Organizational Behavior Solution Manual

lOMoARcPSD
Solution Manual " Organizational Behavior " Robbins
Organisatiegedrag & Cultuur (Hogeschool Utrecht)
Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)
lOMoARcPSD
Chapter 1 What Is Organizational Behavior?

MULTIPLE CHOICE
1.
Successful managers and entrepreneurs recognize that:

a. technical knowledge is all that is needed for success.
b. interpersonal skills are not important.
c. technical skills are necessary, but insufficient, for succeeding in management.
d. an understanding of human behavior does not impact effectiveness
(c; Challenging; pp. 2-3)
What Managers Do
2.
Which one of the following is not considered an organization?

a. church
b. university
c. a military unit
d. all 45-year-old adults in a community
(d; Easy; p. 4)
3.
A(n) _____ is a consciously coordinated social unit, composed of two or more people, that functions on a
relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal or set of goals.
a. organization
b. unit
c. team
d. ethnic group
(a; Moderate; p. 4)
4.
The four management functions include all of the following except:

a. controlling.
b. planning.
c. staffing.
d. organizing.
(c; Moderate; p. 4)
5.
_____ includes defining an organizations goals and establishing an overall strategy for achieving these
goals and developing a comprehensive hierarchy of plans to integrate and coordinate activities.
a. Controlling
b. Planning
c. Leading
d. Coordinating
(b; Moderate; p. 4)
6.
The determination of how tasks are to be grouped is part of which management function?
lOMoARcPSD
a. planning
b. leading
c. controlling
d. organizing
(d; Easy; p. 4)
7.
The organizing function includes a determination of which of the following?

a. what tasks are to be done
b. who is to do these tasks
c. who reports to whom
d. all of the above
(d; Moderate; p. 4)
8.
Every organization contains people, and it is managements job to direct and coordinate these people.
This is the ______ function.
a. planning
b. leading
c. controlling
d. organizing
(b; Moderate; p.4)
9.
According to Henry Mintzberg, the ten managerial roles can be grouped into three categories. Which of
the following is not one of these groups?
a. concern with the interpersonal relationships
b. the transfer of information
c. decision making
d. liaison roles
(d; Challenging; Exh. 1-1; p. 6. )
10.
An example of Mintzbergs interpersonal management role is:

a. spokesperson.
b. leader.
c. negotiator.
d. monitor.
(b; Moderate; Exh. 1-1; p. 6)
11.
When a manager searches the organization and its environment for opportunities and initiates projects
to bring about change, the manager is acting in which role?
a. negotiator
b. entrepreneur
c. disturbance handler
d. resource allocator
(b; Challenging; Exh. 1-1; p. 6)
12.
Which of the following is not an essential management skill identified by Robert Katz?
a. technical
lOMoARcPSD
b. computer
c. human
d. conceptual
(b; Moderate; p. 5)
13.
When managers have the mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations, they possess:
a. technical skills.
b. computer skills.
c. human skills.
d. conceptual skills.
(d; Challenging; pp. 6-7 )
14.
Which one of the following would not be considered a human skill?

a. completing accounting reports
b. communicating
c. resolving conflicts
d. working as part of a team
(a; Moderate; pp 5-6)
15.
According to Luthans and his associates, which of the following is not considered a part of traditional
management?
a. interacting with outsiders
b. decision making
c. controlling
d. planning
(a; Moderate; p. 7)
16.
Which of Luthans managerial activities involves socializing, politicking, and interacting with outsiders?
a. traditional management
b. communication
c. human resource management
d. networking
(d; Challenging; p. 7 )
17.
According to Luthans, successful managers spent more of their time on _____ than on any other activity.
a. traditional management
b. human resource management
c. networking
d. communicating
(c; Challenging; p. 8)
18.
A common thread running through the functions, roles, skills, and activities approaches to management
recognizes the importance of:
a. managing technology.
b. managing people.
c. politicking.
lOMoARcPSD
d. being efficient.
(b; Moderate; p. 8)
Enter Organizational Behavior
19.
Organizational behavior is all of the following except:

a. a field of study.
b. an applied field.
c. an intuitive analysis of human behavior.
d. studying what people do in an organization.
(c; Moderate; p. 8)
20.
______ is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on
behavior within organizations for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an
organizations effectiveness.
a. Organizational development
b. Management
c. Organizational behavior
d. People management
(c; Easy; p. 8)
21.
Which of the following is not a core topic of organizational behavior?

a. motivation
b. attitude development
c. conflict
d. computers
(d; Easy; p. 8 )
22.
According to the text, the best approach for obtaining knowledge about human behavior is
a. the common sense approach.
b. an observational approach.
c. a systematic approach.
d. a theoretical approach.
(c; Easy; p. 10)
23.
A major theme in your textbook is that behavior is not:

a. caused.
b. random.
c. consistent.
d. predictable.
(b; Easy; p. 9)
24.
If we know how a person perceives a situation and what is important to him/her, then behavior is
generally
a. predictable.
b. predetermined.
c. uncontrollable.
d. controllable.
lOMoARcPSD
(a; Moderate; p. 9)
25.
Fundamental consistencies allow _____ of behavior.

a. observation
b. systematizing
c. research
d. predictability
(d; Moderate; pp. 9-10)
26.
Behavior is generally _____ and the _____ of behavior is a means to making reasonably accurate
predictions.
a. predetermined; observation
b. predictable; systematic study
c. controllable; theoretical application
d. uncontrollable; systematic study
(b; Moderate; p. 10)
27.
_____ includes analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing conclusions on
scientific evidence.
a. Organizational behavior
b. The observational approach to understanding organizational behavior
c. A theoretical approach to organizational behavior
d. A systematic study of organizational behavior
(d; Moderate; p. 10)
28.
In the study of OB, intuition is replaced by:

a. systematic study.
b. generalization.
c. listening.
d. prediction.
(a; Easy; p. 10)
Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field
29.
Organizational behavior is built upon contributions from all of the following disciplines except:
a. humanities.
b. psychology.
c. anthropology.
d. political science.
(a; Moderate; p. 11)
30.
The science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other
animals is:
a. psychiatry.
b. psychology.
c. sociology.
lOMoARcPSD
31.
Which behavioral science discipline has made the most significant contribution to understanding
individual behavior?
a. sociology
b. social psychology
c. psychology
d. anthropology
(c; Moderate; p. 12)
32.
The OB topic of motivation has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline?
a. psychology
b. social psychology
c. sociology
d. political science
33.
The most significant contribution to OB in the area of formal organization theory and structure has been
made by:
a. psychology.
b. sociology.
c. anthropology.
34.
_____ studies people in relation to their fellow human beings.

a. Psychology
b. Sociology
c. Anthropology
d. Political science
35.
The science that focuses on the influence of people on one another is:
a. psychology.
b. anthropology.
c. political science.
d. social psychology.
(d; Moderate; p. 12)
36.
One of the major areas receiving considerable investigation from social psychologists has been:
a. change.
b. motivation.
c. job satisfaction.
d. job stress.
(a; Challenging; p. 12 )
37.
The OB subject of organizational culture has been most influenced by which behavioral science
lOMoARcPSD
discipline?
a. anthropology
b. psychology
c. social psychology
d. political science
38.
_____ has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between
people in different countries.
a. Anthropology
b. Psychology
c. Social psychology
d. Political science
(a; Challenging; p. 12)
39.
Topics of study in political science include all of the following except:

a. structuring of conflict.
b. the social system in which individuals fill their roles.
c. allocation of power.
d. how people manipulate power for individual self interest.
(b; Challenging; p. 12)
There are Few Absolutes in OB
40.
Which of the following is the best description of OBs current state?

a. It is based on universal truths.
b. It is based on contingencies.
c. There is little disagreement among OB researchers and scholars.
d. Cause-effect principles have been isolated which tend to apply to all situations.
Challenges and Opportunities for OB
41.
Whereas _____ focuses on differences between people from different countries, _____ addresses
differences among people within given countries.
a. workforce diversity; globalization
b. globalization; workforce diversity
c. culture; diversity
d. culturization; workforce diversity
(b; Challenging; pp. 14-15)
42.
______ means that organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of gender, race, and
ethnicity.
a. Globalization
b. Workforce diversity
c. Affirmative action
d. Organizational culture
(b; Easy; p. 15)
43.
The ________ assumption is being replaced by one that recognizes and values _____.
lOMoARcPSD
a. melting pot; differences

b. melting pot; similarities
c. diversity; differences
d. heterogeneous; similarities
44.
Which of the following is not true?

a. Currently, 46 percent of the U.S. labor force are women.
b. Minorities and immigrants make up 23 percent of the workforce.
c. The male Caucasian working full time to support a non-employed wife and school-aged children is a
minority.
d. The proportion of minorities and women is shrinking.
(d; Challenging; p. 15)
45.
The implications of workforce diversity include all of the following except:

a. managers have to shift their philosophy from treating everyone alike to recognizing differences.
b. diversity training should be provided.
c. revamping benefit programs is needed to accommodate the different needs of different employees.
d. the same perceptions are used in decision making.
46.
_____ is a philosophy of management that is driven by the constant attainment of customer satisfaction
through the continuous improvement of all organizational processes.
a. MBO
b. Quality management
c. Reengineering
d. Organizational behavior
(b; Easy; p. 16)
47.
Quality management requires _____ employee involvement.

a. very little
b. occasional
c. extensive
d. no
48.
_____ asks managers to reconsider how work would be done and their organization structured if they
were starting over.
a. Process reengineering
b. MBO
c. TQM
d. Diversity training
(a; Easy; p. 16)
49.
Predictions suggest there will be a labor shortage for at least another:

a. 1-2 years.
b. 4-5 years.
lOMoARcPSD
c. 10-15 years.
d. 20-25 years.
(c; Moderate; p.17)
50.
The U.S. labor shortage is a function of:

a. birth rates and labor participation rates.
b. birth rates and mobility.
c. brain drain.
d. poor wages and benefits.
51.
Many employees have been led to retire early as a result of:

a. expanded Social Security benefits.
b. a healthy stock market.
c. improved pension plans.
d. all of the above
52.
The majority of employees today in developed countries work in:

a. manufacturing jobs.
b. service jobs.
c. MNCs.
d. government agencies.
53.
When managers put employees in charge of what they do, they are _____ the employees.
a. reengineering
b. empowering
c. diversifying
d. dehiring
54.
Managing today can be described as long periods of ongoing _____ interrupted occasionally by short
periods of _____.
a. change; stability
b. stability; change
c. flexibility; rigidity
d. rigidity; flexibility
55.
Which of the following has not contributed to blurring the lines between employees work life and
personal life?
a. the creation of global organizations
b. communications technology allowing employees to work any time and from any place
lOMoARcPSD
c. organizations asking employees to put in longer hours

d. fewer dual-income couples
(d; Easy; p. 20)
56.
Situations where an individual is required to define right and wrong conduct are termed:
a. diversity issues.
b. human resource problems.
c. ethical dilemmas.
d. loyalty oaths.
(c; Easy; p. 21)
Coming Attractions: Developing an OB Model
57.
A model is a(an):
a. abstraction of reality.
b. response that is affected by an independent variable.
c. independent variable.
d. real-world scenario.
(a; Easy; p. 22)
58.
Primary dependent variables in OB include:

a. productivity.
b. absenteeism.
c. job satisfaction.
d. all of the above
(d; Easy; p. 23)
59.
_____ is achievement of goals.

a. Efficiency
b. Effectiveness
c. Productivity
d. Motivation
(b; Easy; p. 23)
60.
Which of the following is an example of being an efficient company or employee?

a. operating a hospital at the lowest possible cost but still yielding a high profit
b. being the most pleasant real estate broker in the southeast
c. as a telemarketer, making the required number of calls at the end of the day
d. a sales person who acquires the most clients of anyone in the company
(a; Challenging; p. 23)
61.
Sears trained employees to improve the employee-customer interaction to ultimately:

a. generate additional revenue.
b. decrease returns.
c. improve repeat customer business.
d. none of the above
10
lOMoARcPSD
62.
_____ is discretionary behavior that is not part of an employees formal job requirement, but that
promotes the effective functioning of the organization.
a. Productivity
b. Motivation
c. Organizational citizenship
63.
Individual-level independent variables include:

a. technology.
b. organizational culture.
c. perception.
d. human resource policy.
(c; Moderate; pp. 25-26)
64.
________ is the voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organization.

a. Absenteeism
b. Turnover
c. Downsizing
d. Exit
(b; Easy; p. 24)
Chapter 14 Power and Politics
MULTIPLE CHOICE
A Definition of Power
1.
Power can be defined as _____.

a. the ability to influence the behavior of others
b. the actualization of the dependency of others
c. congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led
d. downward influence on ones followers
e. upward influence on ones leaders
(a; Moderate; Power; p. 451)
2.
Which one of the following is not implied in the definition of power?

a. influence
b. potential
c. dependency
d. actualization
e. capacity
(d; Moderate; Power; p. 451) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
3.
The most important aspect of power is probably that it _____.

a. is needed to get things done in an organization
b. is a function of dependency
c. tends to corrupt people
11
lOMoARcPSD
d. is counterproductive
e. involves control
(b; Easy; Power and Dependency; p. 451)
4.
Which of the following statements is true concerning power?

a. Trust and mistrust affect the expression of power.
b. A person can have power over you only if he or she controls something you desire.
c. Power requires some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led.
d. To be effective, power must be actualized.
e. In order to have power, a person must impose their control over others.
(b; Moderate; Power; p. 451)
Contrasting Leadership and Power
5.
Leaders achieve goals, and power is _____.

a. defined by leaders hopes and aspirations
b. usually used by poor leaders
c. a means of achieving goals
d. a goal in and of itself
e. a strong influence on leaders goals
(c; Easy; Leadership and Power; p. 451)
12
lOMoARcPSD
6.
Power does not require goal compatibility, merely _____.

a. reliance
b. communication
c. confidence
d. dependence
e. understanding
(d; Moderate; Power; p. 451)
7.
Leadership requires _____.

a. some congruence between the goals of the leader and those being led
b. strong two-way communication between the leader and those being led
c. a dependency of those being led on the leader
d. a dependency of the leader on those being led
e. followers to share behavioral traits with their leaders
(a; Moderate; Leadership; p. 451)
8.
Leadership focuses on the _____.

a. downward influence of a leader on his or her followers
b. importance of lateral and upward influence patterns
c. elimination of dependency relationships
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
9.
Leadership research emphasizes _____.

a. style
b. persuasion
c. power
d. communication
e. commitment
10.
Unlike leadership research, research on power tends to focus on _____.

a. individual styles in using power
b. strategies for goal attainment
c. tactics for gaining compliance
d. the administration of rewards
e. the effective use of threats
(c; Moderate; Power; p. 451)
Bases of Power
11.
The two general groupings of power are _____.

a. informational and personal
b. formal and informal
c. informal and legitimate
d. personal and formal
e. static and fluid
(d; Moderate; Bases of Power; p. 452) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
13
lOMoARcPSD
14
lOMoARcPSD
12.
_____ power is based on an individuals position in an organization.

a. Leadership
b. Formal
c. Informal
d. Influential
e. Static
(b; Easy; Formal Power; p. 452)
13.
Formal power can arise out of which of the following?

a. the ability to coerce or reward
b. formal authority
c. control of information
d. all of the above
(d; Moderate; Formal Power; p. 452)
14.
One reacts to _____ power out of fear of the negative ramifications that might result if one fails to
comply.
a. legitimate
b. coercive
c. punitive
d. referent
e. abusive
(b; Easy; Coercive Power; p. 452)
15.
When a bank robber points a gun at a bank employee, his base of power is _____.
a. coercive
b. punitive
c. positional
d. authoritative
e. fractional
(a; Moderate; Coercive Power; p. 452) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
16.
The opposite of coercive power is _____ power.

a. referent
b. reward
c. legitimate
d. charismatic
e. resourcive
(b; Easy; Reward Power; p. 452)
17.
When your superior offers you a raise if you will perform additional work beyond the requirements of
your job, he/she is exercising _____ power.
a. legitimate
b. coercive
c. reward
d. personal
e. reflective
(c; Easy; Reward Power; p. 452) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
15
lOMoARcPSD
16
lOMoARcPSD
18.
Legitimate power is based on _____.

a. positive rewards
b. interpersonal trust
c. structural position
d. expert knowledge
e. respect and admiration
(c; Moderate; Legitimate Power; p. 452)
19.
Which of the following types of power requires acceptance of the leaders authority by members of the
organization?
a. personal
b. organizational
c. legitimate
d. positional
e. balanced
(c; Moderate; Legitimate Power; p. 452)
20.
The power that the College Dean has been granted by the University over the faculty is termed _____
power.
a. academic
b. positional
c. legitimate
d. organizational
e. balanced
(c; Challenging; Legitimate Power; p. 452) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
21.
______ power is generally related to an individuals unique characteristics.

a. Personal
b. Reward
c. Legitimate
d. Expert
e. Idiosyncratic
(a; Moderate; Personal Power; p. 453)
22.
Personal power is generally perceived as a result of all the following except _____.
a. expertise
b. charisma
c. persuasiveness
d. admiration
e. skill
(c; Moderate; Personal Power; p. 453) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
23.
_____ power is based on identification with a person who has desirable resources or personal traits.
a. Associational
b. Legitimate
c. Referent
d. Personal
e. Source
(c; Moderate; Referent Power; p. 453)
17
lOMoARcPSD
18
lOMoARcPSD
24.
Your physician has advised you to take a series of medications. You comply because of her _____ power.
a. referent
b. information
c. formal
d. expert
e. personal
(d; Easy; Expert Power; p. 453) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
25.
Celebrities are paid millions of dollars to endorse products in commercials because the advertisers
believe the celebrities have _____ power.
a. personal
b. referent
c. expert
d. legitimate
e. star
(b; Moderate; Referent Power; p. 453) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Dependency: The Key to Power
26.
Dependency is inversely proportional to _____.

a. the level of an individuals personal power
b. the number of alternative sources of a particular resource
c. the type of informational analysis conducted in a situation
d. the financial resources required to solve a problem
e. a leaders influence over policy decisions
(b; Challenging; Dependency; p. 454) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Skills}
27.
Most organizations develop multiple suppliers rather than give their business to only one in order to
_____.
a. increase knowledge and information
b. reduce dependency
c. maximize power
d. develop interdependence
e. avoid uncertainty
(b; Challenging; Dependency; pp. 454454-455) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
28.
Dependency is decreased when the resource you control is _____.

a. important
b. scarce
c. easily replaced
d. insufficient
e. static
(c; Challenging; Creating Dependency; p. 455)
29.
Which of the following is least likely to create dependency?

a. importance
b. scarcity
c. nonsubstitutability
d. power legitimacy
19
lOMoARcPSD
e. supply and demand

(d; Moderate; Creating Dependency; pp. 455455-456) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
20
lOMoARcPSD
30.
People who are able to negotiate higher salaries and other benefits may benefit from the _____.
a. scarcity of individuals with their skills
b. nonsubstitutability of their skills
c. importance of their skills
d. all of the above
(d; Moderate; Creating Dependency; pp. 455455-456)
Power Tactics
31.
Power tactics can be defined as _____.

a. the only legitimate sources of power
b. techniques for translating power bases into specific action
c. strategies for gathering and maintain support
d. organizational structural characteristics
e. approaches for winning arguments
(b; Moderate; Power Tactics; p. 456)
32.
Which of the following is not considered to be a power tactic?

a. consultation
b. substitution
c. rational persuasion
d. ingratiation
e. enforcing legitimacy
(b; Moderate; Power Tactics;
Tactics; pp. 456456-457) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
33.
Joe comes to you with a request for funds for a project. He reminds you that company policy supports his
position. He is using the tactic of _____.
a. coalitions
b. consultation
d. legitimacy
e. pressure
(d; Moderate; Legitimacy; p. 456) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
34.
James approaches his supervisor with data and a logical presentation supporting his request for
additional personnel. He is using _____.
a. consultation
b. legitimacy
d. informational power
e. exchange
(c; Moderate; Rational Persuasion; p. 456) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
35.
Which of the following tactics involves involving an individual in the decision-making process?
a. ingratiation
b. exchange
c. pressure
d. inspirational appeals
21
lOMoARcPSD
e. consultation
(d; Moderate; Inspirational Appeals; p. 457)
22
lOMoARcPSD
36.
The power tactic of using flattery and creating goodwill before making a request is known as _____.
a. ingratiation
b. exchange
c. inspirational appeal
d. motivational appeal
e. affective appeal
(a; Easy; Ingratiation; p. 457)
37.
Vivian has not been handling one portion of her duties in a satisfactory manner. As a result, her manager
threatens to withhold her promotion. Which power tactic is being used?
a. exchange
b. ingratiation
c. pressure
d. personal appeals
e. inspirational appeals
(c; Easy; Pressure; p. 457) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
38.
Evidence suggests that ________ tends to be one of the most effective power tactics.
a. pressure or coercion
b. rational persuasion
c. personal appeals or friendship
d. exchange or rewards
e. flattery
(b; Moderate; Power Tactics; p. 457)
Sexual Harassment: Unequal Power in the Workplace
39.
Most studies confirm that the concept of _____ is central to understanding sexual harassment.
a. power
b. sex
c. reasonableness
d. abuse
e. love
(a; Moderate; Power and Sexual Harassment; p. 459)
40.
An individual could be subjected to sexual harassment perpetrated by ____.

a. a coworker
b. a supervisor
c. a subordinate
d. all of the above
(d; Easy; Sexual Harassment; pp. 459459-460)
Politics: Power in Action
41.
Activities that influence the distribution of advantages and disadvantages within an organization are
known as _____.
a. human resources
b. political behaviors
23
lOMoARcPSD
c. sexual harassment
d. influential power moves
e. interactive initiatives
(b; Moderate; Political Behavior; p. 461)
42.
Political behaviors usually _____.

a. lie outside of an individuals specified job requirements
b. are counterproductive to individual goals
c. are seen only in large organizations
d. are frowned upon by organizational leaders
e. are expect as part of each job requirement
(a; Moderate; Political Behavior; p. 461)
43.
Which of the following is a form of illegitimate political behavior?

a. bypassing the chain of command
b. forming coalitions
c. symbolic protests
d. excessive adherence to rules
e. complaining to supervisors
(c; Moderate; Illegitimate Political Behaviors; p. 462)
462)
44.
Most political activities in organizations would be described as _____ political behaviors.

a. functional
b. legitimate
c. illegitimate
d. professional
e. effective
(b; Moderate; Legitimate Political Behaviors; p. 462)
45.
_____ occurs when people within organizations use whatever influence they can to taint the facts to
support their goals and interests.
a. Legitimate political behavior
b. Politicking
c. Illegitimate political behavior
d. Sabotage
e. Camouflage
(b; Moderate; Politicking; p. 462)
46.
An individual most likely to engage in political behavior would have all of the following except a/an
_____.
a. high need for power
b. high ability to self monitor
c. high charisma rating
d. internal locus of control
e. high Machiavellian personality
(c; Moderate; Individual Factors That Influence Political Behavior; p. 464) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
47.
Which of the following does not describe high self-monitors?

a. The show greater sensitivity to social cues.
24
lOMoARcPSD
b. They possess an external locus of control.

c. They exhibit higher levels of social conformity.
d. They are more likely to be skilled in political behavior.
e. They believe that they can control their environment.
(b; Challenging; SelfSelf-Monitors; p. 464)
25
lOMoARcPSD
48.
Which of the following is not an individual factor related to political behavior?

a. organizational investment
b. perceived job alternatives
c. zero-sum reward practices
d. level of self-monitoring
e. expectations of success
(c; Moderate; Individual Factors That Influence Political Behavior;
Behavior; p. 464) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
49.
Which of the following is not true?

a. The more an organizations culture emphasizes zero-sum reward allocations, the more employees
will be motivated to engage in politicking.
b. The more pressure that employees feel to perform well, the more likely they are to engage in
politicking.
c. The more growth stability a company demonstrates, the more likely its employees are to engage in
politicking.
d. The greater the role ambiguity within a company, the more its employees can engage in political
activity with little chance of it being visible.
e. The greater the opportunity for promotion or advancement within a company, the more employees
will compete to positively influence outcomes.
(c; Challenging; Organizational Factors That Influence
Influence Political Behavior; p. 465) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
50.
Reactive and protective behaviors designed to avoid action, blame, or change are termed _____.
a. political behaviors
b. defensive behaviors
c. protectionism
d. impression management
e. shielding bias
(b; Moderate; Defensive Behaviors; p. 468)
51.
Individuals who develop explanations to lessen their responsibility for negative outcomes are
demonstrating which of the following defensive behaviors?
a. buffing
b. justifying
c. prevention
d. stretching
e. misrepresenting
(a; Challenging; Buffing; p. 468)
52.
The process by which individuals attempt to control the perceptions that others form of them is called
_____.
a. impression management
b. information management
c. defensive behavior
d. perception management
e. reflection control
(a; Easy; Impression Management; p. 469)
26
lOMoARcPSD
53.
Which of the following is not an example of an impression management technique?

a. admitting responsibility
b. capitulating
c. flattery
d. granting favors
e. ingratiating
(b; Moderate; Impression Management Techniques; p. 470) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
54.
Ive got two tickets to the game tonight that I cant use. Take them. Consider it a thank you for taking
the time to talk with me. This is an example of which impression management behavior?
a. favors
b. flattery
c. association
d. self-promotion
e. conformity
(a; Moderate; Favors; p. 470) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
55.
Some individuals promote their image by describing others with whom they are associated in a positive
light. These individuals are using the impression management technique of _____.
a. conformity
b. flattery
c. association
d. self-promotion
e. attribution denial
(c; Moderate; Association; p. 470)
Chapter 15 Conflict and Negotiation

Negotiation
MULTIPLE CHOICE
A Definition of Conflict
1.
If no one is aware of conflict, it is generally agreed that _____.

a. employee-employer relations will be good
b. conflict is subversive
c. no conflict exists
d. conflict is inevitable
e. conflict is psychologically driven as opposed to physically manifest
(c; Easy; Conflict; p. 485)
2.
Which of the following is not included in the definition of conflict?

a. perception
b. disruption of tasks
c. something that is cared about
d. negative effects
e. incompatibility
(b; Easy; Conflict; p. 485)
27
lOMoARcPSD
Transitions in Conflict Thought

3.
What is one of the views of conflict? .

a. the traditional view
b. the human interactions view
c. the relationist view
d. the functional view
e. the persuasive view
(a; Easy; Traditional
Traditional View of Conflict; p. 485) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
4.
The traditional view of conflict is the belief that conflict is _____.

a. harmful
b. natural
c. necessary
d. situationally-dependent
e. neutral
(a; Moderate; Traditional View of Conflict; p. 485)
5.
The traditional view of conflict argues that conflict _____.

a. cannot be avoided
b. helps to generate discussion
c. can be avoided
d. improves productivity
e. must be avoided
(e; Moderate; Traditional View of Conflict; p. 485)
28
lOMoARcPSD
6.
Which one of the following is not part of the traditional view of conflict?
a. inevitable
b. must be avoided
c. indicates malfunctioning
d. harmful
e. All of the above are parts of the traditional view of conflict.
(a; Easy; Traditional View of Conflict; p.
p. 485)
7.
The ______ view of conflict argues that conflict arises from management failure.
a. human relations
b. interactionist
c. traditional
d. functional
e. conjunctive
(c; Moderate; Traditional View of Conflict; p. 485)
8.
Which one of the following views on conflict dominates in most actual groups and organizations?
a. human relations
b. interactionist
c. traditional
d. functional
e. asymptotic
(c; Moderate; Traditional View of Conflict; p. 485)
9.
The _____ view of conflict argues that conflict is a natural and inevitable outcome in any group.
a. human relations
b. interactionist
c. traditional
d. functional
e. human resources
(a; Moderate; Human Relations View of Conflict; p. 486)
10.
The human relations view of conflict advocates _____ conflict.

a. encouraging
b. open communication for resolving
c. group therapy for resolving
d. acceptance of
e. rejection of
(d; Moderate; Human Relations View of Conflict; p. 486)
11.
According to the interactionists perspective, a group that functions without conflict is _____.
a. living up to behavioral ideals
b. prone to becoming static and apathetic
c. likely to be responsive to the need for change and innovation
d. the most productive
e. an rare phenomenon
(b; Moderate; Interactionist
Interactionist View of Conflict; p. 486)
29
lOMoARcPSD
12.
The _____ view of conflict argues that conflict is necessary for a group to perform effectively.
a. human relations
b. interactionist
c. traditional
d. functional
e. reactive
(b; Moderate; Interactionist View of Conflict;
Conflict; p. 486)
13.
Encouraging group leaders to maintain an ongoing minimum level of conflict is part of the _____ view of
conflict.
a. functional
b. traditional
c. human relations
d. interactionist
e. conjunctivist
(d; Moderate; Interactionist View of
of Conflict; p. 486)
14.
Which is not a type of conflict identified by the interactionist view?

a. task
b. organizational
c. relationship
d. process
e. institutional
(b; Easy; Interactionist View of Conflict; p. 486)
15.
_____ conflict supports the goals of the group and improves its performance.
a. Formal
b. Informal
c. Functional
d. Dysfunctional
e. Reactive
(c; Easy; Functional Conflict; p. 486)
16.
_____ conflict hinders group performance.

a. Formal
b. Informal
c. Functional
d. Dysfunctional
e. Reactive
(d; Easy; Dysfunctional Conflict; p. 486)
17.
Conflict is functional if it _____.

a. is accepted by all members of a group
b. is satisfying to the individual members of the group
c. causes group members to argue
d. causes turnover
(e; Moderate; Functional Conflict; p. 486)
486) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
30
lOMoARcPSD
18.
The most important criterion in determining whether conflict is functional or dysfunctional is _____.
a. overall morale
b. turnover rates
c. absenteeism levels
d. managements assessment
e. performance
(e; Moderate; Functional
Functional versus Dysfunctional Conflict; p. 486)
19.
Conflict that relates to the content and goals of work is termed _____ conflict.
a. job
b. task
c. relationship
d. process
e. communication
(b; Moderate; Process Conflict; p. 486)
20.
_____ conflict focuses on interpersonal interaction.

a. Task
b. Job
c. Relationship
d. Process
e. Communication
(c; Easy; Relationship Conflict; p. 486)
21.
_____ conflict relates to how the work gets done.

a. Task
b. Job
c. Relationship
d. Process
e. Reactive
(d; Easy; Process Conflict; p. 486)
486)
22.
_____ conflicts are almost always dysfunctional.

a. Task
b. Job
c. Relationship
d. Process
e. Personal
(c; Moderate; Relationship Conflict; p. 486)
23.
For process conflict to be productive, it must be _____.

a. kept high
b. kept low
c. kept at low-to-moderate levels
d. kept at moderate levels
e. subject to managerial control
(b; Moderate; Process Conflict; p. 486) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
31
lOMoARcPSD
24.
For task conflict to be productive, it should be _____.

a. kept high
b. kept low
c. kept at low-to-moderate levels
d. kept at moderate levels
e. subject to managerial control
(c; Moderate; Task Conflict; p. 486) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
The Conflict Process
25.
The first stage of the conflict process is termed _____.

a. cognition and personalization
b. behavioral manifestation
c. potential opposition or incompatibility
d. intention
e. habituation
(c; Easy; Potential Opposition or Incompatibility; p. 486)
26.
The categories of causes or sources of conflict include all of the following except _____.
a. communication
b. structure
c. group interaction
d. personal variables
e. All of the above are causes or sources of conflict.
(c; Moderate; Sources of Conflict; p. 487) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
27.
Which of the following is not considered one of the potential sources of conflict?
a. too much communication
b. jurisdictional ambiguity
c. value similarities
d. short job tenure
e. too little communication
(c; Moderate; Sources of Conflict; p. 487) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
28.
High job specialization can lead to _____ conflict.

a. communication
b. structural
c. personal-variable
d. job-related
e. team
(b; Moderate; Structure; p. 488)
29.
Stage II of the conflict process deals with conflict being _____.

a. perceived and felt
b. apparent and experienced
c. expressed and perceived
d. overt and covert
e. internalized
(a; Moderate; Perceived Conflict and Felt Conflict; p. 489)
32
lOMoARcPSD
33
lOMoARcPSD
30.
In which stage are conflict issues defined?

a. potential opposition
b. cognition and personalization
c. intuitions
d. behavior
e. reaction and transference
(b; Moderate; Cognition and Personalization; p. 489)
31.
_____ intervene(s) between peoples perceptions and their overt behavior.

a. Intuition
b. Intention
c. Cognition
d. Attributions
e. Attitudes
(b; Moderate; Intentions; p. 489)
489)
32.
In assessing intentions, cooperativeness is the degree to which _____.

a. one party attempts to satisfy the other partys concerns
b. one party attempts to resolve conflict
c. both parties work toward a common goal
d. there is an absence of conflict
e. one party can empathize with the other
(a; Moderate; Cooperativeness; p. 490)
33.
The dimension of assertiveness refers to situations _____.

a. in which one party attempts to satisfy his/her own concerns
b. in which there is an expression of competition
c. involving a major behavior change
d. that lead to conflict
e. in which one party behaves generously
(a; Moderate; Assertiveness; p. 490)
34.
Which is not one of the five conflict-handling intentions?

a. collaborating
b. competing
c. accommodating
d. avoiding
e. resisting
(e; Moderate; ConflictConflict-Handling Intentions; p. 490) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
35.
The conflict-handling intention of collaborating is _____.

a. assertive and uncooperative
b. assertive and cooperative
c. unassertive and uncooperative
d. unassertive and cooperative
e. affective and reflective
(b; Challenging; Collaborating; p. 490) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
34
lOMoARcPSD
36.
The conflict-handling intention of avoiding is _____.

e. assertive and reflective
(c; Challenging; Avoiding; p. 490) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
37.
The conflict-handling intention of accommodating is _____.

e. reflective and emotional
(d; Challenging; Accommodating; p. 490) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
38.
Which of the following conflict-handling orientations might involve attempting to find a win-win solution?
a. avoiding
b. collaborating
c. accommodating
d. compromising
e. mollifying
(b; Moderate; Collaborating; p. 490)
39.
Which type of conflict-handling intention results in a person seeking to suppress conflict?

a. competing
b. avoiding
c. accommodating
d. compromising
e. collaborating
(b; Easy; Avoiding; p. 490)
40.
When one party is willing to sacrifice in order to maintain the relationship, this type of intention is called
_____.
a. sacrificing
b. accommodating
c. collaborating
d. compromising
e. competing
(b; Easy; Accommodating; p. 490)
41.
In which stage of the conflict process does conflict become visible?

a. illumination
b. intentions
c. potential opposition or incompatibility
d. behavior
e. cognition and personalization
(d; Moderate; Behavior; p. 491) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
35
lOMoARcPSD
42.
Which stage of the conflict process is best conceptualized as a dynamic process of interaction?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
(d; Challenging; Behavior; p. 491) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
43.
Conflict management techniques can _____ conflict.

a. resolve
b. stimulate
c. lead to a higher probability of concurrent
d. both resolve and stimulate
(d; Easy; ConflictConflict-Management Techniques; p. 492)
44.
Which of the following is not a conflict-resolution technique?

a. creating superordinate goals
b. appointing a devils advocate
c. avoiding the conflict
d. exercising authoritative command
e. generating additional resources
(b; Moderate; ConflictConflict-Resolution
Resolution Techniques; p. 492) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
45.
Which of the following is a conflict-stimulation technique?

a. expansion of resources
b. compromise
c. bringing in outsiders
d. exercising authoritative command
e. problem solving
(c; Easy; ConflictConflict-Stimulation Technique; p. 492) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
46.
What is the overall goal of conflict management?

a. achieving the desired conflict level
b. resolving conflict
c. stimulating conflict
d. identifying conflict
e. assessing the source of conflict
(a; Moderate; Conflict Management; p. 492)
47.
Which one of the following might not be a functional outcome of the conflict process?
a. stimulates creativity
b. increases innovation
c. fosters environment of self-evaluation
d. relieves tensions
e. avoids risk
(e; Moderate; Functional Outcomes of the Conflict Process; pp. 492492-493) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
36
lOMoARcPSD
48.
Conflict is dysfunctional when it _____.

a. provides a medium to release tension
b. reduces group cohesiveness
c. fosters an environment of self-evaluation
d. provides a means for expressing frustration
e. leads to change
(b; Moderate; Dysfunctional Outcomes of the Conflict Process; p. 494) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Negotiation
49.
Negotiation can be defined as a process in which two or more parties exchange goods or services and
attempt to agree upon _____.
a. the exchange rate for those goods and services
b. acceptable bargaining strategies for obtaining the goods and services
c. a model of the negotiation process for resolving differences
d. effective arbitrators for disputes
e. the monetary value of the exchanged items
(a; Easy; Negotiation; p. 495)
50.
The terms negotiation and _____ are used interchangeably.

a. win-lose
b. bargaining
c. collaboration
d. accommodating
e. arbitration
(b; Easy;
Easy; Negotiation and Bargaining; p. 495)
51.
The two general approaches to bargaining are known as ________.

a. emotional and rational.
b. affective and reflective
c. distributive and integrative
d. formal and informal.
e. legal and restrictive.
(c; Moderate;
Moderate; Bargaining Strategies; p. 496) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
52.
_____ bargaining is negotiation that seeks to divide a fixed pie.

a. Distributive
b. Integrative
c. Reflective
d. Affective
e. Conjunctive
(a; Moderate; Distributive Bargaining;
Bargaining; p. 496)
53.
The example of labor-management negotiations over wages exemplifies _____ bargaining.

a. integrative
b. reflective
c. distributive
d. restrictive
e. affective
37
lOMoARcPSD
(c; Moderate; Distributive Bargaining; p. 496) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
38
lOMoARcPSD
54.
The focus of relationships in distributive bargaining is _____.

a. accommodation
b. the long term
c. the short term
d. win-win
e. lose-lose
(c; Moderate; Distributive Bargaining; p. 496)
55.
Integrative bargaining focuses on _____.

a. competition
b. short-term benefits
c. zero-sum gains
d. ensuring balanced inputs
e. long-term relationships
(e; Moderate; Integrative Bargaining; p. 496)
56.
The point below which either negotiating party would break off negotiations is known as the partys
_____ point.
a. resistance
b. refusal
c. target
d. negative
e. assistance
(a; Moderate; Resistance Point; p. 496)
57.
Which bargaining strategy is preferable for use in intra-organizational behavior?

a. positive negotiation
b. distributive bargaining
c. integrative bargaining
d. equal bargaining
e. equity splitting
(c; Moderate; Integrative Bargaining; p. 499)
58.
Which of the following is not a step in the negotiation process?

a. definition of ground rules
b. clarification and justification
c. bargaining and problem solving
d. process evaluation
e. preparation and planning
(d; Moderate; The Negotiation Process; pp. 499499-500) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
59.
Your _____ determines the lowest value acceptable to you for a negotiated agreement.
a. BATNA
b. margin of error
c. bid price
d. asking price
e. hidden value
(a; Moderate; BATNA; p. 500)
39
lOMoARcPSD
60.
During which phase of the negotiation process do the parties exchange their initial proposals or
demands?
a. opening and initiating
b. definition of ground rules
c. clarification and justification
d. bargaining and problem-solving
e. integration of preferences
(b; Easy; Definition of Ground Rules; p. 500)
61.
Which of the following is most likely to promote the success of mediation?

a. high motivation of the disputing parties
b. extensive experience of the mediator
c. high level of conflict intensity
d. shared perceptions of the mediator as coercive
e. shared perceptions of the mediator as biased
(a; Moderate; Mediation; p. 503) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
62.
Which of the following methods of third-party negotiation always results in a settlement?

a. mediation
b. consultancy
c. arbitration
d. conciliation
e. execution
(c; Easy; Arbitration; p. 504)
63.
What factor would most likely increase the negative impact of an arbitration session?
a. limited options of the arbitrator
b. heavy-handedness of the arbitrator
c. compulsory nature of the arbitration
d. voluntary nature of the arbitration
e. establishment of an agreement that is non-binding
(b; Moderate;
Moderate; Arbitration; p. 504)
64.
In third-party negotiations, a third party who provides an informal communication link between the
negotiator and the opponent is known as a(n) _____.
a. mediator
b. arbitrator
c. consultant
d. conciliator
e. executor
(d; Moderate; Conciliator; p. 504)
Chapter 16 Foundations of Organization Structure

MULTIPLE CHOICE
What is Organizational Structure?
1.
_____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated.
40
lOMoARcPSD
a. Organizational structure
b. Work specialization
c. Departmentalization
e. Matrix departmentation
(a; Easy; Organizational Structure; p. 519)
2.
Organizational structure has six key elements. Which of the following is not one of these elements?
a. centralization
b. departmentalization
c. work specialization
d. formalization
e. location of authority
(e; Moderate; Organizational Structure; p. 519) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
3.
Work specialization is the same as _____.

a. departmentalization
b. division of labor
c. decentralization
d. job grouping
e. chain command
(b; Easy; Work Specialization; p. 519)
4.
A task that is subdivided into many separate jobs is considered to have _____.
a. a high degree of departmentalization
b. a low degree of decentralization
c. a high degree of work specialization
d. a low degree of structure
e. a high degree of matrix structuring
(c; Challenging; Work Specialization; p. 519) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
5.
In the late 1940s, most manufacturing jobs in industrialized countries were being done with high _____.
a. departmentalization
b. decentralization
d. structuralization
e. generalized structure
(c; Moderate; Work Specialization; p. 519)
41
lOMoARcPSD
6.
For much of the first half of the 20th century, managers viewed work specialization as _____.
a. a means to encourage employee satisfaction
b. a frustrating cause of reduced product output
c. an unending source of increased productivity
d. difficult to implement without automation technology
e. an effective solution to over-centralization
(c; Moderate; Work Specialization; p. 520)
7.
The basis by which jobs are grouped together is termed _____.

a. social clustering
b. bureaucracy
c. specialization
d. centralization
e. departmentalization
(e; Easy;
Easy; Departmentalization; p. 521)
8.
Which one of the following is not one of the primary ways to group jobs?
a. skill
b. customer
c. function
d. product
e. process
(a; Moderate; Ways to Group Activities; pp. 521521-522) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
9.
One of the most popular ways to group activities is by _____.

a. product
b. function
c. geography
d. process
e. temporality
(b; Moderate; Function; p. 521)
10.
A plant manager who organizes the plant by separating engineering, accounting, manufacturing,
personnel, and purchasing into departments is practicing _____ departmentalization.
a. target customer
b. product
c. functional
d. geographic
e. graphic
(c; Moderate; Function; p. 521) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
11.
_____ departmentalization achieves economies of scale by placing people with common skills and
orientations into common units.
a. Functional
b. Process
c. Product
d. Geographic
e. Temporal
(a; Moderate; Function; p. 521)
42
lOMoARcPSD
43
lOMoARcPSD
12.
Proctor & Gamble departmentalizes by Tide, Pampers, Charmin, and Pringles. This is an example of
departmentalization by _____.
a. function
b. process
c. geography
d. product
e. interest
(d; Easy; Product; p. 521) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
13.
The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest echelon and
clarifies who reports to whom is termed _____.
a. chain of command
b. authority
c. span of control.
d. unity of command
e. web of authority
(a; Moderate; Chain of Command; p. 522)
14.
The right inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect orders to be obeyed is termed
_____.
a. chain of command
b. authority
c. power
d. unity of command
e. leadership
(b; Moderate; Authority; p. 522)
15.
The _____ principle helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority.
a. span of control
b. chain of command
c. cross-functionality
d. centralization
e. unity-of-command
(e; Moderate; UnityUnity-ofof-Command Principle; p. 522)
16.
The unity-of-command principle states which of the following?

a. Managers should limit their oversight to a maximum of 12 employees.
b. Managers should oversee 1 4 employees on average.
c. An individual should be directly responsible to only one supervisor.
d. Managers should provide direction to their employees in a unified fashion.
e. Employees should report directly to two supervisors to maintain task balance.
(c; Moderate; UnityUnity-ofof-Command Principle; p. 522)
17.
The _____ refers to the number of subordinates that a manager directs.

a. span of control
b. unity of command
c. chain of command
d. decentralization principle
e. leadership web
44
lOMoARcPSD
(a; Moderate; Span of Control; p. 523)
45
lOMoARcPSD
18.
Which of the following is a drawback of a narrow span of control? It _____.

a. reduces effectiveness
b. is more efficient
c. encourages overly tight supervision and discourages employee autonomy
d. empowers employees
e. increases participatory decision-making
(c; Moderate; Span of Control; pp. 523523-524) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
19.
Which of the following is not a drawback of a narrow span of control?

a. It is expensive.
b. It makes vertical communication in the organization more complex.
c. Supervisors may lose control of their employees.
d. It encourages overly tight supervision.
e. It helps increase organizational efficiency.
(c; Challenging; Span of
of Control; pp. 523523-524) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
20.
If you have a narrow span of control, you have a(n) _____ organization.
a. efficient
b. short
c. tall
d. matrix
e. fat
(c; Moderate; Span of Control; pp. 523523-524) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
21.
The trend in recent years has been toward _____.

a. narrower spans of control
b. wider spans of control
c. a span of control of four
d. an ideal span of control of six to eight
e. eliminating spans of control in favor of team structures
(b; Moderate; Span of Control; p. 524)
22.
_____ are consistent with recent efforts by companies to reduce costs, cut overhead, speed up decision
making, increase flexibility, get closer to customers, and empower employees.
a. Wider spans of control
b. Narrower spans of control
c. Matrix structures
d. Simple structures
(a; Moderate; Span of Control; p. 524)
23.
Which one of the following dichotomies of organizational structure specifically defines where decisions
are made?
a. complexity/simplicity
b. formalization/informalization
c. centralization/decentralization
d. specialization/enlargement
e. affectivity/reflexivity
(c; Moderate; Centralization and Decentralization; p. 524)
46
lOMoARcPSD
47
lOMoARcPSD
24.
The best definition for centralization is a situation in which decision making _____.
a. is pushed down to lower level employees
b. is concentrated at a single point in the organization
c. depends on the situation
d. is completed in each department and then sent to the president for review
e. is diffused among a large segment of employees
(b; Moderate; Centralization; p. 524)
25.
In an organization that has high centralization, _____.

a. the corporate headquarters is located centrally to branch offices
b. all top level officials are located within the same geographic area
c. action can be taken more quickly to solve problems
d. new employees have a great deal of legitimate authority
e. top managers make all the decisions and lower level managers merely carry out directions
(e; Moderate; Centralization; p. 524) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
26.
The more that lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make decisions,
the more _____ there is within an organization.
a. centralization
b. disempowerment
d. departmentalization
e. decentralization
(e; Moderate; Decentralization; p. 524) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
27.
If a job is highly formalized, it would not include which of the following?

a. clearly defined procedures on work processes
b. explicit job description
c. high employee job discretion
d. a large number of organizational rules
e. a consistent and uniform output
(c; Moderate; Formalization; pp. 524524-525) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
28.
Employee discretion is inversely related to _____.

a. complexity
b. standardization
c. specialization
d. departmentalization
e. empowerment
(b; Challenging; Formalization; p. 525) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Common Organizational Designs
29.
Which of the following is not a common organizational design?

a. simple structure
b. bureaucracy
c. centralized structure
d. matrix structure
48
lOMoARcPSD
(c; Moderate;
Moderate; Organizational Designs; p. 526) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
49
lOMoARcPSD
30.
_____ is characterized by a low degree of departmentalization, wide spans of control, authority

centralized in a single person, and little formalization.
a. Bureaucracy
b. Matrix organization
c. Simple structure
d. Team structure
e. Centralized structure
(c; Moderate; Simple Structure; p. 526)
31.
Which one of the following is consistent with a simple structure?

a. high centralization
b. high horizontal differentiation
c. high employee discretion
d. standardization
e. bureaucracy
(a; Moderate; Simple Structure; p. 526) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
32.
A ____ is a flat organization.

a. bureaucracy
a. centralized structure
b. matrix structure
c. all of the above
(e; Moderate;
Moderate; Simple Structure; p. 526)
33.
The simple structure is most widely practiced in small businesses in which _____.
a. the owner also manages the company
b. management is limited to one individual
c. managers have a high degree of influence with the companys owner
d. managers are hired directly by the companys owner
e. training budgets are limited
(a; Moderate; Simple Structure; p. 526)
34.
The key component underlying bureaucracies is _____.

a. flexibility
b. standardization
c. dual lines of authority
d. wide span of control
e. the organizational pyramid
(b; Easy; Bureaucracy; p. 527)
35.
A bureaucracy is characterized by all of the following except _____.

a. highly routine operating tasks
b. formalized rules and regulations
c. tasks that are grouped into functional departments
d. decentralized decision making
e. specialization
(d; Moderate; Bureaucracy; p. 527) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
50
lOMoARcPSD
36.
The strength of the simple structure lies in its _____.

a. efficiency
b. simplicity
c. centralization
d. span of control
e. specialization
(b; Easy; Bureaucracy; p. 527)
37.
Which of the following is not a weakness of the simple structure?

a. It is risky.
b. It is prone to information overload.
c. There is little unity of command.
d. It can lead to slower decision making.
e. It is often insufficient in larger organizations.
(c; Moderate; Bureaucracy; p. 528)
38.
The structure that creates dual lines of authority is the _____.

a. organizational structure
b. bureaucracy
c. matrix structure
d. virtual organization
e. simple structure
(c; Moderate; Matrix; p. 529)
39.
The matrix structure combines which two forms of departmentalization?

a. process and functional
b. functional and product
c. product and process
d. all of the above
(b; Moderate; Matrix; p. 529) {AACSB: Analytic
Analytic Skills}
40.
The _____ structure violates the unity of command concept.

a. simple
b. virtual
c. matrix
d. team
e. web
(c; Moderate; Matrix; p. 529)
41.
The strength of the matrix structure is its _____.

a. ability to facilitate coordination
b. economies of scale
c. adherence to chain of command
d. standardization
e. social empowerment
(a; Moderate; Matrix; p. 530)
51
lOMoARcPSD
42.
The major disadvantage of the matrix structure is _____.

a. the confusion it creates
b. its propensity to foster power struggles
c. the stress it places on individuals
e. all of the above
(e; Moderate; Matrix; p. 530)
43.
Which one of the following problems is most likely to occur in a matrix structure?
a. decreased response to environmental change
b. decreased employee motivation
c. loss of economies of scale
d. increases in groupthink
e. employees receiving conflicting directives
(e; Challenging; Matrix; p. 530)
New Design Options
44.
The virtual is also called the _____ or _____ organization.

a. network; modular
b. team; social
c. pyramid; multi-level
d. boundaryless; global
e. simple; unitary
(a; Moderate; Virtual Organization; p. 530)
45.
A small, core organization that outsources major business functions is a _____ organization.
a. team
b. virtual
c. boundaryless
d. matrix
e. simple
(b; Moderate; Virtual Organization; p. 530)
46.
The prototype of the virtual structure is todays _____.

a. appliance manufacturers
b. movie-making organizations
c. fast-food restaurants
d. architecture firms
e. simple organization
(b; Moderate; Virtual Organization; p. 530)
47.
The virtual organization stands in sharp contrast to the typical bureaucracy that has many vertical levels
of management and where control is sought through _____.
a. ownership
b. teams
c. imposing limits
d. directives
e. manipulation
52
lOMoARcPSD
(a; Moderate; Virtual Organization; p. 532)
53
lOMoARcPSD
48.
The major advantage of the virtual organization is its _____.

a. control
b. predictability
c. flexibility
d. empowerment
e. complexity
(c; Moderate; Virtual Organization;
Organization; p. 532)
49.
The boundaryless organization relies heavily on _____.

a. information technology
b. efficient chains of command
c. the simple structure
d. the matrix structure
e. departmentalization
(a; Moderate; Boundaryless Organization; pp. 532532-533) {AACSB: Use of IT}
IT}
Why Do Structures Differ?
50.
The _____ is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited

information network, and centralization.
a. mechanistic model
b. organic model
c. traditional model
d. bureaucracy organization
e. simple structure
(a; Moderate; Mechanistic Model; p. 534)
51.
If there is low formalization, a comprehensive information network, and high participation in decision
making, one would expect a(n) _____ structure.
a. simple
b. mechanistic
c. organic
d. stable
e. matrix
(c; Moderate; Organic Model; p. 534)
52.
All of the following are characteristics of the organic model except _____.
a. cross-functional teams
b. narrow spans of control
c. cross-hierarchical teams
d. employee discretion
e. flatness
(b; Moderate; Organic Model; p. 534) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
53.
Which of the following is not a determinant of an organizations structure?

a. strategy
b. organization size
c. size of revenues
d. technology
54
lOMoARcPSD
e. All of the above are determinants of an organizations structure.

534--537) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
(c; Moderate; Determinants of an Organizations Structure; pp. 534
55
lOMoARcPSD
54.
A strategy that emphasizes the introduction of major new products and services is a(n) _____ strategy.
a. innovation
b. enhancement
c. progressive
d. organic
e. matrix
(a; Moderate; Innovation Strategy; p. 535)
55.
The innovation strategy is characterized by _____.

a. unorthodox structures
b. a mixture of loose and tight properties
c. low specialization and low formalization
d. high technology
e. simple structure
(c; Moderate; Innovation Strategy; p. 535)
56.
A company oriented around cost minimization is best served by which type of structure?
a. virtual
b. combination
c. mechanistic
d. organic
e. targeted
(c; Moderate; StrategyStrategy-Structure Relationship; p. 535)
57.
_____ refers to how an organization transfers its inputs into outputs.

a. Production
b. Technology
c. Operations
d. Process
e. Effectiveness
(b; Challenging; Technology; p. 536) {AACSB: Use of IT}
58.
Which of the following is not part of an organizations environment?

a. public pressure groups
b. customers
c. personnel
d. competitors
e. the media
(c; Moderate; Environment; p. 537) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
59.
Several key dimensions to any organizations environment have been found. Which of the following is
one of these key dimensions?
a. productivity
b. complexity
c. interdependence
d. alignment
e. collaboration
(b; Moderate; Key Dimensions to an Organizational Environment; p. 537) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
56
lOMoARcPSD
60.
The _____ of an environment refers to the degree to which it can support growth.
a. capacity
b. qualifications
c. potential
d. capability
e. permeability
(a; Moderate; Capacity; p. 537)
61.
Volatility refers to the degree of _____ within an environment.

a. support
b. instability
c. flexibility
d. resources
e. pressures
(b; Moderate; Volatility; p. 537)
62.
The _____ of an environment refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among
environmental elements.
a. density
b. simplicity
c. complexity
d. intricacy
e. permeability
(c; Moderate; Complexity; p. 537)
Organization Designs and Employee Behavior
63.
Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures and employee performance and
satisfaction is most accurate?
a. There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction.
b. No evidence supports a relationship between span of control and employee performance.
c. The evidence generally indicates that work specialization contributes to lower employee productivity.
d. Employees dislike routine work that makes minimal intellectual demands.
e. Large spans of control provide more distant supervision, thereby increasing employee productivity.
(b; Challenging; Span of Control and Employee Satisfaction;
Satisfaction; p. 539) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Chapter 17 Organizational Culture
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Institutionalization: A Forerunner of Culture
1.
When an organization takes on a life of its own, we can say that it has _____.
a. acquired a culture
b. developed subcultures
c. evolved
d. become immortal
e. become institutionalized
(e; Moderate; Institutionalization; p. 551)
57
lOMoARcPSD
2.
Which of the following is not true about institutionalization?

a. It operates to produce common understandings about appropriate behavior.
b. Acceptable modes of behavior become largely self-evident to its members.
c. It means the organization has acquired immortality.
d. The organizations mission becomes stable.
e. The organization becomes valued for itself.
(d; Challenging; Institutionalization;
Institutionalization; p. 551) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
What Is Organizational Culture?
3.
_____is a shared system of meaning held by the organizations members that distinguishes the
organization from other organizations.
a. Institutionalization
b. Organizational culture
c. Socialization
d. Formalization
e. Corporate image
(b; Easy; Organizational Culture; p. 551)
4.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?

a. attention to detail
b. innovation
c. formality orientation
d. team orientation
e. outcome orientation
(c; Moderate; Characteristics of an Organizational Culture; pp. 551551-552) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
5.
The key characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which employees are
expected to exhibit precision is termed _____.
a. accuracy orientation
b. accountability
c. attention to detail
d. stability
e. reactivity
(c; Easy; Attention to Detail; p. 551)
58
lOMoARcPSD
6.
_____ orientation is the characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which
management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization.
a. Humanistic
b. Community
c. Team
d. People
e. Relationship
(d; Moderate; People Orientation; p. 552)
7.
The key characteristic of organizational culture that addresses the degree to which people are
competitive rather than easygoing is termed _____.
a. assertiveness
b. competitiveness
c. aversiveness
d. risk taking
e. aggressiveness
(e; Moderate; Aggressiveness; p. 552)
8.
The key characteristic of organizational culture that assesses the degree to which organizational
activities emphasize maintaining the status quo in contrast to growth is termed _____.
a. permanence
b. aggressiveness orientation
c. stability
d. competitiveness
e. reflexivity
(c; Easy; Stability; p. 552)
9.
In contrasting organizational culture with job satisfaction, organizational culture is a(n) _____ term, while
job satisfaction is a(n) _____ term.
a. predictive; reactive
b. implied; stated
c. reflective; affective
d. descriptive; evaluative
e. inductive; deductive
(d; Moderate; Organizational Culture and Job Satisfaction; p. 552) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
10.
The macro view of culture that gives an organization its distinct personality is its _____ culture.
a. dominant
b. subc. strong
d. national
e. marginal
(a; Easy; Dominant Culture; p. 553)
11.
A dominant culture is _____.

a. the sum of an organizations subcultures
b. defined by the leader of an organization
c. synonymous with an organizations culture
d. usually a strong culture
59
lOMoARcPSD
e. likely to be a weak culture

(c; Moderate; Dominant Culture; p. 553)
60
lOMoARcPSD
12.
Cultures within an organization that are defined by departmental designations are often called _____.
a. micro-cultures
b. subcultures
c. divisional cultures
d. microcosms
e. counter cultures
(b; Moderate; Subcultures; p. 554)
13.
Which characteristic is not reflective of subcultures?

a. includes core values of the organization
b. typically defined by department designations
c. includes values shared only within the organization
d. usually defined by geographical separation
e. includes values unique to members of a department or group
(c; Moderate; Subcultures; pp. 553553-554) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
14.
The primary or dominant values that are accepted throughout the organization are known as _____.
a. foundational values
b. core values
c. shared values
d. institutional traits
e. manifestos
(b; Easy; Core Values; p. 554)
15.
Which of the following terms is part of the definition of a strong culture?

a. little influence over members behavior
b. low behavioral controls
c. narrowly shared values
d. intensely held values
e. weakly held values
(d; Easy; Strong Cultures; p. 554)
16.
_____ are indicators of a strong organizational culture.

a. High levels of dissention
b. Weak managers
c. Completely horizontal organizational charts
d. Narrowly defined roles
e. Widely shared values
(e; Easy; Strong Cultures; p. 554)
17.
Which of the following is most likely to result from a strong organizational culture?
a. low employee turnover
b. low employee satisfaction
c. high employee turnover
d. high absenteeism
(a; Moderate; Strong Cultures; p. 554)
61
lOMoARcPSD
18.
The unanimity of a strong culture contributes to all of the following except _____.
a. cohesiveness
b. loyalty
c. higher product quality
d. organizational commitment
e. close ties between workers within the organization
(c; Moderate; Strong Cultures; p. 554) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Skills}
19.
A strong culture can act as a substitute for which of the following?

a. institutionalization
b. formalization
c. socialization
d. organizational rules
e. social support
(b; Moderate; Strong Culture versus Formalization; p. 554)
20.
High formalization in an organization creates all of the following except _____.

a. predictability
b. cohesiveness
c. orderliness
d. consistency
(b; Moderate; Formalization; p. 554) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
What Do Cultures Do?

21.
Culture performs all the following functions except _____.

a. displaying the dominance of particular organizations
b. enhancing social system stability
c. conveying a sense of identity for organization members
d. facilitating commitment to something larger than individual self-interest
e. defining boundaries
(a; Easy; Cultures Functions; p. 555) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
22.
As organizations have widened spans of control, flattened structures, introduced teams, reduced
formalization, and empowered employees, the _____ provided by a strong culture ensures that everyone
is pointed in the same direction.
a. rules and regulations
b. shared meaning
c. rituals
d. socialization
e. rigid hierarchy
(b; Challenging; Cultures Functions; p. 556)
23.
Culture may be a liability because it is a barrier to _____.

a. change
b. diversity
c. mergers and acquisitions
d. all of the above
62
lOMoARcPSD

(d; Moderate; Culture as a Liability; p. 557)
63
lOMoARcPSD
24.
Culture is most likely to be a liability when _____.

a. it increases the consistency of behavior
b. the organizations environment is dynamic
c. the organizations management is ineffectual
d. it reduces ambiguity
e. countercultures are integrated into the dominant cultures
(b; Moderate; Barriers to Change; p. 557)
25.
Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces _____.

a. a dynamic environment
b. an unknown environment
c. social upheaval
d. massive changes
e. a stable environment
(e; Moderate; Barriers to Change; p. 557)
26.
In recent years, _____ has become the primary concern in acquisitions and mergers.
a. cultural compatibility
b. cultural synergy
c. financial advantages
d. product synergy
e. value dominance
(a; Moderate; Barriers to Acquisitions and Mergers; p. 557)
Creating and Sustaining Culture

27.
The ultimate source of an organizations culture is _____.

a. top management
b. the environment
c. the country in which the organization operates
d. the organizations founders
e. the belief systems of it employees
(d; Moderate; Culture Creation; p. 558)
28.
Culture creation occurs in all of the following ways except when _____.
a. founders hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do
b. founders indoctrinate and socialize employees to their way of thinking and feeling
c. founders develop their vision covertly
d. founders behavior acts as a role model
e. founders refuse to be constrained by previous ideologies
(c; Moderate; Culture Creation; p. 558) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
29.
All of the following are factors that serve to sustain organizational cultures except _____.
a. selection
b. orientation
c. socialization
d. top management
e. frugality
(e; Moderate; Sustaining a Culture; p. 559) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
64
lOMoARcPSD
65
lOMoARcPSD
30.
The selection process helps sustain the organizations culture by _____.

a. establishing and enforcing norms
b. ensuring that candidates fit well within the organization
c. socializing the applicant
d. identifying individuals who have the skills to perform certain jobs
e. rewarding conformity
(b; Moderate; Selection; p. 559)
31.
The selection process helps candidates learn about an organization. If employees perceive a conflict
between their values and those of the organization, this gives them a chance to _____.
a. work to change the organization
b. express their concerns
c. inform the organization of appropriate changes
d. self-select out of the applicant pool
e. rectify their cognitive dissonance
(d; Moderate; Selection; p. 560)
32.
Top management has a major impact on the organizations culture through _____.
a. establishing norms that filter down through the organization
b. ensuring a proper match of personal and organizational values
c. socializing new applicants in the pre-hiring phase
d. providing a framework for metamorphosis of new hires
e. properly rewarding managements initiatives
(a; Moderate; Top Management; p. 560)
33.
The process through which employees are adapted to an organizations culture is called _____.
a. personalization
b. mentoring
c. socialization
d. institutionalization
e. intimidation
(c; Moderate;
Moderate; Socialization; p. 561)
34.
Which of the following is not a stage of the socialization process?

a. prearrival
b. encounter
c. metamorphosis
d. ritual
(d; Moderate; Stages of Socialization; p. 561) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
35.
The correct order for the stages of the socialization process is _____.
a. prearrival, metamorphosis, encounter
b. prearrival, encounter, ritual
c. prearrival, ritual, encounter
d. prearrival, encounter, metamorphosis
e. prearrival, ritual, arrival
(d; Moderate; Stages of Socialization; p. 561) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
66
lOMoARcPSD
36.
The socialization stage that encompasses the learning that occurs before a new member joins an
organization is known as_____ socialization.
a. prearrival
b. encounter
c. metamorphosis
d. ritual
e. systemic
(a; Easy; Prearrival Stage; p. 561)
37.
The employee compares her expectations to organizational reality in which stage of socialization?
a. prearrival
b. encounter
c. metamorphosis
d. ritual
e. analysis
(b; Moderate;
Moderate; Encounter Stage; p. 561)
38.
If there is a basic conflict between the individuals expectations and the reality of working in an
organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during which stage of socialization?
a. prearrival
b. ritual
c. encounter
d. metamorphosis
e. reflection
(c; Easy; Encounter Stage; p. 562)
39.
The time when a new employee sees what the organization is really like and realizes that expectations
and reality may diverge is called the _____ stage.
a. encounter
b. exploration
c. establishment
d. metamorphosis
e. mirroring
(a; Moderate; Metamorphosis Stage; p. 562)
40.
Employee attitudes and behavior change during the _____ stage of socialization.
a. establishment
b. transformation
c. encounter
d. metamorphosis
e. cocoon
(d; Easy; Metamorphosis Stage; p. 562)
41.
New employees are usually comfortable with their organizations by the end of the _____ stage of
socialization.
a. encounter
b. exploration
c. establishment
d. metamorphosis
67
lOMoARcPSD
e. adaptation
(d; Moderate; Metamorphosis Stage; p. 562)
68
lOMoARcPSD
How Employees Learn Culture

42.
Which of the following is not a means of transmitting culture within an organization?

a. stories
b. aversion therapy
c. rituals
d. language
e. material symbols
(b; Easy; Transmitting
Transmitting Culture; p. 564)
43.
_____ typically contain(s) a narrative of events about the organizations founders, rule breaking, or
reactions to past mistakes.
a. Stories
b. Material symbols
c. Rituals
d. Language
e. Reflections
(a; Easy; Stories; p. 564)
44.
Which one of the following terms is not a component of rituals?

a. material symbols
b. sequenced activities
c. repetition
d. key values
e. reinforcement
(a; Moderate; Rituals; p. 564) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
45.
Rituals perform all of the following functions except that of _____.

a. reinforcing the key values of the organization
b. emphasizing the organizations goals
c. revealing the companys bottom line in terms of net profit
d. reinforcing the companys perspective on which people are important
e. revealing the companys view of which people are expendable
(b; Easy; Rituals; p. 564) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
46.
All of the following are examples of rituals except _____.

a. anniversary parties honoring long-time employees
b. annual award meetings
c. fraternity initiations
d. the placement of offices within corporate headquarters
e. singing company songs
(d; Moderate; Rituals; p. 564) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
47.
All of the following are examples of material symbols except _____.

a. top executives use of the company jet
b. a swimming pool for the employees to use
c. new employee orientations
d. luxury cars for executives
e. private parking spots
69
lOMoARcPSD
(c; Moderate; Material Symbols; pp. 564564-565) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
70
lOMoARcPSD
Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture

48.
An organizational culture most likely to shape high ethical standards is one that _____.
a. is high in risk tolerance
b. is low-to-moderate in aggressiveness
c. focuses on means as well as outcomes
d. all of the above
(d; Moderate;
Moderate; Ethical Organizational Culture; p. 566) {AACSB: Ethical Reasoning}
49.
To create a more ethical culture, management should do all of the following except _____.
a. serve as a visible role model
b. cover up unethical acts
c. provide ethical training
d. communicate ethical expectations
e. provide protective mechanisms
(b; Easy; Creating an Ethical Organizational Culture; p. 567) {AACSB: Ethical Reasoning} {AACSB: Analytic
Skills}
Creating a Positive Organizational Culture
50.
What does a positive organizational culture do?

a. uses positive reinforcement instead of punishment
b. rarely uses rewards
c. emphasizes individual growth
d. emphasizes building on the organizations strengths
e. emphasizes organizational vitality
(c; Moderate; Creating a Positive Organizational Culture; p. 567)
Spirituality and Organizational Culture

51.
Organizations that promote a spiritual culture _____.

a. have organized religious practices
b. adopt a corporate religion
c. recognize that people have both a mind and a spirit
d. de-emphasize community in the work place
e. tend to downplay the importance of employee satisfaction
(c; Moderate; Workplace Spirituality and Organizational Culture; p. 570)
Global Implications
52.
How might U.S, managers be culturally sensitive?

a. discuss religion more
b. discuss politics frequently
c. listen more
d. speak quickly
e. talk in a high tone of voice
(c; Moderate; Workplace Spirituality and Organizational Culture; p. 573) {AACSB: Analytic Skills} {AACSB:
Multicultural and Diversity}
71
lOMoARcPSD
Chapter 18 Human Resource Policies and Practices

MULTIPLE
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Selection Practices
1.
Which of the following is not a typical written test used in organizations?

a. intelligence
b. integrity
c. personality
d. aptitude
e. work sample
(e; Easy; Written Tests; p. 587) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
2.
Between the late 1960s and the mid-1980s, the use of written tests declined because they were
characterized as _____.
a. unprofessional
b. discriminatory
c. unreliable
d. invalid
e. mathematically flawed
(b; Moderate; Written Tests; p. 587)
3.
Which of the following has proven to be a particularly good predictor for jobs that require cognitive
complexity?
a. intelligence tests
b. integrity evaluations
c. work sampling
d. aptitude tests
e. behavioral assessment
(a; Moderate; Intelligence Tests; p. 587)
4.
The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by _____.
a. using the interview process
b. using a written test
c. having them spend a day in the office
d. administering an IQ test
e. using a performance simulation test
(e; Easy; PerformancePerformance-Simulation
Simulation Tests; p. 588)
5.
Having individuals actually do the job they are applying for as a test to see if they can do it is _____.
a. an approach with low reliability
b. an approach with high face validity
72
lOMoARcPSD
c. an informal means of screening candidates

d. all of the above
(b; Moderate; PerformancePerformance-Simulation Tests; p. 588) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
73
lOMoARcPSD
6.
Hands-on simulation of part of a job is known as a _____.

a. practical assessment
b. performance-simulation interview
c. job simulation assessment
d. work sample
e. behavioral role exposition
(d; Moderate; Work Sample Tests; p. 588)
7.
Work sample tests are widely used in hiring _____.

a. unskilled labor
b. skilled workers
c. professional workers
d. managers
e. knowledge workers
(b; Moderate; Work Sample Tests; p. 588)
8.
_____ yield validities superior to written aptitude and personality tests.

a. Work samples
b. Behavioral structured interviews
c. Integrity tests
d. Interest tests
e. Ethics tests
(a; Moderate; Work Sample Tests; p. 588)
9.
Elaborate sets of performance simulation tests, specifically designed to evaluate a candidates

managerial potential, are _____.
a. more effective than work sampling
b. administered in assessment centers
c. similar to personality tests
d. considered drawbacks of some management development programs
e. likely to skew the results of behavioral samples
(b; Moderate; Assessment Centers; p. 588) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
10.
Assessment centers are used specifically to evaluate what level of job candidate?
a. unskilled laborers
b. skilled workers
c. professional workers
d. supervisors
e. knowledge workers
(d; Easy; Assessment Centers; p. 588)
11.
The results of which of the following tend to have a disproportionate amount of influence on employee
selection decisions?
a. interviews
b. written tests
c. performance simulation tests
d. work sampling methods
e. personality tests
(a; Moderate; Interviews; p. 588)
74
lOMoARcPSD
75
lOMoARcPSD
12.
The unstructured interview is _____.

a. usually made up of random questions
b. typically biased
c. often only modestly related to future job performance
d. all of the above
(d; Moderate; Unstructured Interviews; p. 588)
13.
The variability in interview results across an applicant pool is reduced by using a standardized_____.
a. approach for recruiting applicants
b. pool of applicants
c. set of interview questions
d. time frame for scheduling interviews
(c; Easy; Interviews; p. 589)
14.
Which of the following is true regarding behavioral structured interviews?

a. They are conducted in a similar manner as audition-type interviews.
b. They decrease an interviewers reliance on his or her gut feelings.
c. They are most useful when interviewing high-performing workers.
d. They are useful only for interviewing non-skilled workers.
e. They increase the effectiveness of the interview technique.
(e; Moderate; Behavioral Structured Interviews; p. 589) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
15.
Applicants describe how they handled problems and situations in previous jobs in a(n) _____ interview.
a. behavioral structured
b. audition-type
c. performance-simulation
d. problem-solving
e. reflection
(a; Challenging; Behavioral Structured Interviews; p. 589)
16.
The behavioral structured interview is built on the assumption that _____.

a. past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior
b. technical knowledge and skills are the best predictor of job performance
c. personality is the best predictor of job performance
d. personality and mood are highly correlated
e. technical knowledge and mood are highly correlated
(a; Moderate; Behavioral Structured Interviews; p. 589) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
17.
In practice, organizations use interviews _____.

a. to determine applicant-organization fit
b. solely to assess specific, job relevant skills
c. to manipulate an applicants image of the company
d. to assess a candidates credit history
(a; Moderate; Interviews; p. 589)
76
lOMoARcPSD
18.
What is a common contingent selection method?

a. IQ test
b. interview
c. interest inventory
d. drug test
e. work sample test
(d; Moderate; Contingent Selection; p. 589) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
19.
What is an argument against drug testing?

a. Drug tests screen out individuals who use marijuana and alcohol.
b. Drug use is a private matter.
c. Drug tests are costly in terms of peoples safety.
d. Drug tests are generally inaccurate.
e. The results of drug tests are easily faked.
(b; Moderate; Contingent Selection; p. 590) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Training and Development Programs
20.
Which type of skill training has become increasingly important in organizations?

a. financial
b. technical
c. problem solving
d. interpersonal
e. social
(b; Moderate; Technical Skills; p. 591)
21.
Training employees on how to be better listeners falls under which of the following training categories?
a. ethical skills
b. technical skills
c. problem-solving skills
d. interpersonal skills
e. cultural skills
(d; Moderate; Interpersonal Skills; p. 592)
22.
According to a recent survey, about ___ percent of employees working in the 1,000 largest U.S.
corporations receive ethics training.
a. 10
b. 25
c. 50
d. 75
e. 90
(d; Challenging; Ethics Training; p. 592)
23.
Examples of on-the-job training include all of the following except _____.

a. job rotation
b. apprenticeship
c. simulation centers
d. understudy assignments
e. formal mentoring programs
77
lOMoARcPSD
(c; Easy; OnOn-thethe-Job Training; p. 593) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
78
lOMoARcPSD
24.
Examples of off-the-job training include all of the following except _____.

a. classroom lectures
b. apprenticeship programs
c. Internet courses
d. public seminars
e. videotapes
(b; Easy; OffOff-thethe-Job Training; p. 593) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
25.
How would a participator best absorb information?

a. use computers to read manuals
b. watch others and imitate behaviors
c. copy what others do on computers
d. listen to an audiotape
e. gain hands-on experience
(e; Easy; Learning Styles and Formal Training; p. 594) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Performance Evaluation
26.
Performance evaluations are used to _____.

a. improve group cohesiveness
b. define departmental structure
c. help management make HR decisions
d. identify how jobs are completed
e. decrease conformity within organizations
(c; Challenging; Purposes of Performance Evaluation; p. 595) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
27.
Performance evaluations are used as a mechanism for all of the following except _____.
a. monitoring the success of marketing strategies
b. determining promotions
c. human resource planning
d. identifying training and development needs
(a; Moderate; Purposes of Performance Evaluation; p. 595) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
28.
Which of the following is the least predictive set of criteria used to evaluate employees?
a. traits
b. task outcomes
c. behaviors
d. personality
e. mood
(a; Moderate; Traits; p. 596) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
29.
Which of the following is not true concerning self-evaluations?

a. They lead to employees rating themselves highly.
b. They tend to heighten employees defensiveness about the appraisal process.
c. They make excellent vehicles for stimulating job performance discussions between employees and
their superiors.
d. They are often low in agreement with superiors ratings.
e. They tend to be biased estimates.
79
lOMoARcPSD
(b; Moderate; SelfSelf-Evaluations;

Evaluations; p. 597) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
80
lOMoARcPSD
30.
The approach to evaluation that uses feedback from those who have daily contact with an employee
(everyone from mailroom personnel to customers to bosses to peers) is termed _____.
a. critical incidents
b. 360-degree evaluation
c. BARS
d. multiperson comparisons
e. MBWA
(b; Moderate; 360360-Degree Evaluation; p. 597)
31.
Which of the following is not a standard method of performance evaluation?

a. critical incidents
b. written essays
c. interviews
d. graphic rating scales
e. BARS
(c; Easy; Methods of Performance Evaluation; p. 598) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
32.
Which performance evaluation method requires no complex forms or extensive training to complete?
a. written essays
b. critical incidents
c. graphic rating scales
d. behaviorally anchored rating scales
e. intellectual assessment
(a; Moderate; Written Essays; p. 598)
33.
The evaluation method that focuses the evaluators attention on those behaviors that are key to
executing a job effectively is known as_____.
a. forced comparison
b. critical incidents
c. graphic rating scales
d. behaviorally anchored rating scales
e. intellectual competence
(b; Easy; Critical Incidents; p. 598)
34.
If the manager uses critical incidents as a method of performance evaluation, then _____.
a. the subordinate is apt to become confused
b. the evaluators writing skills become the determining factor of the evaluation
c. the subordinate is likely to become motivated
d. the focus of the evaluation will center on key behaviors
e. the cost of the evaluation is likely to be incredibly high for the organization
(d; Moderate; Critical Incidents; p. 598)
35.
One reason to consider graphic rating scales is _____.

a. their accuracy
b. their usability in quantitative analysis
c. the quality of their results
d. their breadth of information
e. their reliability
(b; Challenging; Graphic Rating Scales; p. 598) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
81
lOMoARcPSD
82
lOMoARcPSD
36.
When an appraiser rates employees based on items on a continuum with the points reflecting actual
behaviors on a given job, this type of evaluation is called _____.
a. BARS
b. critical incident
c. graphic rating scale
d. behavioral structured ratings
e. MBWA
(a; Moderate; Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales; p. 598)
37.
_____ involves evaluating ones performance against the performance of one or more others.
a. BARS
b. A critical incident diary
c. A graphic rating scale
d. Forced comparison
e. Likert analysis
(d; Easy; Forced Comparisons; p. 598)
38.
_____ ranking requires the evaluator to place employees into a particular classification, such as top
one-fifth or second one-fifth.
a. Individual
b. Group order
c. Paired
d. Fractional
e. Percentile
(b; Moderate; Group Order Ranking; p. 598)
39.
Which approach to performance evaluation rank-orders employees from best to worst?

a individual ranking
b. group order ranking
c. paired comparison
d. straight ranking
e. comparison ranking
(a; Easy; Individual Ranking; p. 599)
40.
All of the following are ways to overcome problems encountered with performance evaluations except
_____.
a. evaluate selectively
b. focus on identifiable traits
c. use multiple evaluators
d. provide employees with due process
e. train evaluators
(b; Challenging; Improving Performance
Performance Evaluations; p. 601) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
41.
_____ can be used to increase the perception that employees are treated fairly.
a. Selective evaluation
b. Due process
c. Multiple raters
d. Documenting with a journal
e. Focusing on subjective evaluations
83
lOMoARcPSD
(b; Challenging; Due Process; p. 601)
84
lOMoARcPSD
42.
Which of the following is not a reason typically cited by managers regarding their reluctance to give
performance feedback?
a. Many employees become defensive when their weaknesses are pointed out.
b. Managers often fear confrontation with employees.
c. Employees have an inflated assessment of their own performance.
d. The human resources department is not supportive of the feedback process.
e. All of the above are typically cited reasons.
(d; Moderate;
Moderate; Providing Performance Feedback; pp. 601601-602) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Managing Diversity in Organizations
43.
Which of the following might a company consider to help employees address work-life conflicts?
a. keeping work-related travel reasonable
b. reducing workloads
c. offering off-site quality child-care
d. tie manager pay to customer satisfaction
e. relocation assistance
(e; Easy; WorkWork-Life Initiatives; p. 604) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
44.
The centerpiece of most diversity programs is _____.

a. top management commitment
b. employee commitment
c. training
d. human resource personnel
e. employee satisfaction
(c; Moderate; Diversity Training; p. 605) {AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity}
45.
Diversity training programs are generally intended to provide a vehicle for _____.
a. increasing awareness and examining stereotypes
b. focusing on individual differences
c. eliminating group learning
d. balancing work/life conflicts
e. socializing otherwise unmanageable employees
(a; Moderate; Diversity Training; p. 605) {AACSB: Multicultural
Multicultural and Diversity} {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Global Implications
46.
Which of the following statements is true concerning international selection practices?

a. Structured interviews are popular in all countries.
b. Beliefs about how one should conduct an interpersonal interview are consistent across countries.
c. The use of educational qualifications in screening candidates seems to be a universal practice.
d. Policies and practices do not require modification from one country to the next.
e. Groups are typically much more effective at selecting candidates in individualistic cultures.
(c; Moderate; Selection and Culture; p. 605) {AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity} {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
47.
Which of the following is not true concerning international performance evaluations?

a. Caution should be used in generalizing across cultures.
b. Every culture is concerned with performance appraisal.
c. Not all managers look at performance appraisal the same way as do managers in the US.
85
lOMoARcPSD
d. Individualistic countries emphasize formal performance evaluation systems.

e. Israels culture values group activities.
(b; Challenging; Performance Evaluation and Culture; p. 606) {AACSB: Multicultural and Diversity}
19 Organizational Change and Stress Management
MULTIPLE CHOICE
Forces For Change
1.
Which of the following is not a primary force for change in organizations?

a. technology
b. economic shocks
c. decreasing skill sets
d. social trends
e. the nature of the workforce
(c; Easy; Forces for Change; pp. 619619-620)
2.
An example of change in the nature of the work force is an increase in_____.

a. college attendance
b. mergers and consolidations
c. capital equipment
d. divorce rates
e. more cultural diversity
(e; Moderate; Nature of the Workforce; p. 619) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
3.
Phrases such as more cultural diversity, many new entrants with inadequate skills, and increase in
aging workers are all examples of what force for change?
a. technology
b. world politics
c. nature of the work force
d. social trends
e. competition
(c; Easy; Nature of the Workforce; p. 619) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
4.
An example of change in competition is _____.

a. growth of e-commerce
b. collapse of Enron Corporation
c. IraqU.S. war
d. increased interest in urban living
e. a decrease in interest rates
(a; Easy; Competition; p. 619)
619) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Planned Change
5.
Change activities that are _____ and goal oriented are termed planned change.
a. intentional
b. discretionary
c. random
86
lOMoARcPSD
d. reflexive
e. restorative
(a; Moderate; Planned Change; p. 621)
87
lOMoARcPSD
6.
What is a goal of planned change?

a. to change the forces of change
b. to alter the agents of change
c. to change employees responsibilities
d. to improve the ability to adapt to the environment
e. to alter the employees environment
(d; Moderate; Goals of Planned Change; p. 621)
Resistance to Change
7.
Resistance to change can be positive because _____.

a. it provides a degree of stability to behavior and productivity
b. without some resistance, OB would take on characteristics of chaotic randomness
c. resistance can be a source of functional conflict
d. all of the above
(d; Moderate; Resistance to Change; p. 622) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
8.
It is easiest for management to deal with resistance when it is _____.

a. covert
b. deferred
c. passive
d. implicit
e. overt
(e; Moderate; Resistance to Change; p. 622)
9.
Managing resistance to change that is _____ is extremely challenging.

a. passive
b. resolute
c. deferred
d. explicit
e. overt
(c; Moderate; Resistance to Change; p. 622)
10.
Which of the following is not a source of individual resistance to change?

a. habit
b. security
c. fear of the unknown
d. inertia
e. economic factors
(d; Moderate; Sources of Individual Resistance to Change; p. 623) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
11.
An example of a source of individual resistance to change is _____.

a. inertia
b. structural inertia
c. a habit
d. threat to expertise
e. a policy conflict
(c; Moderate; Sources of Resistance to Change; p. 623)
88
lOMoARcPSD
89
lOMoARcPSD
12.
Which of the following is not a source of individual resistance to change?

a. habit
b. security
c. fear of the unknown
d. inertia
e. economic factors
(d; Moderate; Sources of Individual Resistance to Change; p. 623) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
13.
All of the following are sources of organizational resistance to change except _____.
a. structural inertia
b. security
c. limited focus of change
d. threat to established power relationships
e. group inertia
(b; Moderate; Sources of Organizational Resistance to Change; p. 623) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Skills}
14.
_____ is a source of organizational resistance.

a. Structural motion
b. Security
c. Unlimited focus of change
d. Support of established power relationships
e. Threat to resource allocations
(e; Moderate; Sources of Organizational Resistance to Change; p. 623)
15.
Which one of the following is not listed as a tactic for dealing with resistance to change?
a. acceleration
b. manipulation
c. participation
d. cooptation
e. education
p.. 623) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
(a; Easy; Tactics for Dealing with Resistance to Change; p
16.
Which tactic for overcoming resistance to change basically assumes that the source of resistance lies in
misinformation?
a. training and development
b. facilitation and support
c. education and communication
d. teaching and advancement
e. cooptation and manipulation
(c; Moderate; Education and Communication; p. 623)
17.
Using covert influence to overcome resistance to change is called _____.

a. negotiation
b. cooptation
c. education
d. coercion
e. manipulation
(e; Moderate; Manipulation;
Manipulation; p. 624)
90
lOMoARcPSD
18.
If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their
support, this approach is called _____.
a. cooptation
b. exploitation
c. manipulation
d. coercion
e. education
(a; Moderate; Cooptation;
Cooptation; p. 624)
19.
Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is a relatively easy way to gain the support of
adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware of the tactic?
a. negotiation
b. conciliation
c. manipulation
d. coercion
e. cooperation
(c; Challenging; Manipulation; p. 624)
20.
The application of direct threats or force upon resisters is called _____.

a. exploitation
b. cooptation
c. manipulation
d. coercion
e. destruction
(d; Moderate; Coercion; p. 624)
21.
Politics suggest that the impetus for change is more likely to come from _____.
a. outside change agents
b. employees who are new to the organization
c. managers slightly removed from the main power structure.
d. all of the above
(d; Moderate; Politics of Change;
Change; p. 625)
22.
Managers who have spent their entire careers with an organization and are high in the hierarchy are
_____.
a. good change agents
b. generally the impetus for change
c. often impediments to change
d. usually focused on radical change
(c; Moderate; Politics of Change; p. 625)
Approaches to Managing Organizational Change
23.
Who developed a three-step model for change that included unfreezing, movement, and refreezing?
a. John Kotter
b. David McClelland
c. Douglas Surber
91
lOMoARcPSD
d. Lawrence Summers
e. Kurt Lewin
(e; Moderate; Lewins ThreeThree-Step Model; p. 625)
92
lOMoARcPSD
24.
_____ is one way to achieve unfreezing of an organizations status quo.

a. Increasing the driving forces directing behavior away from the status quo
b. Decreasing the restraining forces which hinder movement from inequality
c. Increasing employee investment in the status quo
d. Decreasing managements investment in change
e. Increasing the rigidity of the organizational hierarchy
(a; Challenging; Unfreezing;
Unfreezing; p. 626) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
25.
To move from equilibrium, Lewin suggests _____ forces.

a. decreasing restraining
b. increasing compelling
c. decreasing driving
d. all of the above
(a; Moderate; Unfreezing; p. 626) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Skills}
26.
Who built upon the three-step model to create a more detailed approach for implementing change?
a. John Kotter
b. David McClelland
c. Douglas Surber
d. Lawrence Summers
e. Kurt Lewin
(a; Moderate; Kotters EightEight-Step Plan for Implementing Change;
Change; p. 627)
27.
_____ is a change process based on systematic collection of data and selection of a change action
based on what the analyzed data indicate.
b. Action research
c. Planned change
d. Process consultation
e. Organizational restructuring
(b; Moderate; Action Research; p. 628)
28.
All of the following are steps in the process of action research except _____.
a. diagnosis
b. forming
c. feedback
d. action
e. evaluation
(b; Moderate; Stages of Action Research;
Research; p. 628) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
29.
The action research process closely resembles _____.

a. political research
b. the scientific method
c. organizational development
d. appreciative inquiry
e. an economic paradigm
(b; Moderate; Action Research; p. 628)
93
lOMoARcPSD
30.
The step in the action research process where information is gathered about problems, concerns, and
needed changes is known as the _____ stage.
a. feedback
b. evaluation
c. diagnosis
d. action
e. prognosis
(c; Moderate; Diagnosis Stage of
of Action Research; p. 628)
31.
In the process of action research, diagnosis is followed by _____.

a. feedback
b. analysis
c. action
d. evaluation
e. re-evaluation
(b; Moderate; Analysis Stage of Action Research; p. 628)
32.
Which of the following is considered a benefit of action research for an organization?

a. Employees can carry out the specific actions to correct the problems identified.
b. It is problem focused.
c. It is solution centered.
d. It is simple to implement.
e. It has no financial costs associated with it.
(b; Moderate;
Moderate; Benefits of Action Research; p. 628) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
33.
_____ encompasses a collection of planned-change interventions built on humanistic-democratic values

that seek to improve organizational effectiveness and employee well-being.
b. Reflected change
c. Process consultation
d. Action research
e. Economic validity
(a; Moderate; Organizational Development; p. 628)
34.
Which of the following is not considered an underlying value in organizational development?

a. participation
b. confrontation
c. implementation
d. respect
e. trust
(c; Easy; Underlying Values in Organizational Development; p. 629) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
35.
Which of the following is not true of organizational development?

a. Problems should be condensed.
b. Problems should be openly confronted.
c. Effective organizations are characterized by trust.
d. People should be treated with dignity and respect.
e. All of the above are true.
(a; Moderate; Underlying Values in Organizational Development; p. 629) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
94
lOMoARcPSD
95
lOMoARcPSD
36.
The de-emphasis of hierarchical authority and control in organizational development is referred to

as _____.
a. participation
b. power equalization
c. trust and support
d. respect for people
e. vertical blending
(b; Moderate; Power Equalization;
Equalization; p. 629)
37.
T-groups are also known as _____.

a. action research teams
b. appreciative inquiry training groups
c. team building groups
d. sensitivity training groups
e. focus groups
(d; Easy; Sensitivity Training; p. 629)
38.
_____ is a method of changing behavior through unstructured group interaction.

a. Action research
b. Planned change
d. Sensitivity training
e. Psychoanalysis
(d; Moderate; Sensitivity Training; p. 629)
39.
_____ is a tool for assessing attitudes held by organizational members, identifying discrepancies among
member perceptions, and solving these differences.
a. Sensitivity training
b. Survey feedback
d. Intergroup development
e. MBWA
(b; Easy; Survey Feedback; p. 630)
40.
The purpose of _____ is for an outside consultant to assist a client, usually a manager, to perceive,
understand, and act upon process events with which the manager must deal.
a. a change agent
b. survey feedback
c. process consultation
d. action research
e. social reinforcement
(c; Moderate; Process Consultation; p. 630)
41.
The activities included in team building include all of the following except _____.
a. goal setting
b. personal development
c. team process analysis
d. role analysis
e. defining priorities
96
lOMoARcPSD
(b; Moderate; Team Building; p. 631) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
97
lOMoARcPSD
42.
Rather than looking for problems, _____ seeks to identify the unique qualities and special strengths of
an organization, which can then be built upon to improve performance.
a. appreciative inquiry
b. action research
c. team building
d. process consultation
e. social reinforcement
(a; Moderate; Appreciative Inquiry; p. 632)
43.
Which of the following is not a step in the appreciative inquiry process?

a. discovery
b. dreaming
c. devising
d. destiny
e. design
(c; Moderate; Steps of Appreciative Inquiry; p. 633) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Creating a Culture for Change
44.
_____ is a new idea applied to initiating or improving a product, process, or service.

a. A continuous improvement process
b. Double-loop learning
c. Innovation
d. Process reengineering
e. Organizational streaming
(c; Moderate; Innovation; p. 634)
45.
Which of the following has been the most studied potential source of innovation?
a. cultural variables
b. structural variables
c. human resource factors
d. champions
e. brainstorming
(b; Moderate; Innovation; p. 634)
46.
An organization that has developed the continuous capacity to adapt and change is termed a(n) _____.
a. maladapted mechanism
b. continuous improvement process
c. innovative organization
d. double-loop learning organization
e. learning organization
(e; Easy; Learning Organization; p. 635)
47.
_____ involves correcting errors using past routines and present policies.
a. Process reengineering
b. Single-loop learning
c. Double-loop learning
d. Continuous improvement process
e. Organizational reaction
98
lOMoARcPSD
(b; Moderate; SingleSingle-Loop Learning; p. 635)
99
lOMoARcPSD
48.
Errors that are corrected by modifying the organizations objectives, policies, and standard routines are
part of _____.
a. single-loop learning
b. double-loop learning
c. process reengineering
d. the continuous improvement process
e. tertiary continuance
(b; Moderate; DoubleDouble-Loop Learning; p. 635)
49.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a learning organization? Its employees _____.

a. have standard ways of doing their jobs
b. pursue projects of interest
c. focus on breaking down barriers created by hierarchical levels
d. think in terms of independent relationships
e. have high levels of technical knowledge
(c; Challenging; Learning Organization; p. 635) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
50.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a learning organization?

a. There is a shared vision upon which everyone agrees.
b. People sublimate their personal self-interest to work together to achieve the organizations shared
vision.
c. Members integrate old ways of thinking with new ideas.
d. People openly communicate with each other.
e. There is consensus on the direction of the organization.
(c; Moderate; Characteristics of Learning Organizations; p. 636) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
51.
Which is not a strategy for managers to make their firms learning organizations?
a. Establish a strategy that makes managements commitment to innovation explicit.
b. Redesign the organizations structure by flattening the structure and increasing the use of crossfunctional teams.
c. Reshape the organizations culture by emphasizing risk taking and openness.
d. Systematically collect data and then select a change action based on the analyzed data.
e. Make it clear that people high in the organization are behind any proposed change.
(d; Moderate; Creating Learning Organizations; p. 636) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
Work Stress and Its Management
52.
Political uncertainties, economic uncertainties, and technological change are examples of which
category of potential sources of stress?
a. economic
b. environmental
c. organizational
d. group
e. social
(b; Easy; Environmental Sources of Stress; p. 639) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
53.
Which of the following is not an organizational factor related to stress?

a. economic conditions
b. task demands
100
lOMoARcPSD
c. role demands
d. interpersonal demands
(a; Moderate; Organizational Sources of Stress; p. 640) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
54.
Family issues, economic problems, and personality characteristics are examples of the _____ factor of
potential stress.
a. social
b. environmental
c. personnel
d. psychological
e. personal
(e; Moderate; Personal Sources of Stress; p. 640) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
55.
Consequences of stress can surface as _____ symptoms.

a. physiological
b. psychological
c. behavioral
d. all of the above
(d; Easy; Consequences of Stress; p. 642)
56.
Increased blood pressure and increased heart rate are _____ symptoms of stress.
a. psychological
b. physiological
c. behavioral
d. personal
e. reactive
(b; Easy; Physiological Symptoms of Stress; p. 642) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
57.
Which of the following is not a psychological symptom of stress?

a. anxiety
b. low self-esteem
c. frustration
d. high blood pressure
e. a mood disorder
(d; Easy; Psychological Symptoms of Stress; p. 642) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
58.
Excessive smoking, substance abuse, accident proneness, and appetite disorders are all examples of
_____ symptoms of stress.
a. personal
b. psychological
c. behavioral
d. physiological
e. pathological
(c; Moderate; Behavioral Symptoms of Stress; p. 642) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
59.
The most widely studied pattern in the stress-performance literature is the _____ relationship.
a. self-efficacy
101
lOMoARcPSD
b. reverse-inverted
c. inverted-U
d. double-loop
e. single-loop
(c; Easy; InvertedInverted-U Relationship; p. 643)
102
lOMoARcPSD
60.
Which of the following characteristics is most likely to be associated with high stress?
a. considerable job experience
b. external locus of control
c. a high sense of competence
d. type B behavior
e. a positive outlook
(b; Moderate; Managing Stress; p. 645)
61.
_____ is an example of an individual approach to stress reduction.

a. Selection and placement
b. Redesigning jobs
c. Goal setting
d. Relaxation techniques
e. all of the above
(d; Easy; Individual Approaches to Managing Stress; p. 645) {AACSB: Analytic Skills}
62.
Organizationally supported programs that focus on the employees total physical and mental condition
are called _____ programs.
a. job redesign
b. relaxation
c. employee involvement
d. organizational development
e. wellness
(e; Easy; Wellness Programs; p. 645)
103

Organizational Behavior Solution Manual

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Organizational Behavior Solution Manual

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

lOMoARcPSD

Solution Manual " Organizational Behavior " Robbins

Organisatiegedrag & Cultuur (Hogeschool Utrecht)

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Chapter 1 What Is Organizational Behavior?

Successful managers and entrepreneurs recognize that:

Which one of the following is not considered an organization?

The four management functions include all of the following except:

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

The organizing function includes a determination of which of the following?

An example of Mintzbergs interpersonal management role is:

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Which one of the following would not be considered a human skill?

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Organizational behavior is all of the following except:

Which of the following is not a core topic of organizational behavior?

A major theme in your textbook is that behavior is not:

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Fundamental consistencies allow _____ of behavior.

In the study of OB, intuition is replaced by:

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

_____ studies people in relation to their fellow human beings.

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Topics of study in political science include all of the following except:

Which of the following is the best description of OBs current state?

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

a. melting pot; differences

Which of the following is not true?

The implications of workforce diversity include all of the following except:

Quality management requires _____ employee involvement.

Predictions suggest there will be a labor shortage for at least another:

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

The U.S. labor shortage is a function of:

Many employees have been led to retire early as a result of:

The majority of employees today in developed countries work in:

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

c. organizations asking employees to put in longer hours

Primary dependent variables in OB include:

_____ is achievement of goals.

Which of the following is an example of being an efficient company or employee?

Sears trained employees to improve the employee-customer interaction to ultimately:

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Individual-level independent variables include:

________ is the voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organization.

Power can be defined as _____.

Which one of the following is not implied in the definition of power?

The most important aspect of power is probably that it _____.

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Which of the following statements is true concerning power?

Leaders achieve goals, and power is _____.

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Power does not require goal compatibility, merely _____.

Leadership requires _____.

Leadership focuses on the _____.

Leadership research emphasizes _____.

Unlike leadership research, research on power tends to focus on _____.

The two general groupings of power are _____.

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)

_____ power is based on an individuals position in an organization.

Formal power can arise out of which of the following?

The opposite of coercive power is _____ power.

Distributing prohibited | Downloaded by sudhir singh (rihdus5018@gmail.com)