?
a. 7th to 9th day postpartum.
b. 2 weeks postpartum.
c. End of 6th week postpartum.
d. When the lochia changes to alba.
100. Maureen, a primigravida client, age 20,
has just completed a difficult, forcepsassisted delivery of twins. Her labor was
unusually long and required oxytocin
(Pitocin) augmentation. The nurse whos
caring for her should stay alert for:
a. Uterine inversion
b. Uterine atony
c. Uterine involution
d. Uterine discomfort
Situation 1 Nurse Minette is an independent
nurse practitioner following-up referred clients in
their respective homes. Here she handles a case
of POSTPARTUM MOTHER AND FAMILY
focusing on HOME CARE.
1. Nurse Minette needs to schedule a first home
visit to OB client Leah. When is a first home-care
visit typically made?
a. Within 4 days after discharge
b. Within 24 hours after discharge
c. Within 1 hour after discharge
d. Within 1 week of discharge
2. Leah is developing constipation from being on
bed rest. What measures would you suggest she
take to help prevent this?

a. Eat more frequent small meals instead of

three large one daily
b. Walk for at least half an hour daily to stimulate
peristalsis
c. Drink more milk, increased calcium intake
prevents constipation
d. Drink eight full glasses of fluid such as water
daily
3. If you were Minette, which of the following
actions, would alert you that a new mother is
entering a postpartum at taking-hold phase?
a. She urges the baby to stay awake so that she
can breastfeed him in her
b. She tells you she was in a lot of pain all during
labor
c. She says that she has not selected a name for
the baby as yet
d. She sleeps as if exhausted from the effort of
labor
4. At 6-week postpartum visit what should this
postpartum mothers fundic height be?
a. Inverted and palpable at the cervix
b. Six fingerbreadths below the umbilicus
c. No longer palpable on her abdomen
d. One centimeter above the symphysis pubis
5. This postpartum mother wants to lose the
weight she gained in pregnancy, so she is
reluctant to increase her caloric intake for breastfeeding. By how much should a lactating mother
increase her caloric intake during the first 6
months after birth?
a. 350 kcal/day
b. 5CO kcal/day
c. 200 kcal/day
d. 1,000 kcal/day
Situation 2 As the CPES is applicable for all
professional nurse, the professional growth and
development of Nurses with specialties shall be
addressed by a Specialty Certification
Council. The following questions apply to these
special groups of nurses.
6. Which of the following serves as the legal
basis and statute authority for the Board of
nursing to promulgate measures to effect the
creation of a Specialty Certification Council and
promulgate professional development programs
for this group of nurse-professionals?
a. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 223
c. R.A. 9173
d. R.A. 7164

7. By force of law, therefore, the PRC-Board of

Nursing released Resolution No. 14 Series of the
entitled: Adoption of a Nursing Specialty
Certification Program and Creation of Nursing
Specialty Certification Council. This rule-making
power is called:
a. Quasi-Judicial Power
b. Regulatory Power
c. Quasi/Legislative Power
d. Executive/Promulgation Power
8. Under the PRC-Board of Nursing Resolution
promulgating the adoption of a Nursing
Specialty-Certification Program and Council,
which two (2) of the following serves as the
strongest for its enforcement?
(a) Advances made in science and technology
have provided the climate for specialization in
almost all aspects of human endeavor and
(b) As necessary consequence, there has
emerged a new concept known as globalization
which seeks to remove barriers in trade, industry
and services imposed by the national laws of
countries all over the world; and
(c) Awareness of this development should impel
the nursing sector to prepare our people in the
services sector to meet .the above challenges;
and
(d) Current trends of specialization in nursing
practice recognized by; the International Council
of Nurses (ICN) of which the Philippines is a
member for the benefit of the Filipino in terms of
deepening and refining nursing practice and
enhancing the quality of nursing care.
a. b & c are strong justification
b. a & b are strong justification
c. a & c are strong justification
d. a & d are strong justification
9. Which of the following is NOT a correct
statement as regards Specialty Certification?
a. The Board of Nursing intended to create the
Nursing Specialty Certification Program as a
means of perpetuating the creation of an elite
force of Filipino Nurse Professionals.
b. The Board of Nursing shall oversee the
administration of the NSCP through the various
Nursing Specialty Boards which will eventually,
be created.
c. The Board of Nursing at the time exercised
their powers under R.A. 7164 in order to adopt
the creation of the Nursing Specialty Certification
/council and Program.

d. The Board of Nursing consulted nursing

leaders of national nursing associations and
other concerned nursing groups which later
decided to ask a special group of nurses of the
program for nursing specialty certification
10. The NSCC was created for the purpose of
implementing the Nursing Specialty policy under
the direct supervision and stewardship of the
Board of Nursing. Who shall comprise the
NSCC?
a. A Chairperson who is the current President of
the APO a member from .the Academe, and the
last member coming from the Regulatory Board
b. The Chairperson and members of the
Regulatory Board ipso facto acts as the CPE
Council
c. A Chairperson, chosen from among the
Regulatory Board Members, a Vice Chairperson
appointed by the BON at-large; two other
members also chosen at-large; and one
representing the consumer group
d. A Chairperson who is the President of the
Association from the Academe; a member from
the Regulatory Board, and the last member
coming from the APO
Situation 3 Nurse Anna is a new BSEN
graduate and has just passed her Licensure
Examination for Nurses in the Philippines. She
has likewise been hired as a new Community
Health Nurse in one of the Rural Health Units in
their City, which of the following conditions may
be acceptable TRUTHS applied to Community
Health Nursing Practice.
11. Which of the following is the primary focus of
community health nursing practice?
a. Cure of illnesses
b. Prevention of illness
c. Rehabilitation back to health
d. Promotion of health
12. In Community Health Nursing, which of the
following is our unit of service as nurses?
a. The community.
b. The extended members of every family.
c. The individual members of the Barangay.
d. The family.
13. A very important part of the Community
Health Nursing Assessment Process includes:
a. the application of professional judgment in
estimating importance of facts to family and
community.
b. evaluation structures arid qualifications of

health center team.

c. coordination with other sectors in relation to
health concerns.
d. carrying out nursing procedures as per plan of
action.
14. In community health nursing it is important to
take into account the family health with an
equally important need to perform ocular
inspection of the areas activities which are
powerful elements of:
a. evaluation
b. assessment
c. implementation
d. planning
15. The initial step in the PLANNING process in
order to engage in any nursing project or parties
at the community level involves:
a. goal-setting
b. monitoring
c. evaluation of data
d. provision of data
Situation 4 Please continue responding as a
professional nurse in these other health
situations through the following questions.
16. Transmission of HIV from an infected
individual to another person occurs:
a. Most frequency in nurses with needlesticks.
b. Only if there is a large viral load in the blood.
c. Most commonly as a result of sexual contact.
d. In all infants born to women with HIV infection.
17. The medical record of a client reveals a
condition in which the fetus cannot pass through
the maternal pelvis. The nurse interprets this as:
a. Contracted pelvis
b. Maternal disproportion
c. Cervical insufficiency
d. Fetopelvic disproportion
18. The nurse would anticipate a cesarean birth
for a client who has which infection present at
the onset of labor?
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Human papillomavirus
c. Hepatitis
d. Toxoplasmosis
19. After a vaginal examination, the nurse
determines that the clients fetus is in an occiput
posterior position. The nurse would anticipate
that the client will have:
a. A precipitous birth
b. Intense back pain

c. Frequent leg cramps

d. Nausea and vomiting
20. The rationales for using a prostaglandin gel
for a client prior to the induction of labor is to:
a. Soften and efface the cervix
b. Numb cervical pain receptors
c. Prevent cervical lacerations
d. Stimulate uterine contractions
Situation 5 Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning
and Infertility Nurse Specialist and is currently
attending to a meeting. The following conditions
pertain to meeting the nursing of this particular
population group.
21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal
ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be the
best answer?
a. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian
tubes can kill sperm
b. Sperm cannot enter the uterus, because the
cervical entrance is blocked
c. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because
the fallopian tubes are blocked
d. The ovary no longer releases ova, as there is
no where for them to go
22. The McMichaels are a couple undergoing
testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist
when:
a. a woman has no uterus
b. a woman has no children
c. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1
year
d. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months
23. Another client names Lilia is diagnosed as
having endometriosis. This condition interferes
with the fertility because:
a. endometrial implants can block the fallopian
tubes
b. the uterine cervix becomes inflamed and
swollen
c. ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen
d. pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased
FSH levels
24. Lilia is scheduled to have a
hysterosalpingogram. Which of the following,
instructions would you give her regarding this
procedure?
a. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months
after the procedure
b. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any
tumors present
c. Many women experience mild bleeding as an

after effect
d. She may feel some cramping when the dye is
inserted
25. Lilias cousin on the other hand, knowing
nurse Lorenas specialization asks what artificial
insemination by donor entails. Which would be
your best answer if you were Nurse Lorena?
a. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the
uterus or cervix
b. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally
into each ovary
c. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test
tubal patency
d. The husbands sperm is administered
intravenously weekly
Situation 6 There are other important basic
knowledge in the performance of our task as
Community Health Nurse in relation to
IMMUNIZATION these include:
26. The correct temperature to store vaccines in
a refrigerator is:
a. between -4 deg C and +8 deg C
b. between 2 deg C and +8 deg C
c. between -8 deg C and 0 deg C
d. between -8 deg C and +8 deg C
27. Which of the following vaccines is not done
by intramuscular (IM) injection?
a. Measles vaccine
b. DPT
c. Hepa B vaccines
d. DPT
28. This vaccine content is derived from RNA
recombinants:
a. Measles
b. Tetanus toxoids
c. Hepatitis B vaccines
d. DPT
29. This is the vaccine needed before a child
reaches one (1) year in order for him/her to
qualify as a fully immunized child.
a. DPT
b. Measles
c. Hepatitis B
d. BCG
30. Which of the following dose of tetanus toxoid
is given to the mother to protect her infant from
neonatal tetanus and likewise provide 10 years
protection for the mother?
a. Tetanus toxoid 3
b. Tetanus toxoid 2

c. Tetanus toxoid 1
d. Tetanus toxoid 4
Situation 7 Records contain those,
comprehensive descriptions of patients health
conditions and needs and at the same serve as
evidences of every nurses accountability in the,
caregiving process. Nursing records normally
differ from institution to, institution nonetheless
they follow similar patterns of meeting needs for
specifics, types of information. The following
pertains to documentation/records management.
31. This special form used when the patient is
admitted to the unit. The nurse completes, the
information in this records particularly his/her
basic personal data, current illness, previous
health history, health history of the family,
emotional profile, environmental history as well
as physical assessment together with nursing
diagnosis on admission. What do you call this
record?
a. Nursing Kardex
b. Nursing Health History and Assessment
Worksheet
c. Medicine and Treatment Record
d. Discharge Summary
32. These, are sheets/forms which provide an
efficient and time saving way to record
information that must be obtained repeatedly at
regular and/or short intervals, of time. This does
not replace the progress notes; instead this
record of information on vital signs, intake and
output, treatment, postoperative care,
postpartum care, and diabetic regimen, etc., this
is used whenever specific measurements or
observations are needed to-be documented
repeatedly. What is this?
a. Nursing Kardex
b. Graphic Flowsheets
c. Discharge Summary
d. Medicine and Treatment Record
33. These records show all medications and
treatment provided on a repeated basis. What do
you call this record?
a. Nursing Health History and Assessment
Worksheet
b. Discharge Summary
c. Nursing Kardex
d. Medicine and Treatment Record
34. This flip-over card is usually kept in a
portable file at the Nurses Station. It has 2-parts:
the activity and treatment section and a nursing

care plan section. This carries information about

basic demographic data, primary medical
diagnosis, current orders of the physician to be
carried out by the nurse, written nursing care
plan, nursing orders, scheduled tests and
procedures, safety precautions in-patient care
and factors related to daily living activities/ this
record is used in the charge-of-shift reports or
during the bedside rounds or walking rounds.
What record is this?
a. Discharge Summary
b. Medicine and Treatment Record
c. Nursing Health History and Assessment
Worksheet
d. Nursing Kardex
35. Most nurses regard this as conventional
recording of the date, time and mode by which
the patient leaves a healthcare unit but this
record includes importantly, directs of planning
for discharge that starts soon after the person is
admitted to a healthcare institution, it is accepted
that collaboration or multidisciplinary involvement
(of all members of the health team) in discharge
results in comprehensive care. What do you call
this?
a. Discharge Summary
b. Nursing Kardex
c. Medicine and Treatment Record
d. Nursing Health History and Assessment
Worksheet
Situation 8 As Filipino Professional Nurses we
must be knowledgeable, about the Code of
Ethics for Filipino Nurses and practice these by
heart. The next questions pertain to this Code of
Ethics.
36. Which of the following is TRUE about the
Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses?
a. The Philippine Nurses Association for being
the accredited professional organization was
given the privilege to formulate a Code of Ethics
which the Board of Nurses promulgated
b. Code of Nurses was first formulated in 1982
published in the Proceedings of the Third Annual
Convention of the PNA House of Delegates
c. The present code utilized the Code of Good
Governance for the Professions in the
Philippines
d. Certificate of Registration of registered nurses;
may be revoked or suspended for violations of
any provisions of the Code of Ethics

37. Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino

Nurses, what is regarded as the hallmark of
nursing responsibility and accountability?
a. Human rights of clients, regardless of creed
and gender
b. The privilege of being a registered
professional nurses
c. Health, being a fundamental right of every
individual
d. Accurate documentation of actions and
outcomes
38. Which of the following nurses behavior is
regarded as a violation of the Code of Ethics of
Filipino Nurses?
a. A nurse withholding harmful information to the
family members of a patient
b. A nurse declining commission sent by a doctor
for her referral
c. A nurse endorsing a person running for
congress
d. Nurse Reviewers and/or nurse review center
managers who pays a considerable amount of
cash for reviewees who would memorize items
from the Licensure exams and submit these to
them after the examination
39. A nurse should be cognizant that
professional programs for specialty certification
by the Board of Nursing are accredited through
the
a. Professional Regulation Commission
b. Nursing Specialty Certification Council
c. Association of Deans of Philippine Colleges of
Nursing
d. Philippine Nurse Association
40. Mr. Santos, R.N. works in a nursing home,
and he knows that one of his duties is to be an
advocate for his patients. Mr. Santos knows a
primary duty of an advocate is to:
a. act as the patients legal representative
b. complete all nursing responsibilities on time
c. safeguard the wellbeing of every patient
d. maintain the patients right to privacy
Situation 9 Nurse Joanna works as an OB-Gyn
Nurse and attends to several HIGH-RISK
PREGNANCIES: Particularly women with
preexisting or newly acquired illness. The
following conditions apply.
41. Bernadette is a 22-year old woman. Which
condition would make her more prone than
others to developing a Candida infection during
pregnancy?

a. Her husband plays golf 6 days a week

b. She was over 35 when she became pregnant
c. She usually drinks tomato juice for breakfast
d. She has developed gestational diabetes
42. Bernadette develops a deep-vein thrombosis
following an auto accident and is prescribed
heparin sub-Q. What should Joanna educate her
about in regard to this?
a. Some infants will be born with allergic
symptoms to heparin
b. Her infant will be born with scattered
petechiae on his trunk
c. Heparin can cause darkened skin in newborns
d. Heparin does not cross the placenta and so
does not affect a fetus
43. The cousin of Bernadette with sickle-cell
anemia alerted Joanna that she may need
further instruction on prenatal care. Which
statement signifies this fact?
a. Ive stopped jogging so I dont risk becoming
dehydrated
b. I take an iron pull every day to help grow new
red blood cells
c. I am careful to drink at least eight glasses of
fluid everyday
d. 1 understand why folic acid is important for
red cell formation
44. Bernadette routinely takes acetylsalicylic acid
(aspirin) for arthritis. Why should she limit or
discontinue this toward the end of pregnancy?
a. Aspirin can lead to deep vein thrombosis
following birth
b. Newborns develop a red rash from salicylate
toxicity
c. Newborns develop withdrawal headaches
from salicylates
d. Salicylates can lead to increased maternal
bleeding at childbirth
45. Bernadette received a laceration on her leg
from her automotive accident. Why are
lacerations of lower extremities potentially more
serious in pregnant women than others?
a. Lacerations can provoke allergic responses
because of gonadotropic hormone
b. Increased bleeding can occur from uterine
pressure on leg veins
c. A woman is less able to keep the laceration
clean because o f her fatigue
d. Healing is limited during pregnancy, so these
will not heal until after birth

Situation 10 Still in your self-managed Child

Health Nursing Clinic, your encounter these
cases pertaining to the CARE OF CHILDREN
WITH PULMONARY AFFECTIONS.
46. Josie brought her 3-months old child to your
clinic because of cough and colds. Which of the
following is your primary action?
a. Give cotrimoxazole tablet or syrup
b. Assess the patient using the chart on
management of children with cough
c. Refer to the doctor
d. Teach the mother how to count her childs
bearing
47. In responding to the care concerns of
children with severe disease, referral to the
hospital of the essence especially if the child
manifests which of the following?
a. Wheezing
b. Stopped bleeding
c. Fast breathing
d. Difficulty to awaken
48. Which of the following is the most important
responsibility of a nurse in the prevention of
necessary deaths from pneumonia and other
severe diseases?
a. Giving of antibiotics
b. Taking of the temperature of the sick child
c. Provision of Careful Assessment
d. Weighing of the sick child
49. You were able to identify factors that lead to
respiratory problems in the community where
your health facility serves. Your primary role
therefore in order to reduce morbidity due to
pneumonia is to:
a. Teach mothers how to recognize early signs
and symptoms of pneumonia
b. Make home visits to sick children
c. Refer cases to hospitals
d. Seek assistance and mobilize the BHWs to
have a meeting with mothers
50. Which of the following is the principal focus
on the CARI program of the Department of
Health?
a. Enhancement of health team capabilities
b. Teach mothers how to detect signs and where
to refer
c. Mortality reduction through early detection
d. Teach other community health workers how to
assess patients
Situation 11 You are working as a Pediatric
Nurse in your own Child Health Nursing Clinic,

the following cases pertain to ASSESSMENT

AND CARE OF THE NEWBORN AT RISK
conditions.
51. Theresa, a mother with a 2 year old daughter
asks, At what are can I be able to take the blood
pressure of my daughter as a routine procedure
since hypertension is common in the family?
Your answer to this is:
a. At 2 years you may
b. As early as 1 year old
c. When shes 3- years old
d. When shes 6 years old
52. You typically gag children to inspect the back
of their throat. When is it important NOT to solicit
a gag reflex?
a. when a girl has a geographic tongue
b. when a boy has a possible inguinal hernia
c. when a child has symptoms of epiglottitis
d. when children are under 5 years of age
53. Baby John was given a drug at birth to
reverse the effects of a narcotic given to his
mother in labor. What drug is commonly used for
this?
a. Naloxone (Narcan)
b. Morphine Sulfate
c. Sodium Chloride
d. Penicillin G
54. Why are small-for-gestational-age newborns
at risks for difficulty maintaining body
temperature?
a. They do not have as many fat stores as other
infants
b. They are more active than usual so throw off
covers
c. Their skin is more susceptible to conduction of
cold
d. They are preterm so are born relatively small
in size
55. Baby John develops hyperbilirubinemia.
What is a method used to treat
hyperbilirubinemia in a newborn?
a. Keeping infants in a warm arid dark
environment
b. Administration of a cardiovascular stimulant
c. Gentle exercise to stop muscle breakdown
d. Early feeding to speed passage of meconium
Situation 12 You are the nurse in the OutPatient-Department and during your shift you
encountered multiple childrens condition. The
following questions apply.

56. You assessed a child with visible severe

wasting, he has:
a. edema
b. LBM
c. kwashiorkor
d. marasmus
57. Which of the following conditions is NOT true
about contraindication to immunization?
a. do not give DPT2 or DPT3 to a child who has
convulsions within 3 days of DPT1
b. do not give BOG if the child has known
hepatitis .
c. do not give OPT to a child who has recurrent
convulsion or active neurologic disease
d. do not give BCG if the child has known AIDS
58. Which of the following statements about
immunization is NOT true:
a. A child with diarrhea who is due for OPV
should receive the OPV and make extra dose on
the next visit
b. There is no contraindication to immunization if
the child is well enough to go home
c. There is no contraindication to immunization if
the child is well enough to go home and a child
should be immunized in the health center before
referrals are both correct
d. A child should be immunized in the center
before referral
59. A child with visible severe wasting or severe
palmar pallor may be classified as:
a. moderate malnutrition/anemia
b. severe malnutrition/anemia
c. not very tow weight no anemia
d. anemia/very low weight
60. A child who has some palmar pallor can be
classified as:
a. moderate anemia/normal weight
b. severe malnutrition/anemia
c. anemia/very low weight
d. not very low eight to anemia
Situation 13 Nette, a nurse palpates the
abdomen of Mrs. Medina, a primigravida. She is
unsure of the date of her last menstrual period.
Leopolds Maneuver is done. The obstetrician
told mat she appears to be 20 weeks pregnant. .
61. Nette explains this because the fundus is:
a. At the level the umbilicus, and the fetal heart
can be heard with a fetoscope
b. 18 cm, and the baby is just about to move
c. is just over the symphysis, and fetal heart
cannot be heard

d. 28 cm, and fetal heart can be heard with a

Doppler
62. In doing Leopolds maneuver palpation which
among the following is NOT considered a good
preparation?
a. The woman should lie in a supine position with
her knees flexed slightly
b. The hands of the nurse should be cold so that
abdominal muscles would contract and tighten
c. Be certain that your hands are warm (by
washing them in warm water first if necessary)
d. The woman empties her bladder before
palpation
63. In her pregnancy, she experienced fatigue
and drowsiness. This probably occurs because:
a. of high blood pressure
b. she is expressing pressure
c. the fetus utilizes her glucose stores and
leaves her with a Sow blood glucose
d. of the rapid growth of the fetus
64. The nurse assesses the woman at 20
weeks gestation and expects the woman to
report:
a. Spotting related to fetal implantation
b. Symptoms of diabetes as human placental
lactogen is released
c. Feeling fetal kicks
d. Nausea and vomiting related HCG production
65. If Mrs. Medina comes to you for check-up on
June 2, her EDO is June 11, what do you expect
during assessment?
a. Fundic ht 2 fingers below xyphoid process,
engaged
b. Cervix close, uneffaced, FH-midway between
the umbilicus and symphysis pubis
c. Cervix open, fundic ht. 2 fingers below xyphoid
process, floating .
d. Fundal height at least at the level of the
xyphoid process, engaged
Situation 14: Please continue responding as a
professional nurse in varied health situations
through the following questions.
66. Which of the following medications would the
nurse expect the physician to order for recurrent
convulsive seizures of a 10-year old child
brought to your clinic?
a. Phenobarbital
b. Nifedipine
c. Butorphanol
d. Diazepam

67. RhoGAM is given to Rh-negative women to

prevent maternal sensitization from occurring.
The nurse is aware that in addition to pregnancy,
Rh-negative women would also receive this
medication after which of the following?
a. Unsuccessful artificial insemination procedure
b. Blood transfusion after hemorrhage
c. Therapeutic or spontaneous abortion
d. Head injury from a car accident
68. Which of the following would the nurse
include when describing the pathophysiology of
gestational diabetes?
a. Glucose levels decrease to accommodate
fetal growth
b. Hypoinsulinemia develops early in the first
trimester
c. Pregnancy fosters the development of
carbohydrate cravings
d. There is progressive resistance to the effects
of insulin
69. When providing prenatal education to a
pregnant woman with asthma, which of the
following would be important for the nurse to do?
a. Demonstrate how to assess her blood glucose
b. Teach correct administration of subcutaneous
bronchodilators
c. Ensure she seeks treatment for any acute
exacerbation
d. Explain that she should avoid steroids during
her pregnancy
70. Which of the following conditions would
cause an insulin-dependent diabetic client the
most difficulty during her pregnancy?
a. Rh incompatibility
b. Placenta previa
c. Hyperemesis gravidarum
d. Abruptio placentae
Situation 15 One important toot a community
health nurse uses in the conduct of his/her
activities is the CHN Bag. Which of the following
BEST DESCRIBES the use of this vital facility for
our practice?
71. The Community/Public Health Bag is:
a. a requirement for home visits
b. an essential and indispensable equipment of
the community health nurse
c. contains basic medications and articles used
by the community health nurse
d. a tool used by the Community health nurse is
rendering effective nursing procedure during a
home visit

72. What is the rationale in the use of bag

technique during home visit?
a. It helps render effective nursing care to clients
or other members of the family
b. It saves time and effort of the nurse in the
performance of nursing procedures
c. It should minimize or prevent the spread of
infection from individuals to families
d. It should not overshadow concerns for the
patient
73. Which among the following is important in
the use of the bag technique during home visit?
a. Arrangement of the bags contents must be
convenient to the nurse
b. The bag should contain all necessary supplies
and equipment ready for use
c. Be sure to thoroughly clean your bag
especially when exposed to communicable
disease cases
d. Minimize if not totally prevent the spread of
infection
74. This is an important procedure of the nurse
during home visits?
a. protection of the CHN bag
b. arrangement of the contents of the CHM bag
c. cleaning of the CHN bag
d. proper handwashing
75. In consideration of the steps in applying the
bag technique, which side of the paper lining of
the CHN bag is considered clean to make a noncontaminated work area?
a. The lower lip
b. The outer surface
c. The upper lip
d. The inside surface
Situation 16 As a Community Health Nurse
relating with people in different communities, and
in the implementation of health programs and
projects you experience vividly as well the
varying forms of leadership and management
from the Barangay Level to the Local
Government/Municipal City Level.
76. The following statements can correctly be
made about Organization and management?
A. An organization (or company) is people.
Values make people persons: values give vitality,
meaning and direction to a company. As the
people of an organization value, so the company
becomes.
B. Management is the process by which
administration achieves its mission, goals, and

objectives
C. Management effectiveness can be measured
in terms of accomplishment of the purpose of the
organization while management efficiency is
measured in terms of the satisfaction of
individual motives
D. Management principles are universal
therefore one need not be concerned about
people, culture, values, traditions and human
relations.
a. B and C only
b. A, B and D only
c. A and D only
d. B, A, and C only
77. Management by Filipino values advocates
the consideration of the Filipino goals trilogy
according to the Filipino priority-values which
are:
a. Family goals, national goals, organizational
goals
b. Organizational goats, national goals, family
goals
c. National goals, organizational goals, family
goals
d. Family goals, organizational goals, national
goals
78. Since the advocacy for the utilization of
Filipino value-system in management has been
encouraged, the Nursing sector is no except,
management needs to examine Filipino values
and discover its positive potentials and harness
them to achieve:
a. Employee satisfaction
b. Organizational commits .ants, organizational
objectives and employee satisfaction
c. Employee objectives/satisfaction,
commitments and organizational objectives
d. Organizational objectives, commitments and
employee objective/satisfaction
79. The following statements can correctly be
made about an effective and efficient community
or even agency managerial-leader.
A. Considers the achievement and advancement
of the organization she/he represents as well as
his people
B. Considers the recognition of individual efforts
toward the realization of organizational goals as
well as the welfare of his people
C. Considers the welfare of the organization
above all other consideration by higher
administration

D. Considers its own recognition by higher

administration for purposes of promotion and
prestige
a. Only C and D are correct
b. A, C and D are correct
c. B, C, and D are correct
d. Only A and B are correct
80. Whether management at the community or
agency level, there are 3 essential types of skills
managers must have, these are:
A. Human relation skills, technical skills, and
cognitive skills
B. Conceptual skills, human relation/behavioral
skills, and technical skills
C. Technical skills, budget and accounting skills,
skills in fund-raising
D. Manipulative skills, technical skills, resource
management skills
a. A and D are correct
b. B is correct
c. A is correct
d. C and D are correct
Situation 17 You are actively practicing nurse
who just finished your Graduate Studies. You
earned the value of Research and would like to
utilize the knowledge and skills gained in the
application of research to Nursing service. The
following questions apply to research.
81. Which type of research Inquiry investigates
the issue of human complexity (e.g.
understanding the human expertise)
a. Logical position
b. Naturalistic inquiry
c. Positivism
d. Quantitative Research
82. Which of the following studies is based on
quantitative research?
a. A study examining the bereavement process
in spouses of clients with terminal cancer
b. A study exploring factors influencing weight
control behavior
c. A study measuring the effects of sleep
deprivation on wound healing
d. A study examining clients feelings before,
during and after a bone marrow aspiration
83. Which of the following studies is based on
qualitative research?
a. A study examining clients reactions to stress
after open heart surgery
b. A study measuring nutrition and weight,
loss/gain in clients with cancer

c. A study examining oxygen levels after

endotracheal suctioning
d. A study measuring differences in blood
pressure before during and after a procedure
84. An 85 year old client in a nursing home tells
a nurse, I signed the papers for that research
study because the doctor was so insistent and I
want: him to continue taking care of me. Which
client right is being violated?
a. Right of self determination
b. Right to privacy and confidentiality
c. Right to full disclosure
d. Right not to be harmed
85. A supposition or system of ideas that is
proposed to explain a given phenomenon, best
defines:
a. a paradigm
b. a concept
c. a theory
d. a conceptual framework
Situation 18 Nurse Michelle works with a
Family Nursing Team in Calbayog Province
specifically handling a UNICEF project for
children. The following conditions pertain, to
CARE OP THE FAMILIES PRESCHOOLERS.
86. Ronnie asks constant questions. How many
does a typical 3-year-old ask in a days time?
a. 1,200 or more
b. Less than 50
c. 100-200
d. 300-400
87. Ronnie will need to change to a new bed
because his baby sister will need Ronnies old
crib. What measure would you suggest that his
parents take to help decrease sibling rivalry
between Ronnie and his new sister?
a. Move him to the new bed before the baby
arrives
b. Explain that new sisters grow up to become
best friends
c. Tell him he will have to share with the new
baby
d. Ask him to get his crib ready for the new baby
88. Ronnies parents want to know how to react
to him when he begins to masturbate while
watching television. What would you suggest?
a. They refuse to allow him to watch television
b. They schedule a health check-up for sexrelated disease
c. They remind him that some activities are

private
d. They give him timeout when this begins
89. How many words does a typical 12-monthold infant use?
a. About 12 words
b. Twenty or more words
c. About 50 words
d. Two, plus mama and dada
90. As a nurse. You reviewed infant safety
procedures with Bryans mother. What are two of
the most common types of accidents among
infants?
a. Aspiration and falls
b. Falls and auto accidents
c. Poisoning and burns
d. Drowning and homicide
Situation 19 Among common conditions found
in children especially among poor communities
are ear infection/problems. The following
questions apply.
91. A child with ear problem should be assessed
for the following EXCEPT:
a is there any fever?
b. ear discharge
c. if discharge is present for how long?
d. ear pain
92. If the child does not have ear problem, using
IMCI, what should you as the nurse do?
a. Check for ear discharge
b. Check for tender swellings, behind the ear
c. Check for ear pain
d. Go to the next question, check for malnutrition
93. An ear discharge that has been present for
more than 14 days can be classified as:
a. mastoiditis
b. chronic ear infection
c. acute ear infection
d. complicated ear infection
94. An ear discharge that has been present
for less than 14 days can be classified as:
a. chronic ear infection
b. mastoiditis
c. acute ear infection
d. complicated ear infection
95. If the child has severe classification because
of ear problem, what would be the best thing that
you as the nurse can do?
a. instruct mother when to return immediately
b. refer urgently
c. give an antibiotic for 5 days
d. dry the ear by wicking

Situation 20 If a child with diarrhea registers

one sign in the pink row and one in the yellow;
row in the IMCI Chart.
96. We can classify the patient as:
a. moderate dehydration
b. some dehydration
c. no dehydration
d. severe dehydration
97. The child with no dehydration needs home
treatment Which of the following is not included
the rules for home treatment in this case:
a. continue feeding the child
b. give oresol every 4 hours
c. know when to return to the health center
d. give the child extra fluids
98. A child who has had diarrhea for 14 days but
has no sign of dehydration is classified as:
a. severe persistent diarrhea
b. dysentery
c. severe dysentery b. dysentery
d. persistent diarrhea
99. If the child has sunken eyes, drinking
eagerly, thirsty and skin pinch goes back slowly,
the classification would be:
a. no dehydration
b. moderate dehydration
c. some dehydration
d. severe dehydration
100. Carlo has had diarrhea for 5 days. There is
no blood in the stool, he is irritable. His eyes are
sunken the nurse offers fluid to Carlo and he
drinks eagerly. When the nurse pinched the
abdomen, it goes back slowly. How will you
classify Carlos illness?
a. severe dehydration
b. no dehydration
c. some dehydration
d. moderate dehydration
1.Accompanied by her husband, a patient seeks
admission to the labor and delivery area. The
client states that she is in labor, and says she
attended the hospital clinic for prenatal care.
Which question should the nurse ask her first?
a.Do you have any chronic illness?
b.Do you have any allergies?
c.What is your expected due date?
d.Who will be with you during labor?
2.A patient is in the second stage of labor. During
this stage, how frequently should the nurse in
charge assess her uterine contractions?
a.Every 5 minutes

b.Every 15 minutes
c.Every 30 minutes
d.Every 60 minutes
3.A patient is in last trimester of pregnancy.
Nurse Jane should instruct her to notify her
primary health care provider immediately if she
notices:
a.Blurred vision
b.Hemorrhoids
c.Increased vaginal mucus
d.Shortness of breath on exertion
4.The nurse in charge is reviewing a patients
prenatal history. Which finding indicates a
genetic risk factor?
a.The patient is 25 years old
b.The patient has a child with cystic fibrosis
c.The patient was exposed to rubella at 36
weeks gestation
d.The patient has a history of preterm labor at 32
weeks gestation
5.A adult female patient is using the rhythm
(calendar-basal body temperature) method of
family planning. In this method, the unsafe
period for sexual intercourse is indicated by;
a.Return preovulatory basal body temperature
b.Basal body temperature increase of 0.1
degrees to 0.2 degrees on the 2nd or 3rdday of
cycle
c.3 full days of elevated basal body temperature
and clear, thin cervical mucus
d.Breast tenderness and mittelschmerz
6.During a nonstress test (NST), the electronic
tracing displays a relatively flat line for fetal
movement, making it difficult to evaluate the fetal
heart rate (FHR). To mark the strip, the nurse in
charge should instruct the client to push the
control button at which time?
a.At the beginning of each fetal movement
b.At the beginning of each contraction
c.After every three fetal movements
d.At the end of fetal movement
7.When evaluating a clients knowledge of
symptoms to report during her pregnancy, which
statement would indicate to the nurse in charge
that the client understands the information given
to her?
a.Ill report increased frequency of urination.
b.If I have blurred or double vision, I should call
the clinic immediately.
c.If I feel tired after resting, I should report it
immediately.

d.Nausea should be reported immediately.

8.When assessing a client during her first
prenatal visit, the nurse discovers that the client
had a reduction mammoplasty. The mother
indicates she wants to breast-feed. What
information should the nurse give to this mother
regarding breast-feeding success?
a.Its contraindicated for you to breast-feed
following this type of surgery.
b.I support your commitment; however, you may
have to supplement each feeding with formula.
c.You should check with your surgeon to
determine whether breast-feeding would be
possible.
d.You should be able to breast-feed without
difficulty.
9.Following a precipitous delivery, examination of
the clients vagina reveals a fourth-degree
laceration. Which of the following would be
contraindicated when caring for this client?
a.Applying cold to limit edema during the first 12
to 24 hours
b.Instructing the client to use two or more
peripads to cushion the area
c.Instructing the client on the use of sitz baths if
ordered
d.Instructing the client about the importance of
perineal (Kegel) exercises
10.A client makes a routine visit to the prenatal
clinic. Although shes 14 weeks pregnant, the
size of her uterus approximates that in an 18- to
20-week pregnancy. Dr. Diaz diagnoses
gestational trophoblastic disease and orders
ultrasonography. The nurse expects
ultrasonography to reveal:
a.an empty gestational sac.
b.grapelike clusters.
c.a severely malformed fetus.
d.an extrauterine pregnancy.
11.After completing a second vaginal
examination of a client in labor, the nursemidwife determines that the fetus is in the right
occiput anterior position and at 1 station. Based
on these findings, the nurse-midwife knows that
the fetal presenting part is:
a.1 cm below the ischial spines.
b.directly in line with the ischial spines.
c.1 cm above the ischial spines.
d.in no relationship to the ischial spines.
12.Which of the following would be inappropriate
to assess in a mother whos breast-feeding?

a.The attachment of the baby to the breast.

b.The mothers comfort level with positioning the
baby.
c.Audible swallowing.
d.The babys lips smacking
13.During a prenatal visit at 4 months gestation,
a pregnant client asks whether tests can be done
to identify fetal abnormalities. Between 18 and
40 weeks gestation, which procedure is used to
detect fetal anomalies?
a.Amniocentesis.
b.Chorionic villi sampling.
c.Fetoscopy.
d.Ultrasound
14.A client, 30 weeks pregnant, is scheduled for
a biophysical profile (BPP) to evaluate the health
of her fetus. Her BPP score is 8. What does this
score indicate?
a.The fetus should be delivered within 24 hours.
b.The client should repeat the test in 24 hours.
c.The fetus isnt in distress at this time.
d.The client should repeat the test in 1 week.
15.A client whos 36 weeks pregnant comes to
the clinic for a prenatal checkup. To assess the
clients preparation for parenting, the nurse might
ask which question?
a.Are you planning to have epidural
anesthesia?
b.Have you begun prenatal classes?
c.What changes have you made at home to get
ready for the baby?
d.Can you tell me about the meals you typically
eat each day?
16.A client whos admitted to labor and delivery
has the following assessment findings: gravida 2
para 1, estimated 40 weeks gestation,
contractions 2 minutes apart, lasting 45 seconds,
vertex +4 station. Which of the following would
be the priority at this time?
a.Placing the client in bed to begin fetal
monitoring.
b.Preparing for immediate delivery.
c.Checking for ruptured membranes.
d.Providing comfort measures.
17.Nurse Roy is caring for a client in labor. The
external fetal monitor shows a pattern of variable
decelerations in fetal heart rate. What should the
nurse do first?
a.Change the clients position.
b.Prepare for emergency cesarean section.
c.Check for placenta previa.

d.Administer oxygen.
18.The nurse in charge is caring for a
postpartum client who had a vaginal delivery with
a midline episiotomy. Which nursing diagnosis
takes priority for this client?
a.Risk for deficient fluid volume related to
hemorrhage
b.Risk for infection related to the type of delivery
c.Pain related to the type of incision
d.Urinary retention related to periurethral edema
19.Which change would the nurse identify as a
progressive physiological change in postpartum
period?
a.Lactation
b.Lochia
c.Uterine involution
d.Diuresis
20.A 39-year-old at 37 weeks gestation is
admitted to the hospital with complaints of
vaginal bleeding following the use of cocaine 1
hour earlier. Which complication is most likely
causing the clients complaint of vaginal
bleeding?
a.Placenta previa
b.Abruptio placentae
c.Ectopic pregnancy
d.Spontaneous abortion
21.A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus whos a
multigravida visits the clinic at 27 weeks
gestation. The nurse should instruct the client
that for most pregnant women with type 1
diabetes mellitus:
a.Weekly fetal movement counts are made by
the mother.
b.Contraction stress testing is performed weekly.
c.Induction of labor is begun at 34 weeks
gestation.
d.Nonstress testing is performed weekly until 32
weeks gestation
22.When administering magnesium sulfate to a
client with preeclampsia, the nurse understands
that this drug is given to:
a.Prevent seizures
b.Reduce blood pressure
c.Slow the process of labor
d.Increase dieresis
23.Whats the approximate time that the
blastocyst spends traveling to the uterus for
implantation?
a.2 days
b.7 days

c.10 days
d.14 weeks
24.After teaching a pregnant woman who is in
labor about the purpose of the episiotomy, which
of the following purposes stated by the client
would indicate to the nurse that the teaching was
effective?
a.Shortens the second stage of labor
b.Enlarges the pelvic inlet
c.Prevents perineal edema
d.Ensures quick placenta delivery
25.A primigravida client at about 35 weeks
gestation in active labor has had no prenatal
care and admits to cocaine use during the
pregnancy. Which of the following persons must
the nurse notify?
a.Nursing unit manager so appropriate agencies
can be notified
b.Head of the hospitals security department
c.Chaplain in case the fetus dies in utero
d.Physician who will attend the delivery of the
infant
26.When preparing a teaching plan for a client
who is to receive a rubella vaccine during the
postpartum period, the nurse in charge should
include which of the following?
a.The vaccine prevents a future fetus from
developing congenital anomalies
b.Pregnancy should be avoided for 3 months
after the immunization
c.The client should avoid contact with children
diagnosed with rubella
d.The injection will provide immunity against the
7-day measles.
27.A client with eclampsia begins to experience
a seizure. Which of the following would the nurse
in charge do first?
a.Pad the side rails
b.Place a pillow under the left buttock
c.Insert a padded tongue blade into the mouth
d.Maintain a patent airway
28.While caring for a multigravida client in early
labor in a birthing center, which of the following
foods would be best if the client requests a
snack?
a.Yogurt
b.Cereal with milk
c.Vegetable soup
d.Peanut butter cookies
29.The multigravida mother with a history of
rapid labor who us in active labor calls out to the

nurse, The baby is coming! which of the

following would be the nurses first action?
a.Inspect the perineum
b.Time the contractions
c.Auscultate the fetal heart rate
d.Contact the birth attendant
30.While assessing a primipara during the
immediate postpartum period, the nurse in
charge plans to use both hands to assess the
clients fundus to:
a.Prevent uterine inversion
b.Promote uterine involution
c.Hasten the puerperium period
d.Determine the size of the fundus
1. Which of the following conditions will lead
to a small-for-gestational age fetus due to
less blood supply to the fetus?
A. Diabetes in the mother
B. Maternal cardiac condition
C. Premature labor
D. Abruptio placenta
2. The lower limit of viability for infants in
terms of age of gestation is:
A. 21-24 weeks
B. 25-27 weeks
C. 28-30 weeks
D. 38-40 weeks
3. Which provision of our 1987 constitution
guarantees the right of the unborn child to
life from conception is
A. Article II section 12
B. Article II section 15
C. Article XIII section 11
D. Article XIII section 15
4. In the Philippines, if a nurse performs
abortion on the mother who wants it done
and she gets paid for doing it, she will be
held liable because
A. Abortion is immoral and is prohibited by the
church
B. Abortion is both immoral and illegal in our
country
C. Abortion is considered illegal because you got
paid for doing it
D. Abortion is illegal because majority in our
country are catholics and it is prohibited by the
church
5. The preferred manner of delivering the
baby in a gravido-cardiac is vaginal delivery
assisted by forceps under epidural
anesthesiA. The main rationale for this is:

A. To allow atraumatic delivery of the baby

B. To allow a gradual shifting of the blood into
the maternal circulation
C. To make the delivery effort free and the
mother does not need to push with contractions
D. To prevent perineal laceration with the
expulsion of the fetal head
6. When giving narcotic analgesics to mother
in labor, the special consideration to follow
is:
A. The progress of labor is well established
reaching the transitional stage
B. Uterine contraction is progressing well and
delivery of the baby is imminent
C. Cervical dilatation has already reached at
least 8 cm. and the station is at least (+)2
D. Uterine contractions are strong and the baby
will not be delivered yet within the next 3 hours.
7. The cervical dilatation taken at 8:00 AM in
a G1P0 patient was 6 centimeters. A repeat
I.E. done at 10 A. M. showed that cervical
dilation was 7 cm. The correct interpretation
of this result is:
A. Labor is progressing as expected
B. The latent phase of Stage 1 is prolonged
C. The active phase of Stage 1 is protracted
D. The duration of labor is normal
8. Which of the following techniques during
labor and delivery can lead to uterine
inversion?
A. Fundal pressure applied to assist the mother
in bearing down during delivery of the fetal head
B. Strongly tugging on the umbilical cord to
deliver the placenta and hasten placental
separation
C. Massaging the fundus to encourage the
uterus to contract
D. Applying light traction when delivering the
placenta that has already detached from the
uterine wall
9. The fetal heart rate is checked following
rupture of the bag of waters in order to:
A. Check if the fetus is suffering from head
compression
B. Determine if cord compression followed the
rupture
C. Determine if there is utero-placental
insufficiency
D. Check if fetal presenting part has adequately
descended following the rupture

10. Upon assessment, the nurse got the

following findings: 2 perineal pads highly
saturated with blood within 2 hours post
partum, PR= 80 bpm, fundus soft and
boundaries not well defineD. The appropriate
nursing diagnosis is:
A. Normal blood loss
B. Blood volume deficiency
C. Inadequate tissue perfusion related to
hemorrhage
D. Hemorrhage secondary to uterine atony
11. The following are signs and symptoms of
fetal distress EXCEPT:
A. Fetal heart rate (FHR) decreased during a
contraction and persists even after the uterine
contraction ends
B. The FHR is less than 120 bpm or over 160
bpm
C. The pre-contraction FHR is 130 bpm, FHR
during contraction is 118 bpm and FHR after
uterine contraction is 126 bpm
D. FHR is 160 bpm, weak and irregular
12. If the labor period lasts only for 3 hours,
the nurse should suspect that the following
conditions may occur:
1.Laceration of cervix
2.Laceration of perineum
3.Cranial hematoma in the fetus
4.Fetal anoxia
A. 1 & 2
B. 2 & 4
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,2,3,4
13. The primary power involved in labor and
delivery is
A. Bearing down ability of mother
B. Cervical effacement and dilatation
C. Uterine contraction
D. Valsalva technique
14. The proper technique to monitor the
intensity of a uterine contraction is
A. Place the palm of the hands on the abdomen
and time the contraction
B. Place the finger tips lightly on the suprapubic
area and time the contraction
C. Put the tip of the fingers lightly on the fundal
area and try to indent the abdominal wall at the
height of the contraction
D. Put the palm of the hands on the fundal area
and feel the contraction at the fundal area

15. To monitor the frequency of the uterine

contraction during labor, the right technique
is to time the contraction
A. From the beginning of one contraction to the
end of the same contraction
B. From the beginning of one contraction to the
beginning of the next contraction
C. From the end of one contraction to the
beginning of the next contraction
D. From the deceleration of one contraction to
the acme of the next contraction
16. The peak point of a uterine contraction is
called the
A. Acceleration
B. Acme
C. Deceleration
D. Axiom
17. When determining the duration of a
uterine contraction the right technique is to
time it from
A. The beginning of one contraction to the end of
the same contraction
B. The end of one contraction to the beginning of
another contraction
C. The acme point of one contraction to the
acme point of another contraction
D. The beginning of one contraction to the end of
another contraction
18. When the bag of waters ruptures, the
nurse should check the characteristic of the
amniotic fluiD. The normal color of amniotic
fluid is
A. Clear as water
B. Bluish
C. Greenish
D. Yellowish
19. When the bag of waters ruptures
spontaneously, the nurse should inspect the
vaginal introitus for possible cord prolapse. If
there is part of the cord that has prolapsed
into the vaginal opening the correct nursing
intervention is:
A. Push back the prolapse cord into the vaginal
canal
B. Place the mother on semifowlers position to
improve circulation
C. Cover the prolapse cord with sterile gauze
wet with sterile NSS and place the woman on
Trendelenburg position
D. Push back the cord into the vagina and place
the woman on sims position

20. The fetal heart beat should be monitored

every 15 minutes during the 2nd stage of
labor. The characteristic of a normal fetal
heart rate is
A. The heart rate will decelerate during a
contraction and then go back to its precontraction rate after the contraction
B. The heart rate will accelerate during a
contraction and remain slightly above the precontraction rate at the end of the contraction
C. The rate should not be affected by the uterine
contraction.
D. The heart rate will decelerate at the middle of
a contraction and remain so for about a minute
after the contraction
21. The mechanisms involved in fetal delivery
is
A. Descent, extension, flexion, external rotation
B. Descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension,
external rotation
C. Flexion, internal rotation, external rotation,
extension
D. Internal rotation, extension, external rotation,
flexion
22. The first thing that a nurse must ensure
when the babys head comes out is
A. The cord is intact
B. No part of the cord is encircling the babys
neck
C. The cord is still attached to the placenta
D. The cord is still pulsating
23. To ensure that the baby will breath as
soon as the head is delivered, the nurses
priority action is to
A. Suction the nose and mouth to remove
mucous secretions
B. Slap the babys buttocks to make the baby cry
C. Clamp the cord about 6 inches from the base
D. Check the babys color to make sure it is not
cyanotic
24. When doing perineal care in preparation
for delivery, the nurse should observe the
following EXCEPT
A. Use up-down technique with one stroke
B. Clean from the mons veneris to the anus
C. Use mild soap and warm water
D. Paint the inner thighs going towards the
perineal area
25. What are the important considerations
that the nurse must remember after the
placenta is delivered?

1.Check if the placenta is complete including

the membranes
2.Check if the cord is long enough for the
baby
3.Check if the umbilical cord has 3 blood
vessels
4.Check if the cord has a meaty portion and a
shiny portion
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 4
C. 1, 3, and 4
D. 2 and 3
26. The following are correct statements
about false labor EXCEPT
A. The pain is irregular in intensity and
frequency.
B. The duration of contraction progressively
lengthens over time
C. There is no vaginal bloody discharge
D. The cervix is still closeD.
27. The passageway in labor and deliver of
the fetus include the following EXCEPT
A. Distensibility of lower uterine segment
B. Cervical dilatation and effacement
C. Distensibility of vaginal canal and introitus
D. Flexibility of the pelvis
28. The normal umbilical cord is composed
of:
A. 2 arteries and 1 vein
B. 2 veins and 1 artery
C. 2 arteries and 2 veins
D. none of the above
29. At what stage of labor and delivery does a
primigravida differ mainly from a
multigravida?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. Stage 3
D. Stage 4
30. The second stage of labor begins with
___ and ends with __?
A. Begins with full dilatation of cervix and ends
with delivery of placenta
B. Begins with true labor pains and ends with
delivery of baby
C. Begins with complete dilatation and
effacement of cervix and ends with delivery of
baby
D. Begins with passage of show and ends with
full dilatation and effacement of cervix

31. The following are signs that the placenta

has detached EXCEPT:
A. Lengthening of the cord
B. Uterus becomes more globular
C. Sudden gush of blood
D. Mother feels like bearing down
32. When the shiny portion of the placenta
comes out first, this is called the ___
mechanism.
A. Schultze
B. Ritgens
C. Duncan
D. Marmets
33. When the babys head is out, the
immediate action of the nurse is
A. Cut the umbilical cord
B. Wipe the babys face and suction mouth first
C. Check if there is cord coiled around the neck
D. Deliver the anterior shoulder
34. When delivering the babys head the
nurse supports the mothers perineum to
prevent tear. This technique is called
A. Marmets technique
B. Ritgens technique
C. Duncan maneuver
D. Schultze maneuver
35. The basic delivery set for normal vaginal
delivery includes the following
instruments/articles EXCEPT:
A. 2 clamps
B. Pair of scissors
C. Kidney basin
D. Retractor
36. As soon as the placenta is delivered, the
nurse must do which of the following
actions?
A. Inspect the placenta for completeness
including the membranes
B. Place the placenta in a receptacle for disposal
C. Label the placenta properly
D. Leave the placenta in the kidney basin for the
nursing aide to dispose properly
37. In vaginal delivery done in the hospital
setting, the doctor routinely orders an
oxytocin to be given to the mother
parenterally. The oxytocin is usually given
after the placenta has been delivered and not
before because:
A. Oxytocin will prevent bleeding
B. Oxytocin can make the cervix close and thus
trap the placenta inside

C. Oxytocin will facilitate placental delivery

D. Giving oxytocin will ensure complete delivery
of the placenta
38. In a gravido-cardiac mother, the first 2
hours postpartum (4th stage of labor and
delivery) particularly in a cesarean section is
a critical period because at this stage
A. There is a fluid shift from the placental
circulation to the maternal circulation which can
overload the compromised heart.
B. The maternal heart is already weak and the
mother can die
C. The delivery process is strenuous to the
mother
D. The mother is tired and weak which can
distress the heart
39. The drug usually given parentally to
enhance uterine contraction is:
A. Terbutalline
B. Pitocin
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Lidocaine
40. The partograph is a tool used to monitor
labor. The maternal parameters
measured/monitored are the following
EXCEPT:
A. Vital signs
B. Fluid intake and output
C. Uterine contraction
D. Cervical dilatation
41. The following are natural childbirth
procedures EXCEPT:
A. Lamaze method
B. Dick-Read method
C. Ritgens maneuver
D. Psychoprophylactic method
42. The following are common causes of
dysfunctional labor. Which of these can a
nurse, on her own manage?
A. Pelvic bone contraction
B. Full bladder
C. Extension rather than flexion of the head
D. Cervical rigidity
43. At what stage of labor is the mother is
advised to bear down?
A. When the mother feels the pressure at the
rectal area
B. During a uterine contraction
C. In between uterine contraction to prevent
uterine rupture
D. Anytime the mother feels like bearing down

44. The normal dilatation of the cervix during

the first stage of labor in a nullipara is
A. 1.2 cm./hr
B. 1.5 cm./hr.
C. 1.8 cm./hr
D. 2.0 cm./hr
45. When the fetal head is at the level of the
ischial spine, it is said that the station of the
head is
A. Station 1
B. Station 0
C. Station +1
D. Station +2
46. During an internal examination, the nurse
palpated the posterior fontanel to be at the
left side of the mother at the upper quadrant.
The interpretation is that the position of the
fetus is:
A. LOA
B. ROP
C. LOP
D. ROA
47. The following are types of breech
presentation EXCEPT:
A. Footling
B. Frank
C. Complete
D. Incomplete
48. When the nurse palpates the suprapubic
area of the mother and found that the
presenting part is still movable, the right term
for this observation that the fetus is
A. Engaged
B. Descended
C. Floating
D. Internal Rotation
49. The placenta should be delivered
normally within ___ minutes after the delivery
of the baby.
A. 5 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. 45 minutes
D. 60 minutes
50. When shaving a woman in preparation for
cesarean section, the area to be shaved
should be from ___ to ___
A. Under breast to mid-thigh including the pubic
area
B. The umbilicus to the mid-thigh
C. Xyphoid process to the pubic area
D. Above the umbilicus to the pubic area

1. Postpartum Period:
The fundus of the uterus is expected to go
down normally postpartally about __ cm per
day.
A. 1.0 cm
B. 2.0 cm
C. 2.5 cm
D. 3.0 cm
2. The lochia on the first few days after
delivery is characterized as
A. Pinkish with some blood clots
B. Whitish with some mucus
C. Reddish with some mucus
D. Serous with some brown tinged mucus
3. Lochia normally disappears after how
many days postpartum?
A. 5 days
B. 7-10 days
C. 18-21 days
D. 28-30 days
4. After an Rh(-) mother has delivered her Rh
(+) baby, the mother is given RhoGam. This is
done in order to:
A. Prevent the recurrence of Rh(+) baby in future
pregnancies
B. Prevent the mother from producing antibodies
against the Rh(+) antigen that she may have
gotten when she delivered to her Rh(+) baby
C. Ensure that future pregnancies will not lead to
maternal illness
D. To prevent the newborn from having problems
of incompatibility when it breastfeeds
5. To enhance milk production, a lactating
mother must do the following interventions
EXCEPT:
A. Increase fluid intake including milk
B. Eat foods that increases lactation which are
called galactagues
C. Exercise adequately like aerobics
D. Have adequate nutrition and rest
6. The nursing intervention to relieve pain in
breast engorgement while the mother
continues to breastfeed is
A. Apply cold compress on the engorged breast
B. Apply warm compress on the engorged breast
C. Massage the breast
D. Apply analgesic ointment
7. A woman who delivered normally per
vagina is expected to void within ___ hours
after delivery.

A. 3 hrs
B. 4 hrs.
C. 6-8 hrs
D. 12-24 hours
8. To ensure adequate lactation the nurse
should teach the mother to:
A. Breast feed the baby on self-demand day and
night
B. Feed primarily during the day and allow the
baby to sleep through the night
C. Feed the baby every 3-4 hours following a
strict schedule
D. Breastfeed when the breast are engorged to
ensure adequate supply
9. An appropriate nursing intervention when
caring for a postpartum mother with
thrombophlebitis is:
A. Encourage the mother to ambulate to relieve
the pain in the leg
B. Instruct the mother to apply elastic bondage
from the foot going towards the knee to improve
venous return flow
C. Apply warm compress on the affected leg to
relieve the pain
D. Elevate the affected leg and keep the patient
on bedrest
10. The nurse should anticipate that
hemorrhage related to uterine atony may
occur postpartally if this condition was
present during the delivery:
A. Excessive analgesia was given to the mother
B. Placental delivery occurred within thirty
minutes after the baby was born
C. An episiotomy had to be done to facilitate
delivery of the head
D. The labor and delivery lasted for 12 hours
11. According to Rubins theory of maternal
role adaptation, the mother will go through 3
stages during the post partum perioD. These
stages are:
A. Going through, adjustment period, adaptation
period
B. Taking-in, taking-hold and letting-go
C. Attachment phase, adjustment phase,
adaptation phase
D. Taking-hold, letting-go, attachment phase
12. The neonate of a mother with diabetes
mellitus is prone to developing hypoglycemia
because:
A. The pancreas is immature and unable to
secrete the needed insulin

B. There is rapid diminution of glucose level in

the babys circulating blood and his pancreas is
normally secreting insulin
C. The baby is reacting to the insulin given to the
mother
D. His kidneys are immature leading to a high
tolerance for glucose
13. Which of the following is an abnormal
vital sign in postpartum?
A. Pulse rate between 50-60/min
B. BP diastolic increase from 80 to 95mm Hg
C. BP systolic between 100-120mm Hg
D. Respiratory rate of 16-20/min
14. The uterine fundus right after delivery of
placenta is palpable at
A. Level of Xyphoid process
B. Level of umbilicus
C. Level of symphysis pubis
D. Midway between umbilicus and symphysis
pubis
15. After how many weeks after delivery
should a woman have her postpartal checkup based on the protocol followed by the
DOH Philippines?
A. 2 weeks
B. 3 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 12 weeks
16. In a woman who is not breastfeeding,
menstruation usually occurs after how many
weeks?
A. 2-4 weeks
B. 6-8 weeks
C. 6 months
D. 12 months
17. The following are nursing measures to
stimulate lactation EXCEPT
A. Frequent regular breast feeding
B. Breast pumping
C. Breast massage
D. Application of cold compress on the breast
18. When the uterus is firm and contracted
after delivery but there is vaginal bleeding,
the nurse should suspect
A. Laceration of soft tissues of the cervix and
vagina
B. Uterine atony
C. Uterine inversion
D. Uterine hypercontractility
19. The following are interventions to make
the fundus contract postpartally EXCEPT

A. Make the baby suck the breast regularly

B. Apply ice cap on fundus
C. Massage the fundus vigorously for 15 minutes
until contracted
D. Give oxytocin as ordered
20. The following are nursing interventions to
relieve episiotomy wound pain EXCEPT
A. Giving analgesic as ordered
B. Sitz bath
C. Perineal heat
D. Perineal care
21. Postpartum blues is said to be normal
provided that the following characteristics
are present. These are
1. Within 3-10 days only;
2. Woman exhibits the following symptomsepisodic tearfulness, fatigue, oversensitivity, poor
appetite;
3. Maybe more severe symptoms in primpara
A. All of the above
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 only
D. 2 and 3
22. The neonatal circulation differs from the
fetal circulation because
A. The fetal lungs are non-functioning as an
organ and most of the blood in the fetal
circulation is mixed blooD.
B. The blood at the left atrium of the fetal heart is
shunted to the right atrium to facilitate its
passage to the lungs
C. The blood in left side of the fetal heart
contains oxygenated blood while the blood in the
right side contains unoxygenated blooD.
D. None of the above
23. The normal respiration of a newborn
immediately after birth is characterized as:
A. Shallow and irregular with short periods of
apnea lasting not longer than 15 seconds, 30-60
breaths per minute
B. 20-40 breaths per minute, abdominal
breathing with active use of intercostals muscles
C. 30-60 breaths per minute with apnea lasting
more than 15 seconds, abdominal breathing
D. 30-50 breaths per minute, active use of
abdominal and intercostal muscles
24. The anterior fontanelle is characterized
as:
A. 3-4 cm antero-posterior diameter and 2-3 cm
transverse diameter, diamond shape
B. 2-3 cm antero-posterior diameter and 3-4 cm

transverse diameter and diamond shape

C. 2-3 cm in both antero-posterior and
transverse diameter and diamond shape
D. none of the above
25. The ideal site for vitamin K injection in the
newborn is:
A. Right upper arm
B. Left upper arm
C. Either right or left buttocks
D. Middle third of the thigh
26. At what APGAR score at 5 minutes after
birth should resuscitation be initiated?
A. 1-3
B. 7-8
C. 9-10
D. 6-7
27. Right after birth, when the skin of the
babys trunk is pinkish but the soles of the
feet and palm of the hands are bluish this is
called:
A. Syndactyly
B. Acrocyanosis
C. Peripheral cyanosis
D. Cephalo-caudal cyanosis
28. The minimum birth weight for full term
babies to be considered normal is:
A. 2,000gms
B. 1,500gms
C. 2,500gms
D. 3,000gms
29. The procedure done to prevent
ophthalmia neonatorum is:
A. Marmets technique
B. Credes method
C. Ritgens method
D. Ophthalmic wash
30. Which of the following characteristics will
distinguish a postmature neonate at birth?
A. Plenty of lanugo and vernix caseosa
B. Lanugo mainly on the shoulders and vernix in
the skin folds
C. Pinkish skin with good turgor
D. Almost leather-like, dry, cracked skin,
negligible vernix caseosa
31. According to the Philippine Nursing Law,
a registered nurse is allowed to handle
mothers in labor and delivery with the
following considerations:
1. The pregnancy is normal.;
2. The labor and delivery is uncomplicated;
3. Suturing of perineal laceration is allowed

provided the nurse had special training;

4. As a delivery room nurse she is not allowed to
insert intravenous fluid unless she had special
training for it.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2, and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, and 4
32. Birth Control Methods and Infertility:
In basal body temperature (BBT) technique,
the sign that ovulation has occurred is an
elevation of body temperature by
A. 1.0-1.4 degrees centigrade
B. 0.2-0.4 degrees centigrade
C. 2.0-4.0 degrees centigrade
D. 1.0-4.0 degrees centigrade
33. Lactation Amenorrhea Method(LAM) can
be an effective method of natural birth
control if
A. The mother breast feeds mainly at night time
when ovulation could possibly occur
B. The mother breastfeeds exclusively and
regularly during the first 6 months without giving
supplemental feedings
C. The mother uses mixed feeding faithfully
D. The mother breastfeeds regularly until 1 year
with no supplemental feedings
34. Intra-uterine device prevents pregnancy
by the ff. mechanism EXCEPT
A. Endometrium inflames
B. Fundus contracts to expel uterine contents
C. Copper embedded in the IUD can kill the
sperms
D. Sperms will be barred from entering the
fallopian tubes
35. Oral contraceptive pills are of different
types. Which type is most appropriate for
mothers who are breastfeeding?
A. Estrogen only
B. Progesterone only
C. Mixed type- estrogen and progesterone
D. 21-day pills mixed type
36. The natural family planning method called
Standard Days (SDM), is the latest type and
easy to use methoD. However, it is a method
applicable only to women with regular
menstrual cycles between ___ to ___ days.
A. 21-26 days
B. 26-32 days
C. 28-30 days
D. 24- 36 days

37. Which of the following are signs of

ovulation?
1. Mittelschmerz;
2. Spinnabarkeit;
3. Thin watery cervical mucus;
4. Elevated body temperature of 4.0 degrees
centigrade
A. 1 & 2
B. 1, 2, & 3
C. 3 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
38. The following methods of artificial birth
control works as a barrier device EXCEPT:
A. Condom
B. Cervical cap
C. Cervical Diaphragm
D. Intrauterine device (IUD)
39. Which of the following is a TRUE
statement about normal ovulation?
A. It occurs on the 14th day of every cycle
B. It may occur between 14-16 days before next
menstruation
C. Every menstrual period is always preceded by
ovulation
D. The most fertile period of a woman is 2 days
after ovulation
40. If a couple would like to enhance their
fertility, the following means can be done:
1. Monitor the basal body temperature of the
woman everyday to determine peak period of
fertility;
2. Have adequate rest and nutrition;
3. Have sexual contact only during the dry
period of the woman;
4. Undergo a complete medical check-up to
rule out any debilitating disease
A. 1 only
B. 1 & 4
C. 1,2,4
D. 1,2,3,4
41. In sympto-thermal method, the
parameters being monitored to determine if
the woman is fertile or infertile are:
A. Temperature, cervical mucus, cervical
consistency
B. Release of ovum, temperature and vagina
C. Temperature and wetness
D. Temperature, endometrial secretion, mucus
42. The following are important
considerations to teach the woman who is on

low dose (mini-pill) oral contraceptive

EXCEPT:
A. The pill must be taken everyday at the same
time
B. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she
must take 2 pills for added protection
C. If the woman fails to take a pill in one day, she
needs to take another temporary method until
she has consumed the whole pack
D. If she is breast feeding, she should
discontinue using mini-pill and use the progestinonly type
43. To determine if the cause of infertility is a
blockage of the fallopian tubes, the test to be
done is
A. Huhners test
B. Rubins test
C. Postcoital test
D. None of the above
44. Infertility can be attributed to male causes
such as the following EXCEPT:
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Orchitis
C. Sperm count of about 20 million per milliliter
D. Premature ejaculation
45. Spinnabarkeit is an indicator of ovulation
which is characterized as:
A. Thin watery mucus which can be stretched
into a long strand about 10 cm
B. Thick mucus that is detached from the cervix
during ovulation
C. Thin mucus that is yellowish in color with fishy
odor
D. Thick mucus vaginal discharge influence by
high level of estrogen
46. Vasectomy is a procedure done on a male
for sterilization. The organ involved in this
procedure is
A. Prostate gland
B. Seminal vesicle
C. Testes
D. Vas deferens
47. Breast self examination is best done by
the woman on herself every month during
A. The middle of her cycle to ensure that she is
ovulating
B. During the menstrual period
C. Right after the menstrual period so that the
breast is not being affected by the increase in
hormones particularly estrogen

D. Just before the menstrual period to determine

if ovulation has occurred
48. A woman is considered to be menopause
if she has experienced cessation of her
menses for a period of
A. 6 months
B. 12 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
49. Which of the following is the correct
practice of self breast examination in a
menopausal woman?
A. She should do it at the usual time that she
experiences her menstrual period in the past to
ensure that her hormones are not at its peak
B. Any day of the month as long it is regularly
observed on the same day every month
C. Anytime she feels like doing it ideally every
day
D. Menopausal women do not need regular self
breast exam as long as they do it at least once
every 6 months
50. In assisted reproductive technology
(ART), there is a need to stimulate the ovaries
to produce more than one mature ovA. The
drug commonly used for this purpose is:
A. Bromocriptine
B. Clomiphene
C. Provera
D. Estrogen
Situation : Nurse Macarena is a Family Planning
and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently
attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND
INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions
pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this
particular population group.
1. Daphne, 19 years old, asks nurse
Macarena how can pregnancy be prevented
through tubal ligation. Which would be the
best answer?
A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian
tubes will lead to permanent closure of the
vagina.
B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the
cervical entrance is blocked.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because
the fallopian tubes are blocked
D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is
no where for them to go.

2. The Stevens are a couple undergoing

testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist
when:
A. A woman has no uterus
B. A woman has no children
C. A couple has been trying to conceive for 1
year
D. A couple has wanted a child for 6 months
3. Another client named Cindy is diagnosed
as having endometriosis. This condition
interferes with fertility because:
A. Endometrial implants can block the fallopian
tubes
B. The uterine cervix becomes inflamed and
swollen
C. The endometrial lining becomes inflamed
leading to narrowing of the cervix.
D. Inflammation of the endometrium causes
release of substance P which kills the sperm.
4. Cindy submits herself to Fatima Medical
Center and is scheduled to have
a hysterosalpingogram. Which of the
following instructions would you give her
regarding this procedure?
A. Menstruation will be irregular for few months
as an effect of the dye but it is just normal
B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any
tumors present
C. The women may experience some itchiness
in the vagina as an after effect.
D. Cramping may be felt when the dye is
inserted
5. Cindys cousin on the other hand, knowing
nurse Macarenas specialization asks what
artificial insemination by donor entails.
Which would be your best answer if you were
Nurse Macarena?
A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the
uterus or cervix
B. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally
into each ovary
C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test
tubal patency
D. The husbands sperm is administered
intravenously weekly
6. Pain in geriatric clients require careful
assessment because they:
A. experienced reduce sensory perception
B. have increased sensory perception
C. are expected to experience chronic pain
D. have a increased pain sensitivity

7. Administration of aminoglycosides to the

older persons requires careful patient
assessment because older people:
A. are more sensitive to drugs
B. have increased hepatic, renal and
gastrointestinal function
C. have increased sensory perception
D. mobilize drugs more rapidly
8. Elder clients are often at risk of having
impaired skin integrity. One factor is that they
often experience urinary incontinence. The
elderly patient is at higher risk for urinary
incontinence because of:
A. increased glomerular filtration
B. decrease elasticity of blood vessels
C. decreased bladder capacity
D. dilated urethra
9. Which of the following is the MOST
COMMON sign of infection among the
elderly?
A. decreased breath sounds with crackles
B. Increase body temperature
C. pain
D. Restlessness, confusion, irritability
10. Prioritization is important to test a nurses
good judgment towards different situations.
Priorities when caring for the elderly trauma
patient:
A. circulation, airway, breathing
B. disability (neurologic), airway, breathing
C. airway, breathing, disability (neurologic)
D. airway, breathing, circulation
11. The nurse assessing newborn babies and
infants during their hospital stay after birth
will notice which of the following symptoms
as a primary manifestation of Achalasia?
A. Olive shaped mass on abdomen
B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24
to 48 hours after birth
C. The skin turns yellow and then brown over the
first 48 hours of life
D. Effortless and non-projectile vomiting
12. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just
been diagnosed as having a partial placenta
previa. She is stable and has minimal
spotting and is being sent home. Which of
these instructions to the client may indicate a
need for further teaching?
A. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
B. Avoid intercourse for three days.
C. Call if contractions occur.

D. Stay on left side as much as possible when

lying down.
13. Ms. Anna has been rushed to the hospital
with ruptured membrane. Which of the
following should the nurse check first?
A. Check for the presence of infection
B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord
C. Check the maternal heart rate
D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid
14. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing
a plastic-coated diaper. If a topical
medication were to be prescribed and it were
to go on the stomachs or buttocks, the nurse
would teach the caregivers to:
A. avoid covering the area of the topical
medication with the diaper
B. avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
C. put the diaper on as usual
D. apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside
of the diaper
15. Which of the following factors is most
important in determining the success of
relationships used in delivering nursing
care?
A. Type of illness of the client
B. Transference and countertransference
C. Effective communication
D. Personality of the participants
16. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg
from automobile accident. Why are
lacerations of lower extremities potentially
more serious among pregnant women than
other?
A. lacerations can provoke allergic responses
due to gonadotropic hormone release
B. a woman is less able to keep the laceration
clean because of her fatigue
C. healing is limited during pregnancy so these
will not heal until after birth
D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine
pressure on leg veins
17. You are the nurse assigned to work with a
child with acute glomerulonephritis. By
following the prescribed treatment regimen,
the child experiences a remission. You are
now checking to make sure the child does
not have a relapse. Which finding would most
lead you to the conclusion that a relapse is
happening?
A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat,
changing complete blood count (CBC) with

differential
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+
proteinuria or more for 3 days, or the child found
to have 3-4+ proteinuria plus edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the
urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine
output, and a moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees
F), flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on
voiding, and cloudy urine.
18. The painful phenomenon known as back
labor occurs in a client whose fetus in what
position?
A. Brow position
B. Right Occipito-Anterior Position
C. Breech position
D. Left Occipito-Posterior Position
19. Which among the following is the primary
focus of prevention of cancer?
A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Treatment at early stage
D. Early detection
20. In the prevention and control of cancer,
which of the following activities is the most
important function of the community health
nurse?
A. Conduct community assemblies.
B. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with
symptoms of cancer.
C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as
parameters in our process of detection, control
and treatment modalities.
D. Teach women about proper/correct nutrition.
21. Who among the following are recipients
of the secondary level of care for cancer
cases?
A. Those under early case detection
B. Those under post case treatment
C. Those scheduled for surgery
D. Those undergoing treatment
22. Who among the following are recipients
of the tertiary level of care for cancer cases?
A. Those under early treatment C. Those under
early detection
B. Those under supportive care D. Those
scheduled for surgery
23. Being a community health nurse, you
have the responsibility of participating in
protecting the health of people. Consider this
situation: Vendors selling bread with their

bare hands. They receive money with these

hands. You do not see them washing their
hands. What should you say/do?
A. Miss, may I get the bread myself because
you have not washed your hands
B. All of these
C. Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/
bread tong
D. Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands
first before getting the bread
24. A female client asks the nurse about the
use of a cervical cap. Which statement is
correct regarding the use of the cervical cap?
A. It may affect Pap smear results.
B. It does not need to be fitted by the physician.
C. It does not require the use of spermicide.
D. It must be removed within 24 hours.
25. The major components of the
communication process are:
A. Verbal, written and nonverbal
B. Speaker, listener and reply
C. Facial expression, tone of voice and gestures
D. Message, sender, channel, receiver and
feedback
26. The school nurse notices a child who is
wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes is
always hungry, has no lunch money, and is
always tired. When the nurse asks the boy
his tiredness, he talks of playing outside until
midnight. The nurse will suspect that this
child is:
A. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence
quotient (IQ)
B. An orphan
C. A victim of child neglect
D. The victim of poverty
Situation: Milo, a 16-year-old male, has been
diagnosed to have AIDS. He worked as
entertainer in a cruise ship.
27. Which method of transmission is
common to contract AIDS:
A. Syringe and needles
B. Body fluids
C. Sexual contact
B. Transfusion
28. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the
following:
A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. retrovirus
D. Parasites

29. You are assigned in a private room of

Milo. Which procedure should be of utmost
importance?
A. Alcohol wash
B. Universal precaution
C. Washing Isolation
D. Gloving technique
30. What primary health teaching would you
give to Milo?
A. Daily exercise
B. Prevent infection
C. Reverse isolation
D. Proper nutrition
31. Exercise precaution must be taken to
protect health worker dealing with the AIDS
patients. Which among these must be done
as priority:
A. Boil used syringe and needles
B. Use gloves when handling specimen
C. Label personal belonging
D. Avoid accidental wound
Situation: Michelle is a 6 year old preschooler.
She was reported by her sister to have measles
but she is at home because of fever, upper
respiratory problem and white sports in her
mouth.
32. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red,
the rash appears on the skin in invasive
stage prior to eruption behind the ears. As a
nurse, your physical examination must
determine complication especially:
A. Otitis media
B. Bronchial pneumonia
C. Inflammatory conjunctiva
D. Membranous laryngitis
33. To render comfort measure is one of the
priorities, Which includes care of the skin,
eyes, ears, mouth and nose. To clean the
mouth, your antiseptic solution is in some
form of which one below?
A. Water
B. Sulfur
C. Alkaline
D. Salt
34. As a public health nurse, you teach
mother and family members the prevention of
complication of measles. Which of the
following should be closely watched?
A. Temperature fails to drop
B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva

C. Inflammation of the nasopharynx

D. Ulcerative stomatitis
35. Source of infection of measles is
secretion of nose and throat of infection
person. Filterable virus of measles is
transmitted by:
A. Water supply
B. Droplet
C. Food ingestion
D. Sexual contact
36. Method of prevention is to avoid
exposure to an infected person. Nursing
responsibility for rehabilitation of
patient includes the provision of:
A. Terminal disinfection
B. Injection of gamma globulin
C. Immunization
D. Comfort measures
SITUATION: Sexually Transmitted Diseases are
important to identify during pregnancy because
of their potential effect on the pregnancy, fetus,
or newborn. The following questions pertain to
STDs.
37. Ms. Reynaldita is a promiscuous woman
in Manila submits herself to the clinic for
certain examinations. She is experiencing
vaginal irritation, redness, and a thick cream
cheese vaginal discharge. As a nurse, you
will suspect that Ms. Reynaldita is having
what disease?
A. Gardnerella Vaginalis
B. Candida Albicans
C. Treponema Pallidum
D. Moniliasis
38. As a knowledgeable nurse, you know that
the doctor may prescribe a certain
medications for Ms. Reynaldita. What is the
drug of choice for Reynalditas infection?
A. haloperidol
B. miconazole
C. benzathine penicillin
D. metronidazole
39. Based on your learnings, you know that
the causative agent of Reynalditas infection
is:
A. Monistat Candida
B. Candida Albicans
C. Albopictus Candidiasis
D. Monakiki
40. The microorganism that causes
Reynalditas infection is a:

A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Fungus
D. Virus
41. Another client in the Maternal Clinic was
Ms. Celbong. Her doctor examined Ms.
Celbongs vaginal secretions and found out
that she has a Trichomoniasis infection.
Trichomoniasis is diagnosed through which
of the following method?
A. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet
slide that has been treated with potassium
hydroxide.
B. Vaginal speculum is used to obtain secretions
from the cervix.
C. A litmus paper is used to test if the vaginal
secretions are infected with trichomoniasis.
D. Vaginal secretions are examined on a wet
slide treated with zephiran solution.
42. Daphne who is on her first trimester of
pregnancy is also infected with
trichomoniasis. You know that the drug of
choice for Daphne is:
A. Flagyl
B. Clotrimazole (topical)
C. Monistat
D. Zovirax
43. Syphilis is another infection that may
impose risk during pregnancy. Since we are
under the practice of health science, you
know that Syphilis is caused by:
A. Treponema Syphilis
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia Trachomatis
D. Treponema Pallidum
44. What type of microorganism is the
causative agent of syphilis?
A. Spirochete
B. Fungus
C. Bacteria
D. Protozoan
45. Under the second level of prevention, you
know that one of the focuses of care is the
screening of diseases. What is the screening
test for syphilis?
A. VDRL
B. Western blot
C. PSA
D. ELISA
46. Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may be
experienced by the client with syphilis after

therapy with benzathine penicillin G. The

characteristic manifestations of JarischHerxheimer reaction are:
A. Rashes, itchiness, hives and pruritus
B. Confusion, drowsiness and numbness of
extremities
C. sudden episode of hypotension, fever,
tachycardia, and muscle aches
D. Episodes of nausea and vomiting, with
bradypnea and bradycardia
47. A pregnant woman is in the clinic for
consultation with regards to STDs. She
inquires about Venereal warts and asks you
about its specific lesion appearance. Which
of the following is your correct response to
the client?
A. Why are you asking about it? You might be a
prostitute woman.
B. The lesions appear as cauliflower like lesions.
C. It appears as pinpoint vesicles surrounded by
erythema.
D. The lesions can possibly obstruct the birth
canal.
48. Based on your past learnings in
communicable diseases, you know that the
causative agent of venereal warts is:
A. Chlamydia Trachomatis
B. Candida Moniliasis
C. Human Papillomavirus
D. Staphylococcus Aureus
49. As a nurse in charge for this woman, you
anticipate that the doctor will prescribe what
medication for this type of infection?
A. Podophyllum (Podofin)
B. Flagyl
C. Monistat
D. Trichloroacetic acid
50. Cryocautery may also be used to remove
large lesions. The healing period after
cryocautery may be completed in 4-6 weeks
but may cause some discomforts to the
woman. What measures can alleviate these
discomforts?
A. Kegels Exercise
B. Cool air
C. Topical steroids
D. Sitz baths and lidocaine cream
51. In order to prevent acquiring sexually
transmitted diseases, what is the BEST way
to consider?

A. Condom use
B. Withdrawal
C. vasectomy
D. Abstinence
SITUATION: The Gastrointestinal System is
responsible for taking in and processing nutrients
for all parts of the body, any problem can quickly
affect other body systems and, if not adequately
treated, can affect overall health, growth, and
development. The following questions are about
gastrointestinal disorders in a child.
52. Mr. & Mrs. Alcaras brought their son in
the hospital for check up. The child has
failure to thrive and was diagnosed with
pyloric stenosis. Which among the following
statements are the characteristic
manifestations of pyloric stenosis?
A. Vomiting in the early morning
B. Bile containing vomitus immediately after
meal
C. sausage shaped mass in the abdomen
D. Projectile vomiting with no bile content
53. The exact cause of pyloric stenosis is
unknown, but multifactorial inheritance is the
likely cause. Being knowledgeable about this
disease, you know that pyloric stenosis is
more common in which gender?
A. Male
B. Female
C. Incidence is equal for both sexes
D. None of the above
54. To rule out pyloric stenosis, the definitive
diagnosis is made by watching the infant
drink. After the infant drinks, what will be the
characteristic sign that will describe pyloric
stenosis?
A. An olive-size lump can be palpated
B. There is gastric peristaltic waves from left to
right across the abdomen
C. A hypertrophied sphincter can be seen on
ultrasound.
D. A tingling sensation is felt on the lower
extremities
55. Shey a 10 months old infant was admitted
to the hospital for severe abdominal pain.
The doctor found out that the distal ileal
segment of the childs bowel has invaginated
into the cecum. The nurse will suspect what
disease condition?
A. Intussusception
B. Pyloric stenosis

C. Hirschsprungs disease
D. Vaginismus
56. In intussusceptions, children suddenly
draw up their legs and cry as if they are in
severe pain and possibly vomit. Another
manifestation of such disease is the
presence of blood in the stool. What is the
characteristic stool of client
with intussusception?
A. Coffee ground
B. Black and Tarry
C. Currant jelly stool
D. Watery stool
57. A 4-year-old child is hospitalized because
of persistent vomiting. As a nurse, you must
monitor the child closely for:
A. Diarrhea
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
58. A nurse is monitoring for signs of
dehydration in a 1-year-old child who has
been hospitalized for diarrhea. The nurse
prepares to take the childs temperature and
avoids which method of measurement?
A. Tympanic
B. Axillary
C. Rectal
D. Electronic
59. A home care nurse provides instructions
to the mother of an infant with cleft palate
regarding feeding. Which statement if made
by the mother indicates a need for further
instructions?
A. I will use a nipple with a small hole to prevent
choking.
B. I will stimulate sucking by rubbing the nipple
on the lower lip.
C. I will allow the infant time to swallow.
D. I will allow the infant to rest frequently to
provide time for swallowing what has been
placed in the mouth.
60. An infant has just returned to the nursing
unit following a surgical repair of a cleft lip
located at the right side of the lip. The nurse
places the infant in which most appropriate
position?
A. On the right side
B. On the left side
C. Prone
D. Supine

61. A clinic nurse reviews the record of an

infant seen in the clinic. The nurse notes that
a diagnosis of esophageal atresia with
tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF) is
suspected. The nurse expects to note which
most likely sign of this condition
documented in the record?
A. Severe projectile vomiting
B. Coughing at night time
C. Choking with feedings
D. Incessant crying
SITUATION: Human development is one of the
important concepts that a nurse should learn to
be able to deal appropriately with their clients of
different developmental stages.
62. Which statement best describes when
fertilization occurs?
A. When the spermatozoon passes into the
ovum and the nuclei fuse into a single cell.
B. When the ovum is discharged from the ovary
near the fimbriated end of the fallopian tube.
C. When the embryo attaches to the uterine wall.
D. When the sperm and ova undergo
developmental changes resulting in a reduction
in the number of chromosomes.
63. A pregnant client asks you about fetal
development. At approximately what
gestational age does the fetuss single
chambered heart begin to pump its own
blood cells through main blood vessels?
A. 10 weeks
B. 8 weeks
C. 5 weeks
D. 3 weeks
64. At 17 weeks gestation, a fetus isnt
considered to be
ballotable. Ballottement means that:
A. The examiner feels rebound movement of the
fetus.
B. The examiner feels fetal movement.
C. The client feels irregular, painless uterine
contractions.
D. The client feels fetal movement.
65. Which hormone stimulates the
development of the ovum?
A. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
B. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
C. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
D. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH)
66. How long is the gestational period of a
full term pregnancy?

A. Ranging from 245 days to 259 days

B. around 5,554 hours to 5,880 hours
C. More than 294 days
D. Averaging of 266 to 294 days
67. An 18 year old woman in her 18th week of
pregnancy is being evaluated. Which positive
sign of pregnancy should the nurse expect to
be present?
A. Fetal heart tones detectable by Doppler
stethoscope
B. Fetal movement detectable by palpation
C. Visualization of the fetus by ultrasound
examination.
D. Fetal heart tones detectable by a fetoscope.
68. During her prenatal visit, a 28 year old
client expresses concern about nutrition
during pregnancy. She wants to know what
foods she should be eating to ensure the
proper growth and development of her baby.
Which step should the nurse take first?
A. Give the client a sample diet plan for a 2,400
calorie diet.
B. Emphasize the importance of avoiding salty
and fatty foods.
C. Instruct the client to continue to eat a normal
diet.
D. Assess the clients current nutritional status by
taking a diet history.
69. A nurse is teaching a class about the
reproductive system. She explains that
fertilization most often takes place in the:
A. Ovary
B. Fallopian tubes
C. Uterus
D. vagina
70. A large number of neural tube defects
may be prevented if a pregnant woman
includes which supplement in her diet?
A. Vit. A
B. Vit. E
C. Vit. D
D. Vit. B9
71. A 22 year old client is at 20 weeks
gestation. She asks the nurse about the
development of her fetus at this stage. Which
of the following developments occurs at 20
weeks gestation?
A. The pancreas starts producing insulin and the
kidneys produce urine.
B. The fetus follows a regular schedule of
turning, sleeping, sucking, and kicking.

C. Swallowing reflex has been mastered, and the

fetus sucks its thumb.
D. Surfactant forms in the lungs.
SITUATION: Developing countries such as the
Philippines suffer from high infant and child
mortality rates. Thus, as a management to the
existing problem, the WHO and UNICEF
launched the IMCI.
72. A 6 month old baby Len was brought to
the health center because of fever and cough
for 2 days. She weighs 5 kg. Her temperature
is 38.5 taken axillary. Further examination
revealed that she has general rashes, her
eyes are red and she has mouth ulcers non
deep and non extensive, There was no pus
draining from her eyes. Most probably Baby
Len has:
a. Severe complicated measles
b. Fever: No MALARIA
c. Very severe febrile disease
d. Measles
e. Measles with eye or mouth complications
73. The dosage of Vit. A supplement given to
Baby Len would be:
a. 100,000 IU
b. 10,000 IU
c. 200,000 IU
d. 20,000 IU
74. Using IMCI Chart, this child can be
manage with:
a. Treat the child with paracetamol and follow up
in 2 days if the fever persist
b. Give the first dose of antibiotic, give Vit. A,
apply Gentian Violet for mouth ulcers and refer
urgently to hospital
c. Give100, 000 international units of Vit. A
d. Give 200, 000 international units of Vit. A
e. Give Vit. A, apply Gentian violet for mouth
ulcers and follow up in 2 days
75. The following are signs of severe
complicated measles:
a. Clouding of the cornea
b. Deep or extensive mouth ulcers
c. Pus draining from the eyes
d. A and b only
e. All of the above
76. If the child is having 2 weeks ear
discharges, how would you classify and treat
the child:
1. Green
2. Yellow

3. Pink
4. Red
5. Dry the ear by wicking
6. 5 days antibiotic
7. Urgent referral with first dose of antibiotic
a. 4,7
b. 2,5,6
c. 1,5
d. 3,7
e. 2,5
77. The following are treatments for acute ear
infections:
a. Dry the ear by wicking
b. Give antibiotics for 5 days
c. Follow up in 5 days
d. A and c only
e. All of the above
78. A child with ear problem should be
assessed for the following, except:
a. Ear pain
b. If discharge is present for how long?
c. Ear discharge
d. Is there any fever?
e. None of the above
79. If the child does not have ear problem,
using IMCI, what should you do as a nurse?
a. Go to the next question, check for malnutrition
b. Check for ear pain
c. Check for tender swelling behind the ear
d. Check for ear discharge
80. An ear discharge that has been present
for more than 14 days can be classified as:
a. Complicated ear infection
b. Acute ear infection
c. Chronic ear infection
d. Mastoiditis
81. An ear discharge that has been present
for less than 14 days can be classified as:
a. Complicated ear infection
b. Acute ear infection
c. Chronic ear infection
d. Mastoiditis
82. If the child has severe classification
because of ear problem, what would be the
best thing that you should do as a nurse?
a. Dry the ear by wicking
b. Give an antibiotic for 5 days
c. Refer urgently
d. Instruct mother when to return immediately
Situation: Primary Health Care (PHC) is defined
by the WHO as essential health care made

universally accessible to individuals, families and

communities.
83. The WHO held a meeting in this place
where Primary health Care was discussed.
What is this place?
A. Alma Ata
B. Russia
C. Vienna
D. Geneva
Situation: The national objective for maintaining
the health of all Filipinos is a primary
responsibility of the DOH.
84. The following are mission of the DOH
except:
a. Ensure accessibility
b.Quality of health care
c.Health for all Filipinos
d.Quality of Life of all Filipinos
e. None of the above
85. The basic principles to achieve
improvement in health include all BUT:
a. Universal access to basic health services
must be ensured
b. The health and nutrition of vulnerable groups
must be prioritized
c. Performance of the health sector must be
enhanced
d. Support the frontline workers and the local
health system
e. None of the above
86. Which of the following is not a primary
strategy to achieve health goals:
a. Support of local health system development
b. Development of national standards for health
c. Assurance of health care for all
d. Support the frontline workers
e. None of the above
87. According to the WHO health is:
A. state of complete physical, mental and social
well being not merely the absence of disease
B. A science and art of preventing disease and
prolonging life
C. A science that deals the optimum level of
functioning of the Individual, family and
community
D. All of the above
88. Assistance in physical therapy of a
trauma patient is a:
A. Primary level of prevention
B. Secondary level of prevention

C. Tertiary level of prevention

D. Specialized level of prevention
89. Local health boards were established at
the provincial, city and municipal levels. At
the municipal level,the chairman of the board
is the:
A.Rural Health physician
B.Governor
C.Mayor
D.Chairman of the Committee on Health
90. The emphasis of community health
nursing is on:
A. Treatment of health problems
B. Preventing health problems and promoting
optimum health
C. Identification and assessment of health
problems
D. Illness end of the wellness-illness continuum.
91. In asking the mother about her childs
problem the following communication skills
should be used except:
a. Use words that the mother understand
b. Give time for the mother to answer the
questions
c. Listen attentively
d. Ask checking questions
e. None of the above
92. Which of the following is the principal
focus of the CARI program of the Department
of Health?
a. Teach other community health workers how to
assess patients
b. Mortality reduction through early detection
c. Teach mothers how to detect signs and where
to refer
d. Enhancement of health team capabilities
93. You were able to identify factors that lead
to respiratory problems in the community
where your health facility serves. Your
primary role therefore in order to reduce
morbidity due to pneumonia is to?
a. Seek assistance and mobilize the BHWs to
have a meeting with mothers
b. Refer cases to hospitals
c. Make home visits to sick children
d. Teach mothers how to recognize early signs
and symptoms of pneumonia
94. Which of the following is the most
important responsibility of a nurse in the
prevention of unnecessary deaths from
pneumonia and other severe disease?

a. Weighing of the child

b. Provision of careful assessment
c. Taking of the temperature of the sick child
d. Giving of antibiotics
95. A 4-month-old child was brought to your
clinic because of cough and colds. Which of
the following is your primary action?
a. Teach the mother how to count her childs
breathing?
b. Refer to the doctor
c. Assess the patient using the chart on
management of children with cough
d. Give cotrimoxazole tablet or syrup
e. All of the above
96. In responding to the care concerns to
children with severe disease, referral to the
hospital is of the essence especially if the
child manifests which of the following?
a. Stopped feeding well
b. Fast breathing
c. Wheezing
d. Difficulty to awaken
SITUATION: Elvira is a 26 year old woman you
admit to a birthing room. Shes been having
contractions 45 seconds long and 3 minutes
apart for the last 6 hours. She tells you she
wants to have her baby naturally without any
analgesia or anesthesia. Her husband is in the
Army and assigned overseas, so he is not with
her. Although her sister lives only two blocks
from the hospital, Elvira doesnt want her called.
She asks if she can talk to her mother on the
telephone instead.
97. Elvira didnt recognize for over an hour
that she was in labor. A sign of true labor is:
A. Sudden increase energy from epinephrine
release
B. Nagging but constant pain in the lower back.
C. Urinary urgency from increased bladder
pressure.
D. Show or release of the cervical mucus plug.
98. Elvira asks you which fetal position and
presentation are ideal. Your best answer
would be:
A. Right occipitoanterior with full flexion.
B. Left transverse anterior in moderate flexion.
C. Right occipitoposterior with no flexion.
D. Left sacroanterior with full flexion.
99. Elvira is having long and hard uterine
contractions. What length of contraction
would you report as abnormal?

A. Any length over 30 seconds.

B. A contraction over 70 seconds in length.
C. A contraction that peaks at 20 seconds.
D. A contraction shorter than 60 seconds.
100. You assess Elviras uterine contractions.
In relation to the contraction, when does a
late deceleration begin?
A. Forty-five seconds after the contraction is
over.
B. Thirty seconds after the start of a contraction.
C. After every tenth or more contraction.
D. After a typical contraction ends.
Situation 1: Mariah is a 31 year old lawyer who
has been married for 6 moths. She consults you
for guidance in relation with her menstrual cycle
and her desire to get pregnant.
1. She wants to know the length of her
menstrual cycle. Her periodic menstrual
period is October 22 to 26. Her LMB is
November 21. Which of the following number
of days will be your correct response?
A. 29
B. 28
C. 30
D. 31
2. You advised her to observe and record the
signs of ovulation. Which of the following
signs will she likely note down?
1. A 1 degree Fahrenheit rise in basal body
temperature
2. Cervical mucus becomes copious and clear
3. One pound increase in weight
4. Mittelschmerz
A. 1,2,4
B. 1,2,3
C. 2,3,4
D. 1,3,4
3. You instruct Mariah to keep record of her
basal temperature everyday, which of the
following instructions is incorrect?
A. If coitus has occurred, this should be reflected
in the chart
B. It is best to have coitus on the evening
following a drop in BBT to become pregnant
C. Temperature should be taken immediately
after waking and before getting put of bed
D. BBT is lowest during the secretory phase
4. She reports an increase in BBT on
December 16. Which hormone brings about
this change in her BBT?

A. Estrogen
B. Progesterone
C. Gonadootrophine
D. Follicle Stimulating Hormone
5. The following month, Mariah suspects she
is pregnant. Her urine is positive for Human
Chorionic Gonadotrophin. Which structure
produce HCG?
A. Pituitary Gland
B. Trophoblastic cells of the embryo
C. Uterine deciduas
D. Ovarian follicles
Situation 2: Mariah came back and she is now
pregnant.
6. At 5 months gestation, which of the
following fetal development would probably
be expected:
A. Fetal development are felt by Mariah
B. Vernix caseosa covers the entire body
C. Viable if delivered within this period
D. Braxton Hicks contractions are observed
7. The nurse palpates the abdomen of Mariah.
Now at 5 month gestation, what level of the
abdomen can be the fundic height be
palpated?
A. Symphysis pubis
B. Midpoint between the umbilicus and the
xiphoid process
C. Midpoint between the symphysis pubis the
umbilicus
D. Umbilicus
8. She worries about her small breast,
thinking that she probably will incapable to
breastfeed her baby. Which of the following
responses of the nurse is correct?
A. The size of your breast will not affect your
lactation.
B. You can switch to bottle feeding.
C. You can try to have exercise to increase the
size of your breast.
D. Manual expression of milk is possible.
9. She tells the nurse that she does not take
milk regularly. She claims that she does not
want to gain too much weight during her
pregnancy. Which of the following nursing
diagnosis is a priority?
A. Potential self-esteem disturbance related to
physiologic changes in pregnancy
B. Ineffective individual coping related to
physiologic changes in pregnancy
C. Fear related to the effects of pregnancy

D. Knowledge deficit regarding nutritional

requirements pregnancies related to lack of
information sources.
10. Which of the following interventions will
likely ensure compliance of Mariah?
A. Incorporate her food preferences that are
adequately nutritious in her meal plan.
B. Consistently counsel toward optimum
nutritional intake
C. Respect her right to reject dietary information
if she chooses
D. Information of the adverse effects of
inadequate nutrition to her fetus
Situation 3: Susan is a patient in the clinic where
you work. She is inquiring about pregnancy.
11. Susan tells you she is worried because
she develops breast later than most of her
friends. Breast development is termed as:
A. Adrenarche
B. Mamarche
C. Thelarche
D. Menarche
12. Kevin, Susans husband, tells you that he
is considering vasectomy. After the birth of
their new child. Vasectomy involves the
incision of which organ?
A. The testes
B. The vas deferens
C. The epididymis
D. The scrotum
13. On examination, Susan has been found of
having a cystocele. A cystocele is:
A. A sebaceous cyst arising from the vulvar fold.
B. Protrusion of intestines into the vagina
C. Prolapse of the uterus into the vagina
D. Herniation of the bladder into the vaginal wall.
14. Susan typically has menstrual cycle of 34
days. She told you she had a coitus on days
8, 10 and 20 of her menstrual cycle. Which is
the day on which she is most likely to
conceive?
A. 8th day
B. 10th day
C. Day 15
D. Day 20
15. While talking with Susan, 2 new patients
arrived and they are covered with large
towels and the nurse noticed that there are
many cameraman and news people outside
of the OPD. Upon assessment the nurse
noticed that both of them are still nude and

the male clients penis is still inside the

female clients vagina and the male client
said that I cant pull it. Vaginismus was
your first impression. You know that the
psychological cause of Vaginismus is related
to:
A. The male client inserted the penis too deeply
that it stimulates vaginal closure
B. The penis was too large thats why the vagina
triggered its defense to attempt to close
C. The vagina do not want to be penetrated
D. It is due to learning patterns of the female
client where she views sex as bad or sinful.
Situation 4: Overpopulation is one problem in the
Philippines that case economic drain. Most
Filipinos are against in legalizing abortion. As a
nurse, Mastery of contraception is needed to
contribute to the society and economic growth.
16. Supposed that Dana, 17 years old, tells
you she wants to use fertility awareness
method of contraception. How will she
determine her fertile days?
A. She will notice that she feels hot as if she has
an elevated temperature
B. She should assess whether her cervical
mucus is thin colour, clear and watery.
C. She should monitor her emotions fro sudden
anger or crying
D. She should assess whether her breast feel
sensitive to cool air.
17. Dana chooses to use COC as her family
planning method, what is the danger sign of
COC you would ask her to report?
A. A stuffy or runny nose
B. Arthritis like symptoms
C. Slight weight gain
D. Migraine headache
18. Dana asks about subcutaneous implants
and she asks how long will these implants be
effective. Your best answer is:
A. One month
B. Twelve month
C. Five years
D. 10 years
19. Dana asks about female condoms. Which
of the following is true with regards to female
condoms?
A. The hormone the condom releases might
cause mild weight gain.
B. She should insert the condom before any
penile penetration

C. She should coat the condom with spermicide

before use
D. Female condoms unlike male condoms are
reusable.
20. Dana has asked about GIFT procedure.
What makes her a good candidate for GIFT?
A. She has patent fallopian tubes, so fertilized
ova can be implanted on them.
B. She is RH negative, a necessary stipulation to
rule out RH incompatibility.
C. She has normal uterus, so the sperm can be
injected through the cervix into it.
D. Her husband is taking sildenafil (Viagra), so
all sperms will be motile.
Situation 5 Nurse Lorena is a Family Planning
and Infertility Nurse Specialist and currently
attends to FAMILY PLANNING CLIENTS AND
INFERTILE COUPLES. The following conditions
pertain to meeting the nursing needs of this
particular population group.
21. Dina, 17 years old, asks you how a tubal
ligation prevents pregnancy. Which would be
the best answer?
A. Prostaglandins released from the cut fallopian
tubes can kill sperm
B. Sperm can not enter the uterus because the
cervical entrance is blocked.
C. Sperm can no longer reach the ova, because
the fallopian tubes are blocked
D. The ovary no longer releases ova as there is
nowhere for them to go.
22. The Dators are a couple undergoing
testing for infertility. Infertility is said to exist
when:
A. a woman has no uterus
B. a woman has no children
C. a couple has been trying to conceive for 1
year
D. a couple has wanted a child for 6 months
23. Another client named Lilia is diagnosed
as having endometriosis. This condition
interferes with fertility because:
A. endometrial implants can block the fallopian
tubes
B. the uterine cervix becomes inflamed and
swollen
C. the ovaries stop producing adequate estrogen
D. pressure on the pituitary leads to decreased
FSH levels
24. Lilia is scheduled to have a
hysterosalpingogram. Which of the following

instructions would you give her regarding

this procedure?
A. She will not be able to conceive for 3 months
after the procedure
B. The sonogram of the uterus will reveal any
tumors present
C. Many women experience mild bleeding as an
after effect
D. She may feel some cramping when the dye is
inserted
25. Lilias cousin on the other hand, knowing
nurse Lorenas specialization asks what
artificial insemination by donor entails.
Which would be your best answer if you were
Nurse Lorena?
A. Donor sperm are introduced vaginally into the
uterus or cervix
B. Donor sperm are injected intra-abdominally
into each ovary
C. Artificial sperm are injected vaginally to test
tubal patency
D. The husbands sperm is administered
intravenously weekly
Situation 6: You are assigned to take care of a
group of patients across the lifespan.
26. Pain in the elder persons require careful
assessment because they:
A. Experienced reduce sensory perception
B. Have increased sensory perception
C. Are expected to experience chronic pain
D. Have decreased pain threshold
27. Administration of analgesics to the older
persons require careful patient assessment
because older people:
A. Are more sensitive drugs
B. Have increased hepatic, renal, and
gastrointestinal function
C. Have increased sensory perception
D. Mobilize drugs more rapidly
28. The elderly patient is at higher risk for
urinary incontinence because:
A. Increased glomerular filtration
B. Diuretic use
C. Decreased bladder capacity
D. Decreased glomerular filtration
29. Which of the following is the MOST
COMMON sign of infection among the
elderly?
A. Decreased breath sounds with crackles
B. Fever

C. Pain
D. Change in the mental status
30. Priorities when caring for the elderly
trauma patient:
A. Circulation, airway, breathing
B. Disability(Neurologic), airway, breathing
C. Airway, Breathing, Disability(Neurologic),
D. Airway, breathing, Circulation
31. Preschoolers are able to see things from
which of the following perspectives?
A. Their peers
B. Their own and their caregivers
C. Their own and their mothers
D. Only their own
32. In conflict management, the win-win
approach occurs when:
A. There are two conflicts and the parties agree
to each one
B. Each party gives in on 50% of the
disagreement making the conflict
C. Both parties involved are committed in solving
the conflict
D. The conflict is settled out of court so the legal
system mandates parties win.
33. According to the social-International
perspective of child abuse and neglect, four
factors place the family members at risk for
abuse, these risk factors are the family
members at risk for abuse. These risk factors
are the family itself, the caregiver, the child
and:
A. The presence of a family crisis
B. Genetics
C. The national emphasis on sex
D. Chronic poverty
34. Which of the following signs and
symptoms would you most likely find when
assessing an infant with ArnoldChiari malformation?
A. Weakness of the leg muscles, loss of
sensation in the legs, and restlessness
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent
gag reflex and respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant and an
arching of the back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting
35. A parent calls you and frantically reports
that her child has gotten into her famous
ferrous sulfate pills and ingested a number of
these pills. Her child is now vomiting, has

bloody diarrhea and is complaining of

abdominal pain. You will tell the mother to:
A. Call emergency medical services (EMS) and
get the child to the emergency room
B. Relax because these symptoms will pass and
the child will be fine
C. Administer syrup of ipecac
D. Call the poison control center
36. A client says she heard from a friend that
you stop having periods once you are on the
pill. The most appropriate response would
be:
A. The pill prevents the uterus from making
such endometrial lining, that is why period may
often be scant or skipped occasionally.
B. If your friend has missed her period, she
should stop taking the pills and get a pregnancy
test.
C. The pill should cause a normal menstrual
period every month. It sounds like your friend
has not been taking the pills properly.
D. Missed period can be very dangerous and
may lead to the formation of precancerous cells.
37. The nurse assessing newborn babies and
infants during their hospital stay notice
which of the following symptoms as a
primary manifestation of Hirschsprungs
disorder?
A. A fine rash over the trunk
B. Failure to pass meconium during the first 24
hours after birth
C. The skin turns yellow and then brown over the
first 24 hours to 46 hours after birth.
D. High grade fever.
38. A client is 7 months pregnant and has just
been diagnosed as having a partial placenta
previa. She is able and has minimal spotting
and is being sent home. Which of these
instructions to the client may indicate a need
for further teaching?
A. Maintain bed rest with bathroom privileges
B. Avoid intercourse for three days
C. Call if contractions occur.
D. Stay on left side as much as possible when
lying down.
39. A woman has been rushed to the hospital
with ruptured membrane. Which of the
following should the nurse check first?
A. Check for the presence of infarction.
B. Assess for Prolapse of the umbilical cord

C. Check the maternal heart rate

D. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid
40. The nurse notes that the infant is wearing
a plastic-coated diaper. If a topical
medication were to be prescribed and it were
to go on the stomachs or buttocks, the nurse
would teach the caregivers to:
A. Avoid covering the area of the topical
medication with the diaper
B. Avoid the use of clothing on top of the diaper
C. Put the diaper on as usual
D. Apply an icepack for 5 minutes to the outside
of the diaper
41. Which of the following factors is most
important in determining the success of
relationships used in delivering nursing
care?
A. Type of illness of the client
B. Transference and countertransference
C. Effective communication
D. Personality of the participants
42. Grace sustained a laceration on her leg
from automobile accident. Why are
lacerations of lower extremities potentially
more serious among pregnant women than
other?
A. lacerations can provoke allergic responses
due to gonadotropic hormone release
B. a woman is less able to keep the laceration
clean because of her fatigue
C. healing is limited during pregnancy so these
will not heal until after birth
D. increased bleeding can occur from uterine
pressure on leg veins
43. In working with the caregivers of a client
with an cute or chronic illness, the nurse
would:
A. Teach care daily and let the caregivers do a
return demonstration just before discharge
B. Difficulty swallowing, diminished or absent
gag reflex and respiratory distress
C. Difficulty sleeping, hypervigilant and arching
of the back
D. Paradoxical irritability, diarrhea and vomiting
44. Which of the following roles BEST
exemplifies the expanded role of the nurse?
A. Circulating nurse in surgery
B. Medication nurse
C. Obstetrical nurse
D. Pediatric nurse practitioner

45. According to De Rosa and Kochuras

(2006) article entitled Implement Culturally
Health Care in your workplace, cultures
have different patterns of verbal and
nonverbal communication. Which difference
does NOT necessarily belong?
A. Personal behaviour
B. Eye contact
C. Subject Matter
D. Conversational style
46. You are the nurse assigned to work with a
child with acute glomerulonephritis. By
following the prescribed treatment regimen,
the child experiences a remission. You are
now checking to make sure the child does
not have a relapse. Which finding most lead
you to the conclusion that a relapse is
happening?
A. Elevated temperature, cough, sore throat,
changing complete blood count (CBC) with
differential count
B. A urine dipstick measurement of 2+
proteinuria or more for 3 days or the child found
to have 3-4+ proteinuria plus edema.
C. The urine dipstick showing glucose in the
urine for 3 days, extreme thirst, increase in urine
output and a moon face.
D. A temperature of 37.8 degrees (100 degrees
F) flank pain, burning frequency, urgency on
voiding and cloudy urine.
47. The nurse is working with an adolescent
who complains of being lonely and having a
lack of fulfilment in her life. This adolescent
shies away from intimate relationships at
times yet at other times she appears
promiscuous. The nurse will likely work with
this adolescent in which of the areas?
A. Isolation
B. Loneliness
C. Lack of fulfilment
D. Identity
48. The use of interpersonal decision making
psychomotor skills and application of
knowledge expected in the role of a
licensed healthcare professional in the
context of public health welfare and safety as
an example of?
A. Delegation
B. Supervision
C. Responsibility
D. Competence

49. The painful phenomenon known as back

labor occurs in a client whose fetus in what
position?
A. Brow position
B. Right occipito-Anterior Position
C. Breech position
D. Left occipito-Posterior Position
50. Focus methodology stands for?
A. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand and
Solution
B. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous, Utilize,
Substantiate
C. Focus, Organize, Clarify, Understand,
Substantiate
D. Focus, Opportunity, Continuous (process),
Understand, Solution
Situation 7: The infant and child mortality rate in
the low to middle income countries is ten times
higher than industrialized countries. In response
to this the WHO and UNICEF launched protocol
Integrated Management of Childhood Illness to
reduce the morbidity and mortality against
childhood illnesses.
51. If a child with diarrhea registers two signs
in the yellow row in the IMCI chart, we can
classify the patient as:
A. Moderate dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
52. Celeste has had diarrhea for 8 days.
There is no blood in the stool, he is irritable,
his eyes are sunken, the nurse offers fluid to
Celeste and he drinks eagerly. When the
nurse pinched the abdomen it goes back
slowly. How will you classify Celestes
Illness?
A. Moderate dehydration
B. Some dehydration
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
53. A child who is 7 weeks has had diarrhea
for 14 days but has no sign of dehydration is
classified as?
A. Persistent diarrhea
B. Severe dysentery
C. Dysentery
D. Severe Persistent diarrhea
54. The child with no dehydration needs
home treatment. Which of the following is not

included in the rules for home treatment in

this case?
A. Forced fluids
B. When to return
C. Give Vitamin A supplement
D. Feeding more
55. Fever as used in IMCI includes:
A. Axillary temperature of 37.5 or higher
B. Rectal temperature of 38 or higher
C. Feeling hot to touch
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
Situation: Prevention of Dengue is an important
nursing responsibility and controlling its spread
is priority once outbreak has been observed.
56. An important role of the community
health nurse in the prevention and control of
Dengue H-fever includes:
A. Advising the elimination of vectors by keeping
water containers covered
B. Conducting strong health education
drives/campaign directed toward proper garbage
disposal
C. Explaining to the individuals, families, groups
and community the nature of the disease and its
causation.
D. Practicing residual spraying with insecticides
57. Community health nurses should be alert
in observing a Dengue suspect. The
following is NOT an indicator for
hospitalization of H-fever suspects?
A. Marked anorexia, abdominal pain and
vomiting
B. Increasing hematocrit count
C. Cough of 30 days
D. Persistent headache
58. The community health nurses primary
concern in the immediate control of
hemorrhage among patients with dengue is:
A. Advising low fiber and non-fat diet
B. Providing warmth through light weight covers
C. Observing closely the patient for vital signs
leading to shock
D. Keeping the patient at rest.
59. Which of these signs may NOT be
REGARDED as a truly positive signs
indicative of Dengue H-fever?
A. Prolonged Bleeding Time
B. Appearance of at least 20 petechiae within 1
cm square

C. Steadily increasing hematocrit count

D. Fall in the platelet count
60. Which of the following is the most
important treatment of patients with Dengue
H-fever?
A. Give aspirin for fever
B. Replacement of body fluids
C. Avoid unnecessary movement
D. Ice cap over abdomen in case of melena
Situation 9: Health education and Health
Promotion is an important part of nursing
responsibility in the community. Immunization is
a form of health promotion that aims at
preventing the common childhood illnesses.
61. In correcting misconceptions and myths
about certain diseases and their
management, the health worker should first:
A. Identify the myths and misconceptions
prevailing in the community
B. Identify the source of these myths and
misconceptions
C. Explain how and why these myths came
about
D. Select the appropriate IEC strategies to
correct them.
62. How many percent of measles are
prevented by immunization at 9 months age?
A. 80 %
B. 90%
C. 99 %
D. 95 %
63. After TT3 vaccination a mother is said to
be protected to tetanus by around?
A. 80 %
B. 85 %
C. 99 %
D. 90 %
64. If ever convulsion occurs after
administering DPT, what should nurse best
suggest to the mother?
A. Do not continue DPT vaccination anymore
B. Advise mother to come back aster 1 week
C. Give DT instead of DPT
D. Give pertussis of the DPT and remove DT
65. These vaccines are given 3 doses at one
month intervals:
A. DPT, BCG, TT
B. DPT, TT, OPV
C. OPV, Hep. B, DPT
D. Measles, OPV, DPT

Situation 10: With the increasing documented

cases of CANCER the best alternative to
treatment still remains to be PREVENTION. The
following conditions apply.
66. Which among the following is the primary
focus of prevention of cancer?
A. Elimination of conditions causing cancer
B. Diagnosis and treatment
C. Treatment at early stage
D. Early detection
67. In the prevention and control of cancer,
which of the following activity is the most
important function of the community health
nurse?
A. Conduct community assemblies
B. Referral to cancer specialist those clients with
symptoms of cancer
C. Use the nine warning signs of cancer as
parameters in our process of detection; control
and treatment modalities.
D. Teach women about proper/correct nutrition.
68. Who among the following are recipients
of the secondary level of care for cancer
cases?
A. Those under early case detection
B. Those under supportive care
C. Those scheduled for surgery
D. Those under going treatment
69. Who among the following are recipients of
the tertiary level of care for cancer cases?
A. Those under early treatment
B. Those under supportive care
C. Those under early detection
D. Those scheduled for surgery
70. In Community Health Nursing, despite the
availability and use of many equipment and
devices to facilitate the job of the community
health nurse, the nurse should be prepared
to apply is a scientific approach. This
approach ensures quality of care even at the
community setting. This nursing parlance is
nothing less than the:
A. Nursing diagnosis
B. Nursing protocol
C. Nursing research
D. Nursing process
Situation 11 Two children were brought to you.
One with chest indrawing and the other had
diarrhea. The following questions apply:

71. Using Integrated Management and

Childhood Illness (IMCI) approach, how
would you classify the 1st child?
A. Bronchopneumonia
B. No pneumonia: cough or cold
C. Severe pneumonia
D. Pneumonia
72. The 1st child who is 13 months has fast
breathing using IMCI parameters he has:
A. 40 breaths per minute or more
B. 50 breaths per minute
C. 30 breaths per minute or more
D. 60 breaths per minute
73. Nina, the 2nd child has diarrhea for 5
days. There is no blood in the stool. She is
irritable and her eyes are sunken. The nurse
offered fluids and the child drinks eagerly.
How would you classify Ninas illness?
A. Some dehydration
B. Dysentery
C. Severe dehydration
D. No dehydration
74. Ninas treatment should include the
following EXCEPT:
A. Reassess the child and classify him for
dehydration
B. For infants under 6 months old who are not
breastfed, give 100-200 ml clean water as well
during this period.
C. Give in the health center the recommended
amount of ORS for 4 hours.
D. Do not give any other foods to the child for
home treatment
75. While on treatment, Nina 18 months old
weighed 18 kgs and her temperature
registered at 37 degrees C. Her mother says
she developed cough 3 days ago. Nina has
no general danger signs. She has 45
breaths/minute, no chest indrawing, no
stridor. How would you classify Ninas
manifestation.
A. No pneumonia
B. Severe pneumonia
C. Pneumonia
D. Bronchopneumonia
76. Carol is 15 months old and weighs 5.5
kgs and it is her initial visit. Her mother says
that Carol is not eating well and unable to
breastfeed, he has no vomiting, has no
convulsion and not abnormally sleepy or
difficult to awaken. Her temperature is 38.9

deg C. Using the integrated management of

childhood illness or IMCI strategy, if you were
the nurse in charge of Carol, how will you
classify her illness?
A. a child at a general danger sign
B. very severe febrile disease
C. severe pneumonia
D. severe malnutrition
77. Why are small for gestational age
newborns at risk for difficulty maintaining
body temperature?
A. their skin is more susceptible to conduction of
cold
B. they are preterm so are born relatively small
in size
C. they do not have as many fat stored as other
infants
D. they are more active than usual so they throw
off comes
78. Oxytocin is administered to Rita to
augment labor. What are the first symptoms
of water intoxication to observe for during
this procedure?
A. headache and vomiting
B. a swollen tender tongue
C. a high choking voice
D. abdominal bleeding and pain
79. Which of the following treatment should
NOT be considered if the child has severe
dengue hemorrhagic fever?
A. use plan C if there is bleeding from the nose
or gums
B. give ORS if there is skin petechiae, persistent
vomiting, and positive tourniquet test
C. give aspirin
D. prevent low blood sugar
80. In assessing the patients condition using
the Integrated Management of Childhood
Illness approach strategy, the first thing that
a nurse should do is to:
A. ask what are the childs problem
B. check the patients level of consciousness
C. check for the four main symptoms
D. check for the general danger signs
81. A child with diarrhea is observed for the
following EXCEPT:
A. how long the child has diarrhea
B. skin petechiae
C. presence of blood in the stool
D. signs of dehydration

82. The child with no dehydration needs

home treatment. Which of the following is
NOT included in the care for home
management at this case?
A. give drugs every 4 hours
B. continue feeding the child
C. give the child more fluids
D. inform when to return to the health center
83. Ms. Jordan, RN, believes that a patient
should be treated as individual. This ethical
principle that the patient referred to:
A. beneficence
B. nonmaleficence
C. respect for person
D. autonomy
84. When patients cannot make decisions for
themselves, the nurse advocate relies on the
ethical principle of:
A. justice and beneficence
B. fidelity and nonmaleficence
C. beneficence and nonmaleficence
D. fidelity and justice
85. Being a community health nurse, you
have the responsibility of participating in
protecting the health of people. Consider this
situation: Vendors selling bread with their
bare hands. They receive money with these
hands. You do not see them washing their
hands. What should you say or do?
A. Miss, may I get the bread myself because
you have not washed your hands
B. All of these
C. Miss, it is better to use a pick up forceps/
bread tong
D. Miss, your hands are dirty. Wash your hands
first before getting the bread
Situation 12: The following questions refer to
common clinical encounters experienced by an
entry level nurse.
86. A female client asks the nurse about the
use of cervical cap. Which statement is
correct regarding the use of the cervical cap?
A. It may affect Pap smear results
B. It does not need to be fitted by the physician
C. It does not require the use of spermicide
D. It must be removed within 24 hours
87. The major components of the
communication process are?
A. Verbal, written, and nonverbal
B. Speaker, Listener and reply
C. Facial expression, tone of voice and gestures

D. Message, sender, channel, Receiver and

Feedback
88. The extent of burns in children are
normally assessed and expressed in terms
of:
A. The amount of body surface that is unburned
B. Percentages of total body surface area
(TBSA)
C. How deep the deepest burns are
D. The severity of the burns on a 1 to 5 burn
scale
89. The school nurse notices a child who is
wearing old, dirty, poor-fitting clothes;
is always hungry; has no lunch money; and
is always tired. When the nurse asks the boy
his tiredness, he talks of playing outside until
midnight. The nurse will suspect that this
child is:
A. Being raised by a parent of low intelligence
(IQ)
B. An orphan
C. A victim of child neglect
D. The victim of poverty
90. Which of the following indicates the
type(s) of acute renal failure?
A. Four types: hemorrhagic with and without
clotting, and nonhemorrhagic with and without
clotting
B. One type: Acute
C. Three types: Prerenal, intrarenal, postrenal
D. Two types: Acute and subacute
Situation 13: Milo 16 y/o has been diagnosed to
have AIDS, he worked as entertainer in a cruise
ship:
91. Which method of transmission is
common to contract AIDS:
A. Syringe and needles
B. Body fluids
C. Sexual contact
D. Transfusion
92. Causative organism in AIDS is one of the
following:
A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. Retrovirus
D. Parasites
93. You are assigned in a private room of
Milo. Which procedure should be of utmost
importance:
A. Alcohol wash
B. Universal precaution

C. Washing isolation
D. Gloving technique
94. What primary health teaching would you
give to Milo?
A. Daily exercise
B. Prevent infection
C. Reversal Isolation
D. Proper nutrition
95. Exercise precaution must be taken to
protect health worker dealing with the AIDS
patients, which among these must be done
as priority?
A. Boil used syringes and needles
B. Use gloves when handling specimen
C. Label personal belonging
D. Avoid accidental wound
Situation 14: Michelle is a 6 year old preschooler.
She was reported by her sister to have measles
but she was at home because of fever, upper
respiratory problem and white sports in her
mouth.
96. Rubeola is an Arabic term meaning Red,
the rash appears on the skin in invasive
stage prior to eruption. As a nurse, your
physical examination must determine
complication especially:
A. Otitis media
B. Bronchial pneumonia
C. Inflammatory conjunctiva
D. Membranous laryngitis
97. To render comfort measure is one of the
priorities, which includes care of the skin,
eyes, ears, mouth and nose. To clean the
mouth, your antiseptic is in some form of
which one below?
A. Water
B. Sulfur
C. Alkaline
D. Salt
98. As a public health nurse, you teach
mother and family members the prevention of
complication of measles. Which of the
following should be closely watched?
A. Temperature fails to drop
B. Inflammation of the conjunctiva
C. Inflammation of the nasopharynx
D. Ulcerative stomatitis
99. Source of infection of measles is
secretion of nose and throat of infection
person. Filterable of measles is transmitted
by:

A. Water supply
B. Droplet
C. Food ingestion
D. Sexual contact
100. Method of prevention is to avoid
exposure to an infection person. Nursing

responsibility for rehabilitation of patient

includes the provision of:
A. Terminal disinfection
B. Injection of gamma globulin
C. Immunization
D. Comfort measures