Colegio Gimnasio

Campestre San
Sebastin
SCIENCE 7TH GRADE
REVIEW EXERCISES
MAKE OVER EXAM
NAME: ______________________________ DATE: __________ GROUP: _____
1. Which muscle moves the scapula and extends the neck?
A)
pectoralis major
B)
pectoralis minor
C)
rhomboideus
D)
serratus anterior
E)
trapezius
2. The muscle that can adduct, flex, and extend the arm is the
A)
coracobrachialis.
B)
deltoid.
C)
latissimus dorsi.
D)
pectoralis major.
E)
teres major.
3. If a woman raises her arms laterally from her sides until they are level with her shoulders, she
mostly uses her
A)
biceps brachii muscles.
B)
latissimus dorsi muscles.
C)
pectoralis major muscles.
D)
deltoid muscles.
E)
all of these
4. Which of these muscles flexes both the arm and the forearm?
A)
biceps brachii
B)
brachialis
C)
deltoid
D)
latissimus dorsi
E)
triceps brachii
5. Two muscles that are synergists are the
A)
biceps brachii and triceps brachii.
B)
biceps brachii and brachialis.
C)
coracobrachialis and brachioradialis.

D)
E)

deltoid and brachioradialis.

latissimus dorsi and trapezius.

6. Which of these muscles is NOT involved in abducting the arm?

A)
deltoid
B)
infraspinatus
C)
supraspinatus
D)
trapezius
7. Which of these muscles has the same action on the arm as the latissimus dorsi?
A)
deltoid
B)
coracobrachialis
C)
pectoralis major
D)
teres major
E)
triceps brachii
8. Which muscle extends the forearm?
A)
coracobrachialis
B)
biceps brachii
C)
brachialis
D)
brachioradialis
E)
triceps brachii
9. Which of these muscles does NOT medially rotate the arm?
A)
deltoid
B)
infraspinatus
C)
latissimus dorsi
D)
pectoralis major
E)
teres major
10. Most of the anterior forearm muscles are responsible for
A)
extension of the wrist and fingers.
B)
extension of the forearm.
C)
flexion of the wrist and fingers.
D)
flexion of the forearm.
E)
flexion of the arm.
11. Many of the posterior forearm muscles have their origin on the
A)
greater tubercle of the humerus.
B)
lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
C)
lesser tubercle of the humerus.
D)
medial epicondyle of the humerus.
E)
olecranon process of the humerus.
12. Extrinsic hand muscles are found in the
A)
arm.
B)
forearm.
C)
hand.
D)
fingers.
13. Name the muscle that extends, abducts, and laterally rotates the thigh.

A)
B)
C)
D)
E)

iliopsoas
gluteus maximus
gluteus medius
gluteus minimus
tensor fasciae latae

14. Which of these muscles flexes the thigh?

A)
deep thigh rotators
B)
iliopsoas
C)
gluteus maximus
D)
gluteus medius
E)
gluteus minimus
15. Two thigh muscles that are antagonists are the
A)
rectus femoris and vastus lateralis.
B)
vastus medialis and vastus intermedius.
C)
adductor longus and vastus lateralis.
D)
rectus femoris and semimembranosus.
E)
gluteus maximus and semitendinosus.
16. This muscle is used to cross the legs; it flexes the leg, and flexes and laterally rotates the
thigh.
A)
adductor longus
B)
gracilis
C)
gluteus maximus
D)
sartorius
E)
vastus lateralis
17. Which of these muscles is NOT used as an injection site?
A)
deltoid
B)
gluteus medius
C)
gluteus maximus
D)
vastus lateralis
18. The medial group of thigh muscles is involved primarily in
A)
abduction of the thigh.
B)
adduction of the thigh.
C)
extension of the thigh.
D)
flexion of the thigh.
E)
flexion of the leg.
19. Which of these muscles flexes the thigh?
A)
biceps femoris
B)
rectus femoris
C)
semimembranosus
D)
semitendinosus
E)
vastus lateralis
20. A muscle that adducts the thigh and flexes the leg is the
A)
biceps femoris.

B)
C)
D)
E)

gracilis.
pectineus.
rectus femoris.
sartorius.

21. Anterior leg muscles

A)
dorsiflex the foot.
B)
flex the leg.
C)
plantarflex the foot.
D)
extend the leg.
E)
flex the toes.
22. The muscle that enables you to elevate and adduct your scapula is the ____________.
A)
serratus anterior
B)
sternocleidomastoid
C)
splenius capitis
D)
rhomboideus major
23. Which muscle is the strongest flexor of the elbow?
A)
brachialis
B)
biceps brachii
C)
brachioradialis
D)
deltoid
24. The biceps femoris is one hamstring muscle located on the back of the thigh. Which muscle
is the other hamstring?
A)
adductor magnus
B)
semitendinosus
C)
gluteus maximus
D)
quadriceps femoris
25. Which of the following does not belong with the others?
A)
multinucleated
B)
skeletal
C)
striated
D)
involuntary
26. Each muscle fiber is directly surrounded by connective tissue called the _____.
A)
perimysium
B)
fascia
C)
endomysium
D)
epimysium
27. Which term is the smallest subdivision in this group?
A)
fiber
B)
fibril
C)
filament
D)
actin

28. Which description of muscle contraction means that all of the fibers within a muscle are fully
contracted?
A)
all-or-none law
B)
summation
C)
tetanic
D)
muscle twitching
29. The application of multiple stimuli to a muscle is defined as the process called _____.
A)
tetany
B)
summation
C)
fatigue
D)
treppe
30. The term _____ refers to the constant state of contraction of a certain number of fibers within
a muscle.
A)
atrophy
B)
hypertrophy
C)
summation
D)
tone
31. Muscles that are not used, may degenerate or undergo a process of _____.
A)
atrophy
B)
hypertrophy
C)
fatigue
D)
tetany
32. Muscles that act to cause similar movements are called _____.
A)
antagonists
B)
origins
C)
insertions
D)
synergists
33. The major muscle lining the cheek is the _____.
A)
orbicularis oculi
B)
orbicularis oris
C)
zygomaticus
D)
buccinator
34. The triangle shaped muscle which antagonizes the sternocleidomastoid is the _____.
A)
deltoid
B)
pectoralis major
C)
external oblique
D)
trapezius
35. The antagonist to the triceps brachii is the _____.
A)
deltoid
B)
pectoralis major
C)
brachialis
D)
serratus anterior

36. The liquid part of blood after the fibrinogen is removed is

A)
plasma
B)
lymph
C)
serum
D)
puss
37. Unlike any other vertebrates, the erythrocytes of mammals
A)
undergo erythropoiesis
B)
are capable of phagocytosis
C)
secrete antibodies
D)
are multinucleate
38. The tissue layer common to all blood vessels is the
A)
circular smooth muscle
B)
endothelium
C)
longitudinal striated muscle
D)
connective tissue
39. Atria contract
A)
just before diastole
B)
during diastole
C)
right after the systole
D)
during the systole
40. The heartbeat begins with the depolarization of the
A)
atrioventricular node
B)
bundle of His
C)
sinoatrial node
D)
Purkinje fibers
41. Which of the following contains oxygenated blood in an adult human?
A)
right atrium
B)
pulmonary artery
C)
pulmonary vein
D)
all of the above
E)
none of the above
42. The sinoatrial node is derived from the more primitive
A)
ventricle
B)
bundle of His
C)
conus arteriosus
D)
tricuspid valve
E)
sinus venosus
43. Water that diffuses out of the blood plasma is returned to the cardiovascular system by the
A)
hepatic vein
B)
aorta
C)
lymphatic system
D)
megakaryocytes
E)
septum

44. Which of the following is the most muscular chamber in a bird's heart or a mammal's heart?
A)
the right atrium
B)
the left atrium
C)
the left ventricle
D)
the right ventricle
E)
all are equally muscular
45. In which type of heart is there mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood?
A)
fish
B)
frog
C)
crocodile
D)
all of the above
E)
none of the above
46. Which of the following statements about circulatory systems is true?
A)
Hormones are transported in the blood.
B)
All invertebrates have an open circulatory system.
C)
Capillaries have thicker walls than veins do.
D)
The systemic circulation carries blood to and from the lungs.
E)
All of the above are true.
47. Materials are exchanged between the blood and the surrounding tissues in the
A)
arteries
B)
veins
C)
capillaries
D)
all of the above
E)
none of the above
48. Oxygenated blood leaves the human heart via the
A)
pulmonary vein
B)
pulmonary artery
C)
vena cava
D)
aorta
E)
respiratory circuit
49. The innermost tissue layer of arteries is composed of
A)
smooth muscle
B)
Purkinje fibers
C)
connective tissue
D)
elastic fibers
E)
endothelium
50. The lymphatic system
A)
is an open circulatory system
B)
contains one-way valves
C)
returns fluids to the bloodstream
D)
all of the above
E)
none of the above
51. Which of the following is a type of leukocyte?
A)
macrophage

B)
C)
D)
E)

eosinophil
monocyte
all of the above
none of the above

52. Which is the most common type of blood cell in a healthy human?
A)
erythrocytes
B)
monocytes
C)
lymphocytes
D)
eosinophils
E)
basophils
53. Which of the following is a function of the vertebrate circulatory system?
A)
temperature regulation
B)
transport metabolic wastes
C)
provide immune defense
D)
transport oxygen and carbon dioxide
E)
all of the above
54. During heavy exercise, which of the following should happen?
A)
decreased stroke volume
B)
decreased heart rate
C)
vasodilation of blood vessels in skin
D)
all of the above
E)
none of the above
55. Interstitial fluid is derived from fluid that is forced out of the
A)
venule end of capillaries
B)
arteriole end of capillaries
C)
lymph vessels
D)
arteries
E)
veins
56. Which one of the following is not part of the cardiovascular system?
A)
arteries
B)
heart
C)
blood
D)
veins
E)
All of the above are part of the cardiovascular system.
57. Compared to arteries, arterioles:
A)
are smaller in diameter
B)
can be relaxed by hormones
C)
collapse when empty
D)
a and b are correct.
E)
All of the above statements are correct.
58. The transfer of oxygen to the body's cells takes place in the:
A)
arteries
B)
arterioles
C)
capillaries

D)
E)

venules
a, b, and c are correct.

59. Unidirectional valves that prevent the blood from flowing backward are found in the:
A)
arteries
B)
veins
C)
capillaries
D)
all of the above
E)
none of the above
60. Fluid is driven through the lymphatic system by:
A)
contraction of the walls of the lymphatic vessels
B)
pressure created by the pumping of the heart
C)
contractions of the lymph nodes
D)
squeezing of the lymphatic vessels by the body's muscles
E)
a combination of all of the above
61. The lymphatic system is important because it:
A)
collects liquid lost from the circulatory system
B)
returns proteins to circulation
C)
transports fats
D)
carries bacteria to the lymph nodes for destruction
E)
does all of the above
62. Plasma is made up of water and _______________.
A)
metabolites and wastes
B)
salts and ions
C)
proteins
D)
all of the above
E)
none of the above
63. The component of blood that is responsible for clotting is:
A)
platelets
B)
erythrocytes
C)
neutrophils
D)
basophils
E)
none of the above
64. Which one of the following series represents the correct path of blood circulation?
A)
left atrium, left ventricle, lungs, right atrium, right ventricle, body
B)
right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle, body
C)
left atrium, left ventricle, right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, body
D)
right atrium, lungs, right ventricle, left atrium, body, left ventricle
E)
left atrium, lungs, left ventricle, body, right atrium, right ventricle
65. The rhythmic beating of the heart is initiated by the:
A)
Purkinje fibers
B)
bundle of His
C)
atrioventricular node
D)
sinoatrial node
E)
right ventricle

66. The "lub" of the "lub-dub" sound the heart makes is caused by the:
A)
closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves
B)
closing of the pulmonary and aortic valves
C)
sound of blood rushing into the atria
D)
sound of blood rushing into the ventricles
E)
none of the above
67. Hemoglobin, contained in leukocytes, transports oxygen throughout the body.
A)
True
B)
False
68. Pulmonary veins carry blood that is rich in oxygen.
A)
True
B)
False
69. The brain regulates the rate at which you breathe by monitoring the amount of oxygen in the
blood.
A)
True
B)
False
70. Of the following male organs, which one is considered a primary sex organ?
A)
ejaculatory ducts
B)
gonads (testes)
C)
penis
D)
seminal vesicles
71. The ________________ are the site of sperm maturation, and they store and convey
spermatozoa to the dectus deferentia.
A)
interstitial cells of the testes
B)
ejaculatory ducts
C)
bulbourethral glands
D)
epididymides
72. The ______________ of the testes secrete male hormones, such as testosterone.
A)
seminiferous tubules
B)
sustentacular cells
C)
interstitial cells
D)
efferent ductiles
73. Which of these is not an action of the male androgens?
A)
deposition of subcutaneous fat on the hips and thighs
B)
growth of bone and muscle
C)
growth of facial and axillary hair
D)
development of male external genitalia
74. The ____________________ are the first haploid cells during the process of
spermatogenesis.
A)
spermatogonia
B)
primary spermatocytes
C)
secondary spermatocytes
D)
spermatids

75. What is spermiogenesis?

A)
Spermiogenesis is another name for the process of puberty.
B)
Spermiogenesis is the sequence of events that leads to the production of
spermatozoa.
C)
Spermiogenesis is the reabsorbing of sperm that are not ejaculated.
D)
Spermiogenesis is the conversion of spermatids to spermatozoa.
76. Choose the correct order for the path of sperm from the testes to outside the body.
A)
ductus deferens - epididymis - ejaculatory duct - penis
B)
epididymis - ductus deferens - ejaculatory duct - penis
C)
ejaculatory duct - ductus deferens - epididymis - penis
D)
penis - ejaculatory duct - epididymis - ductus deferens
77. What does the prostate gland secrete into the semen?
A)
alkaline secretion to aid the survival of sperm in the acidic atmosphere of the
female reproductive tract
B)
acid phosphatase
C)
thin liquid that helps sperm become motile
D)
All of these are secretions of the prostate.
78. What portions of the penis contain erectile tissue that becomes engorged with blood?
A)
corpora cavernosa
B)
corpus spongiosum
C)
corona glandis
D)
both "A" and "B"
E)
both "B" and "C"
F)
"A", "B", and "C"
79. During sexual arousal, ___________________ impulses cause vasodilation of the arterioles
of the penis.
A)
parasympathetic
B)
sympathetic
C)
somatic
D)
None of these - vasodilation is the result of hormonal influences.
80. When semen is discharged, about ______________ of the volume is made up of
spermatozoa.
A)
1%
B)
10%
C)
40%
D)
75%
81. There are several developmental problems of the male reproductive system. Those
associated with __________________ result from having one X chromosome and no Y
chromosome.
A)
Klinefelter's syndrome
B)
hermaphroditism
C)
Turner's syndrome
D)
cryptochidism

82. Which of these sexually transmitted diseases is caused by a virus?

A)
gonorrhea
B)
syphilis
C)
genital herpes
D)
chlamydia
83. The following statements are comparisons of male and female reproduction; choose the
statement that is incorrect.
A)
the reproductive organs of both sexes are homologous
B)
both sexes have reproductive capabilities throughout adulthood
C)
both systems experience latent development
D)
both systems have gonads that produce gametes and sex hormones
84. What reproductive organ(s) of the female secretes fluid for vaginal lubrication during coitus?
A)
uterine tubes
B)
labia majora
C)
vestibular glands
D)
pudendal cleft
85. When do the oogonia begin meiosis in the female?
A)
at puberty
B)
monthly during menstruation
C)
at age 20
D)
toward the end of gestation of the female fetus
86. Ovulation is triggered by _______________.
A)
follicle-stimulating hormone
B)
a mid-cycle surge of luteinizing hormone
C)
hormones from the follicular cells
D)
hormones from the theca interna
87. When the secondary oocyte is released from the ovary, it is surrounded by
____________________.
A)
corpus luteum
B)
zona pellucida
C)
corona radiata
D)
polar bodies
E)
All of the above.
F)
"A" and "C" only
G)
"B" and "C" only
88. The following statements concern the uterine tubes. Choose the statement that is true.
A)
The infundibulum is not actually attached to the ovary and can allow pathogens to
enter the abdominal cavity.
B)
The fimbriae do not beat in a wave-like fashion but instead are stationary.
C)
The outer serous layer of the uterine tube is part of the parietal peritoneum.
D)
The internal mucosa that lines the lumen is made up of squamous epithelium.
89. The opening of the cervical canal into the vagina is called the ____________________.
A)
cervix

B)
C)
D)

cervical canal
isthmus of the uterus
uterine ostium

90. What portion of the uterus is shed during menstruation?

A)
perimetrium
B)
stratum functionale of the endometrium
C)
stratum basale of the endometrium
D)
myometrium
91. The __________________ is a subcutaneous pad of adipose tissue covering the symphysis
pubis.
A)
perineum
B)
vulva
C)
mons pubis
D)
prepuce
92. In what part of the breast is milk stored before draining at the tip of the nipple?
A)
areola
B)
mammary alveoli
C)
lactiferous sinus
D)
mammary ducts
93. During the _________________ phase of menstruation, the lining of the uterus rebuilds.
A)
menstrual
B)
proliferative
C)
secretory
D)
The lining of the uterus rebuilds continually.
94. Severe menstrual cramps accompany ________________.
A)
amenorrhea
B)
menorrhagia
C)
dysmenorrhea
D)
metrorragia
95. In the process of oogenesis, a polar body
A)
is formed before fertilization.
B)
is formed after fertilization.
C)
normally receives most of the cytoplasm of the cell.
D)
is a very cold cell.
E)
both a and b
96. During ovulation, a(n) __________ is released from the ovary.
A)
oogonium
B)
primary oocyte
C)
secondary oocyte
D)
polar body
E)
zygote
97. After ovulation, the granulosa cells of the follicle develop into a glandular structure called the
A)
corpus luteum.

B)
C)
D)
E)

corpus albicans.
corpus spongiosum.
corpus cavernosum.
corpus delecti.

98. The funnel-shaped end of the uterine tube (fallopian tube) is the
A)
ampulla.
B)
fimbriae.
C)
infundibulum.
D)
mesosalpinx.
E)
serosa.
99. The large, superior, rounded portion of the uterus is the
A)
cervix.
B)
fundus.
C)
isthmus.
D)
ostium.
E)
body.
100.The innermost layer of the uterus is the
A)
endometrium.
B)
myometrium.
C)
perimetrium.