Professional Documents
Culture Documents
2.1
Suppose there are N risky assets, whose rates of returns are given by the random
variables R1 , , RN , where
Rn =
Sn(1) Sn (0)
, n = 1, 2, , N.
Sn(0)
RP =
N
X
wnRn .
n=1
Assumptions
1. There does not exist any asset that is a combination of other assets in the
portfolio, that is, non-existence of redundant security.
N
X
E[wn Rn] =
n=1
N
X
n=1
and
2 = var(R ) =
P
P
N X
N
X
wiwj cov(Ri, Rj ) =
i=1 j=1
N X
N
X
wiij wj .
i=1 j=1
w2 )
11 12
21 22
w1
w2
Remark
2 . In mean-variance
1. The portfolio risk of return is quantified by P
analysis, only the first two moments are considered in the portfolio model. Investment theory prior to Markowitz considered
the maximization of P but without P .
Two-asset portfolio
Consider two risky assets with known means R1 and R2, variances
12 and 22, of the expected rates of returns R1 and R2, together
with the correlation coefficient .
Let 1 and be the weights of assets 1 and 2 in this two-asset
portfolio.
Portfolio mean: RP = (1 )R1 + R2, 0 1
2 = (1 )2 2 + 2(1 ) + 2 2 .
Portfolio variance: P
1 2
1
2
In particular, when = 1,
P (; = 1) =
= (1 )1 + 2.
This is the straight line joining P1(1, R1) and P2(2, R2).
When = 1, we have
P (; = 1) =
Suppose 1 < < 1, the minimum variance point on the curve that
represents various portfolio combinations is determined by
2
P
= 2(1 )12 + 222 + 2(1 2)12 = 0
set
giving
12 12
= 2
.
1 212 + 22
subject to
N
X
wiRi = P and
i=1
N
X
i=1
N X
N
1 X
2 i=1 j=1
wiwj ij 1
N
X
i=1
wi 1 2
N
X
i=1
wi R i P
10
We then differentiate L with respect to wi and the Lagrangian multipliers, and set the derivative to zero.
N
X
L
=
ij wj 1 2Ri = 0, i = 1, 2, , N.
wi
j=1
(1)
N
X
L
=
wi 1 = 0;
1
i=1
N
X
L
=
wiRi P = 0.
2
i=1
(2)
(3)
From Eq. (1), the portfolio weight admits solution of the form
w = 1(11 + 2)
where
1 = (1
(4)
R2 RN )T .
11
w = 11 1 + 21 1.
P = T 1w = 1T 11 + 2T 1.
1 =
(5)
(6)
2
= ac b .
Note that 1 and 2 have dependence on P , which is the target
mean prescribed in the variance minimization problem.
12
(111 + 21)
a2
2bP + c
P
= 1 + 2P =
.
= w
w = w
13
so that
dP
?
dP
lim
2
dP dP
=
2 d
dP
P
=
2P
2a
2b
P q
=
a2
P 2bP + c
aP b
dP
=
.
lim
dP
a
14
Summary
aP b
c bP
and 2 =
, and the optimal
11
wg =
=
a
11
11
15
1
.
b
The weight vector of this particular portfolio is
2 =
=
wd =
b
Also, d2 =
2
c
a b 2b cb + c
c
= 2.
b
16
Feasible set
Given N risky assets, we form various portfolios from these N assets.
We plot the point (P , RP ) representing the portfolios in the R
diagram. The collection of these points constitutes the feasible set
or feasible region.
17
18
19
20
2.2
Two-fund theorem
Two frontier funds (portfolios) can be established so that any frontier portfolio can be duplicated, in terms of mean and variance, as
a combination of these two. In other words, all investors seeking
frontier portfolios need only invest in combinations of these two
funds.
Remark
Any convex combination (that is, weights are non-negative) of efficient portfolios is an efficient portfolio. Let i 0 be the weight
h
i
b
i
i
of Fund i whose rate of return is Rf . Since E Rf for all i, we
a
have
n
n
h
i
X
X
b
b
i
iE Rf
i = .
a
i=1
i=1 a
21
Proof
1 ), 1 , 1 and w 2 = (w2 w2 )T , 2, 2 are two
Let w1 = (w11 wn
n
1 2
1
1 2
known solutions to the minimum variance formulation with expected
2 , respectively.
rates of return 1
and
P
P
n
X
j=1
n
X
i=1
n
X
ij wj 1 2Ri = 0,
i = 1, 2, , n
(1)
wi r i = P
(2)
wi = 1.
(3)
i=1
i
1
2
wi + (1 )wi Ri
i=1
n
X
wi1Ri + (1 )
i=1
2
= 1
P + (1 )P .
n
X
wi2Ri
i=1
23
Proposition
Any minimum variance portfolio with target mean P can be uniquely
decomposed into the sum of two portfolios
c bP
where A =
a.
wP = Awg + (1 A)wd
Proof
For a minimum-variance portfolio whose solution of the Lagrangian
multipliers are 1 and 2, the optimal weight is
c P b
and
ab
2 = P
.
24
Indeed, any two minimum-variance portfolios can be used to substitute for wg and wd. Suppose
wu = (1 u)wg + uwd
wv = (1 v)wg + v wd
we then solve for wg and wd in terms of wu and wv . Then
wP = 1awg + (1 1a)w d
1a + v 1
1 u 1a
=
wu +
wv ,
vu
vu
where sum of coefficients = 1.
25
Example
Mean, variances and covariances of the rates of return of 5 risky
assets are listed:
Security
1
2.30
2
0.93
3
0.62
4
0.74
5
0.23
covariance
0.93 0.62
0.74
1.40 0.22
0.56
0.22 1.80
0.78
0.56 0.78
3.40
0.26 0.27 0.56
0.23
0.26
0.27
0.56
2.60
Ri
15.1
12.5
14.7
9.02
17.68
26
j=1
ij vj1 = 1,
i = 1, 2, , 5.
1
After normalization, this gives the solution to wg , where 1 =
a
and 2 = 0.
27
ij vj2 = Ri,
j=1
i = 1, 2, , 5.
1T 11
28
security
1
2
3
4
5
mean
variance
standard deviation
v1
0.141
0.401
0.452
0.166
0.440
v2
3.652
3.583
7.284
0.874
7.706
w1
w2
0.088
0.158
0.251
0.155
0.282
0.314
0.104
0.038
0.275
0.334
14.413 15.202
0.625
0.659
0.791
0.812
29
c
T
T
d = w d =
= .
b
b
c b
c
Also, difference in variances = d2 g2 = 2 = 2 > 0.
b
a
ab
30
where R
so that
gd = cov
=
=
1
a
1 R,
1T 1 = 1
ab
11
1
wg =
and wd =
a
b
1
b
1
b
since
b = 1 1.
31
In general,
u
v
cov(RP
, RP
) = (1 u)(1 v)g2 + uvd2 + [u(1 v) + v(1 u)]gd
uvc
u + v 2uv
(1 u)(1 v)
=
+ 2 +
a
b
a
1
uv
=
+
.
2
a
ab
In particular,
cov(Rg , RP ) = wT
g w P =
11wP
a
1
= = var(Rg )
a
32
33
mean-variance analysis
b 2
E[U (y)] = E ay y
2
b
= aE[y] E[y 2]
2
b
b
2
= aE[y] (E[y]) var(y).
2
2
Note that we choose the range of the quadratic utility function such
b
that aE[y] (E[y])2 is increasing in E[y]. Maximizing E[y] for a
2
given var(y) or minimizing var(y) for a given E[y] is equivalent to
maximizing E[U (y)].
34
Normal Returns
When all returns are normal random variables, the mean-variance
criterion is also equivalent to the expected utility approach for any
risk-averse utility function.
To deduce this, select a utility function U . Consider a random
wealth variable y that is a normal random variable with mean value
M and standard deviation . Since the probability distribution is
completely defined by M and , it follows that the expected utility
is a function of M and . If U is risk averse, then
E[U (y)] = f (M, ),
f
with
>0
M
and
f
< 0.
35
Now suppose that the returns of all assets are normal random
variables. Then any linear combination of these assets is a normal random variable. Hence any portfolio problem is therefore
equivalent to the selection of combination of assets that maximizes the function f (M, ) with respect to all feasible combinations.
For a risky-averse utility, this again implies that the variance
should be minimized for any given value of the mean. In other
words, the solution must be mean-variance efficient.
Portfolio problem is to find w such that f (M, ) is maximized
with respect to all feasible combinations.
36
2.3
Consider a portfolio with weight for a risk free asset and 1 for
a risky asset. The mean of the portfolio is
RP = Rf + (1 )Rj
(note that Rf = Rf ).
The covariance f j between the risk free asset and any risky asset
is zero since
E[(Rj Rj ) (Rf Rf ) = 0.
|
{z
}
zero
2 is
Therefore, the variance of portfolio P
2 = 2 2 +(1 )2 2 + 2(1 )
P
fj
j
f
|{z}
|{z}
zero
zero
so that P = |1 |j .
37
38
39
40
The new efficient set is the single straight line on the top of the
new triangular feasible region. This tangent line touches the original
feasible region at a point F , where F lies on the efficient frontier of
the original feasible set.
b
. This assumption is reasonable since the risk free
a
asset should earn a rate of return less than the expected rate of
return of the global minimum variance portfolio.
Here, Rf <
41
N
X
wi .
i=1
minimize
wT + (1 wT 1)r = P .
subject to
1 T
Define the Lagrangian: L = w w + [P r ( r1)T w]
2
N
X
L
=
ij wj ( r1) = 0,
wi
j=1
L
=0
giving
i = 1, 2, , N
(1)
( r1)T w = P r.
(2)
43
2 = w w = (w r w
P
1)
44
With the inclusion of the riskfree asset, the set of minimum variance
portfolios are represented by portfolios on the two half lines
Lup : P r = P
Llow : P r = P
ar2 2br + c
ar2 2br + c.
(3a)
(3b)
Recall that ar2 2br + c > 0 for all values of r since = ac b2 > 0.
The minimum variance portfolios without the riskfree asset lie on
the hyperbola
2 2b + c
a
P
2
P
.
P
=
45
b
When r < g = , the upper half line is a tangent to the hyperbola.
a
The tangency portfolio is the tangent point to the efficient frontier
(upper part of the hyperbolic curve) through the point (0, r).
46
P = r + P
c 2rb + r2a.
Once M
P is obtained, the corresponding values for M and w M are
M
r
1
P
M =
and
w
=
( r1).
M
M
2
c 2rb + r a
The tangency portfolio M is shown to be
1( r
wM =
b ar
1) ,
c br
M
=
P
b ar
and
c 2rb + r2a
2
P,M =
.
2
(b ar)
47
b
> r. Note that
When r < , it can be shown that M
P
a
b b ar
c br
=
b ar a
a
c br
b2
br
=
2+
a
a
a
ca b2
=
=
> 0,
2
2
a
a
b
b
M
so we deduce that P > > r, where g = .
a
a
b
M
P
a
b
r
a
48
b
When r < , we have the following properties on the minimum
a
variance portfolios.
1. Efficient portfolios
Any portfolio on the upper half line
P = r + P
ar2 2br + c
ar2 2br + c
b2
P = r P c 2
b+
= r P
,
a
a
a
which correspond to the asymptotes of the feasible region with risky
assets only.
b
, efficient funds still lie on the upper half line,
a
M
though P does not exist. Recall that
Even when r =
w = 1( r1) so that
b
When r > , the lower half line touches the feasible region with
a
risky assets only.
52
53
54