MODULE 13 Exam

1. Flaps at landing position

a) decrease take off and landing speed
b) decrease take off speed
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c) decrease landing speed
2. Lowering of the flaps
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a) increases drag and lift
b) increases drag
c) increases lift
3. Pushing the left rudder pedal
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a) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the right wing will rise
b) yaws the aircraft left and possibly the left wing will rise
c) yaws the aircraft left but has no effect on the wing
4. What preventative maintenance can be carried out in case of HIRF?
a) Check of aircraft structure
b) Bonding and insulation tests
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c) Shielding of all sensitive equipment
5. What do ruddervators do?
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a) Control pitch and yaw
b) Control pitch and roll
c) Control yaw and roll
6. On a helicopter what is dragging?
a) Movement of each blade vertically about their lateral hinges
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b) Movement of each blade horizontally about their vertical hinge
c) Contact of the blade tips on the ground
7. What controls pitch and roll on a delta wing aircraft?
a) Elevators
b) Ailerons
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c) Elevons
8. If you add an aerial, to strengthen the airframe you add
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a) an internal doubler
b) external doubler
c) an intercostals
9. What does a trim tab do?
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a) Eases control loading for pilot
b) Allows the C of G to be outside the normal limit
c) Provides finer control movements by the pilot

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10. How does a balance tab move?

a) In the same direction proportional to the control surface it is
attached to
b) In the same direction a small amount
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c) In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is
attached to
11. Satellite transmits updates on every
a) 13th orbit
b) 9th orbit
c) 2nd orbit
12. Galley and cabin lighting operate on
a) DC bus
b) AC bus
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c) GND services
13. Buffer amp on transmitter is between
a) modulator and power amp
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b) local oscillator and modulator
c) local oscillator and demodulator
14. Aircraft is North of VOR beacon on a course of 090 RMI pointer
points to
a) 0
b) 090
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c) 180
15. What is power at pulse?
a) Peak power
b) Pulsed power
c) Average power
16. What frequency increases radar relative range
a) Long
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b) Short
c) Radar relative range cannot be increased by frequency change
17. If radar pulse is reduced there is
a) increased relative range
b) reduced relative range
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c) no effect
18. If an 80 ohm coaxial cable is connected to an 80 ohm dipole aerial,
resistance would be
a) 80 ohm
b) 160 ohm
c) 0 ohm
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19. Adding 6 foot of cable to TX RX aerials on rad alt would give you
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a) 3 ft error
b) 6ft error
c) 12 foot error
20. Maximum power on a wave guide is governed by the
a) widest width
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b) narrowest width
c) number of joints and bends
21. Which side of the pilot is the collective?
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a) Left
b) Right
c) In-between legs
22. What effect does the ground have on a helicopter?
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a) Increases lift
b) No effect
c) Increases thrust
23. What damps vibrations on a helicopter?
a) Pfifer damper
b) Swashplate
c) Scissor levers
24. What design factors govern RPM of a helicopter rotor?
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a) Weight of blade
b) Engine and gearbox
c) Fineness ratio
25. Relative velocity of rotor
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a) increases at fwd travelling blade
b) increases at retreating blade
c) is equal for all blades
26. When OAT increases what happens to an helicopter operating
ceiling?
a) Increase
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b) Decrease
c) No effect
27. How many satellites required for GNS?
a) 8
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b) 4
c) 6 90o apart

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28. If on a lead-acid battery, several cell checks of SG read consistently

low. Battery needs
a) topping up with distilled water
b) replacing
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c) recharging
29. What happens when battery master is switched off in flight?
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a) Battery disconnected from charge circuit
b) No effect
c) Electrical systems shut down
30. in MLS, what is the beam angle away from runway
a) 20 degrees
b) 15 degrees
c) 10 degrees
31. A full operational autopilot system will ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to
overshoot if any failure is detected
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c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of a
single failure
32. What is the 'Q' code for runway heading?
a) QDH
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b) QDM
c) QDR
33. during an automatic landing, the aircraft descent rate is sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
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b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers
34. the aircraft decrabbing signal, used during autoland, originates from
a) roll errors
b) localiser deviation errors
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c) heading errors
35. An automatic throttle, engaged in the EPR mode, will control
a) the aircraft altitude to maintain constant engine input pressure
b) the engine throttles to maintain a constant acceleration rate
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c) the engine throttles to maintain a constant engine power
setting
36. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated
a) only when autopilot is engaged
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b) after glideslope capture
c) at any time
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37. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is known
as the
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a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
38. The International Civil Aviation Organisation weather category 3A is
a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without
external reference
b) operation down to sixty meters and RVR of 800 meters
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c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with
RVR of 200 meters
39. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by
a) information obtained the local Meteorological Office
b) three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
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c) one set of instruments the threshold of the runway
40. A category 3B aircraft using fail operational automatic landing
equipment which fail operational control and roll out guidance will have
a) a decision height of about 50 feet
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b) no decision height
c) a decision height depending upon the RVR
41. The purpose of a yaw damper is to
a) assist the aerodynamic response
b) produce a co-ordinated turn
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c) block the Dutch roll frequency
42. in a triplex system, the detection of a failure of one simplex system
will disconnect
a) all channels
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b) the failed system and carry on with an autoland
c) the failed system and continue with a manual approach
43. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by
a) differentiating deviation signal
b) integrating deviation signal
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c) integrating course error
44. With autothrottle selected in the SPEED MODE compatible autopilot
modes are
a) VOR ARM and HDG HOLD
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b) IAS HOLD and ALT ARM
c) V/S and ALT ARM

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45. Which modes are incompatible

a) VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
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b) G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
c) HDG + V/S HOLD
46. To carry out an autopilot check first
a) switch off all power
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b) ensure all control surfaces are unobstructed
c) switch on NAV receivers
47. FAIL PASSIVE means
a) system self monitors, failure does not affect system
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b) system self monitors, failure does affect system
c) system is duplicated, failure allows aircraft to continue
autoland
48. On the approach the autopilot loses the LOC signal; the aircraft
would
a) fly a circle
b) increase its drift angle
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c) fly parallel to the beam
49. The Airworthiness requirements for the autopilot / autoland system
are laid down in
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a) JAR AWO
b) CAIPs
c) BCARs
50. VOR capture can be determined by
a) a predetermined level of the course error signal away from the
selected radial
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b) is computed from the vectorial summation of the course error
and radio deviation signals
c) a predetermined level of the VOR deviation signal away from
the selected radial
51. Versine is generated by
a) torque receiver synchros
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b) synchros resolvers
c) control synchro transformers
52. Automatic trim is used to
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a) maintain level flight
b) prevents standing loads on the elevator
c) allow full authority to be regained by the aileron

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53. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by

a) measured radio deviation
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b) rate of change of radio deviation
c) rate of change of course
54. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure
a) that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement
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b) that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions
engagement
c) that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level
flight when the autopilot is engaged
55. In the FMS vertical navigation (V NAV) climb mode the throttles are
used for
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a) maintaining a computed EPR
b) controlling to a maximum thrust
c) correction minor speed deviations
56. The GA mode is usually initiated by
a) pressing a button on the control wheel
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b) pressing a button on thrust levers
c) making a selection on the mode control panel
57. On selection of the Turbulence Mode
a) the gain is doubled to reduce oscillation
b) the gain remains the same but signals are phase advanced
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c) the gain is reduced to prevent stresses to the airframe
58. To know the valid data base on the FMS
a) perform a BITE check
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b) call up the relevant page on the CDU
c) call up the relevant current status
59. Co-ordinated autopilot turns are achieved by
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a) yaw rate gyro signals
b) aileron to rudder crossfeed
c) aileron to elevator crossfeed
60. A yaw damper system operates on
a) all yaw frequencies
b) only mid range frequencies
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c) low range frequencies
61. A GCR will trip if what is detected?
a) Under frequency and over frequency
b) Over frequency and under current
c) Over current and over frequency
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62. What is the impedance of VOR or HF aerial cables?

a) 75 ohms and 25 ohms
b) 25 ohms
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c) 50 ohms
63. To improve the image or picture when using the WRX (weather radar
receiver)
a) scan at a lower rate
b) use shorter bursts
c) use longer bursts
64. In a vibrator type voltage regulator
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a) the resistor is in series with the field
b) parallel with the field
c) in series with the voltage coil
65. Where does it state what emergency equipment and what levels of
emergency equipment should be carried on an aircraft
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a) BCAR section A4-8 or A8-4
b) JAR OPS
c) Maintenance Manual
66. If a section of the emergency floor proximity lights are inoperative
a) the aircraft cannot fly i.e. grounded until the defect is fixed
b) the aircraft can fly but the section with the problem is not used/
shut off
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c) the aircraft is allowed to fly back to base where the defect can
be fixed
67. The tail nav light. What angle of divergence should it have?
a) 180 degrees
b) 120 degrees
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c) 140 degrees
68. When changing the brushes on a DC generator the brushes must be
bedded first, this can be done
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a) with the generator fitted to the aircraft
b) the generator taken off the aircraft and bedding done on the
bench
c) at the manufacturers only
69. What must be taken into account when measuring the SG or relative
density of a lead acid battery?
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a) The temperature
b) The ambient pressure
c) The ambient humidity

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70. The polythene coating on a HF antenna wire is provided

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a) to prevent precipitation static build up
b) to prevent the wire from corroding
c) to prevent the wire from chafing
71. Weather radar domes are protected from lightning strikes by
a) the use of special conductive paint
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b) bonding strips
c) special conducting or non-conducting grease
72. An elevator tab moves down
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a) to counteract for the aircraft flying nose heavy
b) to make the nose go down
c) to counteract for the aircraft flying tail heavy
73. The electrolyte in a nicad battery can be checked by checking
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a) one cell at a time until all cells are completed
b) only the end cell as all the others will be the same
c) any single cell as all the others will be the same
74. In a RVSM system what is the tolerance level of separation i.e.. + or feet
a) 400ft
b) 160ft
c) 80ft
75. in a fly by wire system, pitch and roll control positions are known by
using
a) LVDTs for roll control surfaces and RVDTs for pitch control
surfaces
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b) LVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
c) RVDTs for roll and pitch control surfaces
76. in a CMC aircraft, flight deck indications and warnings are managed
and provided by
a) the central warning computer (CWC)
b) the electronic interface units (EIU)
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c) the engine indicatig and crew alert system (EICAS)
77. What type of memory do CMCs have?
a) Volatile
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b) Non-volatile
c) Hard
78. What is the purpose of the tail cone in helicopters?
a) To provide a balance for CofG
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b) To hold the stabilizers and tail rotor
c) To provide vibration damping to the tail rotor
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79. An aircraft in climb maintains the same IAS. What is it's true
airspeed?
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a) Higher than its IAS
b) Lower than its IAS
c) The same as its IAS
80. The stall margin is controlled by
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a) EPR limits
b) speed bug cursor
c) angle of attack and flap position
81. When can the FMS be engaged with the autothrottle
a) only with the Flight Director selected
b) With either the Flight Director or the Digital Control System
(DFCS) engaged
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c) only after take off
82. A full authority Digital Engine Control System (FADEC) consists of
a) electronic engine control unit only
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b) electronic engine control unit and all its sensors
c) electronic engine control unit and throttle position transmitter
83. A FADEC system does not have the following system?
a) An automatic starting capability
b) Control of thrust reverser operation
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c) Automatic control of engine fire extinguishers
84. Which is the correct sequence for an autoland?
a) Glideslope capture, altitude hold and flare
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b) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, attitude hold and flare
c) Localiser capture, glideslope capture, flare and attitude hold
85. The wheel height at which the approach path has been visually
assessed as satisfactory to continue the approach to a landing is know
as the
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a) decision height
b) intercept height
c) alert height
86. The ICAO weather category 3A is
a) operation down to and along the surface of the runway without
external reference
b) operation down to 60 m and 800 m
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c) operation down to and along the surface of the runway with
RVR of 200m

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87. A category 11 facility performance ILS has an intercept height of

a) 15 m
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b) 60 m
c) 0 m
88. The facility performance ILS intersect height is the point
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a) where the aeroplane receives the first glide path signal
b) the localiser and glide path signals cross each other
c) where the aeroplanes first receives both the localiser and glide
path signals
89. The average risk of autoland should not contribute a rate of fatal
accidents per landing greater than
a) 1 x 10-6
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b) 1 x 10-7
c) 1 x 10-8
90. Before an aeroplane is able to make an automatic landing the
a) ground radio aids must be at least CAT II
b) ground radio aids must be at CAT III
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c) ILS system must be working
91. For an aeroplane to be certified for automatic landing an autothrottle
system is
a) mandatory
b) a matter of choice for the operator
c) dependent upon the operation of the aeroplane at slow speed
92. The overshoot or go around mode is initiated
a) automatically
b) by a selector on the throttle control panel
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c) by pushing the throttles forward to maximum
93. The aeroplanes autopilot is programmed to leave the glide slope at
a) 300 ft
b) the decrab phase
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c) start of flare phase
94. Overshoot or go-around mode can be initiated
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a) only when the autopilot is engaged
b) at any time after autoland has been engaged
c) at any time
95. The following modes may be retained when overshoot has been
initiated after the selection of autoland
a) ILS localiser an IAS
b) IAS and glide slope
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c) IAS and steering or heading
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96. If go-around has been initiated after autoland has been selected, the
aeroplane will
a) increase speed
b) rotate nose up
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c) increase speed and rotate nose up
97. V NAV can be selected
a) alone
b) only if A/P and F/D selected
c) only if A/T selected
98. If during autoland the LOC signal is lost at 400 ft in final approach
a) system degrade to CAT II
b) autoland is continued
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c) go-around is initiated
99. The order of autoland approach is
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a) LOC, GS, ATT HOLD, FLARE
b) GS, LOC, ATT HOLD, FLARE
c) LOC, GS, FLARE, ATT HOLD
100. Purpose of an autoland decrabbing manoeuvre is to
a) assist with localiser tracking
b) assist with glide slope tracking
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c) point the aircraft down the runway at touch down
101. An autoland failure monitoring system must ensure that
a) the automatic pilot will automatically disengage whenever any
failure is detected
b) the automatic pilot will automatically cause the aircraft to
overshoot if any failure is detected
c) the aircraft will continue its automatic landing in the event of
signal failure
102. The effective gain of the glide path receiver
a) is increased as the aircraft descends
b) remains constant as the aircraft descends
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c) is decreased as the aircraft descends
103. During an automatic landing , the aircraft descent rate is sensed by
a) pitch rate gyros
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b) radio altimeters
c) vertical accelerometers
104. An autopilot with two separate power supplies is
a) fail passive
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b) fail operational
c) fail redundant
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105. on touchdown, auto pilot

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a) remains engaged ready for G/A
b) drives the throttles forward
c) disconnects after a short time
106. When will the decision height aural warning sound
a) at D.H.
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b) before D.H.
c) after D.H.
107. Automatic steering of the aircraft after touch down is affected by
a) the area navigation system
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b)the runway localiser
c) the airfield marker beacon
108. The flare manoeuvre may be controlled by signals from
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a) radio altimeter
b) the glide slope receiver
c) the localiser receiver
109. A triplex system looses one channel, the system is now,
a) fail passive
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b) fail operational
c) fail redundant
110. A fail passive system in the event of failure will
a) produce a significant out of trim condition
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b) produce no significant out of trim condition
c) ensure the aircraft can still land automatically
111. A triplex system loses one channel, the system becomes a
a) simplex system
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b) duplex system
c) dual-dual system
112. The two parameters used for category classification are
a) radio height/runway visual range
b) localiser and glideslope
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c) decision height and runway visual range
113. What is the controlling factor in the automatic flare mode?
a) Decision height
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b) Radio altimeter
c) Glideslope signal

Page 13 - Mod 13

114. CAT-3b allows

a) approach land and runway guidance with zero DH and RVR
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b) approach land and RVR in the order of 50 meters
c) approach land and runway guidance with taxing visibility in the
order of 50 meters
115. The definition of fail operational is the ability of a system to
a) disconnect and leave the aircraft in trim
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b) continue to control after any first fault
c) disconnect but leave the aircraft out of trim
116. What is added to the flare computation at touchdown?
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a) Nose down bias
b) Nose up bias
c) No signal
117. What controls are used in response to the PVD displays?
a) Ailerons
b) Throttles
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c) Nosewheel steering or rudder pedals
118. The ground run monitor (GRM) presents
a) distance to go
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b) ground speed and distance to go
c) take off speed and distance to go
119. for a vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be
moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
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b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
120. Versine is used in which channel?
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a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
121. With airspeed hold engaged whilst flying with Flight Director
engaged, a down command means your speed has
a) increased
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b) decreased
c) is the same
122. A Master Warning is issued when
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a) overspeed and low cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and a low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire and generator trip occurs
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123. The total static resistance along the length of an aircraft is

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a) 50 milliohms
b) 1 ohms
c) 1M - 100,000 ohms
124. In the ATA zoning where is section 100 in on an aircraft
a) in the undercarriage bay including the doors
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b) at the lower section of the cabin up to the pressure bulkhead
c) at the rear of the fuselage behind the bulkhead
125. Sparking in a generator would be caused by
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a) low spring tension
b) bedding of brushes
c) brushes on the Magnetic Neutral Axis
126. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on
HIRF installations?
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a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications
127. What should be done to a transformer secondary connections
which are open circuit?
a) Short the terminals together
b) Put a set resistance across the terminals
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c) Leave the terminals open circuit
128. an RMI in VOR mode, it's Pointer is showing a course of 000, if the
course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
129. If a fault is detected during an autoland approach the system will
totally disconnect if it is a
a) Triplex system
b) Duplex system
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c) Simplex system
130. A Glass Reinforced Plastic surface on an aircraft, to reduce the risk
of high potential differences would be
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a) painted in a conductive paint
b) painted in a non-conductive paint
c) bonded to the primary structure
131. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
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a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 and 50 ohms respectively
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132. TAS uses which inputs

a) Pitot and Static
b) Pitot and Static, Mach and Temperature
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c) Mach and Temp
133. Other than spoilers, where are speed brakes located?
a) On the wing
b) Under the Fuselage
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c) Either side of the Fuselage
134. With a trailing edge flap being lowered, due to rising gusts what will
happen to the angle of attack?
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a) Tend to increase
b) Tend to decrease
c) Stay the same
135. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
c) remains in the previous position
136. A poor oscillator in a receiver would cause
a) poor channel selectivity
b) poor audio output
c) poor volume output
137. The Ground Proximity Warning Computer in mode 4 would use
which inputs to issue a warning?
a) A low range altimeter and rate of change of low range altimeter
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b) A low range altimeter and configuration of aircraft
c) A low range altimeter and GPS
138. Alert Height is when
a) a decision of whether to land is made
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b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the ground proximity is made
139. When downgrading an Autoland system what needs to be done?
a) Placards in the cockpit
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b) An entry in the log book and cockpit placarding
c) Crew retraining
140. If a drain trap in a pitot static system is removed but nothing was
found
a) no leak test is required unless the drain trap contains water
b) a leak test must be carried out even if nothing found
c) a leak test is never required
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141. TCAS transmits and receives on a frequency of

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a) 1030 MHz and 1090mhz respectively
b) 1090mhz and 1030mhz respectively
c) 1090 MHz
142. When an aircraft is aligned for a compass swing check to be carried
out it will be aligned with an error of plus or minus
a) 1 degree
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b) 3 degree
c) 5 degree
143. The quadrantal error in ADF is maximum at a heading of
a) 000
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b) 045
c) 090
144. Circulating currents is caused by an unbalanced
a) DC generators
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b) AC generators
c) AC & DC generators
145. A device used do dump lift from an aircraft is the
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a) spoiler
b) leading edge flaps
c) trailing edge flaps
146. Runway turn of lights have a beam width of
a) 10 degree
b) 110 degree
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c) 50 degree
147. Stall warning will be given at speeds
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a) that are higher than stall speed
b) that are lower than stall speed
c) at the actual stall speed
148. when a helicopter lands how does the pilot signal to the ground
staff that it is safe to approach the aircraft?
a) Turning on and off the NAV lights
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b) Turning off the anti-collision lights
c) Flashing the landing light
149. An aircraft will capture the auto land system at
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a) 1500 ft
b) 2500 ft
c) 3500 ft

Page 17 - Mod 13

150. FADEC system gets its power supply from

a) channel A and B from the same windings of a dedicated
Generator
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b) channel A and B from separate windings of a dedicated
Generator
c) emergency Batt bus
151. Loss of an electrolyte in a battery is due to
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a) excessive charging current
b) insufficient charging current
c) excessive charging voltage
152. An autopilot interlock circuit is to
a) prevent the system engagement if a fault exists
b) disconnect the system if a fault appears
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c) both a & b
153. A rain fall of 5mm/hr is indicated in the WXR by a
a) green colour
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b) amber
c) red colour
154. The international emergency frequency used in VHF Comms is
a) 131.55
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b) 121.5
c) 118.00
155. In a modern aircraft a BITE is carried out
a) on the ground only
b) continuously when the systems are working
c) only in the air
156. The electrical A/H has a movement of
a) 85 degree in pitch and roll
b) 360 in roll and 110 in pitch
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c) 360 in roll and 85 in pitch
157. When working on a hydraulic operated flight control it is sensible to
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a) remove/disconnect hydraulic power
b) remove/disconnect electrical power
c) pull the appropriate CB
158. Emergency electronic equipment requirement will be found in
a) CAAIPs
b) Maintenance Manual
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c) JAR OPS
Page 18 - Mod 13

159. When an aircraft is at a height of 9500ft and the QNH is 500 ft what
is the distance that VHF Com cover?
a) 100 nm
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b) 120 nm
c) 140 nm
160. When the VOR ref and Vari phase are in phase quadrature, the
aircraft is at the
a) 180 degree radial
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b) 090 degree radial
c) 275 degree radial
161. A unit with two springs and a mass pick off is
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a) an accelerometer
b) a gyroscope
c) a tachogenerator
162. The units of vibration are measured in
a) phons
b) decibels
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c) relative amplitude
163. A fuel flow system can be adjusted for
a) maximum flow rate
b) minimum flow rate
c) cannot be adjusted
164. Magnetic variation is the difference in angle between
#
a) true north and magnetic north
b) magnetic heading and aircraft heading
c) the compass north and magnetic north
165. GPWS mode 1 is excessive
a) terrain closure
b) rate of ascent
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c) rate of descent
166. How many bits make up the mode "S" address
a) 12
b) 24
c) 36
167. The applied pressure to an ASI varies with the
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a) square of the speed
b) square root of the speed
c) cube root of the speed

Page 19 - Mod 13

168. Temperature compensation is required on an altimeter because of

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a) capsule elasticity
b) capsule shape
c) non linear pressure/height relationship
169. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to the flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
#
b) aircraft to overbank
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
170. The doppler VOR beacon reference signal
#
a) amplitude modulates the carrier frequency
b) amplitude modulates the sub carrier frequency
c) frequency modulates the sub carrier frequency
171. During flare mode autothrottle will
#
a) retard throttles to idle
b) disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust
172. A CSD is monitored for
a) low temp and high oil pressure
#
b) high temp and low oil pressure
c)
173. As the rotor head is tilted to travel forward what happens to the
reward travelling blades pitch angle?
#
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) No change
174. In a fully fly by wire system if the rudder becomes disconnected
a) it is centralized by a spring
b) its control is maintained by electric trim
c)
175. What is the power supply to cabin flow tubes?
a) 115v ac
b) 200v ac
#
c) High voltage stepped up
176. When all three leads of a bonding tester are connected together the
output reading is
#
a) zero
b) full scale deflection
c) centre scale
Page 20 - Mod 13

177. in a capacitive fuel gauging system an increase in fuel level would

a) increase capacitive reactance
#
b) increase capacitance
c) decrease capacitance
178. Float fuel gauge system is
a) adjusted when tanks are full
b) adjusted when tanks are empty
c) cannot be adjusted
179. A vertical structural member forming part or full walls are
#
a) bulkheads
b) longerons
c) frame
180. Low electrolyte in a nicad battery is caused by
#
a) excessive electrical loading
b) high charge current
c) low charge current
181. With engine stopped, EPR indicator read slightly above 1.
a) This is normal
b) You would change the Tx as the datum is shifted
c) You would adjust the Tx
182. To ensure the compass is serviceable before installation you would
carry out
a) damping and periodicity checks
#
b) damping and pivot friction check
c) damping and alignment checks
183. The specific gravity readings of a lead-acid cell taken twice after
charging shows substantially lower value.
a) Cell is defective
b) You top up the cell with distilled water
c) You replace the cell
184. Suppressor line is required for
a) ATC and DME only
b) TCAs only
#
c) all L band equipments including TCAS
185. Differential GPS requires
a) 3 satellites and two ground based transmitters
b) 4 satellites and 2 ground based transmitters
c) 4 satellites and 1 ground based transmitters

Page 21 - Mod 13

186. GPS has

a) 6 satellites in 4 orbits
b) 4 satellites in 6 orbits
c) 7 satellites in 3 orbits
187. When the captain calls attendant
a) a high low chine and pink light comes on
b) a low chine and blue light comes on
c) a high chine and pink light comes on
188. in ACRS, if an upcoming message is received
a) a designated light comes on
b) a selcall light along with chine comes on
c) a chime sounds in the cockpit
189. A manual trim wheel, when fully moved in the direction of tail
a) the authority of elevators not effected
#
b) the up movement authority is effected
c) the down movement authority is effected
190. If on an ILS approach, LOC signal is lost
a) aircraft continues to descent with an accumulating drift
#
b) aircraft descends in a parallel path to runway
c) aircraft moves in a circle
191. IDG output voltage
a) does not require voltage regulation as RPM is constant.
#
b) voltage is regulated by GCU
c) voltage is regulated by IDG
192. The over-station sensor is activated by
a) radio deviation signal
#
b) rate of radio deviation signal
c) deviation and course error
193. When moving the control column
#
a) sensors located under the control column produces a signal
b) sensor located along the control run produces a signal
c) sensor in the AFCS computer produces a signal
---------194. In the reversed camber horizontal stabilizer as shown
a) the elevator causes tail down movement i.e. increases tail
plane down force
b) there is an increases tail plane up-force
#
c) there is an increased tailplane down-force
Page 22 - Mod 13

195. Equivalent airspeed is

a) indicated airspeed corrected for IE and PE
b) rectified airspeed corrected for compressibility
#
c) calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility
196. in an Autoland, autothrottle is disengaged
#
a) after reverse thrust is applied
b) after affixed period of the time after landing
c) manually after landing
197. What is the maximum limit of the artificial horizon?
#
a) 85 degrees in pitch and 360 degrees in roll
b) 360 degrees in pitch and roll
c) 85 degrees pitch and 110 degrees in roll
198. Acceleration error produces
a) a false indication of left bank
#
b) a false indication of right bank
c) a false indication of climb
199. The normal axis of a helicopter passes through
a) the centre of rotor disc
b) through the centre of intersection of longitudinal and lateral
axis
c) a line parallel to rotor axis
200. Zone 500 indicates as per ATA 100
a) Door
#
b) Left wing
c) Right wing
201. Shock stall
a) is a flap down stall
#
b) occurs at high speeds
c) occurs at low speeds
202. Drooping of helicopter blades is compensated by
a) flapping
b) dragging
#
c) centrifugal force
203. During a turn
a) left rudder to be used
b) right rudder to be used
#
c) rudder to be maintained in centre position

Page 23 - Mod 13

204. Align light flashes during alignment

#
a) A fault has occurred and system needs to be turned off
b) It is attracting operators attention
c) It is indicating progress of alignment
205. During decent with power on in a helicopter
a) lift, drag and thrust are acting on the helicopter
#
b) lift, drag, thrust and weight are acting on the helicopter
c) lift, weight and thrust are acting on the helicopter
206. to transmit position feedback for actuators of roll and pitch control
surfaces, in a fly by wire system
#
a) LVDT is used hence ensuring interchangeability
b) LVDT and RVDT are used for pitch and roll
c) Synchros are used
207. The compensator in a fuel tank measures
a) specific gravity of fuel
#
b) K value of fuel
c) fuel quantity
208. What is the error signal used for in a fixed angle approach in LOC
coupling?entrifugal force
a) Heading and Deviation
#
b) Course error and Deviation
c) Heading ,Course error and Deviation
209. in modern aircraft, power distribution of Generators are controlled
by
#
a) BPCU
b) PCDU (power control distribution unit)
c) SPCU
210. As you approach supersonic
#
a) total drag is increased
b) lift is reduced
c) thrust is reduced
211. Range resolution is obtained by
a) High PRF
#
b) Shorter pulse width
c) Shorter beam width
212. in weather radar, short range targets are missed by
#
a) Larger pulse width
b) Larger beam width
c) Larger frequency
Page 24 - Mod 13

213. When the trailing edge flap is

a) The CP moves forward and the pitching moment changes to
nose up
b) The CP moves forward but the CG does not change
#
c) CP move rearward
214. During take off if an input to auto throttle is fails
a) Auto throttle disengages
#
b) Throttle hold is annunciated
c) Fail light illuminates
215. Flight director command bars indicate
#
a) Direction in which aircraft is to be manoeuvred
b) Direction in which aircraft is flying
c) Direction in which the beacon is
216. Mode S has
a) 12 address bits
#
b) 24 address bits
c) 36 address bits
217. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable
phases are
a) In phase
b) Opposite phase
#
c) Phase quadrature
218. RVSM, Vertical minimum separation error allowed is
a) 80 ft
b) 300 ft
c) 500 ft
219. In a radio altimeter system if you decide to increase the TX cable
and RX cable each by 3 inch the total correction factor is
a) 3 inch
b) 6 inch
#
c) 9 inch
220. If you momentarily short the two spikes of bonding tester
a) tester reads zero
#
b) tester reads full scale
c) tester would be zero centred
221. for bonding, the two ends of a rubber pipe are joined by
a) a thick metallic bonding strip
#
b) a corrugated bonding jumper
c) a wire attached by terminal legs at both ends
Page 25 - Mod 13

222. What is the minimum resistance between all isolated electrostatic

conducting parts which may be subjected to appreciable charge and
main earth system
a) 0.5 ohm
b) 1 ohm
#
c) 0.5 Megohm or 100,000 ohm/sq.ft. surface area which ever is
less
223. Mach trim in some aircraft assists
#
a) longitudinal stability
b) lateral stability
c) vertical stability
224. In case the airplane is wired for dual installation of the Central
Maintenance Computers and only one computer is to be installed
#
a) it must be installed on LH side
b) it must be installed on RH side
c) it may be installed either on LH or RH side
225. Main electric trim is controlled by
a) a switch on control wheel
b) a switch installed on centre pedestal panel
c)
226. If the static line is disconnected in the cabin, the Mach meter
reading would be
a) higher mach number
#
b) lower mach number
c) not effected
227. in a dual FMC installation, if one FMC is defective
a) one CDU blanks
b) both CDU blanks
#
c) not be affected as automatic transfer takes place
228. While carrying out a leak check of the altimeter, if the static is
leaking, the VSI would
a) indicate climb
#
b) indicate decent
c) not be affected
229. In a combined pitot-static probe, while carrying out a leak check,
which instrument is most likely to be effected by over pressure?
a) ASI
b) VSI
c) Altimeter

Page 26 - Mod 13

230. The correction for a positive error for coefficient A in a compass

a) is to rotate clockwise
b) is to rotate anticlockwise
c) It may be rotated either direction
231. Radiated interference of current carrying cables can be minimized
by
a) Having filters in power supply lines
b) Separating the affected and affecting cables
c) Putting the affected cable in a single conduit
232. during compass swing, using a datum compass, the error permitted
in aligning the aircraft is
a) 1 degree
b) 5 degree
c) 10 degree
233. If two aircraft decide to issue the same RA for a potential conflict,
which aircraft changes the decision?
a) The one with the higher address
b) The one with the smaller address
c) Neither changes the decision
234. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot?
#
a) 10%
b) 50%
c) 100%
235. in helicopter autopilots, while operating the actuator, the movement
of the cockpit control is prevented by
a) synchros attached to the control
#
b) a compressed spring attached to the cockpit control
c) a lock on the cockpit control
236. Helicopter blades are
a) highly cambered
b) reverse cambered
#
c) Symmetrical
237. GPS antenna is
a) vertically polarized
b) horizontally polarized
c) lincomp polarization
238. The cyclic stick in an helicopter is
a) to the left
b) to the right
#
c) in the centre
Page 27 - Mod 13

239. An autopilot computer

#
a) is more sensitive to ILS than to VOR
b) is more sensitive to VOR than to ILS
c) is the same sensitivity for VOR and ILS
--------240. What type of flap is this?
#
a) Split flap
b) Fowler flap
c) Plain flap
241. Purpose of the bellcrank is to
a) transmit motion
#
b) reverse direction and transmit motion
c) adjust friction
242. in an FDS, the attitude gyro is coupled with the FD computer by
means of transformer coupling. The purpose of this arrangement is
a) to protect the attitude gyro in case of failure of FD computer
b) to protect FD computer in case of attitude gyro failure
c) to minimise power losses
243. DH is based on
a) aircraft characteristics
b) experience of the crew
c) RVR transmitted by ATC
244. In a horizontal gyro the random precession of the inner ring is
corrected by
a) mercury switches on the inner ring
b) mercury switches on the outer ring
c) flux valve slaving
245. Index error is
a) coefficient B
b) Coefficient P
#
c) misalignment of compass lubber line
246. Helicopter derives its lift from
#
a) the blade of the helicopter creates a low pressure above it
b) rotor acts as a airscrew
c) air is pushed downward
247. A two bladed helicopter rotor on a central gimbal is called
a) rigid rotor
#
b) semi rigid rotor
c) fully articulated rotor

Page 28 - Mod 13

248. Use of a diplexer in a receiver is

a) to enable signals to be distributed to different receivers
b) to amplify the RF signal
c) to impedance match the aerial and receivers
249. If the 'Q' feel in a powered control system fails
a) the failed system stops and it remains in this position
b) the pilot feels air loads higher than normal
#
c) the pilot feels air loads lower than normal
250. Doppler flag comes on when it receives
a) excessive ground clutter
b) no signal
c) excess signals
251. When the bank angle limit is applied to the autopilot , it means
a) the max aileron angle that can be commanded
#
b) the max roll angle that can be demanded by the autopilot
c) maximum rudder deflection
252. Servo tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
#
b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
253. Spring Tabs
a) enable the pilot to bring the control surface back to neutral
#
b) move in such a way as to help move the control surface
c) provide artificial feel
254. Back beam scanning in an MLS is at a rate of
a) 20 degrees per second
b) 30 degrees per second
c) 15 degrees per second
255. Omega ground stations
#
a) transmit pulses of CW
b) carrier modulated by three audio tones
c) series of CW
256. During testing of ATC altitude function the pressure altimeter is set
a) 1013.25 mb
b) sea level pressure
c) prevailing pressure

Page 29 - Mod 13

257. When secondary stops are utilized in control surfaces, they come in
contact
a) before the primary stops
#
b) after the primary stops
c) at the same time as the primary stops
258. EICAS indicates
#
a) engine performance and aircraft system malfunctions
b) engine performance only
c) engine performance and aircraft status
259. Helicopter cyclic stick is turned to the right
#
a) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
b) pitch operating arms lengthen in one direction and shorten in
another
c) rotating aerofoil tilts to the right
260. Magnetic heading errors will be
#
a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly
261. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
a) It moves once the aircraft is established on a new heading
#
b) It move as the aircraft moves
c) It stays fixed on magnetic north
262. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?
#
a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
263. An aircraft with autoland is fitted with a CMC
a) records all faults in volatile memory
#
b) records all faults in non-volatile memory
c)
264. A helicopter autopilot uses
#
a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude
hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
265. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the
beam?
a) Radio deviation
b) Glideslope deviation
#
c) Course deviation
Page 30 - Mod 13

266. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in

correct sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
#
b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
267. When can other autopilot modes be select once Go Around has
been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
268. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are
available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available
269. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, viewed from
above where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the
helicopter backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
#
b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
270. A spring balance control system you
#
a) can move the control surface on the ground
b) can move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) cannot move the control surface on the ground
271. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?
a) To prevent corrosion
#
b) To prevent precipitation static
c) To provide lightning protection
272. What is a versine signal attenuated with?
a) Increase in airspeed
b) Increase in altitude
c) Decrease in altitude
273. If you carry out a VSWR check of a SSB HF system what should you
do with the control switch? Select it to
a) OFF
b) AM
c) either USB or LSB

Page 31 - Mod 13

274. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3
pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
a) 21 micro seconds
b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
275. If a VOR RMI indicates 000 degrees and the course selected is 000
degrees what will the TO/FROM indicator indicate?
a) TO
b) FROM
#
c) Neither
276. What does the Radar contour button do?
#
a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier
277. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds how far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
278. on a helicopter, what is vortex ring state?
a) Tip vortex interference at high forward speed
b) Ground vortex interference when hovering close to the ground
#
c) Tip vortex build-up during hover
279. What controls are used in response to PVD display?
#
a) Nose wheel steering or rudder pedals
b) Control wheel
c) PVD control unit
280. DME transponder transmits on receipt
a) of any interrogation
b) of pilot input command request
#
c) of a pair of pulses separated by 12 microseconds
281. The best design of a MRB is where the C of P
#
a) does not move
b) moves freely along the length of the blade
c) is insignificant
282. The RAD alt electrical length for an helicopter is
a) 16ft
b) 12ft
#
c) 28ft
Page 32 - Mod 13

283. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of

a) 12bits
b) 64bits
#
c) 24bits
284. The rotor cone is formed by
a) blade alignment
#
b) centrifugal force and lift
c) centrifugal force only
285. Tracking is carried out to_____________the MRB tip path
a) balance
b) restore
#
c) align
286. Artificial feel is gained by using a
a) hydraulic damper
#
b) spring bias unit
c) 'feel' generator
287. The ground run monitor presents information
#
a) of distance to go and ground speed
b) duration of ground run
c) angle of crosstrack on ground
288. A mode C transponder
a) can be used for TCAS
#
b) cannot be used for TCAS
c) can be used for TCAS on ILS approach only
289. The audio select panel allows the crew to
#
a) transmit on one channel, listen on one
b) transmit on one channel, listen on multiple others
c) receive on one channel, transmit on multiple others
290. The crew select DH on
a) the altimeter
b) the DH annunciator panel
#
c) the rad alt display
291. When substituting the radio altimeter antenna cables, you should
consider
a) power requirements
#
b) the speed of propagation of rad alt signal
c) the diameter of cables

Page 33 - Mod 13

292. GPS has

#
a) 24 satellites, 6 orbits of 4
b) 24 satellites, 4 orbits of 6
c) 27 satellites, 3 orbits of 9
293. Audio select panel voice switch
a) allows voice ident of DME
#
b) cuts "beeps" from DME signal
c) disables DME voice ident
294. GPS frequency is
a) 1575 GHz
#
b) 1575 MHz
c) 1525 MHz
295. Radio switches are normally
#
a) sprung on R/T, latched on I/C
b) latched on R/T, sprung on I/C
c) latched on R/T, latched on I/C
296. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft
#
a) systems is disabled
b) no traffic will be shown
c) all traffic produces aural alert
297. Mode S pulses. Which are used?
a) F1,F2,F4,F5
#
b) s1,p1,p3,p4
c) s1,s2,p1,p2
298. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is
a) it amplifies output stages
#
b) it improves signal to noise ratio
c) it couples noise factors
299. Fluorescent tubes for the cabin lighting are powered from
a) 115 volts from ac bus
b) 200 volts from ac bus
#
c) high voltage produced by transformer ballast units
300. The advancing blade of a helicopter is the one moving
a) one moving in direction of relative air flow
b) highest blade
#
c) one moving forward into relative airflow

Page 34 - Mod 13

301. in air speed hold mode, a down displacement of the flight director
pitch command bar signifies
a) speed increase
#
b) speed decrease
c) height decrease
302. Back beam is captured
#
a) by manually selecting the back beam mode
b) this automatically trips the L NAV mode
c) by manually selecting the L NAV mode
303. With an insulation tester
a) the long lead is attached to the aircraft air frame and short lead
to item
b) the short lead to the aircraft airframe and long lead to the item
#
c) it does not matter which lead goes where
304. DME reply pulses are 63MHZ
a) higher
b) lower
#
c) higher or lower
305. Flight director incompatible modes are
a) VOR and glideslope
b) heading and altitude hold
c) VOR and altitude hold
306. What is VHF comm range at 9000 feet?
a) 110 nm
#
b) 120 nm
c) 130 nm
307. GPS sends L1 and L2. What is on L1?
a) c/a code only
b) c/a code and P code
c) P code only
308. Medium vibration of 4 to 6 times per revolution is experienced on a
helicopter. The primary control method is
a) inspect loose fixtures and fittings
#
b) design of engine and gearbox supports
c) inspect main rotor head and main drive shaft
309. Mode 4 of GPWS derives warnings from
a) rad alt to barometric
b) rad alt decrease
c) approach along localiser with reference to runway threshold
Page 35 - Mod 13

310. on power up, the IRS obtains position

a) latitude from previous position
b) longitude from previous position
c) latitude and longitude from previous position
311. Krueger flaps make up part of the
a) wing upper surface leading edge
b) wing lower surface trailing edge
#
c) wing lower surface leading edge
312. Electronic stab trim switches are found on the
#
a) control column
b) flight control panel
c) behind thrust levers
313. Deviation from the HSI lubber line is known as
a) apparent A
b) real A
c) true A
314. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in
a) BCARs
#
b) JAR OPS subpart M
c) maintenance manual
315. Carbon microphones require
#
a) DC supply
b) AC supply
c) no supply
316. Microwave landing systems are modulated with
a) FM
b) phase drift keying
c) Manchester code
317. A CVR is found to be unserviceable
a) flight can continue with serviceable FDR provided they are not
combined
b) flights must not continue after four days
#
c) flights must not continue after 72 hours
318. The maximum azimuth coverage by a MLS facility is
a) +/- 35 degrees
#
b) +/-40 degrees
c) +/-60 degrees

Page 36 - Mod 13

319. The bearing of a NDB measured by ADF is 060 degrees relative to

aircraft heading of 030 degrees. The RMI pointer indicates
a) 30 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 60 degrees
320. Fibre glass parts are protected from lightning strikes and
dangerous voltages by
a) non conductive paint
b) conductive paint
#
c) earth primary conductors
321. in MLS, the 12 bit preamble consists of
a) carrier and 5 bits time reference and 7 bits information
b) 5 bits time function and carrier and 7 bits function
c) 7 bits function and 5 bits time reference and carrier
322. The pseudo-random code used by all civilian GPS users is
a) the y code
b) the p code
#
c) the c/a code
323. The respective band widths for a radar IF amplifier and video
amplifier should be for good pulse shape are
a) wide and narrow
b) narrow and wide
c) wide and wide
324. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost
a) the aircraft flies in a circle
#
b) aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set heading
c) aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle
325. 'Q' feel for the stabiliser requires
a) pitot only
b) static only
#
c) pitot and static
326. When the aircraft nose yaws to the left, the yaw damper will apply
corrective rudder to
#
a) the right
b) the left
c) the left with some aileron assistance
327. A yaw damper will apply rudder proportional to
a) amount of aircraft disturbance
b) attitude of aircraft
#
c) rate of yaw
Page 37 - Mod 13

328. In a turn, wing spoilers may be deployed

a) to act as an airbrake, interacting with the ailerons
b) in unison with both the up going and down going ailerons
#
c) to assist the up going aileron
329. Glideslope deviation signals are
#
a) DC polarity sensitive
b) AC phase sensitive
c) DC positive going only
330. A triplex system loses one channel
#
a) pilot can continue with autoland
b) pilot can use auto approach
c) pilot must make a full manual approach and land
331. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has
a) full authority
b) 50% authority
#
c) 10% authority
332. Stall warning will be given
#
a) before stall
b) after stall
c) at stall
333. With on-board maintenance (OBM) systems, the purpose of central
maintenance function (CMF) is to
#
a) log relevant maintenance data
b) transmits to the CMC
c) provides details of defect action
334. How are spoilers normally operated?
#
a) Hydraulic actuator
b) Air pistons
c) Electrical motors
335. The purpose of a force trim release system in an helicopter is to
permit the
#
a) pilot to move the cyclic stick to obtain desired new attitude
without having to maintain the opposing forces of the artificial feel
system forces
b) pilot to move the collective to obtain a power change
c) appropriate cyclic actuator to be over powered
336. A differential relay in a twin generator system will cause
a) only one generator can supply a bus bar at a time
b) one generator always comes on line before the other
#
c) the generator voltages are nearly equal before they are
paralleled
Page 38 - Mod 13

337. Distilled or demineralised water would be added to an alkaline

battery
a) in the aircraft
b) when the battery is fully charged
#
c) in the charging room only
338. When removing the load from a current transformer
#
a) short the terminals
b) place a resistor across each terminal
c) leave the terminals open
339. Wing steady light must be visible through
a) 70 degrees
#
b) 110 degrees
c) 180 degrees
340. On AC ground power the interlock system is operated by pins
a) a and b
b) c and d
#
c) e and f
341. When paralleling two AC generators
#
a) it is important that they are in phase, and should be brought on
in sequence ABC
b) it is important that they are in phase, and can be brought on in
either ABC or CBA
c) they do not need to be in phase
342. The neutral shift sensor ensures that
#
a) after an auto trim, the elevator is moved to align with the
stabiliser
b) after a mach trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the
elevator
c) after an auto trim, the stabiliser is moved to align with the
elevator
343. Aileron to rudder crossfeed is applied in autopilot systems to
a) assist the aircraft back to datum after disturbance in yaw
b) prevents slip and skid in yaw
#
c) prevents aircraft yawing in the opposite direction to the turn
344. Stand off errors on localiser approach are washed out by
a) differentiating deviation signals
b) integrating deviation signals
#
c) integrating course error signals

Page 39 - Mod 13

345. An open circuit in the temperature bulb as used in the DC

ratiometer would cause
a) the pointer to read zero
b) the pointer to read mid scale
#
c) the pointer to read full scale
346. The instantaneous VSI is designed to
#
a) overcome the inherent lag by utilising an accelerometer
b) use an accelerometer to give a rate of climb/descent
c) improve the VSI output during acceleration greater than 1g
347. with a constant torque applied to a gyroscope, the rate of
precession will
a) increase with a higher rotor speed
#
b) decrease with a higher rotor speed
c) decrease with a lower rotor speed
348. A gyroscope with a vertical spin axis has the roll torque motor
located about the gyroscope's
a) lateral axis
#
b) longitudinal axis
c) vertical axis
349. The glideslope equipment operates in the
a) HF band
#
b) UHF band
c) VHF band
350. The loss of the vertical gyro signal to a flight director system
would cause
a) aircraft to underbank
b) aircraft to overbank
#
c) aircraft to remain in level flight
351. In a flight director system the radio signal outputs from the
navigation receiver are
#
a) DC
b) AC
c) pulsed DC
352. Fuel quantity test set consists of
a) resistance decade
b) capacitance bridge
c) inductance decade
353. EICAS provides the following
a) engine parameters
#
b) engine parameters and system warnings
c) engine warnings and engine parameters
Page 40 - Mod 13

354. The stabiliser is set to high setting when

#
a) the flaps are moving down
b) the flap are moving up
c) the flap are moving up or down
355. An auto land system displays Land 2 another failure will make the
system
a) operational
b) passive
#
c) simplex
356. DSR TK (desired track) means
#
a) the bearing to capture the track
b) a great circle path on surface of earth connecting two way
points
c) distance left or right from desired track
357. In helicopter Alt Hold uses a signal from
#
a) the barometric alt capsule
b) a rad alt output
c) a rad alt or capsule output depend on height
358. In a doppler VOR the 30Hz reference signal is
a) FM Modulated
#
b) AM Modulated
c) modulated with a 9960Hz
359. On aircraft an auto land during auto flare the auto throttle will
#
a) retard the throttle
b) reverse thrust
c) control throttle for a IAS
360. If an FM signal modulated by an audio signal the frequency of the
audio would relate to the
a) amplitude
b) frequency
#
c) rate of frequency change
361. The normal axis on a helicopter is
#
a) straight down the rotor head
b) at 90o to the C of G
c) at 90o to the rotor head
362. On a HF radio set the clarifier control is used
#
a) to adjust the reinserted carrier due to instability in the RX
b) make the audio signal clearer
c) an Americanisum for volume
Page 41 - Mod 13

363. A GPS aerial is polarised

a) vertically
b) horizontally
#
c) right hand circular
364. Mach trim threshold are set by the
a) pilot
b) engineer using aircraft maintenance manual
#
c) manufacture
365. An O ring in a wave guide is used to
a) correct the VSWR
b) stop arcing between the wave guide
#
c) stop moisture entering the wave guide
366. An RMI requires the following inputs:
#
a) Heading and radio deviation
b) Course and radio deviation
c) Radio deviation only
367. The versine signal is used in the
#
a) pitch channel only
b) roll channel only
c) pitch and roll channel
368. After a change in collective pitch the Rotor rpm will rise and fall.
This is called
#
a) transient droop
b) static droop
c) under swing
369. Loran C Uses
a) 16 KHz
b) 20 Mhz
#
c) 100 Khz
370. The amount of travel of a series actuator is
#
a) 50% of control movement
b) 10% of control movement
c) full control movement
371. GPS Telemetry consists of
a) week number and time label
b) satellite position information
c) 8 bits of preamble and position information

Page 42 - Mod 13

372. After a change in pitch of a rotor blade the blade will be at

maximum flap at
#
a) 90o
b) 180o
c) 0o
373. Emergency Electronic equipment is approved by
a) Aircraft Maintenance Manual
#
b) JAR (OPS) M
c) BCAR A4-8
374. The rotor disc is
#
a) the distance between tip to tip
b) the rotor head hub
c) the ground cushion
375. A DME is in auto stand by when
a) the ATC transponder is transmitting
#
b) the DME receives 200 - 300 pulses a second
c) the TCAS is transmitting
376. The aircraft is due north of a VOR station on a heading of 90 o What
is a RMI display?
a) 90o
b) 0o
#
c) 180o
377. The flight director is on a localizer when the radio deviation signal
is lost the aircraft would
a) continue on flying on the localizer
#
b) fly parallel to the localizer
c) drift of from the localizer on the same heading
378. Cat-2 autoland DH limits are
#
a) below 200 feet but not less than 100 ft
b) below 500 feet but not less than 400 ft.
c) below 300 feet and not less than 200 ft.
379. Cat-1 autoland DH limits are
a) not less than 100 ft.
#
b) not less than 200 ft.
c) below 200 ft but not less than 100 ft.
380. When GA is initiated?
a) Auto throttle disengages at 2000 ft/min rate and wings will level
b) Auto throttle remains engaged allowing pilot to control the
throttles
#
c) Auto throttle remains engaged giving correct G/A thrust
Page 43 - Mod 13

381. The controlling signal in pitch channel in the Flare mode are
#
a) integrated pitch and radio altitude.
b) G/S deviation and radio altitude.
c) integrated pitch and G/S deviation
382. Rollout guidance after touch down is by
a) automatic rudder control and nosewheel steering
b) visual indication and nosewheel steering
c) visual indication and rudder control
283. During autoland failure of one channel is detected
a) all channels will disconnect in triplex system.
#
b) all channels will disconnect in dulpex system.
c) all channels will disconnect in dual-dual system.
384. In triplex autoland system failure of one channel will
a) disconnect all channels
#
b) disconnect the failure channel and continue autoland approach
c) disconnect the failure channel and continue with a manual
approach
285. During the flair mode the A/T throttle will
#
a) retard throttle to idle.
b) disconnect autothrottle
c) select reverse thrust.
386. Roll out mode occurs
#
a) after flare
b) before flare
c) at alert height
287. High and low signal to voter are
a) average
b) removed
c) added
388. Basic monitoring is function of
a) voting
#
b) signal comparison
c) signal summing
389. In series rudder system
a) the pilot cannot input to the system
#
b) the pilot can input to the system
c) yaw damping is only possible signal input

Page 44 - Mod 13

390. If a pointer is not centralised on a trim indicators, it means that

a) the indicator is not serviceable
b) the control system is out of trim
c) the system is trimmed
391. in parallel rudder system,
a) the pilot can input on rudder pedals
#
b) The rudder pedals move in response to rudder movement
c) The rudder pedals are disconnected
292. The aileron/rudder signal is demodulated in the rudder channel
amplifier. This means it is
a) AC
b) DC
#
c) DC output whose polarity is related to the phase of AC input
393. An increase in mach number will cause the
#
a) Cof P to move rearwards giving less downwash on the tail
plane
b) Cof P to move rearwards giving more downwash on the tail
plane
c) Cof P to move forwards giving less downwash on the tail plane
394. If one FMS fails in a duel system
a) system operation will not be affected
b) FMS CDU on fail side goes blank
#
c) FMS display transfers automatically from serviceable computer
395. To carry out FMS database update on FMS
#
a) use database loader
b) insert new EPROM
c) insert new data on CDU
396. To know the valid database on FMS
a) perform bite check
#
b) call up relevant page on CDU
c) call up relevant current status
397. Magnetic heading errors will be
#
a) positive if easterly
b) negative if easterly
c) negative if northerly
398. What will happen with a flux valve in a turn?
a) It will move once the aircraft is established on a new heading
#
b) Move as the aircraft moves
c) Stay fixed on magnetic north
Page 45 - Mod 13

399. When will a mode C interrogation be ignored?

a) When the P2 pulse is higher amplitude to P1
b) When the P2 pulse is antiphase to P1
c) If P2 is before P1
400. A helicopter autopilot uses
#
a) radio altitude for height hold and barometric altitude for altitude
hold
b) barometric altitude for height hold and radio altitude for altitude
hold
c) barometric altitude for both height and altitude hold
401. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the
beam?
a) Height Deviation
b) Radio deviation
#
c) Course deviation
402. What of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct
sequence?
a) Flare, attitude, rollout
#
b) Attitude, flare, rollout
c) Rollout, attitude, flare
403. When can other autopilot modes can be select once Go-Around has
been selected?
a) When aircraft has reached 5000ft
#
b) When reached a desired altitude
c) Disengage and reengage the AFCS system
404. Once the G/S has been captured what other pitch modes are
available?
a) No other pitch modes are available
b) Only when the aircraft is above the glideslope beam
c) All are continuously available
405. If a helicopter rotor disc is rotating anticlockwise, view from above
where would a pitch input be fed into the disc to move the helicopter
backwards, 90 degrees to what?
a) In front of the lateral axis
#
b) Right of the longitudinal axis
c) Left of the longitudinal axis
406. Forces on a helicopter in a power-on descent are
#
a) lift, drag thrust, weight
b) lift, drag, thrust
c) weight, drag, lift
Page 46 - Mod 13

407. What is the primary purpose of a helicopter tail arm?

#
a) Provide a structure for mounting the stabiliser and anti torque
rotor
b) Acts to help balance the centre of gravity of the helicopter
c) Provide directional control
408. How long is the time between the start of the P1 pulse and the P3
pulse ignoring the P2 pulse length?
#
a) 21 micro seconds
b) 8 micro seconds
c) 17 micro seconds
409. What does the Radar contour button do?
#
a) Alter the beam shape
b) Alter the transmitter power
c) Alter the video amplifier
410. A radar response takes 329 micro seconds. How far away is the
target?
a) 12 miles
#
b) 25 miles
c) 40 miles
411. With a spring balance control system you can
a) move the control surface on the ground
b) move the control surface only by moving the tab
c) not move the control surface on the ground
412. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is
#
a) 50 ohms
b) 20 ohms
c) 20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively
413. Alert Height is when
a) a decision of whether to land is made
#
b) an alert of the altitude of the aircraft is made
c) an alert of the position of the aircraft is made
414. If a fly-by-wire system fails, the rudder
a) remains at the neutral position
b) controls the aircraft in trim
c) remains in the previous position
415. for a Vertical Gyro which is moved in pitch, which gimble would be
moved to correct the pitch movement?
a) Lateral
b) Longitudinal
c) Normal
Page 47 - Mod 13

416. Versine is used in which channel?

#
a) Pitch
b) Roll
c) Yaw
417. A Master Warning is issued when
#
a) overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs
b) cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & generator trip occurs
418. Which is the most important part of preventative maintenance on
HIRF installations?
#
a) Visual inspections
b) Insulation testing
c) CMC fault indications
419. an RMI in VOR mode, it's pointer is showing a course of 000. If the
course knob is adjusted to 010 what happens to the pointer?
a) Move left
b) Move right
c) Moves left then hard right
420. An aircraft flying on a heading of 030 receives an ADF signal 030
relative to the aircraft, what is the ADF pointer indicating?
a) 030
b) 060
c) 090
421. When does the pressure in the standard atmosphere halve?
a) 12,000ft
b) 5,000ft
#
c) 18,000ft
422. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the
aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
#
a) Left Rudder
b) Right Rudder
c) No Rudder
423. If a control surface that is fitted with a balance tab is moved, what
will happen to the tab?
a) It is moved manually in the opposite direction to the surface
b) It is moved automatically in the same direction as the surface
#
c) It is moved automatically in the opposite direction as the
surface

Page 48 - Mod 13

424. At which two points on a gas turbine engine is EPR measured?

#
a) Compressor inlet and jet pipe
b) Combustion chamber and jet pipe
c) Jet pipe and combustion chamber
425. If a stall is approaching, what indication does the pilot get?
#
a) Stick Shaker
b) Stick Nudger
c) EICAS warning
426. Flap asymmetry causes the aircraft to
a) nose up
b) go one wing down
c) nose down
427. On a coupled approach what happens to the aircraft if it looses the
localiser signal?
#
a) It will fly straight down the original course but will drift
b) It will fly in circles
c) It will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
428. If an autopilot is fed with radio deviation
a) it will stand off the centre line by a fixed amount
#
b) it will fly in circles
c) it will fly on the heading the aircraft was on
429. What colour are the autoland indication lights next to the pilots
instruments with excess deviation?
a) Red
b) Amber
c) White
430. In what type of Doppler System do altitude holes appear?
#
a) FM
b) Pulse
c) FM and Pulse
431. What happens to the F/D command bars if the roll gyro fails in a
turn?
a) They stay in the same place as nothing is there to null the input
signal
b) They return back to neutral when the turn is complete
c) They Disappear out of view
432. If an aircraft moves in yaw what axis is it moving about?
#
a) Normal
b) Longitudinal
c) Lateral
Page 49 - Mod 13

433. The neutral shift system augments control of the

a) stabiliser
#
b) elevator
c) spoilers
434. On a full time Fly-by-wire system a nose up command causes
#
a) the two elevator surfaces on each side of the stabiliser to move
up
b) all the elevators on each wing to move up
c) the two Ailerons on each wing to move up
435. What are ground spoilers used for?
#
a) To dump lift
b) To assist the aircraft coming to a stop
c) To slow the aircraft
436. If the aircraft is to be rolled to the right where does the pilot feed in
this command?
#
a) Control Wheel
b) Control Column
c) Rudder Pedals
437. What is the typical aircraft hydraulic system pressure?
#
a) 3000 psi
b) 1000 psi
c) 300 psi
438. If a bonding lead is found to be broken and a spare is unavailable
you must
#
a) replace with a self manufactured cable of the same type but
larger
b) defer the defect until correct spares are available
c) splice the broken lead
439. What is the minimum size cable, which is not likely to carry all the
current from a primary structure?
a) 0.5inch wide by 26AWG cable
b) 0.25inch wide by 26AWG cable
c) No smaller than 18AWG
440. What is the bonding value between secondary structure?
a) 0.5
#
b) 1 ohm
c) Between 1Megohm and 500,000
441. What is the diagonal part of the landing gear called?
#
a) Drag Strut
b) Drag Wire
c) Shock Absorber
Page 50 - Mod 13

442. What is the advancing blade on a helicopter doing?

#
a) Increasing in lift
b) Going to the highest point
c) Increasing in drag
443. In a series actuator fitted to a helicopter how much authority does it
have?
#
a) 10% approximately
b) 100%
c) 50%
444. What is the output of a localiser NAV receiver?
a) Polarity sensitive AC
#
b) Polarity sensitive DC
c) Either
445. What does an INS calculate on power up?
a) Last Known Longitude
#
b) Last Known Latitude
c) Last Known Longitude & Latitude
446. If a series actuator is fitted in the cyclic control circuit of a
helicopter what effect will an autopilot input have?
a) The cyclic lever will move in proportion to the autopilot input
#
b) The cyclic lever will not move
c) The flight director bars only will move
447. On an aircraft fitted with a CMC how do you get to the system
pages?
#
a) Through the ground test function
b) Through the Existing faults function
c) Through the Present Leg faults function
448. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?
#
a) The voltage activity in the servo amp
b) Trim tab position
c) Control surface position
449. What is the entry angle of an MLS installation +/-?
a) 62
#
b) 42
c) 20
450. When using a bonding tester you
#
a) use the 6ft lead for testing different points
b) use the 60ft lead for testing different points
c) use either leads for the testing
Page 51 - Mod 13

451. What is the swash plate on a helicopter used for?

#
a) Control of the pitch of the rotor blades
b) Control of the speed of the rotor blades
c) Control of the flap of the rotor blades
452. What does a piezo electric type vibration sensor detect?
a) Disturbances
b) Velocity
#
c) Pressure changes
453. with a control surface tab in the neutral position, what happens
when the control surface is moved?
a) It remains in the neutral position
b) It moves in the same direction as the control surface
c) It moves in the opposite direction as the control surface
454. What should be carried out prior to working on or near control
surfaces?
#
a) Ensure Hydraulics are selected off
b) Pull & tag circuit breakers
c) Wear ear protection
455. Instantaneous Vertical Speed Indicator has instant values of
Vertical Speed by
#
a) blocking off static and by using an accelerometer
b) using a plunger to correct any lagging of the indicator
c) blocking off pitot pressure and by using an accelerometer
456. What is the glide slope frequency range?
a) 108 - 112 Mhz
b) 108 - 112 Ghz
#
c) 329 - 335 Mhz
457. What would indicate the state of charge of a lead acid battery?
a) Fluctuations in the level of the electrolyte
#
b) Fluctuations in the SG of the electrolyte
c) Fluctuations in the terminal voltage
458. Upwash on a helicopter would result in
a) increase in lift without an increase in power
b) decrease in lift
c) decrease in speed
459. What is the aural warning of an aircraft overspeed?
a) Bell sound
#
b) Clacking sound
c) Horn sound
Page 52 - Mod 13

460. What is a slot used for?

#
a) To reinforce the boundary layer
b) Increased angle of attack during approach
c) Increase the speed of the airflow
461. ADF is
a) Rho
b) Theta
c) Rho-Theta
462. A Boost Gauge reads
a) above or below ambient atmospheric pressure
#
b) absolute pressure
c) above or below ISA atmospheric pressure
463. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and
#
a) relative air flow
b) tip path plane
c) horizontal axis
464. If cyclic is moved to the right
a) POM shortens on one side and lengthens on another
b) the rotor blades on the right flap down
c) the rotor blades on the left flap down
465. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system
a) 2.3 - 23 Mhz
b) 2 - 6 GHz
#
c) 100 KHz
466. What would happen to an aircraft at low speed at high angle of
attack had an aileron going down?
a) Decrease stall speed
b) Increase stall speed
c) Have no effect on the stall speed
467. A high lift device is used for
#
a) take off and landing
b) take off only
c) landing only
468. What is the major vertical component of an airframe that is a load
bearing part of the structure that can be used as walls or partial walls?
a) Frame
b) Bulkhead
c) Stringer
Page 53 - Mod 13

469. What is jitter used for in a DME transmission?

#
a) To make an installation recognise it's own transmission
b) To make sure only strong signals are replied to in a dense area
c) To make an aircraft recognise a DME in a quiet area
470. What is the minimum candela of an anti-collision beacon?
a) 100
b) 50
c) 20
471. What is the calibration law of a Ratiometer?
a) Material of the coil
b) Material of the sensing element
c) Material of the indicator needle
472. after a roll to the left of a statically unstable helicopter, the
helicopter would
a) roll back to the horizontal
b) continue to roll further
c) remain at the position that it had rolled to
473. How is a spoiler interconnected to other flight control systems?
a) Spoiler to aileron
b) Spoiler to flap
c) Spoiler to elevator
474. What is audio clipping used for in voice communication?
a) To enable vowels to be heard better
b) To enable consonants to be heard better
c) To enable numbers to be heard better
475. The difference between transient droop and static droop is
#
a) underswing
b) overswing
c) a hole in one
476. If a QFE is set at an airfield and flown to another airfield at the same
level above sea level then
a) it will not need resetting and will read zero
b) it will display the airfield height above sea level
c) it will probably not need resetting and will read zero
477. capacitance fuel quantity indication test set is connected
a) by replacing capacitance probes
b) in parallel with capacitance probes
c) in series with capacitance probes

Page 54 - Mod 13

478. What is aileron droop?

a) The leading edge of both ailerons presented to the airflow
b) One aileron lowered
c) The drop of ailerons with no hydraulics on
479. How is the output of a constant speed drive fed AC generator
controlled?
a) Hydraulic feedback to a governor
b) No control as the generator is fed via a constant speed drive
c) By a swashplate
480. What happens to a helicopter in autorotative flight?
a) The cabin goes in the direction of rotation
b) The rotor goes in the normal direction of rotation
c) The rotor goes the opposite direction to the normal direction of
rotation
481. With a helicopter with a twin blade same gimbal it is
#
a) semi rigid
b) rigid
c) fully articulating
482. Earths atmosphere is
a) 1/5 oxygen, 4/5 nitrogen
b) 4/5 oxygen, 1/5 nitrogen
c) 3/5 oxygen, 2/5 nitrogen
483. A thermocouple
a) capacitance and inductance cannot be added
b) cannot be shortened
c) can be shortened
484. How is temperature compensation achieved in the fluid of a
compass?
a) Bellows and diaphragm
b) Alcohol is used as it does not get effect by temperature
c) Press relief valve
485. When installing an aerial ,added support is needed for the
structure. This is achieved by
a) webs
b) outer plate
c) inner plate
486. What is the difference between transmit and receive pulse
frequency?
a) 60
b) 63
c) 1000
Page 55 - Mod 13

487. Relative airflow over a helicopter blade

a) increases at the tip
b) increases at the root
c) is unaffected by blade position
488. TCAS II is
a) 10 aircraft per square mile
b) 25 aircraft per square 5 miles
c) 100 aircraft per 5 miles square
489. RMI in ADF mode, the pointer is moved by a
a) servomotor
b) loop voltage
c) Chinaman
490. FMC changes movement via
a) A/P actuator
b) flight control computer
c) straight to the actuator
491. Aircraft condition monitoring monitors
a) certain parameters
b) with a fault detector and tells master warning computer
c) and compares the faults on the aircraft with the CMC
492. Radio signals chance of penetration of ionosphere
a) increase with the frequency
b) decrease with frequency
c) is not affected by frequency
493. What is lapse rate?
a) Pressure changes with altitude
#
b) Temperature changes with altitude
c) Density changes with altitude
494. Increase in speed of spoilers is needed when
a) the flaps are lowered
b) at higher speeds
c) the landing gear is extended
495. What should be taken into account when measuring the SG of a
battery?
a) The outside temperature
b) Electrolyte temperature
c) Charge state of the battery

Page 56 - Mod 13

496. What happens when a control stick is pulled back and to the left?
a) Elevator up, left aileron down
b) Elevator down, right aileron down
c) Elevator up, right aileron down
497. Where is the placement of a mercury switch?
a) Outer gimbal
b) Gyro case
c) Instrument case
498. DC power into the GCU comes from
a) main battery bus
b) main battery bus and ground service
c) ground service
499. In a boost gauge system the sensing element contains
a) 1 capsule
#
b) 2 capsules
c) 3 capsules
500. If an elevator is fitted with a fixed tab in the down position, the
control surface will
a) move up
b) move down
c) remain at the same place
501. Spring tabs
a) cannot be adjusted in flight
b) can be adjusted in the flight deck
c) cannot be adjusted
502. Rising gust in front of the leading edge with flaps lowered, AoA will
a) increase
b) decrease
c) remain
503. If an aircraft moves in roll it is moving about the
a) normal axis
b) lateral axis
#
c) longitudinal axis
504. LOC signal modulation is
a) 50 %
#
b) 20 %
c) 10 %

Page 57 - Mod 13

505. After a roll to the left of a statically stable helicopter , the helicopter
would
a) continue to roll
b) increases roll
c) come back to level flight
506. What instrument uses ram air pressure and atmospheric pressure?
a) ASI
b) Machmeter
c) VSI
507. If increasing altitude at constant IAS, TAS will
a) decrease
#
b) increase
c) remain the same
508. A Master Warning is issued when
a) overspeed and low cabin attitude occurs
b) cargo smoke and low oil quantity occurs
c) engine fire & trip occurs
509. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis?
a) Elevator s
#
b) Elevons
c) Ailerons
510. If a roll was commenced, what command would the versine
generator give?
#
a) Up Elevator
b) Left rudder
c) Down elevator
511. What effect does lowering the flaps for takeoff have?
a) Increases lift & reduces drag
#
b) Increases lift and drag
c) Increase lift only
512. What effect does lowering flaps for takeoff have?
#
a) Reduces takeoff and landing speeds
b) Reduces takeoff speeds only
c) Reduces landing speeds only
513. Which signal would be integrated to get onto Localiser centreline?
a) Heading error
b) Course error
c) Radio deviation

Page 58 - Mod 13

514. What does a vibration type sensor measure?

a) Maximum deflection
#
b) Frequency of deflections
c) Direction of flexing
515. On a Ground Power unit which pins are allocated for interlock
circuit?
a) A and B
b) B and C
c) E and F
516. Which is used for compass damping fluid compensation?
a) Bellows or diaphragm
b) No damping due to alcohol low temperature co-efficient
c) Piston and oil
517. The result of the equation (Dev E - Dev W)/2 is known as
#
a) Coefficient B
b) Coefficient A
c) Coefficient C
518. If the torque were increased on a vertical gyro, what would happen
to the precession?
a) Increase
b) Remain unaffected
c) Decrease
519. A 'q' feel system supplies
a) aerodynamic damping
b) the pilot with ever increasing awareness of speed
c) control movement effort relief
520. ADF operates within which frequencies?
#
a) 200 KHz - 1000 KHz
b) 118 MHz - 132 MHz
c) 32 KHz - 64 KHz
521. Cat IIIB landing, up to what phase is LOC signal used?
a) Roll out
#
b) Flare
c) Touchdown
522. FMC mode that can be selected through the CDU is
a) DME Freq
b) LNAV
#
c) CRZ

Page 59 - Mod 13

523. Mode C response is

a) 21microseconds
b) 12 microseconds
c) 8 microseconds
524. Which would you use to test an aircraft transponder altitude
reporting system?
#
a) Read the altitude directly from ATC-600 panel
b) Transfer the code displayed by the ATC-600 into binary
c) Check the altitude code with the correct alt/code table
525. An uncorrected ADI is affected by
a) climb
b) descent
c) roll
526. A DGPS system installed on an aircraft requires
a) 1 ground station and 4 satellites
b) 2 ground stations and 4 satellites
c) 1 ground station and 6 satellites
527. The term `circling current' refers to
a) AC generators
b) AC and DC Generators
c) DC generators
528. Aircraft normally fitted with 2 central maintenance computers and
you only have one to dispatch the aircraft.
Where do you fit it?
a) LH side
b) RH side
c) LH or RH side (i.e. doesn't matter)
529. If the localiser signal is only applied to the A/P roll channel
a) aircraft flies parallel to the runway centre line
b) aircraft flies along the runway centre line
#
c) aircraft flies in circles
530. Speed control on an emergency hydraulic driven generator is via
the
a) IDG
b) CSD
c) swash plate
531. WX radar display the time base is
#
a) saw tooth wave form
b) trapezoidal wave form
c) rectangular wave form
Page 60 - Mod 13

532. Flight director on VOR, course error wash out signal is lost,
following the FD commands. Aircraft will
a) stay on centre of course
b) stay parallel to course
c) follow the course with scalloping or bracketing
533. Flight director on G/S capture, the pitch integration is
a) to increase GS signal
b) to decrease GS signal
c) to maintain GS signal
534. A helicopter needs to re-trim
#
a) indication is shown on the API
b) indication is shown on the command bars of the EHSI
c) indication is shown on the command bars of the attitude
indicator
535. API Trim pointers are fed by
a) a synchro
b) an RVDT
c) an LVDT
536. VHF transmitter output impedance to match with antenna for
maximum power transfer is
a) 50 ohms
b) 25 to 75 ohms
c) 129 ohms
537. Transformer coupling between an ADI and a flight director
computer is
a) to protect the ADI in event of a FD computer failure
b) to protect the FD computer in case of an ADI failure
c) to protect the FD computer in case of an HSI failure
538. In audio clipping
a) vowels are strengthened relative to the remaining signal
b) vowels are attenuated relative to the remaining signal
c) there is no change in relative strength of vowels
539. Anti cross-talk network for unwanted signals uses
#
a) attenuation first then amplification
b) amplification first then attenuation
c) no attenuation but amplification
540. DME - how does receiver find the received pulse pairs are valid?
a) Decoder
b) Blocking oscillator
c) Integrator
Page 61 - Mod 13

541. Co-axial transmission line of impedance 80 ohms is connected

dipole of 120 ohms. While checking with ohm meter the reading will be
a) 80 ohms
b) 200 ohms
c) more than 20 mega ohms
542. Transformer coupling between ADI and Flight director is to protect
a) ADI
b) Flight director computer
c) both of the above
543. A HUMS in a helicopter is
a) a vibration analysis system
b) a system which monitors time period of components in service
and warns of a premature failure
c) a system which indicates a crack in the blade
544. When the flaps are lowered
a) the lift vector moves forward
b) the lift vector moves rearward
c) there is no effect on the lift vector
545. at take off, if the flaps are lowered there is a
#
a) large increase in lift and drag
b) small increase in lift and drag
c) large increase in lift and small increase in drag
546. In a large transport aircraft to check VSWR of a HF system with a
long aerial feeder the VSWR meter has to be connected
a) between the transmitter and the ATU (transmitter end)
b) between the aerial and ATU
c) between the transmitter and the ATU (ATU end)
547. With power applied to the autopilot but not engaged, the trim
indicator will indicate
a) a standby electrical signal in the servo loop
b) that the gyro is out of the null and needs aligning
c) the trim system is out of datum
548. Control loop gain with an autopilot is usually
a) dependent on aircraft altitude
b) 100%
c) chosen as a compromise
549. With no.1 h.f. system transmitting the interlock circuit
a) allows no.2 h.f. to receive only
b) allows no.2 h.f. to transmit and receive
#
c) does not allow no.2 to transmit or receive
Page 62 - Mod 13

550. MLS azimuth range is

a) +/- 30
b) +/- 42
c) +/- 62
551. Aircraft is north of VOR beacon, course is set to 90 degrees, RMI
indicates
a) 90
#
b) 180
c) 0
552. in an auto trim horizontal stabiliser, 'low' speed mode is when
#
a) flaps are retracted
b) landing gear up and locked
c) flaps extended
553. An aircraft receives a response from a DME station, 1236
microseconds after transmitting the interrogation. What is the slant
range to the station?
#
a) 96 nautical miles
b) 100 nautical miles
c) 104 nautical miles
554. If the VOR track error is 2 dots, how many degrees off track is the
aircraft?
#
a) 10
b) 5
c) 2.5
555. What frequency range does ACARS operate in?
a) 2-30 MHz
#
b) 118-136 MHz
c) 4-5 GHz
556. An FM signal would have it's sideband signals
a) above the carrier signal
b) below the carrier signal
#
c) No sidebands present
557. on an Autoland coupled approach, a GPWS warning
a) would initiate a Go Around
b) audio and Visual warning
c) visual warning only

Page 63 - Mod 13

558. A Doppler VOR station's transmissions

#
a) can be received and processed with a conventional VOR
receiver
b) can not be received and processed with a conventional VOR
receiver
c) can be received but not processed with a conventional VOR
receiver
559. Direction of normal flight is changed by the pilot by applying
pressure
a) to the control wheel
b) to the control column
c) to the rudder pedals
560. On a modern aircraft about to stall
a) the outboard slats extend automatically
b) engine power increases automatically
c) the flaps retract automatically
561. Wing can spoilers be used?
a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
b) As ground spoilers on landing
#
c) To assist the elevators
562. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder
a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
563. Dutch Roll affects
a) pitch and roll simultaneously
b) pitch and yaw simultaneously
#
c) yaw and roll simultaneously
564. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the
vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna
a) will move up
b) will move down
c) will not move
565. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to
a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna

Page 64 - Mod 13

566. When more than one D.R. compass is fitted on an aircraft or where
a D.R. compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) only the master compass readings and adjustments carried out
and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass
#
b) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made
simultaneously on each heading
c) all readings and adjustments for each compass should be made
at any one heading only
567. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for
entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 degrees
#
b) 3 degrees
c) 5 degrees
568. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called
a) apparent error
#
b) residual error
c) index error
569. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with
cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) Parallax error
#
b) Surface reflection
c) Static to avoid dust attraction
570. Versine signal is governed by
a) roll
#
b) pitch
c) yaw
571. Stick shaker activates at a speed which is above the stalling speed
by
a) 4%
#
b) 7%
c) 10.321%
572. A D.R. compass fitted on an aircraft. The safe distance for electrical
cables carrying electrical current is
a) 20 inches
#
b) 24 inches
c) 28 inches
573. The pitot head is fitted on the aircraft. The alignment of pitot head is
carried out with
a) an inclinometer
b) micrometer
c) spirit level
Page 65 - Mod 13

574. Oscillation and hunting of flight control surface are prevented by

#
a) Tachogenerator
b) Feedback from control surface
c) Feedback from servo motor
575. When an hydraulic system is un pressurized, the position of flight
control surfaces are
a) down
b) neutral
c) droop
576. Radar beamwidth improves
a) range resolution
b) range accuracy
#
c) bearing resolution
577. A transformer has a power input of 115V AC. What is the output
voltage?
a) 115V
b) 345V
#
c) 460V
578. The manufacturer of a pitot head gave a specification indicating 2
inches dia. This is the
a) opening dia. of pitot head
b) internal dia of pitot head where air stagnates
c) external dia of pitot head
579. on a VSI fitted on an aircraft, for climb and descent indication
#
a) a set screw is provided for zero adjustment
b) it does not have any adjustment
c) a set screw is provided for climb/descent increments
580. A shunt wound generator fitted on an aircraft,a preset
potentiometer is fitted
a) in series with the field winding
b) in parallel with the field winding
c) in series with the generator output
581. When can wing spoilers be used?
a) To assist the respective down going aileron in a turn
b) As ground spoilers on landing
c) To assist the elevators
582. When checking the altitude reporting of the transponder
a) set the barometric altimeter to local pressure
b) set the barometric altimeter to 1013.25 mb
c) set the rad alt to 0 feet
Page 66 - Mod 13

583. Dutch Roll affects

a) pitch and roll simultaneously
b) pitch and yaw simultaneously
c) yaw and roll simultaneously
584. A radar antenna is facing left. On ground test, if you move the
vertical gyro to simulate a right bank, the antenna
a) will move up
b) will move down
c) will not move
585. Standing waves in a Co-Axial feeder cable are proportional to
a) length of the cable
b) transmitter power output
c) degree of mismatch between transmitter and antenna
586. When more than one D.R.Compass is fitted on an aircraft or where
a D.R.compass serves as a standby to a remote reading compass
a) Only the master compass reading and adjustment carried out
and remaining compasses are adjusted with master compass.
#
b) All reading and adjustments fo reach compass should be made
simultaneously on each heading.
c) All reading and adjustment for each compass should be made at
any one heading only.
587. Compass error remaining after all the corrections, which is used for
entry on the deviation card should not exceed
a) 2 Degree
#
b) 3 Degree
c) 5 Degree
588. Compass error remaining after all corrections are made is called
a) apparent error
#
b) residual error
c) index error
589. Instruments used on an aircraft are in some instances fitted with
cover glasses whose surfaces are bloomed to reduce
a) parallax error.
#
b) surface reflection.
c) static to avoid dust attraction.
590. Versine signal is governed by
a) roll
#
b) pitch
c) yaw

Page 67 - Mod 13

591. Increasing the real load primarily

a) decreases frequency
b) decreases output voltage
#
c) increases output voltage and increases frequency
592. Inductive reactive load causes
a) no effect on torque but produces extra heat dissipated
b) increase in torque and increase in heat dissipated
#
c) increase in torque only
593. The power factor of an AC generator identifies the proportion of
a) apparent power from the generator that does work
b) reactive power from the generator that does work
#
c) real power from the generator that does work
594. The control of hydraulically powered emergency electrical
generator frequency is by
#
a) angle of swash plate
b) IDG
c) restriction valve
595. Differential protection in an AC system protects against
a) A reverse current flowing from the battery
b) short circuits
#
c) line-line, line-line-line, line-earth faults
#

596. When resetting the CSD on the ground, the engine should be
a) stationary
b) rotating at idle
c) rotating at Nsync

597. One of the main purposes of a CSD is to

#
a) enable generators to be paralleled
b) prevent engine overload
c) maintain constant load on the generator
598. in a undervolt condition in an AC generator system, the most likely
consequence is
#
a) activation of the time delay circuit
b) de-activation of the field regulatory TRs
c) energise the bus tie relay
599. If voltage and frequency of the generator drop to zero in flight, it
would be an indication that the
#
a) CSD drives shaft had sheared
b) phase sequence detection circuit has operated
c) bus tie interlock is inoperative
Page 68 - Mod 13

600. Assuming all systems are operating normally, as aircraft electrical

load increases, generator output voltage will
a) decrease and amperage output increases
b) increases and amperage output increases
#
c) remain constant and amperage output increases
601. Battery trays are
a) metal for earthing purposes
# b) metal with PVC coating and anti corrosive paint
c) absorbent to soak up electrolyte
602. When installing multiple batteries on aircraft they are connected in
a) parallel
b) series
#
c) either parallel or series and switched between as an option
603. What is the small pin on the DC ground power connector?
a) Ground or earth
b) Positive to battery relay
#
c) Positive to external power relay
604. Maximum battery temperature on charging before protection circuit
starts is
a) 71 degrees F
#
b) 144 Degrees F
c) 144 Degrees C
605. If an aircraft has no battery charger the battery is charged by
#
a) constant voltage
b) constant current
c) constant current until a predetermined limit when it automatically
switches to constant voltage
606. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA
a) Chapter 24 Section 21
#
b) Chapter 24 Section 31
c) Chapter 31 Section 21
607. In a carbon pile regulator the resistive element is
a) in series with the field and changes resistance with changing
length
#
b) in series with the field and changes resistance with surface area
contact
c) in parallel with the field and changes resistance with changing
length

Page 69 - Mod 13

608. The output of a carbon pile regulator with no variation of loading is

#
a) stationary
b) fluctuating
c) pulse width modulating
609. In a transistor voltage regulator the voltage output is controlled by
a) transformers and transistors
b) diodes and transformers
#
c) zeners and transistors
610. Paralleled relay for DC system is energised and connected by
a) voltage coil
b) current coil
#
c) voltage and current coil

Page 70 - Mod 13
Ahmed Marafi
26569