Immune System: General & Specific Defences

BOOKLET BIOL 101, A4

TEST AP101-4

Immune System

Questions:
Test Duration:
Reading Time:

???? Multiple-Choice Questions

???? minutes
??? minutes

INSTRUCTION:
Only Bilingual Dictionaries allowed, NO NOTES. This test consists of one part, 185
multiple choice questions (numbers 1 to 185) to be answered on the computer answer
sheet (185 marks). Write your name and student number in the spaces provided on the
computer answer sheet. Carefully fill in the shapes on the computer-marked answer
sheet under your name and ID number with a 2B pencil. You must only use a 2B pencil
on the computer answer sheet. Please read the instructions on the answer sheet
carefully and follow them precisely. Select the best answer to questions. If you are
unsure of an answer, eliminate the alternatives that you know to be incorrect and select
answer from the remaining alternatives. To indicate your selection, use a 2B pencil to
blacken the corresponding oval on the computer answer sheet, AP101-1. No marks are
deducted for wrong answers. So students are advised to move on quickly without
wasting too much time on one question. - Advanced questions; require further reading
or online research.

OPEN BLOOKLET ONLY WHEN TIMER IS

Immune System: General & Specific Defences

1. A ring of lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity
is called a(n):
A. appendix
B. tonsil
C. Peyer's patch
D. Thymus
2. Which of the following incorrectly matches each of the following types of immune
response with the correct immunotherapy?
A. passive artificial; immunity gained from injections of clonal antibodies to fight off
a current pathogen invasion
B. active artificial; immunity gained through injections of dead or attenuated strains
of the disease causing agents
C. passive natural; immunity gained from transport of antibodies across the
placental membrane or through the mother's milk
D. active natural; immunity gained only after fully recovered from the illness
3. ________ are substances that can trigger the adaptive defenses and provoke an
immune response:
A. interleukins
B. antigens
C. antibodies
D. haptens
4. Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue ()?
A. lymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood
B. T lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances
C. once a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently
D. lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue
5. Helper T cells:
A. release B7 proteins
B. function in the adaptive immune system activation
C. bind tightly to target cells and release a lymphotoxin called perforin
D. often function to decrease the immune response
6. Which of the following is not true?
A. innate system is defenses we are born with
B. adaptive system is defenses we gain through life experiences and exposure to
antigens
C. immunoglobulins are humoral hormones that attach to antigen
D. complement is system of proteins that lyse cell membranes
7. Select the correct statement about lymphocytes:
A. B cells produce plasma cells, which secrete antibodies into the blood
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

B. T cells are the precursors of B cells
C. T cells are the only form of lymphocyte found in lymphoid tissue
D. the two main types are T cells and macrophages
8. Functions of the lymphatic system include:
A. transport of excess tissue fluid to the blood vascular system
B. excretion of excess dietary fat
C. transport of red blood cells to the blood vascular system
D. maintenance of blood pressure in the venous circulation
9. Which of the following is not a normal component of lymph?
A. water
B. red blood cells
C. ions
D. plasma proteins
10.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The only T cells that can directly attack and kill other cells are the:
cytotoxic cells
helper cells
suppressor cells
plasma cells

11.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which statement below is characteristic of a secondary humoral response?

it triggers fever
it results in less memory cell circulation
it occurs much more rapidly than a primary response
it results in less antibody secretion

12.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The innate system is also called:

the non-specific defence system
the adaptive defence system
the specific defence system
the immune system

13.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Select the correct statement about lymph transport

under normal conditions, lymph vessels are very high-pressure conduits
lymph transport is only necessary when illness causes tissue swelling
lymph transport is faster than that occurring in veins
lymph transport depends on the movement of adjacent tissues, such as skeletal
muscles

14.
The system that recognizes foreign molecules and acts to immobilize, neutralize,
or destroy them is the:
A. renal system
B. immune system
C. integumentary system
D. lymphatic system

Immune System: General & Specific Defences

15.
Which of the following is not a role of a phagocyte?
A. engulf bacteria
B. engulf old or damaged cells
C. specifically recognise a particular pathogen
D. engulf general cell debris
16.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The second line of defence in the innate defence system uses:

phagocytes
B cells
T cells
the skin and mucous membranes

17.
is antimicrobial protein in breast milk which depletes iron of bacteria,
leading to bacterial death.
A. B-defensin
B. pepsin
C. lactoferrin
D. lysozyme
18.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not a role of the inflammatory response?

sets the stage for repair
disposes of cell debris and pathogens
prevents the spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues
B cells and T cells produce the response

19.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is a nonspecific barrier defense?

natural killer cells
complements
mucous membranes
macrophages

20.
The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an
inflammatory site is called:
A. chemotaxis
B. diapedesis
C. phagocytosis
D. margination
21.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Without __________ there is no adaptive immune response.

plasma cells
B lymphocytes
antibodies
T lymphocytes

22.
Which nonspecific defense cells specialize in attacking cancer cells and virusinfected cells?
A. basophils
B. natural killer cells
C. macrophages
D. helper T lymphocytes
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

23.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The primary immune response:

is another name for immunological memory
occurs when memory cells are stimulated
has a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response

24.
A.
B.
C.

What effect does age have on the size of the thymus?

the size of the thymus increases continuously from birth to death
the size of the thymus decreases continuously from birth to death
the thymus initially increases in size and then decreases in size from adolescence
through old age
D. the thymus is not affected by age

25.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.

a vaccination is an example of the introduction of passive immunity into the body
the antibodies utilized in active immunity are acquired from another organism
immunological memory is established by passive immunization
active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of specific immunity
that use antibodies

26.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Humoral immunity is provided by:

complement proteins
T cells
antibodies
interferons

27.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

infusion of weakened viruses
booster shot
long-term immune protection
passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

28.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Lymph leaves a lymph node via:

the cortical sinus
afferent lymphatic vessels
the subscapular sinus
efferent lymphatic vessels

29.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

cytotoxic
antigenic
suppressor (aka regulator)
helper

30.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not true of fever?

increases the metabolic rate of tissue cells
facilitate repair process
stops liver and spleen from releasing zinc and iron
only activated against local infections
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

31.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Natural killer (NK) cells:

are cells of the specific immune system
are a type of phagocyte
can kill cancer cells before the immune system is activated
are also called cytotoxic T cells

32.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is a free phagocyte?

Kuppfer cells
monocytes
microglia
both A and B

33.
A.
B.
C.

Select the correct statement about phagocytic cells.

Kupffer cells are a type of neutrophil
the respiratory burst characterizes eosinophil phagocytosis
neutrophils may destroy themselves when they phagocytize large quantities of a
foreign substance
D. macrophages release defensins during killing

34.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Self-reactive B cells are eliminated in the:

bone marrow
spleen
thymus
lymph nodes

35.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which cells stimulate both arms of the immune response?

plasma cells
helper T cells
killer T cells
complement cells

36.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which hypersensitivity is caused by T lymphocytes?

acute
delayed
subacute
chronic

37.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a secondary immune response?
A. a secondary immune response is started by nave lymphocytes, while a primary
immune response is initiated by memory cells
B. a secondary immune response does produce as many antibodies compared to a
primary immune response
C. a secondary immune response lasts longer than a primary immune response
D. a secondary immune response is slower than a primary immune response
38.
Both lymph and venous blood flow are heavily dependent on:
A. skeletal muscle contractions and differences in thoracic pressures due to
respiratory movement
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

B. contraction of the vessels themselves
C. two-way valves
D. the pumping action of the heart
39.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by:
macrophages
Helper T cells
plasma cells
bone marrow

40.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The thymus is most active during:

old age
fetal development
childhood
middle age

41.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following are the major phagocytic cells in the body?
T and B lymphocytes
neutrophils and macrophages
erythrocytes
basophils and eosinophils

42.
When the body is exposed to an antigen for the second time, which of the
following events is/are likely to occur?
1) No difference to the initial exposure
2) Earlier appearance of specific antibody than during initial exposure
3) A rapid conversion of B memory cells to plasma cells
4) Delayed production of specific antibody due to memory cell conversion to plasma
cells
A.
B.
C.
D.

1,2
2, 3
1,2,4
1,2,3

43.
Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.
A. antibodies may directly destroy "invaders"
B. neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump
together
C. complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide
protection
D. A & B are correct
44.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The consequences of a loss of helper T cells from the immune system would be:
loss of the go signal for the appropriate specific response
no conversion of helper T cells into cytotoxic T cells
loss of the ability to confirm the presence of a threat during a first exposure
A and C are correct

Immune System: General & Specific Defences

45.
Which of the following correctly match the following antibody types with their
characteristics?
A. IgG; most abundant antibody found in the plasma
B. IgM; found in body secretions such as milk, saliva, and sweat
C. IgE; levels greatly reduced during severe allergic responses
D. IgA; first class released by plasma cells and is indicative of a current infection
46.
A.
B.
C.
D.

A vaccination works to establish:

artificial passive immunity
natural active immunity
artificial active immunity
natural passive immunity

47.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Specific immune response

require Helper T cell activation
are also called the adaptive immune responses
could not occur if the thymus gland did not develop
all of the above

48.
A.
B.
C.

Specific (Adaptive) immunity:

acts immediately when the bodys barriers are broken
cause inflammation to occur at sites of tissue
takes 4-6 days before specific antigen recognising cells are made to attack
unwanted invaders
D. includes the flushing action of tears

49.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The inflammatory hallmark of pain is caused by:

vasodilation
prostaglandins
oedema
both b and c are correct

50.
Which type of molecule is produced by virus-infected cells to communicate to
non-infected cells the presence of a virus?
A. pyrogen
B. interferon
C. antigen
D. interleukin
51.
In acute inflammation, pain is due to stimulation of nerve endings. Which of the
following has the correct name of pain receptor and its stimulant (chemical that
stimulates)?
A. nociceptor, prostaglandins
B. Pacinian corpuscle, histamine
C. nociceptor, histamine
D. Pacinian corpuscle, prostaglandins
52.
Phagocytes:
A. alert the specific defences to a foreign threat using MHC II
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

B. are antigen presenting cells
C. alert the specific defences to a foreign threat using MHC I
D. A and B are correct
53.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is the main function of spleen in immune system?

provides a site for lymphocyte proliferation
removal of old, damaged, defective red cells and platelets
immune surveillance of blood and response to antigens
storage of blood platelets

54.
MHC I is found on _____ and its role is to ________.
A. all cells except erythrocytes, assist in the identification of the presence of a
foreign threat
B. antigen presenting cells, assist in the identification of the presence of a foreign
threat
C. all cells except erythrocytes, assist in the identification of altered self-cells
D. cytotoxic T cells, assist in the identification of altered self-cells
55.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following cells is capable of acting as an antigen presenting cell?

natural killer cells
T cells
mast cells
dendritic cells

56.
Which of the following correctly matches each of the following cells with the
specific immune response?
A. plasma cells; produce antibodies that attack and lyse cells that are not "self"
B. memory B cells; bind to antigen-presenting cells to begin the process of costimulation
C. cytotoxic T cells; remember and attack antigens from one exposure event to the
next
D. none of the above
57.
Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.
A. antibodies may directly destroy "invaders"
B. neutralization is the process by which antibodies cause invading cells to clump
together
C. complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide
protection
D. antibodies attract cytotoxic T cells to kill the target
58.
A.
B.
C.
D.

In immunisation, the:
immune system attacks normal body cells
body is deliberately exposed to a particular antigen of interest
body receives antibodies produced by another person
genes for an antibody are introduced into the body

59.
Your patient has been bitten by a snake. Injection of an antivenom containing
antibodies is a type of _______ because the protection is _______.
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

A. passive immunity, not permanent
B. active immunity, permanent
C. passive immunity, providing memory B cells so the person does not have to make
their own
D. active immunity, not permanent
60.
When a localized area exhibits increased capillary filtration, hyperemia, &
swelling, it is an indication that:
A. antibodies are phagocytizing target cells
B. inflammation is occurring
C. an immune response is underway
D. fever is developing
61.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following results in formation of pus during acute inflammation?

thrombosis
vasodilation
cellular infiltration
increased vascular permeability

62.
A muscle cell was isolated and analysed for the presence of major
histocompatibility complex (MHC). Which of the following would be expected to be
present?
A. MHC I only
B. MHC II only
C. MHC I and II
D. neither MHC I or MHC II
63.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which cell does not have a direct role in phagocytosis?

macrophage
eosinophil
kupffer cell
basophil

64.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is NOT an innate defense mechanism of the body?

blood cells
ectoderm and endoderm
B lymphocytes
inflammation

65.
A six-year-old female is diagnosed with a bacterial infection of the respiratory
system. Which of the following will most likely try to fight the antigen?
A. antibodies
B. cytotoxic T cells
C. antigens
D. helper T cells
66.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?
A. adherence, digestion, killing, ingestion, chemotaxis
B. chemotaxis, ingestion, digestion, adherence, killing
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

C. chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing
D. ingestion, adherence, chemotaxis, digestion, killing
67.
The immune cell that allows for subsequent recognition of an antigen, resulting in
a secondary response, is called a(n):
A. antigen-presenting cell
B. helper T cell
C. plasma cell
D. memory cell
68.
________ are released by activated T cells and macrophages to mobilize immune
cells and attract other leukocytes into the area.
A. cytokines
B. perforins
C. interleukin 1 proteins
D. interleukin 2 proteins
69.
Which of the following manifests oedema?
A. vasodilation
B. increased number of inflammatory cells
C. increased vascular permeability
D. cellular infiltration
70.
These molecules are secreted by leukocytes and macrophages and result in a
fever.
A. heparin
B. histamine
C. keratin
D. pyrogens
71.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not a component of the innate immune system?

B cells
skin
phagocytes
natural killer cells

72.
This type of disease results from the inability of the immune system to distinguish
self- from nonself-antigens.
A. anaphylaxis
B. SCID
C. immunodeficiency
D. autoimmune disease
73.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The role of the spleen in the immune defences is to:

screen the blood for foreign and abnormal self antigens
recycle phagocytic cells
screen the lymphatic fluid for foreign and abnormal self antigens
all of the above

74.

Saliva and lacrimal fluids contain this enzyme that destroys bacteria.
11

Immune System: General & Specific Defences

A. trypsin
B. lysozyme
C. keratin
D. hydrochloric acid
75.
Which of the following is present in upper respiratory tract which prevents entry of
particles into lower respiratory tracts?
A. goblet cell
B. mucociliary escalator
C. ciliated cell
D. lactoferrin
76.
Slow flow of fluid trough lymph nodes allows close examination of lymph. This is
possible because:
A. there are many afferent lymphatic vessels and fewer efferent vessels
B. each lymphatic vessel has valves
C. there are many efferent lymphatic vessels and fewer afferent vessels
D. lymphoid node has high surface area to volume ratio
77.
Which is correctly matched?
A. B cells: suppress the immune response once the foreign antigen has been cleared
from the body
B. regulatory T cells: make antibodies
C. cytotoxic T cells: activated by antigens bound to MHC I
D. helper T cells: recognize virus-infected cells
78.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?

prevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
replaces injured tissues with connective tissue
disposes of cellular debris and pathogens
sets the stage for repair processes

79.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Kupffer cells are an example of a type of:

lymphocyte
T cell
natural killer cell
phagocyte

80.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are:

NK cells
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes
basophils

81.
Which of the following correctly matches each of the following terms associated
with the correct inflammatory process?
A. leucocytosis; chemicals released from injured tissues stimulate rapid proliferation
and release of cells
12

Immune System: General & Specific Defences

B. margination; neutrophils attach to CAMs on the endothelial linings in the injured
area
C. diapedesis; neutrophils squeeze through walls of capillaries into the tissues
D. all of the above
82.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Cytotoxic T cells kill target cells:

through insertion of perforins into the target's membrane
by releasing oxidizing agents
through injection of tumor necrosis factor
by phagocytosis

83.
A.
B.
C.
D.

MHC II proteins are found on:

antigen-presenting cells
red blood cells
cytotoxic T cells
helper T cells

84.
Which of the following is a false statement?
A. the immune system is highly adaptive because gene coding for antibodies display
somatic recombination
B. binding of a helper T cell with an antigen-displaying cell will lead to costimulation
C. neutrophils respond to infection by releasing antibody proteins into the blood
D. the polio vaccine is an example of active artificial immunotherapy
85.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The role of the helper T cell is critical for the specific defences because:
it is responsible for killing cancerous cells
it is responsible for confirming the presence of a threat
it provides the go signal for the appropriate specific response
B and C are correct

86.
A.
B.
C.
D.

The most potent antigen-presenting cells that are present in skin and tissue is:
macrophages
dendritic cells
B lymphocytes
T lymphocytes

87.
A.
B.
C.
D.

B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by:

reducing its size
immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies
forming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell
producing plasma cells and memory cells

88.
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the role of interferon in defence against disease?

protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses
protects cells that have not yet been infected by bacteria
activates the complement mechanism
activates the inflammatory process

89.
One of barriers, skin has several protective mechanisms. Which of the following is
not correct?
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

A. sebum contains lipids that are toxic to bacteria
B. sweat has pH of 3~5 which inhibits bacterial growth
C. melanin is a protein resistant to most weak acids and bases, bacterial enzymes
and toxins
D. dermcidin in endocrine sweat is one of bactericidal secretions
90.
Which of the following incorrectly matches inflammatory response terms with the
correct causative activity?
A. hyperemia; increased blood flow due to vasodilation of blood vessels entering the
injured area
B. edema; seeps from the capillaries and contains clotting factors and antibodies
C. exudate ; caused by excess blood flow to the injured area; helps to dilute harmful
substances and brings in excess oxygen
D. both B and C
91.
A.
B.
C.
D.

What is the second step of T cell activation?

anergy
antigen binding
chemotaxis
co-stimulation

92.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not true of spleen?

it is the largest lymphoid organ
has relatively poor blood supply
contains both lymphocytes and macrophages
initiates specific immune cell proliferation

93.
In the presence of MHCI and antigen, the helper T cell will:
A. be activated into a cytotoxic T cell and directly kill the target
B. use cytokines to give an antigen matched B cell the go signal to produce plasma
cells and memory cells
C. use cytokines to give an antigen matched cytotoxic T cell the go signal to kill the
target
D. all of the above
94.
A.
B.
C.

Which of the following is true of cells of the immune system and their functions?
neutrophils; migrate to the site of an infection within a few hours
macrophages; derived from circulating monocytes
natural killer cells; a small subgroup of lymphocytes that will attack cancerous
cells
D. all of the above

95.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

exposure to an antigen
infusion of weakened viruses
passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus
booster shot of vaccine

96.

Which of the following contains the antibacterial enzyme called lysozyme?

14

Immune System: General & Specific Defences

A. saliva and tears
B. skin
C. stomach mucosa
D. respiratory tract
97.
The ability of antigens to stimulate proliferation of specific lymphocytes and
antibodies is:
A. reactivity
B. immunogenicity
C. immunocompetence
D. specificity
98.
A.
B.
C.
D.

All of the following are examples of autoimmune disorders, except:

myasthenia gravis
Grave's disease
rheumatoid arthritis
sickle-cell anemia

99.
Why do some vaccines require boosters for maximum protection?
A. the concentration of the antigens is not sufficient in one dose to generate a
response
B. the immune system may not be stimulated enough with one dose to produce a
memory response
C. the vaccine is not effective
D. all vaccines require boosters
100. Which of the following incorrectly matches a defence cell with the correct
characteristic?
A. helper T cells; coordinate humoral and cellular immune responses
B. macrophages; a common APC
C. mast cells; invoke fever when IgA cross links to them
D. plasma cells; produce immunoglobulins
101.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not true?

acid mantle covers the skin and limits bacterial growth
gamma globulin is a plasma protein
leukocytosis is characterised by high numbers of lymphocytes
opsonization encourages phagocytosis

102.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Interferons can be used to treat all of the following, except:

cancer
muscular dystrophy
Hepatitis C
viral infection

103.
A.
B.
C.

Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitivities?

they are also called type IV hypersensitivities
they are are adaptive immune responses to disease organisms
they include allergic contact dermatitis
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

D. they involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells
104.
A.
B.
C.
D.
105.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not a property of interferons (IFNs)?

IFNs have an anticancer role
IFNs activate macrophages
IFNs stimulate B cells to produce antibodies
IFNs have antiviral activity
Which of the following is not a lymphoid organ?
spleen
thymus
tonsils
none of above

106.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Active artificially acquired immunity is a result of:

antibodies passed on from mother to fetus through the placenta
contact with a pathogen
antibodies passed on from mother to baby through breast milk
vaccination

107.
A.
B.
C.
D.

Which of the following is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

opsonization
swelling
redness
pain

108. When pathogens break through the first line of defences, which of the following
events are likely to occur?
1) some fragments bind to MHC II
2) adheres to pathogens
3) microbes in phagolysosome are
digested

4)
5)
6)
7)

endocytosis
exocytosis
lysosome fuses with phagosome
chemotaxis

8)

A. 2, 7, 5, 6, 3, 1, 4
B. 7, 2, 5, 3, 6, 1, 4
C. 2, 7, 4, 3, 6, 1, 5
D. 7, 2, 4, 6, 3, 1, 5
9)
109. Complement proteins work by:
A. creating an impermeable barrier
B. neutralization of antigens
C. forming pores in the membranes of target cells
D. phagocytosis of target cells
10)
110. The site of communication between non-specific and specific defence cells is:
A. lymph node
B. bone marrow
C. thymus
D. skin
11)
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

111. Which of the following is not a surface barrier to pathogen influx?
A. saliva and tears
B. complement cascade
C. skin secretions
D. mucous membranes
12)
112. The process that begins when a helper T cell binds to an MHC class II protein on a
displaying cell is known as:
A. antigen proliferation
B. T cell proliferation
C. co-stimulation
D. self-antigen recognition
13)
113. The site of lymphocyte production is:
A. red bone marrow
B. thymus
C. tonsils
D. lymph nodes
14)
114. Which of the following steps is the first step in an inflammatory response?
A. release of leukocytosis, inducing factor
B. diapedesis
C. positive chemotaxis
D. adhesion of the neutrophil's cell-adhesion molecules to antigen
15)
115. In the respiratory burst, _____________ are released, which have potent cell-killing
ability***.
A. platelet-derived growth factors
B. free radicals
C. neutrophils
D. histamines
16)
116. The first step in inflammation is:
A. tissue injury
B. phagocyte mobilization
C. the release of pro-inflammatory signals
D. vasodilation
17)
117. What is most likely to happen when immunocompetence fails?
A. immunodeficiency
B. autoimmune diseases
C. cancer
D. opportunistic infections
18)
118. Which of the following is not a function/effect of inflammation?
A. increase vascular permeability
B. attract more monocytes
C. increase BMR to induce fever
D. activate complement and kinin systems
19)
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

119. Leukotrienes cause:
A. apoptosis of cells
B. dilation of the small blood vessels in an injured area
C. the release of digestive enzymes outside the cell
D. neutrophils to migrate to an area of inflammation
20)
120. All of the following are functions of interferon, except that:
A. they interfere with viral replication in affected cells
B. they mobilize natural killer cells
C. they are not virus specific
D. they only occur naturally
21)
121. Which of the following minerals needed for bacterial reproduction does both the
liver and spleen sequester during a fever?
A. zinc
B. magnesium
C. copper
D. phosphorous
22)
122. Which of the following is true?
A. a person with type-A blood is given a unit of type-B blood; IgM agglutinates the
type-B blood
B. delayed hypersensitivity reactions are caused by the cross-linking of antibodies to
mast cells or basophils
C. immune cells remain relatively immobile within the lymphatic and circulatory
system
D. immunocompetence refers to the ability of the immune system to form antibodies
and killing compounds
23)
123. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?
A. redness
B. fever
C. swelling
D. impairment of function
24)
124. Which of the following is not true?
A. in addition to cell lysis, complement activation may invoke neutralization,
precipitation, and inflammation
B. the HIV attacks helper T cells by binding onto the CD4 proteins
C. the immune system is highly adaptive because gene coding for antibodies display
somatic recombination
D. plasma cells are responsible for "remembering" what a pathogen looks like
25)
125. Which of the following is present in lymphoid tissues?
A. macrophages
B. dendritic cells
C. reticular cells
D. all of the above
26)
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

126. In the list below, which type of cell is involved in adaptive immunity?
A. natural killer cells
B. macrophages
C. B cells
D. neutrophils
27)
127. Which of the following incorrectly matches the antibody and its characteristic?
A. IgG; most abundant class of antibodies
B. IgM; antigen receptor found on B cells
C. IgD; large, pentamer-shaped antibody
D. both B and C
28)
128. Which of the following is mismatched?
A. B cells: can be activated to produce antibodies
B. helper T cells: directly target and kill cancer cells
C. regulatory T cells: release inhibitory cytokines to dampen the immune response
D. cytotoxic T cells: carry out cellular immune responses
29)
129. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A. severe combined immunodeficiency syndrome (SCID); genetic defect resulting in
a shortage of B and/or T cells
B. AIDS; condition in which T helper cells are destroyed by a virus
C. immediate hypersensitivity; allergy
D. rheumatoid arthritis; immunodeficiency disorder
30)
130. Which of the following correctly matches a leukocyte with its function?
A. neutrophils; phagocyte in the early stages of inflammation
B. eosinophills; mild phagocyte that provides primary defence against parasites
C. monocytes; leukocyte similar to tissue mast cells
D. macrophages; large phagocyte in the later stages of inflammation or chronic
inflammation
31)
131. The influx of plasma fluid by inflammatory response:
A. dilutes bacterial toxins
B. activates plasma protein systems
C. causes oedema
D. all of the above
32)
132. Which of the following is true?
A. a moderate fever is a protective immune response
B. self-antigens are ignored by T cells
C. dendritic cells are important antigen-presenting cells
D. all of the above
33)
133. Which of the following correctly matches name of process and its description in
the correct sequence of phagocyte mobilisation?
1) clinging of phagocytes to inner walls of the capillaries
2) WBCs migrate up the gradient of chemotactic agents to the injured site
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

3) continued chemical signalling prompts phagocytes to flatten and squeeze
through walls
4) an increase in WBCs in circulation
34)
A. 2-chemotaxis, 4-margination, 1-diapedesis, 3-lymphocytosis
B. 4-leukocytosis, 1-margination, 3-diapedesis, 2-chemotaxis
C. 2-chemotaxis, 4-leukocytosis, 1-margination, 3- leukocytosis
D. 4-lymphocytosis, 1-chemotaxis, 3-margination, 2-diapedesis
35)
134. Which of the following is brought to the injured site by inflammatory response?
A. clotting proteins
B. plasma fluid
C. inflammatory chemicals
D. all of the above
36)
135. In acute inflammation, the main initiator of both increased vascular permeability
and vasodilation is:
A. prostaglandins
B. kinins
C. histamine
D. leukotrienes
37)
136. Which of the following is not classified as granulocyte?
A. eosinophil
B. basophil
C. monocyte
D. neutrophil
38)
137. Which of the following inflammatory mediator does not cause vasodilation of
arterioles?
A. cytokine
B. leukotriene
C. prostaglandins
D. heparin
39)
138. Swelling of lymph nodes may indicate:
A. infections
B. sore throat
C. breast cancer
D. all of the above
40)
139. Lymphatics collect the excess protein-containing
fluid and return to
the bloodstream.
A. intracellular
B. intercellular
C. interstitial
D. extracellular
41)
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

140. Which cells of adaptive immune system protects the body against external
cellular threats?
A. helper T cells
B. B lymphocytes
C. cytotoxic T cells
D. regulatory T cells
42)
141. Lymphatic draining mechanisms ensure lymph transport and a one-directional
flow. Which of the following is not one of these mechanisms?
A. skeletal muscle movement
B. valves in lymphatics
C. changes in intrathoracic pressure during breathing
D. none of above
43)
142. The primary humoral immune response has a lag period about 3-6 days because:
A. antigen challenge is a slow process
B. only few B cells are specific for the antigen
C. antigen has to penetrate the first line of defences
D. both A and C
44)
143. Lymphatic tissues are largely composed of:
A. reticular connective tissue
B. dense regular connective tissue
C. areolar connective tissue
D. lamina propria
45)
144. Neutralisation, agglutinations and precipitations are mechanisms of antibody
action that enhance:
A. inflammation
B. phagocytosis
C. complement system
D. all of the above
46)
145. Which of the following type of vaccines most strongly provokes the immune
response?
A. inactivated
B. live-attenuated
C. subunit
D. toxoid
47)
146. Which of the following hypersensitivity is due to production of IgE antibodies?
A. delayed hypersensitivity
B. cytotoxic (type II) hypersensitivity
C. immediate hypersensitivity
D. immune-complex (type III) hypersensitivity
48)
147. Which of the following is stimulated during allergic reactions?
A. sympathetic nervous system
B. parasympathetic nervous system
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Immune System: General & Specific Defences

C. both A and B
D. none of the above
49)
148. Which of the following occurs during asthma attacks?
A. mucus hypersecretion
B. bronchoconstriction
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
50)
149. Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening condition that can lead to death if a person is not
immediately treated. Which of the following is not likely to happen in anaphylaxis?
A. itchy rashes
B. hypertensive shock
C. swelling of throat or tongue
D. dyspnoea
51)
150. In the absence or destroyed helper T cells, which of the following is most likely to
occur?
A. increased risk of viral infections and cancer development
B. increased risk of tissue damage
C. increased risk of opportunistic infections
D. both A and C
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For personal use only, last update:

1st August 2015 by Incognitus
16th February 2014 by RD
incognitus94@gmail.com

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