Professional Documents
Culture Documents
SERIES
PREVENTIVE
AND
SOCIAL MEDICINE
BUSTER
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SERIES
PREVENTIVE
AND SOCIAL RG
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MEDICINE BUSTER
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Compiled by
Dharmendra Sharma
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MBBS, MD
Consultant Cardiologist
Life Line Heart Centre and Hospital
Kamla Nagar, Bypass Road
Agra
JAYPEE BROTHERS
MEDICAL PUBLISHERS (P) LTD
New Delhi
Published by
Jitendar P Vij
Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers (P) Ltd
EMCA House, 23/23B Ansari Road, Daryaganj
New Delhi 110 002, India
Phones: 23272143, 23272703, 23282021, 23245672, 23245683
Fax: 011-23276490 e-mail: jpmedpub@del2.vsnl.net.in
Visit our website: http://www.jpbros.20m.com
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Branches
202 Batavia Chambers, 8 Kumara Kruppa Road, Kumara Park East
Bangalore 560 001, Phones: 2285971, 2382956 Tele Fax: 2281761
e-mail: jaypeebc@bgl.vsnl.net.in
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All rights reserved. No part of this publication should be reproduced, stored in a retrieval system,
or transmitted in any form or by any means: electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording,
or otherwise, without the prior written permission of the editor and the publisher.
This book has been published in good faith that the material provided by editor is
original. Every effort is made to ensure accuracy of material, but the publisher, printer
and editor will not be held responsible for any inadvertent error(s). In case of any
dispute, all legal matters to be settled under Delhi jurisdiction only.
First Edition: 2004
ISBN
81-8061-215-5
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To
my loving daughter
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Tanya
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Acknowledgements
The work will definitely demand a special note of acknowledgement to all of the staff of Life Line Heart Centre
and Hospital for their unconditional support and to my patients as it was their time which I have stolen for
the book work. Special thanks to Miss Ruby Sharma and Miss Shivani Sharma for formating the framework
on computer and finalizing the data as a consolidated book. A vote of thanks for Mr. Praveen Bedi for his
efforts in keeping technical work and computers always ready and fit for the job.
Thanks for support to my driver Shivpratap and staff members Rajesh Tyagi and Mr Dheeraj Dixit. The
successful completion of the book has a lot to do with the help and support provided by Dr CL Verma who
has provided the inspiration.
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Above all, thanks to all my readers for their encouragement and good feedback for Medicine BUSTER.
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Dont cram the answers; try to understand the basics of topic and see other topics in its surrounding.
Discussion will help you a lot in understanding the facts.
At the last moment only revise the latest questions of previous 5 to 7 years.
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Answers are right to our extent but for the possibility of computer and typographical error, we apologise
in advance.
Any correction with references, new questions and suggestions are welcomed by our readers. They will
be duly acknowledged in our further editions and a special gift is offered to them.
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Preface
Put your best efforts and you will get the reward. No one can deny the fact that GOD helps those who help
themselves. But one can only help himself when he knows the way to help himself.
When the sand in the sand clock is continuously flowing how can you be able to flow in the same stream.
Choose the right way at right time to get the right rank. Preventive and social medicine is one of the subject
most frequently asked in every exam with bulk of question and fortunately we are lucky enough that we
need not have to wander here and there for sorting the answer. Special thanks to PARK & PARK for their
efforts of consolidating such a wide subject in a handy form.
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I am providing you the questions which have already been asked in various examinations for providing
you the way to read. What to cram and what to leave. The book will help you from the very beginning you
enter your second professional course start your slow race from beginning and success will be yours like that
of tortoise. In case of any difficulty students are advised to refer PARK and PARK, 17th Edition 2002.
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Time will not stand for you, you will have to stand, think and start your journey with a planning in favour
of victory.
Best of luck.
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Dharmendra Sharma
Contents
1. Concepts of Health and Disease ............................................................................................................. 1
2. Principles of Epidemiology and Epidemiologic Method ...................................................................... 6
3. Screening for Disease ............................................................................................................................ 20
4. Epidemiology of Communicable Disease ............................................................................................
A. Respiratory infections ...........................................................................................................................
B. Intestinal infections ...............................................................................................................................
C. Arthropod- Borne infections ..................................................................................................................
D. Zoonoses ..............................................................................................................................................
E. Surface infections .................................................................................................................................
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34
43
48
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Conference
Bookshop
Book review
Lecturer recommendation
Friends
Website
Type of purchase:
Direct purchase
Bookshop
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Friends
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Please return this sheet to the name and address given below. No stamp needed if posted in India.
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JAYPEE BROTHERS
1. A screening test is used in the same way in two similar population; but the proportion of false-positive results
among those who are test positive in population A is lower than those who are test positive in population B.What
is the likely explanation.
(PAR/12) (AIIMS/02)
(a) The specificity of the test is lower in population A
(b) The prevalence of the disease is lower in
population A
(c) The prevalence of the disease is higher in population A
(d) The specificity of the test is
higher in population A.
2. Physical quality of life in India is:
(PAR/15) (JIPMER 80, DELHI 93)
(a) 31
(b) 43
(c) 50
(d) 61
3. PQLI includes all except:
(PAR/15) (AI 99)
(a) Per capita income (b) Life expectancy at age 1 year
(c) Literacy
(d) Infant mortality
Physical quality of life index
Combines the infant mortality life expectancy at age one and literacy
It is also scaled from 0 to 100 and objective is to attain PQLI of 100. It measures the outcome of
social, economic and political policies and does not replace GNP.
Human development index
Adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling and life expectancy at birth.
Its value ranges from 0 to 1
Income as real GDP per capita in purchasing power (In dollars)
Actual value Minimum value
Calculation of Indices =
Maximum value Minimum value
Established fixed minimum and maximum values of indicators are
25 yrs and 85 yrs for life expectancy at birth.
0% and 100 % for adult literacy rate
0% and 100 % for combined gross enrolment ratio
100 and 40,000Real GDP per capita
HDI is average of all three indices.
1 C
2 B
3 A
4 A
5 D
All India
18.3
28.0
6.4
9.0
0.9
1.93
14
70
66.5
61.5
87.86
54.16
23.6
19.5
90.92
65.38
Doctor-population ratio(1991)
1:7213
1:2148
Rs. 17756
Rs. 14712
( PAR/22)(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(d) Case fatality rate
Morbidity indicators
a. Notification rates
b. Incidence and prevalence
c. Duration of stay in hospital
d. Spells of sickness or absence from work or school
e. Admission, readmission and discharge rates
f. Attendance rates at outpatient departments,health centres,etc.
7. Most important epidemiological tool used for assessing disability in children is:
(PAR/22) (AI/03)
(a) Activities of daily living (ADL) scale
(b) Wings handicaps, behaviour and skills (HBS) schedule
(c) Binet and Simon IQ tests
(d) Physical quality of life index (PQLI)
Disability rates
A. Event type indicators:
1.
Number of days of restricted activity
2.
Work loss days (or school loss days) within a specified period
3.
Bed disability days
.
6 B
7 A,B
8 A
9 D
10 A
11 A
12 C
13 A
15 A
16 C
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 C
21 A
22 A
23 A
24 D
25 B
26 B
39 A
27 A
40 B
28 B
29 B
30 A
31 C
32 D
33 A,B 34 B
35 C
36 A
37 A
38 C
1 B
2 A
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 D
7 A
8 C
9 A
10 A
Expected death
If the ratio had value greater than 100, the risk of mortality rises
SMR permit adjustment for age and it is of value if the event of interest is occurrence of disease
rather than death.
Other standardization techniques
Life table
Regression techniques
Multivariate analysis
(c) P = L D
Prevalence: It is a ratio of total number of all individuals who have diseases at a particular
time (Or a particular period) divided the population at risk at that point of time or midway
through the period (multiplication factor is 100)
Prevalence = incidence duration
Uses of prevalence
Estimate the magnitude of health / disease problem in the community and high-risk group
Useful for administrative and planning purpose
11 A
12 A
13 A
14 C
15 C
16 A
17 C
30 C
18 D
31 C
19 A
20 B
21 B
22 B
23 D
24 B
25 A
26 D
27 C
28 B
29 A
2. Continuous or multiple exposure epidemicTime may not be same, e.g. prostitute serving a
source of infection; legionnaires disease outbreak in Philadelphia
B. Propagated epidemic
Result from person to person transmission as epidemics of hepatitis and polio. Curve shows a
gradual rise and falls in a much longer period of time.
Spreading speed depends upon herd immunity, opportunities for contact and secondary attack
rate.
C. Slow (modern) epidemic
Periodic fluctuation
(1) Seasonal trend
(2) Cyclic trendoccur due to variation in herd immunity. Usually occur due to antigenic variation.
Long-term or secular trendsImplies changes on the occurrence of disease (i.e. a progressive increase
or decrease over a long period of time), e.g. coronary heart disease, lung cancer and diabetes.
32. True about propagated epidemic are all except:
(PAR/56) (AI/2000)
(a) Secondary peaks are seen
(b) Herd immunity is present
(c) Regular supply of susceptibles
(d) Epidemic curve has allow rising slope with rapid decline
33. False about point source epidemic is:
(PAR/56) (AI/2000)
(a) Children are more affected
(b) Rapid rise and fall
(c) All cases occur in one incubation period
(d) No secondary waves
34. Sacular trends refers to:
(PAR/57) (UP 97)
(a) Gradual change in a particular direction
(b) Change of pattern over along period of time
(c) Decrease
in prevalence of disease
(d) Increase in prevalence
35. Residents of three villagers with three different types of water supply were asked to participate in a study to
identify cholera carriers. Because several cholera deaths had occurred in the recent past, virtually everyone
occurred in the time submitted to examination.The proportion of carriers was in each village who were carriers
was computed and compared. This study is a:
(PAR/60) (AIIMS/02)
(a) Cross-sectional study
(b) Case-control study (c) Concurrent cohort study
(d) Non-concurrent
36. Study of a person who has already contracted the disease is called:
(PAR/61) (TN 91)
(a) Case control
(b) Cohort
(c) Control cohort
(d) None of the above
Cross-sectional studies
Observational study or prevalence study
Useful for chronic disease when interest is distribution of disease
Less expensive / Less time required in establishing relationship.
Longitudinal studies
Useful to study the natural history of disease and its future outcome.
Identifies the risk factors of disease
Finds out the incidence of disease but more expensive and more time consuming.
37. The most useful study in a hospital setting is:
(PAR/61)(Delhi/93)
(a) Cross-sectional
(b) Longitudinal
(c) Cohort
(d) Case control
38. All are true about case control studies except:
(PAR/62)(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) It is easy to conduct
(b) It is cheaper
(c) Can measure attributable risk
(d) Those with disease are
matched with those without
39. All of the following are true regarding case control study except:
(PAR/62) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Relative risk can be calculated
(b) Less expensive
(c) Suitable for rare disease
(d) Backward study
40. The process of "matching" allows:
(PAR/62) (CSE/95)
(a) The matched variables to be evaluated
(b) For selecting the case and control group with the same known
confounding variables
(c) Matching of factors in doubt
(d) One to avoid focussing on variables desired
41. All are true about case control study except:
(PAR/62)
(a) It is cheaper than other studies (b) It is useful to investigate a rare disease (c) Odds ratio can be detected
from it
(d) Relative risk can be detected from it
32 D
33 A
34 B
35 A
36 A
37 D
38 C
39 B
40 C
41 D
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Matching variablesDiscrete variablesAs smoking and lung cancer; or exposure and disease
for discrete variables the test of significance usually adopted is the standard error of
difference between the two proportions or the Chi-square test.
Continuous variables as age or blood pressure, the test of significance used should be standard error
of difference between two means or t test.
p < 0.05 is statistically significant but statistical association (p value) does not imply causation
Odds ratio: Measure of the strength of the association between risk factor and outcome; derived
from a case control study and used for rare diseases.
BIAS
(1) bias due to confounding
(2) memory or recall bias
(3) selection bias
(4) Berkesonian bias
(5) Interviewers bias
43. Incidence among exposed and nonexposed is called:
(PAR/63) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Relative risk
(b) Attributable risk
(c) Odds ratio
(d) Attack ratio
44. The following is discrete variables except:
(PAR/63) (UP 96)
(a) Weight in body
(b) Carcinoma of cervix
(c) Ulcer on tonsil
(d) Leg ulcer
45. All are morbidity indicators except:
(PAR/63)(AI 91)
(a) Period of stay in hospital
(b) Doctor population ratio
(c) Attendance of outpatient department
(d) Notification rates
46. Discrete variability are all except:
(PAR/63) (AI 91)
(a) Colour of skin
(b) Boys in the classroom
(c) Obesity weight
(d) Leukocyte count
47. Relative risk can be obtained from:
(PAR/63) (AI 90)
(a) Case study
(b) Cohort study
(c) Case control study
(d) Experimental study
48. In a village of 1 lakh population, among 20,000 exposed to smoking, 200 developed cancer, and among 40,000
people unexposed, 40 developed cancer. The relative risk of smoking in the development of cancer is:
(a) 20
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 15
(PAR/63)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
49. Calculate the Odd's ratio:
(PAR/64) (AIIMS/2000)
Diseased
Undiseased
Positive
30
20
Negative
20
30
(a) 0.44
(b) 1.5
(c) 0.8
(d) 2.25
50. Berkesonian bias refers to:
(PAR/64)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Different rates of admission to the hospital
(b) Interviewers bias
(c) Systemic sampling
(d) Systematic
difference in characteristic cases and controls
51. Case control study is used for:
(PAR/64) (AI 95)
(a) Finding a rare cause
(b) Finding multiple risk factors
(c) Finding incidence rate
(d) Finding morbidity
rates
Case control study ( For cause)
ADVANTAGES
DISADVANTAGES
42 D
43 A
44 A
45 B
46 A
47 B
48 B
49 D
50 A
51 B
11
52. When launching a study many respondents are invited some of whom fail to come. This is called:
(a) Response bias
(b) Volunteer bias
(c) Selection bias
(d) Berkesonian bias (PAR/64) (AI 96, 98)
53. In case control study all are true except:
(PAR/64) (UP 95)
(a) Can find multiple risk factor
(b) Can find rare disease
(c) Measure incidence
(d) Few groups required
54. Case control study most characteristic is:
(PAR/64) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Odds ratio estimation
(b) Problem bias
(c) Yields incidence rate
(d) Expensive
55. All true about cohort studies except:
(PAR/65) (AP 96)
(a) Prospective
(b) Useful for rare diseases
(c) Necessary for incidence
(d) Costly
Cohort study (for disease)
Advantages
Disadvantages
56. If you desire to study the incidence of diarrhoea in a community which study method would you like to opt for:
(PAR/65)(AIIMS 99)
(a) Cross-sectional study
(b) Cohort study
(c) Case control study
(d) Double blind placebo study
57. Best method to calculate the incidence rate is:
(PAR/65) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) Case control study
(b) Sentinel surveillance
(c) Cohort study
(d) Cross sectional prevalence study
58. Relative risk could show an association between:
(PAR/68) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Smoking and lung cancer
(b) OCP and pregnancy
(c) Efficacy of 2 drugs
(d) Altitude and endemic
goitre
Relative Risk - Ratio of incidence of disease among exposed and unexposed.
Incidence of disease among exposed
RR =
Incidence of disease among non-exposed
RR = 1 (no associataion)
RR> 1 Positive association
59. One a study it was established that the disease (carcinoma cervix was 5 times more common in those who had
multiple sexual partners than those with single partners. The attributable risk of exposure in the former group
is:
(PAR/68) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 20%
(b) 40%
(c) 80%
(d) 5%
60. As a community physician, treatment plan of action you should use:
(PAR/68) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Relative risk
(b) Attributable risk
(c) Population attributable risk
(d) Odds ratio
61. The ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed and non-exposed is called: (PAR/68) (UPSC/02)
(a) Causal risk
(b) Relative risk
(c) Attributable risk
(d) Odds ratio
62. In an epidemiologic study the following data is observed. Calculate the relative risk of developing lung carcinoma
in smokers:
(PAR/68) (AIIMS 99)
Developed Ca
Not developed Ca
Total No of People
Smokers
100
9,900
10,000
Non-smokers
5
4595
5000
(a) 1%
(b) 10%
(c) 13%
(d) 25%
63. Best indicator to determine maximum benefit to the community through preventive intervention strategies is:
(a) Relative risk
(b) Attributable risk
(c) Absolute risk
(d) Odds ratio
(PAR/68) (UPSC/2001)
52 B
53 C
54 A
55 B
56 B
57 C
58 A
59 C
60 C
61 B
62 B
63 B
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It gives a better idea of success of preventive or public health programme in reducing the problem.
64 D
65 C
66 C
67 A
68 B
69 C
70 A
71 B
72 D
(PAR/77)(AIIMS/99)
(d) Experimental epidemiology
73 C
74 A
75 D
13
76 C
77 B
78 D
79 A
80 B
81 C
82 A
83 D
84 D
85 B
14
86 A
87 A
88 B
89 C
90 D
91 B
92 A
93 D
94 C
95 B
15
96 B
97 A
98 B
99 D
100 A
101 C
102 D
103 A
104 C
105 B
100
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106. In the absence of a known incubation period for a disease, which of the following is an effective tool to assess
and manage an epidemic situation?
(PAR/88) (UPSC/03)
(a) Period of infectivity
(b) Serial interval
(c) History of contact
(d) Latent period
107. Disease in which herd immunity does not protect on individuals is:
(PAR/90) (AI 95)
(a) Measles
(b) Tetanus
(c) Polio
(d) Diphtheria
108. Herd immunity is not valuable in:
(PAR/90) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Tetanus
(b) Measles
(c) Rubella
(d) Chickenpox
Herd immunitycontributed by
1. Occurrence of clinical and subclinical infection in the herd
2. Immunization of the herd
3. Herd structure
109. Percentages in the segments are indicated by:
(PAR/90) (UP 93)
(a) Bar charts
(b) Histogram
(c) Pictogram
(d) Pie charts
110. All are live vaccines except:
(PAR/91) (JIPMER 88)
(a) Measles
(b) BCG
(c) OPV
(d) Hepatitis B
111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below in the lists:
(PAR/91) (UPSC/01)
List I
List II
1. Tuberculosis
i. Toxoids
2. Measles
ii. Killed bacteria
3. Diphtheria
iii. Live attenuated viruses
4. Whooping cough
iv. Live attenuated bacteria
Codes:
(a) 1 (iv), 2 (iii), 3 (i), 4 (i)
(b) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (ii), 4 (i)
(c) 1 (iii), 2 (iv), 3 (i), 4 (ii)
(d) 1 (iv), 2 (iii),
3 (ii), 4 (i)
112. Live vaccines are all except:
(PAR/91) (UP 95)
(a) Typhoid oral
(b) Measles
(c) BCG
(d) Pertussis
Live vaccine should not normally be given for 12 weeks after an infections of normal human
immunoglobin
LIVE VACCINE
INACTIVATED VACCINE
TOXOID
BCG
Typhoid oral
Plague
Measles
Influenza
Mumps
Rubella
Yellow fever
Oral polio
Typhoid
Pertussis
Rabies
Salk polio
KFD
Hepatitis B
JE
Influenza
Cholera
Diphtheria
Tetanus
107 B
108 A
109 D
110 D
111 A
113 A
17
115 A
116 C
117 A
118 D
119 C
120 B
121 B
122 B
123 E
124 D
125 B
126 A
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Active immunizationRecommended
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
(5)
Disease
Immunity develop
Cholera
Influenza
Plague
Yellow fever
Typhoid fever
At 10 weeks
At 14 weeks
At 9 months
b. At 16-24 months
c. At 5-6 years
d. At 10 and 16 year
e. For pregnant women
Early in pregnancy
TT-1 or booster
One month after
TT-1-TT-2
Combined passive active immunization is given for tetanus, diphtheria and rabies
134. A one-year-old unimmunised child, attends the immunization clinic. He should be advised: (PAR/99) (AI 89)
(a) BCG and measles to be followed by 6 weeks by the first dose of OPV and DPT and called after 1 month for
booster dose
(b) BCG the first doses of OPV, DPT, and measles and called after 1 month for booster dose
of OPV and DPT
(c) The first doses of OPV and DPT, mealses 1 week later and called after 1 month for a
booster dose of OP
(d) The first dose of OPV and DPT measles 1 week later and called after 1 month for a
booster dose OPV
(e) BG
135. Surveillance by WHO is not done for:
(PAR/100) (AIIMS 91, UP 95)
(a) Polio
(b) Malaria
(c) Viral encephalitis
(d) Relapsing fever
128 A
129 C
130 D
131 D
132 A
133 A
134 B
135 C
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137 D
138 B
139 C
140 C
141 C
142 C
143 B
144 D
(PAR/104)(ORISSA 98)
(c) Calculate the incubation period
145 C
146 C
147 B
148 B
20
1. Of the following, which is a usual approach or technique for obtaining chronic disease morbidity information:
(PAR/109) (JIPMER 79, PGI 83)
(a) Physicians reports
(b) Case registries
(c) Immunization records
(d) Household surveys
(e) Screening programmes
Lead timethe period between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis by other means
2. Which is most economical and best screening:
(a) Mass screening
(b) High-risk screening
Screeningfinding the infections or disease in population who are not seeking health care, e.g.
Neonatal screening; screening for breast cancer
Uses of screening
1. Case detection
2. Control of disease
3. Research purpose
4. Educational opportunities
Types of screening
1. Mass-screening
2. High-risk or selective screening
3. Multiphasic screening
3. The criteria for validity of a screening test are:
(a) Accuracy
(b) Predictability
(c) Sensitivity and specifically
ValidityTests the accuracy of test two main components sensitivity and specificity along
with predictive accuracy form the inherent properties of a screening test.
4. Predictive value of positive test is:
(a)
True +ve
(b)
100
False +ve + true ve
(c)
True + ve
False +ve + true +ve
1 B,E 2 B
3 C
4 C
100
(d)
100
100
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Diagnosis
Diseased
Not diseased
true positive
false positive
Negative
false negative
TP
Sensitivity =
(means true positive)
TP + FN
true negative
100
TN
Specificity =
(means true negative)
TP + FN
100
TP
TN
TN + FN
FN
TP + FN
FP
100
TP + FP
FP + TN
100
100
100
5. In a community with prevalence of HIV 5% if the sensitivity is 95% and specificity is 95% of ELISA. Find the
positive predictive value of the test:
(PAR/111)(AIIMS 99)
(a) 100%
(b) 50%
(c) 25%
(d) 0%
6. The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing
(PAR/111) (AI/03)
(a) Criterion validity
(b) Construct validity
(c) Discriminant validity
(d) Content validity
7. Studying this formula carefully:
(PAR/111) (AI/03)
True Positives
100
True Positives + False Positives
This denotes:
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Specificity
(c) Positive predictive value
(d) Negative predictive value
8. For the calculation of positive predictive value of a screening test, the denominator is comprised of:
(PAR/111) (AI/03)
(a) True positives + False negatives (b) False positives + True negatives (c) True positives + False positives
(d) True positives + True negatives
9. True positives as a percentage of all positives is:
(PAR/112) (JIPMER 91)
(a) Specificity
(b) Predictive value
(c) Sensitivity
(d) All of the above
10. Most important in screening test for community is:
(PAR/112) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Sensitivity
(b) Specificity
(c) Predictive value of +ve test
(d) Detectability
11. The sensitivity of a diagnostic test means its ability to detect:
(PAR/112) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Negative result in those who have disease
(b) Positive result in those who have disease
(c) Negative
result in those who have no disease
(d) Positive result in those who have no disease
12. Sensitivity is:
(PAR/112) (AIIMS 93, AI 97)
(a) True +ve
(b) True ve
(c) False +ve
(d) False ve
13. A drug company is developing a new pregnancy-test kit for use on an out patient basis.The company used the
pregnancy test on100 women, 99 showed positive test. Upon using type same test on 100 non-pregnant women,
90 showed negative results. What is the sensitivity of the test:
(PAR/112)(AIIMS/02)
(a) 90%
(b) 99%
(c) Average of 90 and 99% (d) Cannot be calculated from the given data
5 B
6 A
7 B
8 C
9 C
10 C
11 B
12 A
13 B
22
Tuberculous
Sputum positive
Sputum negative
Total
Not Tuberculous
13
7
20
2
9978
9980
14 A
15 B
16 C
17 D
18 A
19 A
20 A
Total
15
9985
10.000
23
Epidemiology of
Communicable Disease
A. Respiratory Infections
1. The national smallpox eradication programme (NSEP) was launched in India in:
(a) 1958
(b) 1959
(c) 1960
(d) 1962
(e) 1961
(PAR/115) (PGI 81, AIIMS 87)
2. The most common complication following smallpox vaccination is:
(PAR/115) (AIIMS 86)
(a) Allergic rashes
(b) Eczema vaccination
(c) Encephalitis
(d) Generalised vaccine
3. Last case of smallpox occurred in India during which one of the following years?
(PAR/115) (UPSC/02)
(a) 1965
(b) 1975
(c) 1986
(d) 1995
4. The last case of smallpox was reported in the world:
(PAR/115) (PGI 84)
(a) 1977
(b) 1978
(c) 1979
(d) 1982
5. Smallpox was eradicated because of the following factors except:
(PAR/116)(AIIMS 86)
(a) Extra human reservoir control
(b) Easy to recognize
(c) Potent vaccine
(d) Long incubation period
6. Which of the following is true of chickenpox:
(PAR/117)(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Virus not found in scab
(b) Virus can be grown on the chick embryo
(c) Caused by RNA virus
(d) Does not cross the placental barrier
7. Infectivity of chickenpox last:
(PAR/117) (ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Till last scab fall offs
(b) 3 days after appearance of rash
(c) 6 days after appearance of rash
(d) As long as fever last
8. The most common complication of chickenpox in children is:
(PAR/117) (PGI/2000)
(a) Pneumonia
(b) Secondary bacterial infections
(c) Otitis media
(d) External otitis
Chickenpox
Caused by human (alpha) herpes virus 3 with latent infection
Virus can be grown on tissue culture
Rash is vesicular characterised by dew drops on rose petal
Virus can be readily isolated from the vesicular fluid during 1st three days of illness but scabs are
not infective
1 E
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
24
Period of communicability1-2 days before the appearance of rash and 4to5 days thereafter
Secondary attack rate in household contacts is 70%
Infections during pregnancy presents a risk for the foectus and the neonate (25%)
Transmission is from person to person by droplet, there is no role of fomities
I.period is 14-16 days
Rash is symmetrical and centripetal in distribution
Measles (Rubeola) caused by one serotype of RNA paramyxovirus, source of infection is only case,
carriers are not known to occur however subclinical infection do exist
Period of communicability4 days before and 5 days after the appearance of rash.
Secondary attack rate - is over 80%
One attack gives life-long immunity I.P is 10- 14 days
10 A
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 D
15 C
16 B
17 D
18 B
19 B
25
21 C
22 C
23 A
24 C
25 C
26 D
27 A
28 C
29 A
26
I.P is 18 days
There is no role of environmental factors in transmission
Nearly 50-65 % cases are asymptomatic
Postauricular and posterior cervical lymph nodes appear even 7 days before rash. Rash may be
absent in subclinical cases (25% cases)
Complications
Arthralgia
Encephalitis
Thrombocytopenic purpura
Congenital Rubellarubella virus affects cell division
First trimester of pregnancy is the most dangerous time
Classical triad is patent ductus arteriosus
Cataract
Deafness
Infection in the second trimester may cause deafness but infection after 16 week cause no major
abnormality.
30 D
31 D
32 B
33 A
34 B
27
36 A
37 B
38 A
39 E
40 C
28
42 B
43 D
44 B
45 B
46 C
47 D
48 A
49 B
50 D
51 A
52 C
53 B
29
55 B
56 D
57 C
58 A
59 C
60 B
61 D
62 B
30
64 B
77 B
65 D
66 B
67 D
68 D
69 C
70 D
71 C
72 D
73 B
74 B
75 B
31
Definition
Countries not reporting to WHO
Countries not implementing the DOTs strategy and having case notification rate
of over 10 cases per 100,000 population
Countries implementing the DOTs strategy in less than 10 percent of total
population (pilot phase)
Countries implementing the DOTs strategy in 10-90% of total population
(expansion phase)
Countries implementing the DOTs strategy in over 90 percent of the total
population (routine implementation)
Countries not implementing DOTs strategy but having a case notification rate of
less than 10 cases per 100,000 population (low incidence)
2
3
4
5
0.6- 2.3 %
1-2%
4 cases / 1,000 pop
1 case / 1000 pop
53 / 100,000 pop in 1993
Incidence of infection
Rate of infection
Prevalence of disease
Incidence of new cases
Annual deaths
78 A
79 A
80 A
81 D
82 A
83 A
84 C
85 C
86 B
32
(PAR/261) (AIIHPH/98)
(PAR/141) (AIIMS 98)
Prevalence of infection is the percent of individual who show a positive reaction to standard
tuberculin test.
Every 1% annual risk of infection is said to correspond to 50 new cases of smear positive pulmonary
tuberculosis per year for 1,00,000 general population. This is tuberculin conversion index and is best
for evaluating the tuberculosis problem
Case load or number of infective cases is estimated by prevalence of disease or case rate.
89. Under the revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme, a new case is one who has never had treatment
for tuberculosis or has taken anti-tubercular drugs for less than:
(PAR/141)(UPSC/2001)
(a) 2 weeks
(b) 4 weeks
(c) 6 weeks
(d) 8 weeks
90. Annual infection rate in TB is the percentage of:
(PAR/141) (UPSC/01)
(a) Persons converted from tuberculine negative to positive (b) New cases of tuberculosis (c) Sputum positive
cases
(d) Radiological cases
91. Not true about tuberculin test:
(PAR/142) (AI 95)
(a) INH converts positive negative
(b) 10 mm suggest disease
(c) Specific to TB
(d) Absence of reaction
should be continuously interpreted
92. True about Mantoux test is:
(PAR/142) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Test is read before 48 hrs (b) 6-9 mm induration have chances of Dev T.B. (c) New cases occur in tuberculin
negative person
(d) Induration>10 mm is diagnostic
93. Tuberculin test is read after:
(PAR/142) (UPSC 85)
(a) 48 hours
(b) 72 hours
(c) 96 hours
(d) 24 hours
94. For Mantoux test, the standard dose of tuberculin used in India is:
(PAR/142) (UPSC 96)
(a) 0.5 TU
(b) 1.0 TU
(c) 5.0 TU
(d) 10.0 TU
95. In tuberculin testing induration of.....is considered positive:
(PAR/142) (TN 88)
(a) 5 mm or more
(b) 7 mm or more
(c) 10 mm or more
(d) 15 mm or more
96. Tuberculin test positivity depends on:
(PAR/142) (AI 96)
(a) Erythema
(b) Nodule formation
(c) Induration
(d) Ulcerative change
97. Person who is sputum+ve at 5 months or stops treatment between 1-5 months is:
(PAR/142) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Treatment defaulter
(b) Failure case
(c) Chronic case
(d) Cured case
98. True about tuberculin test:
(PAR/142) (AI 98)
(a) Used for diagnosis of TB (b) Measure incidence of disease (c) More than 10 mm in 72 hr indicates positive
test
(d) Measure immunity status
Control of TB: Control is said to be achieved when the prevalence of natural infection in the age group
0-14 years is of the order of 1 percent which is 40 percent in India.
Case finding tools
1. Sputum examination
2. Mass miniature radiography
3. Tuberculin test
87 D
88 B
89 B
90 A
91 C
92 D
93 B
94 B
95 C
96 C
97 A
98 C
33
Initial phase
(daily/3 times per wk)
I
II
III
IV
2HRZE (S)
2HRZES + 1 HRZE
2HRZ
For H resistance
For H + R resistance
Continuation phase
Total duration
4 HR or 6HE
6/8
5HRE or 5H3R3E3
8
4 HR or 6HE
8
12 RZE
6
ZE + S/Etm +
ciprolofl can be used
108. All the following are correct regarding BCG vaccination reactions except:
(PAR/149) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Ulceration with crust
(b) Heals within 6-12 weeks
(c) Maximum size of papule is reached at 5 weeks
(d) Suppurative lymphadenitis
109 BCG vaccine is administered to children:
(PAR/149) (AIIMS 81, BHU 86)
(a) Intradermally
(b) Subcutaneously
(c) Intramuscularly
(d) Orally
BCG vaccination - BCG vaccination is of two types Freeze dried (more stable)
Liquid vaccine
Normal saline is recommended as a diluent and vaccine may be used up within three hours
Given intradermally with tuberculin syringe
2-3 weeks after vaccination, a papule develops at site of vaccination which reaches a size of 4-8 mm
in about 5 weeks, healing occurs spontaneously within 6- 12 weeks
If local abscess fromTreatment is aspiration with local PAS or INH powder and no other injection
in that arm for at least 6 months.
BCG is less effective in controlling tuberculosis as it offers only partial protection but still in India
BCG gets priority over chemoprophylaxis. Surveillance is an integral part of any TB control
programme.
99 A
100 B
101 B
102 D
103 A
104 B
105 B
106 C
107 C
108 D
109 A
34
B. Intestinal Infections
120. Multiplication factor for estimating total cases of paralytic polio is:
(PAR/154) (AI/2000)
(a ) 1.2
(b) 1.33
(c) 1.5
(d) 2
121. Number of subclinical cases for 1 paralytic polio is:
(PAR/154) (AIIMS 89)
(a) 50
(b) 100
(c) 1,000
(d) 10,000
122 All true for a polio epidemic curve in a community except:
(PAR/154) (AIIMS 92)
(a) All cases within 7-14 days
(b) Orofecal mode of transmission
(c) Herd immunity present
(d) Epidemic
curve has a slow rising slope and decline
123. The most predominant type of polio virus during epidemics is:
(PAR/155)(ORISSA 98)
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Combined infection of II and III
124. Wrong about polio patient who had paralysis:
(PAR/155) (PGI 82, DELHI 88)
(a) Can transmit it by nasal discharge
(b) Subclinical infection common
(c) Can be given vaccine
(d) None of the above
125. Which of the following type of polio is most common:
(PAR/155) (AIIMS 80, AMU 90)
(a) Inapparent
(b) Abortive
(c) Nonparalytic
(d) Paralytic
126. The epidemiological trend of poliomyelitis are all except:
(PAR/155) (JIPMER 92)
(a) Affects higher age groups
(b) Increasing in tropics
(c) Also cause upper limb paralysis
(d) Sporadic to epidemic
127. True about polio epidemic:
(PAR/155) (UP 97)
(a) Curve rises and falls fastly
(b) Transmission via percutaneous route
(c) All college and school is closed
inform the public
(d) All susceptible children should be immunised
128. In polio transmission easy block can be applied by acting on:
(PAR/155) (UP 94)
(a) Reservoir
(b) Susceptible host
(c) Faecooral
(d) Agent
129. Least likely to diagnosed Polio is:
(PAR/155) (AIIMS/99)
(a) Fever, malaise for 2 days
(b) Fever and signs of neck rigidity
(c) Descending symmetrical paralysis with
preservation of reflexes and sensory system
(d) Gradual recovery of muscle function in 6 months
110 C
123 C
111 D
124 A
112 C
125 A
113 D
126 A
114 B
127 D
115 D
128 B
116 D
129 C
117 D
118 A
119 C
120 B
121 C
122 D
35
130 A
131 C
132 D
133 C
134 B
Live attenuated
Given orally
Immunity is both humoral
and intestinal, induces antibody quickly
135 C
36
(PAR/157)UPSC/02
(c) Viral potency test
(d) Change
(PAR/-158) (ALL INDIA/02)
(PAR/159) (AIIMS/2K)
(c) Those dying before confirmation
137 B
138 A
139 A
140 C
141 B
37
All cases of acute flaccid paralysis must be reported to CMO/district immunization officers along
with following details Name / age / sex of the patient
Fathers name and complete address
Vaccination status
Date of on set paralysis and date of reporting
Clinical diagnosis
Doctors name /address and phone number
Mopping Up
Involves door-to-door immunization in high risk districts
Colours monitor or labels are put on vaccine bottles. Each label has circle of deep blue colour
Inside it is a white square which changes colour and gradually becomes blue if vaccine is exposed
to higher temperature.
142. Average incubation period of infectious hepatitis is:
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 25 days
(d) 50 days
PAR/160)(AIIMS 86)
Hepatitis A
Caused by type 72 enterovirus which is not affected by chlorine in doses usually employed for
chlorination.
Virus is inactivated by ultraviolet rays /boiling for 5 minutes / autoclaving and formalin.
Asymptomatic infections are especially common in children
Period of infectivity is from two weeks before to 1 week after the onset of jaundice.
One attack usually gives immunity for life.
Prevention
0.5% sodium hypochlorite to be used for disinfection of faces and fomites
1 mg/l of free residual chlorine can cause destruction of the virus in 30 minutes at pH 8.5 or less.
Vaccine and immunoglobin are available for control of susceptible population.
143. The persistent carrier state in hepatitis B is defined once the HBsAg is present in blood for longer than:
(a) 2 months
(b) 3 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months
(163) (AI 88)
144. True about viral hepatitis B is:
(163)(AIIMS 86)
(a) Transmits by oral route
(b) More incubation period than viral A
(c) Different histopathologically from
viral A hepatitis
(d) Can be cultured
145. Best method to protect newborn from HBs Ag + ve, mother is:
(PAR/164) (AI 99)
(a) Isolation (b) Stopping breastfeeding (c) Hep B immunoglobulin (d) Hep B vaccine and immunoglobulin
Hepatitis B
Characterized by long incubation period (6 weeks -6 months )
Risk of an adult becoming a carrier after acute infection is 5-15% and in infants more than 50%
Prevention
Hepatitis B vaccine
Plasma derived
RDNA -yeast drived
3 Doses of 1ml, first at an elected date, second 1 month later and third 6 month after first dose
- Hepatitis B Immunoglobulin (HBG)
146. Maximum maternal mortality is seen in:
(a) Hepatitis B
(b) Hepatitis E
(c) Hepatitis C
(d) Hepatitis
147. Most common cause of epidemic of infective hepatitis in Inida is:
(a) HAV
(b) HBV
(c) HCV
(d) HEV
142 C
143 D
144 B
145 D
146 B
147 D
38
148 A
149 D
150 C
151 D
152 A
153 C
154 D
155 D
39
(PAR/169)(UPSC/2001)
(d) 21 to 28 days
Incubatory
Convalescent
Contact or healthy
Chronic
Vibrio is destroyed in an acidity of pH 5 or lower hence conditions affecting gastric acidity may
influence individual susceptiblity
Immunity is local and vaccination gives only temporary, partial immunity for 3-6 months
I.P is 1-2 days
Eltor cholera differs from classical cholera by a higher incidence of mild and asymptomatic
infection.
Fewer secondary cases in the affected families
Occurrence of chronic carriers
Eltor vibrios are more resistant than classical cholera in surviving in extraintestinal enviornment.
Control of cholera
1. Verification of diagnosis
2. Notification
3. Early case finding
4. Establishment of treatment centers
5. Rehydration therapy
6. Adjuncts to therapy
7. Epidemiological investigation
8. Sanitation measure
9. Chemoprophylaxis
10. Vaccination
Vaccination has two doses at interval of 4-6 weeks with booster every six months.
Vaccine is no value in controlling epidemics.
Live vaccine is CVD - 103 HgR strain of Vibrio Cholerae 01
International vaccination certificate is considered valid for a period of six months starting 6 days
of infection.
157. The required amount of bleaching powder necessary to disinfect choleric stools is:
(a) 25 gm/litre
(b) 50 gm/litre
(c) 75 gm/litre
(d) 100 gm/litre
158. Which is not essential in case of cholera epidemic:
(a) Weekly chlorination
(b) Notification
(c) Vaccination of individuals
(d) Treatment with ORS and tetracycline
(PAR/170)(AI 91)
(PAR/171) (AI 92, 98)
Quantity
Glucose
Sodium chloride
Potassium chloride
Potable water
Trisodium citrate dehydrate
20.0 g
3.5 g
1.5 g
1 litre
2.9 g
157 D
158 C
159 B
160 B
40
162 C
175 C
163 B
176 D
164 D
177 C
165 A
178 C
166 A
167 A
168 A
169 B
170 D
171 B
172 C
173 C
41
180 C
181 D
182 C
183 A
184 C
185 A
186 D
187 D
188 A
42
SOURCE
Meat, milk and milk product
C/F
Chills, fever, nausea, vomiting
and profuse watery diarrhoea
Milk and milk products,
No fever, vomiting, cramps,
Salad and custard
diarrhoea
Preserved food caned vegetable Acts on parasympathetic or
Smoked or pickled fish cheese system causing dysphagia
Diplopia, ptosis, dysarthria,
blurring of vision fever is
absent.
Guanidine hydrochloride reverses the neuromuscular block of botulism
(d) Cl.perfringens
Meat, meat dishes, poultry
Nausea vomiting rare
I.P (6-24 hrs)
peak at 10 -14 hr
(e) B.cereus
Rice
1-6 hrs - upper gi features
IP (1-6 hrs)
12-24 hrs - Diarrhoea
191 Chandlers endemic index in used in:
(PAR/186) (JIPMER 92 AMC 96)
(a) Typhoid
(b) Hookworm infestation
(c) Urban TB patients
(d) Diabetics
192. The total number of hookworm cases in India is estimated to be:
(PAR/186) (DELHI 96)
(a) 40 million
(b) 200 million
(c) 400 million
(d) 100 million
193. Chandler index is:
(PAR/186) (AIIMS 98)
(a) No. of hookworm larvas in 100 gm stool
(b) No. of hookworm eggs in 10 gm stool
(c) No. of hookworm
eggs in 10 gm soil
(d) No. of hookworm eggs in 1 gm. of stool
194. Dracunculosis is highest in:
(PAR/188) (AI 96)
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab
(d) Karnataka
195. In India disease to be eradicated in near future is:
(PAR/188) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Tetanus
(b) Measles
(c) Dracunculosis
(d) Leprosy
196. No. of cases infected with guinea worm, detected in year 1999 are:
(PAR/188) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Ten
(d) Four
Dracunculiasis
Caused by Dracunculus medinensis
Vector-borne disease affecting by subcutaneous tissue
Man acquires infection by drinking water containing infected cyclops
Disease is amenable for eradication by1. Provision of safe drinking water
2. Control of cyclops
3. Health education of public matters relating to boiling or sieving drinking water through a double
thickness cotton cloth for personal protection and prevention of water contamination by infected
persons
197. Guinea worm eradication was achieved by:
(PAR/189) (AI 88)
(a) Discontinuation of the use of step well
(b) Chlorination of water
(c) Boiling of water for drinking
(d) Chemotherapy
198 In guinea worm prophylaxis, all of the following are true except:
(PAR/189) (AIIMS 94)
(a) Health education to people to use a seive for drinking water
(b) Mass treatment with mebendazole
(c) Identification of carriers
(d) Active search of new cases
189 A
190 C
191 B
192 B
193 D
194 B
195 C
196 B
197 A
198 B
43
C. Arthropod-Borne Infections
199. Dengue hemorrhagic fever occurs in:
(PAR/190) (PGI/2000)
(a) Immunocompromised patients
(b) Malnourished children
(c) Reinfection after an initial infection
with type II
(d) It is a primary infection
200. Transversal transmission occurs in:
(PAR/190) (KERALA 94)
(a) Malaria
(b) Plague
(c) Filariasis
(d) Dengue fever
201. True about dengue fever is all except:
(PAR/190) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Transmitted by anopheles
(b) Saddle back fever
(c) Subcutaneous hemorrhage
(d) Spontaneous
remission
202. Dengue hemorrhagic fever is diagnosed by:
(PAR/190)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Acute onset of high fever, presence of petechiae, epistaxis and platelet count < 2 lakhs
(b) Acute onset
of high fever, positive tourniquet test, epistaxis or malena and platelet count < 1.5 lakh
(c) Acute onset of
high fever lasting 2 to 7 days, associated with hemorrhagic manifestations e.g. hemoptysis and platelet count
less than 1.5 lakhs
(d) Acute onset of high fever, positive tourniquet test, bleeding gum and platelet count
less than 1.0 lakh
203. Immediate treatment of peripheral circulatory failure in dengue shock syndrome is:
(PAR/191) (AIIMS 94)
(a) I/V high dose of dexamethasone
(b) I/V crystalloid infusion
(c) I/V dextrose saline
(d) Dopamine + dobutamine
204 Resistant malaria has not been reported from:
(PAR/192) (PGI 89)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Punjab
(d) Rajasthan
Malaria
Roll back malaria
Launched by WHO, UNICEF, UNDP and World Bank in 1998 with
Strengthen health system to ensure better delivery of health care, especially at district and
community level.
Ensure the proper and expanded use of insecticide treated mosquito nets.
Ensure adequate access to basic health care and training of health care workers
Encourage the development of simpler and more effecting means of administering medicine such
as training of village health workers and mothers on early and appropriate treatment of malaria
especially in children
Encourage the development of more effective and new anti -malaria drugs and vaccines
205. The current global strategy for malaria control is called:
(PAR/193) (KARN/01)
(a) Modified plan of operation
(b) Malaria eradication programme
(c) Malaria control programme
(d) Roll back malaria.
206. Urban malaria is spread by:
(PAR/194) (AIIMS 97)
(a) Anopheles stephensi
(b) Anopheles culiformis
(c) Culex fatigans
(d) Mansonides
Epidermiological types of malaria in india
Tribal malariaMostly caused by Plasmodium falciparum- High risk group are
Infants
Young children
Pregnant women
Rural MalariaAn culicifacies is the main vector and P.vivax is predominant during lean period and
P. falciparum during periodic exacerbation.
Urban MalariaAn culicifacies is the main vector; P.vivax is an endemic with moderate to low
transmission and there is focal P. falciparum transmission
Malaria in projects areas
- Border malaria
199 C
200 D
201 A
202 D
203 C
204 C
205 D
206 A
44
Diagnosis
Thin flim - For detection of species
Thick flim - for searching parasite
Malaria fluorescent antibody test - does not indicate current infection.
207 A
208 B
209 D
210 D
211 C
212 C
213 C
214 B
215 D
216 C
217 A
218 B
45
Latest simple and rapid diagnostic technique is a clipstick (antigen capture ) assay for detection
of P. falciparum.
Measurement of malaria
Pre-eradication era a. Spleen rate - percentage of children b/w 2-10 years of age showing enlarged spleen.
Spleen rate is widely used for measuring the endemicity of malaria
b. Average enlarged spleen
c. Parasite rate - percentage of children between 2-10 years showing malaria parasites in there blood
films
d. Parasite density index
e. Infant parasite rate
Most sensitive index of recent trasmission of malaria in a locality
Absence of malaria trasmission is denoted if the infant parasite rate is zero for 3 consecutive
years
f. Proportional case rate - no. of cases diagnosed as clinical malaria for every 100 patient attending
the hospital and Dispensaries.
Current Incidence levels
a. Annual parasite incidence (API)
Confirmed causes during one year
=
1000
Population under surveillance
b. Annual blood examination rate (ABER)
number of slides exaimed
=
100
Population
Index of operational efficiency
c. Annual falciparum incidence
d. Slide positivity rate
e. Slide falciparum rate
219. A malarial survey is conducted in 50 villages having a population of one lakh. Out of 20,000 slides examined,
500 turned out to be malaria positive. The annual parasite index is:
(PAR/198) (AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) 20%
(b) 5%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 0.4%
220. Under NMEP the radical treatment for P. falciparum is:
(PAR/199) (AIIMS 93)
(a) Chloroquine 600 mg stat + Primaquine 5 days
(b) Primaquine 45 mg state + pyrimethamine 50 mg stat
(c) Chloroquine 600 mg stat + primaquine 45 mg stat
(d) Chloroquine 600 mg BD 1 day + Pyrimethamine
25 mg stat
221. First line drug for falciparum malaria is:
(PAR/199) (DNB 92)
(a) Chloroquine
(b) Primaquine
(c) Quinine
(d) Tetracycline
222. About, presumptive treatment of malaria true is:
(PAR/199) (AIIMS 94)
(a) 600 mg chloroquine stat, 300 mg 6 hours later, then 300 mg
(b) 300 mg chloroquine daily for 3 days
(c) 300 mg chloroquine + 15 mg primaquine daily for 3 day
(d) Any of the above
Consider the following statements:
223. In revised strategy for control of malaria, high risks areas are identified.
(PAR/199)UPSC/03
1: Doubling of SPR during last 3 years.
2: Problem of chloroquine resistance
3: PF proportion as 30% or more
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
224. In chloroquine resistant area, prophylactic cure of malaria is done with:
(PAR/199) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) Mefloquine
(b) Chloroquine + pyrimethamine
(c) Pyrimethamine and sulfadoxine
(d) Chloroquine
+ primaquine
219 B
220 C
221 A
222 A
223 D
224 B
46
226 D
47
228 C
241 D
229 B
230 C
231 A
232 A
233 A
234 B
235 A
236 D
237 B
238 A
239 B
48
D. Zoonoses
245 In India, Rabies free zone is:
(a) Goa
(b) Lakshadeep
(c) Sikkim
(d) Nagaland
246 Following is not a zoonotic disease:
(a) Giardiasis
(b) Brucellosis
(c) Leptospirosis
(d) Rabies
Zoonoses: Disease and infection which are naturally transmitted between vertebrate animal
and man
Four categories 1. Direct zoonosesRabies, trichinosis and brucellosis
2. Cyclo-zoonosesOne vertebrate host but no invretebsate host in completing development cycl
of agent.
- Human taeniasis
- Pentastomid infections
- Echinococcosis
3. Meta zoonosesTrasmitted biologically by invertebrate vectors
e.g. Plague, schistosomiasis, arbovirus infection
4. Sparo-zoonosesMycoses
247. The Negri bodies are seen in:
(a) Viral hepatitis
(b) Japanese encephalitis
(c) Poliomyelitis
248. Rabies can be transmitted by all routes except:
(a) Aerosol
(b) Bites
(c) Ingestion
(d) Licks
249. The incubation period of rabies is:
(a) Two weeks
(b) Two months
(c) Two years
(d) variable
Rabies
It is one of the disease besides AIDS with 100 % mortality
Cause is lyssavirus type 1
There are two type of virus
Street virus
Fixed virus
I.P 20-60 days
- I.P 4-6 days
Passes serially from brain
- used for anti-rabies vaccine
through brain in rabbit
- does not form negri bodies
I.P in man is commonly 3-8 weeks following exposure.
242 D
243 A
244 D
245 B
246 A
247 D
248 C
249 D
(PAR/208) (UPSC/01)
49
251 C
252 D
253 A
254 C
255 B
256 A
257 A
50
- None
- Vaccine immediately, stop if
animal healthy after 10 days
- Rabies immunoglobin and
vaccine, stop if animal is healthy
after 10 days
258 A
259 C
260 A
261 D
262 C
263 B
264 B
265 A
266 C
51
267 C
268 B
269 A
270 C
271 C
272 B
273 C
274 C
275 A
276 A
277 A
278 A
52
280 B
281 B
282 A
283 C
53
284. After two doses of vaccination against plague, the immunity will last for:
(PAR/226) (UPSC 97)
(a) Six months
(b) One year
(c) Eighteen months
(d) Twenty-four months
285. The drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of a patient of pneumonic plague is:
(a) Penicillin
(b) Rifampicin
(c) Erythromycin
(d) Tetracycline
(AIIMS/02) (PAR/226)
286. Rocky mountain spotted fever is transmitted by:
(PAR/229) (AI 89)
(a) Flea
(b) Mite
(c) Tick
(d) Louse
287. Rickettsialpox is transmitted by:
(PAR/229)
(a) Flea
(b) Mite
(c) Tick
(d) Mosquito
288. Which one of the following vectors transmits scrub typhus:
(PAR/229) (UPSC 98)
(a) Louse
(b) Flea
(c) Mite
(d) Ticks
289. Mite transmit:
(PAR/229) (AI 97)
(a) Scabies
(b) Relapsing fever
(c) KFD
(d) Human babesiosis
290. The vector of epidemic typhus:
(PAR/229) (UP 93)
(a) A flea
(b) Hard tick
(c) Louse
(d) Soft tick
Rickettsial Disease
Disease
Rickettsial agent
Insect vectors
1. Typhus group
a. Epidemic typhus
b. Murine typhus
c. Scrub typhus
2. Spotted fever group
Indian tick typhus
Rocky mountain
spotted fever
Rickettsialpox
3. Others
Q fever
Trench fever
R.prowazekii
R.typhi
Pediculous louse
Flea
R.tsutsugamushi
Mite
R.conorii
R.ricketsii
Tick
Tick
R.akari
Mite
C. burnetti
R ochalimaea quintana
Nil
Louse
285 D
298 A
286 C
299 D
287 B
288 C
289 A
290 C
291 A
292 D
293 C
294 D
295 A
296 A
54
(PAR/234)(AIIMS/02)
(d) Equine
E. Surface Infections
301. The mass treatment of trachoma is undertaken if the prevalence in community is:
(a) 3%
(b) 10%
(c) 5%
(d) 6%
302. Herd immunity is not important in:
(a) Polio
(b) Diphtheria
(c) Measles
(d) Tetanus
301 C
302 D
303 D
304 A
305 D
306 C
307 A
308 B
309 A
55
310. Following procedures prevent neonatal tetanus, advised by family welfare programme except:
(PAR/241)(BHU 88)
(a) Giving TT vaccine between age group 10-16 years girls
(b) Immunise pregnant mothers during
16-36 weeks only
(c) Trained dais conducting deliveries
(d) Single dose of TT to mothers who already
received immunisation in previous pregnancy
311. A person has received tetanus full immunisation 10 years ago, now has clean wound without lacerations 2-5 hours
ago. Next step in management will be:
(PAR/241)(AI/2001)
(a) Full course of tetanus toxoid
(b) Single tetanus booster dose
(c) Tet globulin
(d) Tet glob and booster
dose
Recommended for prevention of tetanus After surgical cleaning
Wounds less than six hour old, clean, nonpenetrating and with negligible tissue damage.
Immunity
Treatment
A. TT complete + Booster
within past 5 years
B. TT complete+ Booster
in more than 5 and less than 10 years
C. TT complete + Booster more than 10 years ago
D. Immunity status not known
Human tetanus immunoglobulin along with TT dose is to
C and D
Nothing
Toxoid one dose
Toxoid 1 Dose
TT complete course
be given in other wounds of category
311 B
324 B
312 A
313 B
314 A
315 A
316 B
317 B
318 A
319 A
320 B
321 A
322 B
56
Leprosy
Bacterial Index - negative - no bacilli found in 100 fields
(+) One or less than one bacillus in each microscopic fields
(++) Bacilli found in all fields
(+++) many bacilli found in all fields
Bacterial index is calculated by 7 sites of examination
In paucibacillary leprosy the bacterial index is <2 and In multibacillary leprosy it is greater than 2
Case finding method
a. Contact survey: When prevalence is 1 case/1000 pop
b. Group survey: With prevalence of about 1 case/1000 pop
c. Mass survey: Prevalence of 10 or more per 1000 pop
326. The following statements are true for the bacteriological index (BI) in leprosy, except:
(PAR/246) (AI 91)
(a) Skin smears are from 7 sites
(b) A two plus smear grading indicates bacilli in 1-2 microscopic fields
(c) The BI is calculated by adding the smear gradings and taking an average
(d) BI less than 2 indicates
paucibacillary leprosy
327. Mitsuda reaction in lepromin test is read after:
(PAR/246) (AI 92)
(a) 48 hours
(b) 24 hours
(c) 4 weeks
(d) 2 weeks
328. True about tuberculoid leprosy:
(PAR/246) (UP 94)
(a) Leonine facies
(b) Thickened vessels
(c) Leramine + ve
(d) Bacilli in lesion
329. Leprosy and tuberculosis are best prevented by:
(PAR/247) (AI 92)
(a) Chemoprophylaxis
(b) Early diagnosis and treatment
(c) Health education
(d) Immunoprophylaxis
330. All of the following tests are performed to detect the CMI in leprosy except:
(PAR/247)(AI 92)
(a) FLA-ABS test
(b) ELISA test
(c) LTT test
(d) Monoclonal antibody detection
331. In the management of laprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for:
(PAR/247) (AI/03)
(a) Head immunity
(b) Prognosis
(c) Treatment
(d) Epidemiological investigations
332. A family has a case of lepromatus leprosy. The following management is advised except: (PAR/248) (AI 89)
(a) Chemotherapy of the case
(b) Contact survey of the family
(c) Compulsory isolation of the case
Case finding methods for early case detection of leprosy
a. Contact survey:
Where the prevalence of leprosy is generally low less than 1 case per 1000
population
b. Group survey:
When the prevalence is about 1 per 1000 or higher.
c. Mass surveys:
Total population surveys for examination of each and every individual family
by family by house to house where the prevalence of leprosy is about 10 or
more per 1000 population.
333. Boarderline tuberculoid type of leprosy is best treated by:
(PAR/249) (AI 92)
(a) Dapsone
(b) Dapsone + Clofazimine
(c) Clofazimine
(d) Dapsone + Rifampicin
334. In paucibacillary leprosy, the follow-up examination after adequate treatment should be done yearly for:
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 10 years
(PAR/250) (DELHI 96)
335. Treatment of paucibacillary leprosy is ideally carried out for:
(PAR/250) (JIPMER 95)
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 18 months
336. A patient of paucibacillary tuberculoid leprosy completed 6 months of multidrug therapy. The response to therapy
is good, but the lesion has not healed completely. According to the WHO criteria, which of the following should
be done?
PAR/250)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Stop treatment and watch
(b) Continue the treatment for 6 more months
(c) Continue dapsone for 2
more months (d) Test for drug resistance
325 A
326 B
327 C
328 C
329 B
330 C
331 B
332 C
333 D
334 C
335 B
336 A
57
B.
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Viral agents
Human (alpha) herpesvirus 1 or 2 (herpes simplex
virus)
Human (beta) herpesvirus 5 (formerly cytomegalovirus)
Hepatitis virus B
Human papilloma viruses
Molluscum contagiosum virus
Human immunodeficiency virus
Mycoplasma hominis
Shigella
Haemophilus ducreyi
Chlamydia trachomatis
Ureaplasma urealyticum
Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
Treponema pallidum
C. Protozoal agents
Campylobacter spp.
Entamoeba histolytica
Group B Streptococcus
Giardia lamblia
Bacterial vaginosis-associated organism
Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Fungal agents
Candida albicans
E. Ectoparasites
Phthirus pubis
Sarcoptes scabiei
344. Which is not an STD:
(a) Herpes simplex
(b) Hepatitis A
(c) Molluscum contagiosum
345. The most common STD in India is:
(a) Syphilis
(b) Gonorrhoea
(c) AIDS
(d) Herpes
346. Not transmitted by sexually:
(a) Syphilis
(b) T. pertenue
(c) Gonorrhoea
(d) Candidiasis
347. Cluster testing is used in the detection of:
(a) STD
(b) Diabetes
(c) Measles
(d) Cancer
337 C
338 A
339 B
340 B
341 D
342 B
343 E
344 B
345 B
346 B
347 A
58
Significance
HIV enzyme-linked
immunosorbent assay
(ELSIA)
CBC
CD4 lymphocyte
percentage
Absolute CD4
lymphocyte count
Western blot
Confirmatory test for HIV specificity when combined with ELISA >99.99 indeterminate result
with early HIV infection, HIV 2 infection
autoimmune disease pregnancy and recent
tetanus toxoid administration.
348 C
349 D
350 A
351 B
59
Epidemiology of Chronic
Non-communicable Diseases
and Conditions
2 B
3 D
4 D
5 A
60
Diabetes mellitus
(a) Fasting value
(b) 2 hrs after glucose load
Impaired glucose tolerance
(a) Fasting value
(b) 2 hrs after glucose load
Whole blood
Venous
Glucose (mg/dl)
plasma
Capillary
Venous
Capillary
>120
>180
>120
>200
>140
>200
>140
>200
>120
120,180
>120
140,200
<140
140,200
<140
160,200
7 B
19 B
8 A
20 A
9 D
21 C
10 D
11 B
12 A
13 A
14 A
15 C
16 C
17 A
61
Weight (kg)
Height (m)2
Height (cm)
Weight (kg)3
Height minus 100=weight
(ht (cm)-150
2 (women)or 4(men)
Actual wt <1.2
Desirable wt
22. In one single visit, a 9 months old, un-immunised child can be given the following vaccination:
(PAR/299)(AI/03)
(a) Only BCG
(b) BCG, DPT-1,OPV-1
(c) DPT-1,OPV-1, Measles
(d) BCG,DPT-1,OPV-1, Measles
23. Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, the visual acuity should be less than:
(a) 3/60
(b) 6/60
(c) 1/60
(d) 6/24
(PAR/300)(UPSC/02)
24. Blindness as described by WHO is:
(PAR/300) (AI/2000)
(a) < 3/60 with visual correction in better eye
(b) < 6/60 with visual correction in better eye
(c) PL
(d) PR
25. Prevalence of blindness in India is:
(PAR/301 (AIIMS 91)
(a) 0.2%
(b) 0.5%
(c) 1%
(d).1%
Causes of blindness in India
Corneal opacity
Cataract
Vitamin A deficiency
Trachoma and associated infections
Refraction error
Glaucoma
Other causes
3.0 percent
81 percent
0.04 percent
0.2 percent
7.0 percent
2.0 percent
6.76 percent
22 B
23 C
24 A
25 C
26 D
27 A
(d) Squint
62
Health Programmes
in India
1. Under NMEP for areas with API more than 2 and vector refractory to DDT, the recommendation is:
(PAR/308) (AI 92)
(a) Malathion-3 rounds/year
(b) HCH-1 round/year
(c) HCH-2 rounds/year
(d) HCH-3 rounds/year
2. Under the National Malaria Eradication Programme, radical treatment for P.vivax malaria is given for:
(a) 1 day
(b) 5 days
(c) 7 days
(d) 14 days
(PAR/308) (AI 90)
3. Under NMEP, for areas with API more than 2 the vector is refractory to DDT, the new recommendation is:
(PAR/308) (AI 93)
(a) HCH-1 round/year
(b) HCH-2 rounds/year
(c) HCH-3 rounds/year
(d) Malathione-2 rounds/year
4. All of the following statements about National Malaria Control Programme are true except:
(PAR/308) (UPSC 98)
(a) Number of slides examined should amount to atleast 10% of the population under surveillance in a year
(b) Annual parasite incidence based on active and passive surveillance and cases confirmed by blood examination
(c) Annual blood examination rate is calculated from the number of slides examined per 100 cases of fever
(d) The slide positivity rate provides information on the trend of malaria transmission
5. Under NMEP, the function of fever depot treatment is:
(PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) Diagnosis of cases + spraying
(b) Collection of slides + treatment of fever
(c) Treatment fever cases
only
(d) Treatment + slide collection + spraying
6. Under NMEP the minimum annual blood examination rate should be:
(PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) 10%
(b) 12%
(c) 14%
(d) 18%
7 The expected reduction in API by 2000 AD in India is:
(PAR/309) (KARNAT 96)
(a) 1/10
(b) 1/100
(c) 1/1000
(d) 0.5/1000
8. Which is not true of malaria eradication programme (MEP):
(PAR/309) (AI 93)
(a) Started in 1953
(b) Modified plan started in 1970
(c) Incidence was 2 million cases in 1958
(d) Incidence decreased to 50,000 in 1961
9. In NMEP, the recommendation for area API-2 are A/E:
(PAR/309) (AI 95)
(a) Presumptive treatment (b) DDT spraying for twice in a year
(c) Epidemiological investigation of all cases
(d) Follow-up every case for one year and monthly blood smears
10. Modified programme for National Malaria Eradication Programme is based on:
(PAR/309) (AIIMS 89)
(a) API
(b) ABER
(c) Infant parasite rate
(d) Spleen rate
Modified plan of operation(1st April 1977)
Areas with API >2
1. Spraying
Regular insecticidal spray with 2 rounds of DDT
If refractory vector, 3 rounds of malathion
If refractory to both - 2 rounds of synthetic pyrethrium spray at interval of 6 weeks
1 D
2 B
3 C
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 A
63
2. Entomological assessment
3. Surveillanceactive and passive
4. Treatment of cases
Areas with API<2
Focal spraying
Active and passive surveillance
Radical treatment for detected cases
Follow-up blood smear at completion of radical treatment and thereafter at monthly intervals for
12 months
Epidermological investigation
National antimalaria programme is a name given to National Malaria Eradication Programme in
1999
Enhanced malaria control project with world bank support was launched on 30 September
1997.Selection criterias for PHC under project are
Annual parasite incidence (API) of more than 2 for last 3years
P. falciparum cases being more than 30 percent of total malaria cases
Twenty-five percent or more population of PHC being tribal
Reported deaths due to malaria from PHC
Components strengthened under the project
Early case detection and treatment
Selective vector control and personal protection methods including insecticide treated mosquito nets
Epidemic planning and Rapid response
Intersectoral coordination, institutional and management capabilities, strengthening
11. Under NMEP the minimum annual blood examination rate should be:
(PAR/309) (AI 94)
(a) 10%
(b) 12%
(c) 14%
(d) 18%
12 The objective of minimum needs programme does not include:
(PAR/309) (AI 93)
(a) One PHC for 30,000 population (b) Link mid-day meal programme to sanitation (c) Integration of health,
water and sanitation
(d) Urban area given priority
13. National programmes are now organised for the following in India except:
(PAR/309) (DNB 89)
(a) Filariasis
(b) Leprosy
(c) Smallpox
(d) Trachoma
14. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now:
(PAR / 309)(JIPMER/2K)
(a) ABER
(b) Infant parasite rate
(c) Annual parasite incidence
(d) Side positivity rate
NATIONAL FILARIA CONTROL PROGRAMME
Activities undertaken are:
a. Delimination of the problem in hitherto unsurveyed areas
b. Control in urban areas through-recurrent antilarval measures and antiparasitic measures
15. In the national leprosy eradication programme (NLEP), mass surgery are done if the prevalence is:
(a) 1/1000
(b) 2/20000
(c) 6/1000
(d) 10/10000
(PAR/311) (AIIMS 88)
16. Longest incubation period, among the following is of:
(PAR/311) (BIHAR 89, DELHI 92)
(a) Malaria
(b) Hepatitis
(c) Leprosy
(d) Filaria
Modified leprosy elimination campaign (MLEC) April 1997 by giving short-term orientation
training
In leprosy to health staff including medical officer, health workers and volunteers. Increase public
awareness about leprosy ; and house to house search has been conducted to detect new leprosy cases
throughout the country by 5.83 lakh searchers for a period of six days.
17. The screening method of choice in prevalence of leprosy is 1 in 1000 is:
(a) Contact survey
(b) Group survey
(c) Mass survey
(d) Any of the above
11 A
12 D
13 C
14 B
15 D
16 C
17 B
64
18. In leprosy control programme, indicator of efficacy of early diagnosis cases is:
(PAR/311)(AIIMS 98)
(a) Disability rate among newly used
(b) Lepromin +ve% among used
(c) Ratio of, multi/pauci bacillary
cases
(d) All of the above
19. The multidrug regimen under the national leprosy eradication programme (NLEP) for the treatment of all multibacillary leprosy would include:
(PAR/311) (UPSC 97)
(a) Clofazimine thiacetazone and dapsone
(b) Clofazimine, rifampicin and dapsone
(c) Ethionamide,
rifampicin and dapsone
(d) Propionamide, rifampicin and dapsone
20. Strategies in national leprosy control programme (NLCP):
(PAR/311) (AIIMS 79, PGI 90)
(a) Early detection of cases
(b) Short-course multidrug therapy
(c) Rehabilitation
(d) Chemoprophylaxis
with dapsone
(e) All of the above
21. SET centre is set up if prevalence of leprosy:
(PAR/311) (PGI 81, UPSC 88)
(a) Below 0.1%
(b) Less than 5%
(c) Above 1%
(d) Above 5%
22. Which of the following is/are used as operational indicators in antileprosy activity?(PAR/311)(UPSC/02)
(a) Incidence
(b) Incidence and prevalence (c) Relapse rate and case detection ratio (d) Incidence and case
detection ratio
23. High prevalence zone for leprosy has cases per 1,000 population as:
(PAR/311) (AIIMS 86)
(a) 1-2
(b) 2-5
(c) 5-10
(d) 10-20
24. India has entered which phase of demographic cycle:
(PAR/311) (AIIMS 88)
(a) High stationary
(b) Low stationary
(c) Early expanding
(d) Late expanding
25. Under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme, mass surveys are undertaken when the prevalence of
leprosy is:
(PAR/311)AI89
(a) 1/1000 (b) 3/1000
(c) 5/1000
(d) 10/1000
NATIONAL LEPROSY ERADICATION PROGRAMME
The aim is to reduce case load to 1 or less than 1 per 10,000 population.
The programme is implemented through the establishment of leprosy control units; Survey,
education and treatment centres. The leprosy control units has one medical officer, 2 non-medical
supervisors and 20 paramedical workers (PMW) each covering a population of 4.5 lakhs. The staff
appointed at SET centre comprise 1PMW for 20 to 25 thousand population, and one non-medical
supervisor for every 5 PMWs.One urban leprosy centre is established for every 50,000 population
26. The screening method of choice in prevalence of leprosy is 1 in 1000 is:
(PAR/311) (AI 95)
(a) Contact survey
(b) Group survey
(c) Mass survey
(d) Any of the above
27. SET centres established if prevalence % leprosy is:
(PAR/311) (MANIPAL/98)
(a) 0.5-1/1000
(b) 1-5
(c) 5-10
(d) 1
28. District TB control programme is mainly concerned with:
(PAR/312) (UPSC 86, 88, AMC 87)
(a) Finding out new cases
(b) Finding out resistant cases
(c) Detecting cases and treatment
(d) All of the above
District tuberculosis programme (DTP)Consist of one district tuberculosis centre (DTC) and
on an average 50 peripheral health institutionThe team posted at each DTC
1 District tuberculosis officers (DTO)
1 Second medical officer
2 Laboratory technicians
2 Treatment organiser /health visitor
1 X-ray technicians
1 Non-medical team leader
1 Statistical assistant
1 Pharmacist
29. Under the revised national tuberculosis control program a new case is one who has never had treatment for
tuberculosis or has taken anti-tubercular drugs for less than:
(PAR/312) (UPSC/01)
(a) 2 weeks
(b) 4 weeks
(c) 6 weeks
(d) 8 weeks
18 A
19 B
20 E
21 B
22 D
23 D
24 D
25 D
26 B
27 B
28 C
29 B
65
30. Assertion (A):Radiological examination of the chest is the best method for detection of cases under the National
TB Control Programme. Reason (R): Radiological examination of the chest is the most reliable:
(PAR/312) (AI 88)
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R not the
correct explanation of A
(c) A is true and R is false
(d) Both A and R are false
31. False about DOTS is:
(PAR/312)(AI/2001)
(a) Continuation phase drugs are given in a multi-blister pack
(b) Medication is to be taken in presence of
a health worker
(c) Biweekly dosage and DOT as time
(d) Improves compliance
32. Goal of national tuberculosis control programme (NTCP) is:
(PAR/313) (KERALA 96)
(a) To eradicate TB
(b) To decrease the transmission of TB
(c) To treat all sputum +ve patients
(d) To decrease the incidence of TB to such a low level that it is no longer a major public health problem
(e) BCG vaccination of all infants
Revised National Tuberculosis Control ProgrammeThe salient features of this strategy are:
1. Achievement of at least 85 percent cure rate of infectious cases through supervised short course
health functionaries
2. Augmentation of case finding through quality sputum microscopy to detect at least 70% cases;
3. Involvement of NGOs; Information education and improved operational reaserch
DOTS is a community based tuberculosis treatment and care strategy with three components:
appropriate medical treatment supervision and motivation by a health or non-health workers and
monitoring of disease status by health services. DOTS will be given by peripheral health staff such
as MPWs, or through workers such as teacher, anganwadi workers, dais, ex- patient, social workers
etc. they will be known as DOT agent and will be paid incentive/honorarium of as 150 per patient
completing the treatment.
33. Main aim of tuberculosis treatment is:
(PAR/313) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Radiological cure
(b) Contact tracing
(c) Bacteriological cure
(d) To prevent complication
34. A peripheral health institution under the District Tuberculosis Centre is designated as PHI-R when it has:
(PAR/313) (AI 89)
(a) Referral facilities
(b) Microscopy facilities
(c) Microscopy+radiological facilities
(d) Radiological
facilities
35. Consider the following statements:
(PAR/313)(UPSC/03)
The Revised National Tuberculosis Control Programme has a strategy base that reflects in:
1. Accountability of system
2. Increasing case detection
3. Ensuring DOTS based drugs for every patient
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
36. Under the national TB programme, for a PHC to be called a PHI-R, requisite is:
(PAR/313)(AI/2001)
(a) Microscopy
(b) Microscopy plus radiology
(c) Radiology
(d) Specialities of doctors
37. With increased plan outlays for National AIDS Control Programme, the secondary divindends of these
interventions shall directly benefit:
(PAR/315)(UPSC/02)
(a) RCH Programme
(b) MCH services
(c) Immunization Programme (d) National Tuberculosis Control
Programme
38. Under the National Programme for Prevention of Blindness, vitamin A is to be given to: (PAR/317) (AI 89)
(a) All children between the ages of 1 to 5 years at 6 monthly intervals
(b) Children with history of night
blindness
(c) Children with severe protein energy malnutrition
(d) Children with Bitot spots
39. The goal set for AD 2005 by the National programme for the control of blindness in India is to reduce blindness
to:
(a) 0.3 percent of total population
(b) 0.6 percent of total population
(c) 1.2 percent of total population
(d) 2.4 percent of total population
(PAR/317)(UPSC/01)
30 D
31 C
32 D
33 C
34 C
35 B
36 B
37 D
38 A
39 A
66
41 D
42 B
43 D
44 B
45 A
46 A
47 D
48 A
67
49. In community Needs Assessments approach as part of the Reproductive and Child Health Programme, the target
for various health activities are set at the level of:
( PAR/320)(AIIMS 02)
(a) Community
(b) Sub-centre
(c) Primary health centre
(d) District
50. The National Diabetes Control Programme in India includes all the following activities, except:
(PAR 322)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Primary prevention of diabetes through genetic testing and genetic counselling
(b) Identification of highrisk subjects at an early stage, with appropriate health education (c) Early diagnosis and management of cases
(d) Prevention, arrest or slowing of metabolic and cardiovascular complications of the disease
51. Cancer control programme was launched in:
(PAR/322) (ORRISA/01)
(a) 1976
(b) 1986
(c) 1970 (d) 1992
National AIDS prevention and control policythe objectives include reduction of the impact
of epidemic and to bring about a zero transmission rate of AIDS by year 2007 through:
Blood safety programme
HIV testing
STD control programme
Condom promotionas almost 65% HIV infection occur due to unprotected and multipartner
sexual contacts
HIV SurveillanceSurveillance are:
(a) HIV sentienal surveillance
(b) HIVsero surveillance
(c) AIDS case surveillance
(d) STD surveillance
Integration with other disease like tuberculosis etc.
Family health awarness campaign
Prevention of HIV transmission from mother to child
Post exposure prophylaxis for health care workersThe antiretroviral drugs in combination of 2-3
drug have been shown to be prophylactic when given within 2 hours exposure
National AIDS telephone helpline
52. The false statement regarding National Water Supply Programme is:
(PAR/323) (AI 93)
(a) 47% of rural population have safe water
(b) 80% of urban population have safe water
(c) In problem villages source of water is 1.6 km
(d) Target for coverage by 199060%
53. Problem village is all except:
(PAR/323) (JIPMER 9898)
(a) Where no water source in a distance of 1.6 km from community
(b) Water is more than depth of 15 m
(c) There is excess on Na+, K+, F+ salts
(d) Risk of guinea worm infection
National Water Supply and Sanitation Programme (1972)
The stipulated norm of water supply is 40 litres of safe drinking water per capita per day and at least
one hand pump / spot source for every 250 persons
Provide safe drinking water to all the villages by the turn of the century as available to about 85
percent of the total population and 16 percent population has access to adequate sanitation
MINIMUM NEEDS PROGRAMME
a. Rural health
b. Rural water supply
c. Rural electrification
d. Elementary education
e. Adult education
f. Nutrition
g. Environmental improvement of urban slums
h. Houses for landless labours
In the field of nutrition, the objectives are (a) To extend nutrition support to 11 million eligible person,
(b) To expand special nutriton Programme to all the ICDS projects and
(c) To consolidate the-mid
day meal programme and link it to health, potable water and sanitation.
49 D
50 A
51 A
52 D
53 C
68
Demography and
Family Planning
1 D
2 A
3 D
4 A
5 B
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 C
69
1027 million
26.1
8.7
1.93
30 years
74.2
65.38
324
933
34.33
6.77
3.3
19.5 years
Rs. 19592
13 A
14 B
15 B
16 D
17 B
18 B
19 C
20 D
70
21. The following are included when taking an occupational medical history, except:
(PAR/329) (AI 90)
(a) A chronological list of all jobs
(b) A list of known hazard in the work place
(c) A list of childhood
immunizations
(d) A description of a temporal relationship between work place exposure and illness
22. Goals by 2000 AD are A/E:
(PAR/329) (UP 93)
(a) Perinatal mortality rate 30-35
(b) Immunization coverage 100%
(c) Maternal mortality rate <3%
(d) Family size 2.3
Ninth five-year-plan (2002)
Infant mortality rate per 1000 live births
- Crude birth rate per 1000 population
- Crude death rate per 1000 population
- Maternal mortality rate per 1000 live births
- Life expectancy:
male
female
- Couple protection rate (%)
- Growth rate(%) annual
- Total fertility rate
- Immunization
- Pregnant mothers receiving
antenatal care (%)
- Delivery by trained personnel(%)
- Institutional deliveries(%)
56-50
24/23
9
3
62 (1996-2001)
63 (1996- 2001)
51-60
1.6/1.5
2.9/2.6
universal
90
45
35
21 C
22 C
23 A
24 C
25 C
26 C
27 A
28 D
29 A
30 B
31 A
32 B
33 C
71
35 C
48 A
36 C
49 A
37 A
50 C
38 A
51 C
39 C
52 D
40 A
53 B
41 B
54 D
42 B
43 C
44 B
45 D
46 B
72
55. The thread attached to the Lippes loop offers the following advantage except:
(PAR/338) (Manipal/95)
(a) It has anti-inflammatory properties
(b) It permits the easy removal of the loop
(c) It gives the shape
to the loop
(d) It reassures the user of the continued presence of the loop
56. Intrauterine contraceptive devices are contraindicated in all of the following situations except:
(PAR/338) (Manipal/96)
(a) A history of pelvic inflammatory disease 5 years previously (b) Immunosuppressive therapy (c) A previous
ectopic pregnancy
(d) HIV positivity
57. Multiload device contains:
(PAR/340) (AIIMS 85)
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Progesterone
(d) Silver
58. Multiload device refers to:
(PAR/340) (PGI 91)
(a) First generation IUCD
(b) Second generation IUCD
(c) Oral contraceptive pills
(d) Barrier
contraceptives
59. Best method for spacing is:
(PAR/340) (PG I80, DELHI 87)
(a) Condom
(b) Pessary
(c) IUCD
(d) Tubectomy
60. IUCD acts by:
(PAR/340) (JIPMER 91)
(A) Killing spermatozoa
(b) Aseptic inflammation of endometrium
(c) Increasing cervical mucus
(d) Preventing the fertilization of ova
61. IUCD is absolutely contraindicated in A/E:
(a) Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding
(b) Suspected pregnancy
(d) PID
56 A
69 A
57 B
70 B
58 B
59 C
60 B
61 C
62 B
63 C
64 C
65 A
66 B
67 C
73
71 A
72 D
73 A
74 C
75 B
76 C
77 A
78 B
79 C
80 C
81 B
82 C
74
Preventive Medicine in
Obstetrics, Paediatrics
and Geriatrics
1. Requirement of extra calories for a lactating mother during first six months is:
(PAR/363) (AI 92)
(a) 300 kcal/day
(b) 450 kcal/day
(c) 550 kcal/day
(d) 650 kcal/day
2. High risk babies is A/E:
(PAR/370) (AI 97)
(a) Working mother
(b) History of abortion
(c) Death of two sibling deaths within two months
(d) Weight between 70-80% of reference
High risk mother
1. Elderly primi (30 years and over )
2. Anemia
3. Twins hydramnios
4. Short statured primi (140 cm and below)
5. Pre-eclampsia and eclampsia
6. Malpresentation viz breech, transverse lie etc
7. Previous stillbirth, intrauterine death, manual removal of placenta
8. History of previous caesarean or instrumental delivery
9. Pregnancy associated with general disease, viz cardiovascular disease, kidney disease,
tuberculosis, liver disease etc
10. Prolonged pregnancy (14 days after expected date of delivery )
11. Antepartum haemorrhage, threatened abortion
12. Elderly grand multiparas
5 CleansClean hands and finger nail, a clean surface for delivery, clean cutting and care of the cord
and keeping birth canal clean by avoiding harmful practices.
At
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
risk infants
Birth weight less than 2.5 kg
Twins
Birth order 5 and more
Artificial feeding
Weight below 75 percent of the expected weight and 3 degrees of malnutrition
Failure to gain weight during three succesive months
Children with PEM, diarrhoea
Working mother/one parent
1 C
2 D
3 D
75
92)
92)
91)
86)
5 A
18 A
6 C
7 A
8 A
9 C
10 B
11 C
12 A
13 A
14 B
15 B
16 B
76
19 D
32 B
20 B
33 A
21 C
22 C
23 D
24 D
25 B
26 A
27 A
28 B
29 C
30 C
31 B
77
1000
Total live birth weighing over 1000 g at birth
34 D
35 D
36 D
37 A
38 B
39 C
40 A
41 C
42 A
43 C
78
100
100
IMR =
1000
Postneonatal
(1-12 months)
Diarrhoeal disease
Acute respiratory infection
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
Congenital anomalies
Haemolytic disease of newborn
Condition of placenta and cord
Diarrhoeal diseases
Acute respiratory infections
Tetanus
44 D
45 B
46 C
47 C
48 A
49 A
50 A
51 A
52 C
53 A
79
1000
10
54 C
55 D
56 D
57 D
58 A
59 A
60 B
61 B
62 C
63 C
80
64. The following grading of intelligence quotient has been given by WHO for mild mental retardation:
(a) IQ 20-34
(b) IQ 35-49
(c) IQ 50-70
(d) IQ 60-80
(PAR/403) (PGI 80, AIIMS 86)
65. Presence of the following substance reveals the fact of postcontamination of water:
(PAR/403) (KARN 94)
(a) Chlorides
(b) Nitrates
(c) Sulphates
(d) Nitrites
66. A 14-year-old boy having lost his father a year ago, is caught shoplifting. The boy will be sent to:
(a) An orphanage
(b) An anganwadi
(c) A prison
(d) A remand home
(PAR/406)(UPSC/2001)
67. One of the following is not true of Child Guidance Clinic:
(PAR/406) (KERALA 2K)
(a) First started in Chicago
(b) It is team work job
(c) It is basically meant for children who do not fully
adjust to their environment
(d) Originally designed to deal with juvenile delinquency
(e) It is intended for
service to the children in orphanages
68. When an abandoned child is legally accepted by a couple,it is called as:
(PAR/406)(UPSC/02)
(a) Remand home placement and foster home placement (b) Remand home placement and Borstal placement
(c) Adoption and foster home placement (d) Adoption and remand home placement
69. ICDS scheme was started in the year:
(PAR/407) (AIIMS 81, AMU 89)
(a) 1965
(b) 1970
(c) 1975
(d) 1985
Integrated child development services (ICDS) in 1975 is integrated package of:
1. Supplementory nutrition by 200 calorie and 8-10 gm for protein for children below 1 year, about
300 cal and 15 gm protein for children between 1-6 years and about 500 cal and 25 gm of protein
for pregnant women for nursing mother.Supplementary nutrient is given in 300 days in year
2. Nutrition and health education for women
3. Immunization- Against 6 vaccine preventable
4. Health check up for children under 6 years age
Record of weight and height of children at periodical intervals
Watch over milestone
Immunization
General check-up every 3-6 months to detect disease malnutrition etc
Treatment for diseases like diarrhoea, dysentery, respiratory tract infection, etc. which are widely
present.
Deworming
Prophylaxis against vitamin A deficiency and anemia
Referral and serious cases to hospital has also been provided for
5. Nonformal education for children upto the age of 6 years pregnant and nursing motherThe focal
point of delivery of integrated early childhood services under the ICDS scheme is the trained local
women known as Aaganwadi workers (AWWs). Other functionaries in the ICDS are the child
development project officers (CDPO) who is incharge of 4 supervisors and 100 AWWs
70. Highest amount of protein is seen in:
(PAR/408) (PGI
(a) Soya beans
(b) Groundnut
(c) Bengal gram
(d) Mysore Dal
71. Protein in human milk is:
(PAR/409) (UP
(a) 1.3 gm
(b) 2.3 gm
(c) 3.3 gm
(d) 4.5 gm
72. One of the following is biologically complete:
(PAR/409) (JIPMER 81, PGI
(a) Groundnut
(b) Wheat
(c) Soya bean
(d) Milk
73. Milk is deficient in:
(PAR/409) (KERALA
(a) Ca
(b) Vitamin A
(c) Vitamin D
(d) Fe
74. Breast milk compared to cows milk has:
(PAR/409) (DELHI
(a) More calories
(b) More fat
(c) More lactose
(d) More proteins
64 C
65 B
66 D
67 E
68 C
69 C
70 A
71 A
72 D
73 D
74 C
85)
94)
86)
94)
96)
Breast milk
gram per litre
11
4
7
3.5
0
1 to 2
1 to 2
0.5
0.32
35
3.5
70
62
50
50
2
0.33
0.4 to 1.5 mg
8
1
0.3 to 0.5 mg
60 mg
50 Ul
20 mg
25 Ul
640-720 kcal
2717 KJ
2670-3000 KJ
650 kcal
81
82
Dietary source
Percent content
Linoleic acids
Safflower oil
Corn oil
Sunflower oil
Soya bean oil
Sesame oil
Groundnut oil
Mustard oil
Palm oil
Coconut oil
Meat, egg
Milk (fat)
Soya bean oil
Leafy greens
Fish oil
73
57
56
51
40
39
15
9
2
0.5-0.3
0.4-0.6
7
varied
10
Arachiodonic acid
Linolenic acid
Eichosapentaenoic acid
1 A
2 A
3 C
4 A
5 A
6 C
7 D
8 A
9 D
83
94)
88)
85)
89)
89)
92)
More
More
More
More
More
Night blindness
Bitot's spots
Corneal xerosis/corneal ulceration/keratomalacia
Corneal ulcer
Serum retinol (less than 10 mcg/dl)
than
than
than
than
than
1 percent
0.5 percent
0.01 percent
0.05 percent
5 percent
11 B
24 B
12 B
25 C
13 A
26 A
14 C
27 B
15 A
28 B
16 B
17 A
18 A
19 A
20 C
21 B
22 D
84
Man
(sedentary)
Woman
(sedentary)
Pregnancy
Lactation
2425
60
20
400
28
600
1.2
1.4
16
2.0
40
100 mcg
1 mcg
2.5 mcg
1875
50
20
400
30
600
0.9
1.1
12
2.0
40
100 mcg
1 mcg
100 IU
+ 300
+15
30
1000
38
600
+0.2
+0.2
+2
2.5
2.5
400 mcg
1.5 mcg
400 IU
+ 550
+ 25
45
100
30
950
+0.3
+4
+3
40
80
150 mcg
1.5 mcg
400 IU
30 C
43 B
31 C
44 A
32 C
45 D
33 D
34 C
35 C
36 A
37 D
38 A
39 B
40 D
41 A
85
47 A
60 C
48 E
61 E
49 D
62 A
50 C
63 C
51 D
64 D
52 D
65 C
53 C
66 B
54 D
67 A
55 B
68 C
56 C
57 B
58 C
86
69 A
82 D
70 A
83 A
71 A
84 C
72 A
85 D
73 B
86 B
74 C
87 C
75 C
88 A
76 C
89 C
77 A
90 D
78 A
79 B
80 B
81 C
87
MARASMUS
KWASHIORKOR
CLINICAL
ALWAYS PRESENT
Muscle wasting
Oedema
Obvious
None
Mental changes
Fat wasting
Weight for height
CLINICAL
SOMETIMES PRESENT
Hair changes
Appetite
Diarrhoea
Hepatic enlargement
Skin changes
Seldom
Usually good
often (current and past)
None
Usually none
Low
Low
Low(<3g/100ml blood)
Elevated
BIOCHEMICAL
Hydroxyproline/
creatinine ratio
Serum albumin
Plasma / amino
acid ratio
Gomez Classification
Weight of the child
Weight of a normal child of same age
91 B
92 C
93 A
94 A
95 D
96 C
< m-2SD
wasted and stunted
88
Nutritional status
Mildly impaired
Severely impaired
Moderately impaired
Normal
100
100
97. The World Health Organization criterion for evidence of a Xerophthalmia problem in the community is:
(a) Night blindness prevalence of more than 1% in 6 months to 6 years age group
(b) Prevalence of Bilots
spots more than 2% in 6 months to 6 years of age group
(c) Serum retinol of less than 10 microgram/100 ml
in more than 3% in 6 months to 6 years of age
(d) Corneal ulcers in more than 0.5% of population of 6 months
to 6 years of age group
(PAR 438))(UPSC/2K)
98. The Vitamin A supplement administered in Prevention of nutritional blindness in children programme
contains":
(PAR/438)(AI/03)
(a) 25,000 IU/ml
(b) 1 lakh IU/ml
(c) 3 lakh IU/ml
(d) 5 lakh IU/ml
XerophthalmiaPrevention and Control
a. Short-term actionLarge doses of vitamin A orally
Vitamin A prophylaxis schedule
Individual
Oral dose of retinol palmitate Timing
Children <12 years
55 mg
4-6 monthly
Children >12 years
110 mg
4-6 monthly
Newborn
27.5 mg
At birth
Women of child age bearing age
165 mg
Within one month of given birth
Pregnant and lactating
2.75 mg and 11 mg
Every day and once every week
b. Medium-term actionFortification of vitamin A to dalda.
Dalda contains 25000 of vitamin A and 175 IU of vitamin D per 100gm
c. Long-term actionNational vitamin A prophylaxis programme for prevention of blindness in
children with 200,000 IU (or 110 mg) of retinol palmitate in an oil every six months
99. The dose of iron and folic acid given as a supplement is:
(PAR/439) (AIIMS 86)
(a) 200 mg and 5 mg
(b) 60 mg and 500 mg
(c) 200 mg and 500 mg
(d) 200 mg and 1 mg
100. According to the latest estimate the number of people living in the known iodine deficient areas is:
(a) 40 million
(b) 120 million
(c) 20 million
(d) 80 million
(PAR/439) (AIIMS 84)
101. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pediatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied under RCH program are:
(PAR/439) (AI/03)
(a) 20 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid (b) 40 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid (c) 40 mg iron
and 50 microgms of folic acid (d) 60 mg iron and 100 microgms of folic acid
Interventions for Prevention of nutritional Anemia
Iron and folic acid supplementation
To Pregnant women, lactating mothers and children under 12 years
Mothersone tablet of iron and folic containing 60 mg of elemental iron (60mg of ferrus sulphate
and 0.1 mg of folic acid should be given daily
Iron fortificationaddition of ferricortho- phosphate or ferrus sulphate with sodium bisulphate
enough to fortify salt with iron
97 A
98 B
99 B
100 B
101 A
89
102. In national goitre control programme iodine supplementation is implemented in: (PAR/440) (AMU 86, AMC 92)
(a) Sub Himalayas areas
(b) Sub Himalayas area + Hilly areas
(c) Sub Himalayas + Northern areas
(d) Whole of India
The spectrum of iodine-deficiency disorders:
Goitre
Hypothyroidism
Subnormal intelligence
Delayed motor milestones
Mental deficiency
Hearing defects
Speech defects
Strabismus (squint)
Nystagmus
Spasticity (extrapyramida)
Neuromuscular weakness
Endemic cretinism
Intrauterine death (spontaneous abortion miscarriage)
103. The defluoridation process of drinking water developed by the NEERI is popularly known as:
(PAR/440) (KARN 95) (DELHI 85)
(a) Activated sludge process
(b) Recarbonation process
(c) Nalgonda process
(d) Double pot method
Endemic fluorosis
- Ocurs where drinking water contains fluorine in 3-5mg/l
- Dental fluorosisAt levels above 1.5 mg/2 intake
- Skeletal fluorosisAt levels 3.0 to 6.0 mg/l
Fluorosis can ensue crippling when conc is 10mg/l
InterventionChanging the water sourceWith a lower fluoride content (0.5 to 0.8 mg/l)
- Chemical treatment, Nalgonda Technique for defluoridation of water
- Other measureuse of fluoride toothpaste in areas of endemic fluorosis is not recommended for
children upto 6 years age.
104. Iodized oil used in preventing goitre is:
(a) Croton oil
(b) Castor oil
(c) Almond oil
(d) Poppy-seed oil
105. 1 ml of iodized oil gives protection for about:
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 4 years
(d) 10 years
Goitre controlFour essential components of national goitre control programme are iodized salt or oil,
monitoring and man power training mass communication.
1. Iodized salt
- Iodization is not less than 30 ppm at the production point and not less than 15 ppm of iodine at
the consumer level
- Iodized oilIntramuscular injection of iodized oil (mostly poppy seed oil) Dose of 1ml will provide
protection for adults four years
- Iodized oil oralSodium iodate tablets.
2. Iodine monitoringNeonatal hypothyroidism is sensitivity pointer to environmental iodine deficiency
- The WHO regional stategy for the control of IDD has as its principal objective the production of
the prevalance of goitre in areas of endemicity to 10 percent or below by the year 2000
106. All are behaviour sciences except:
(a) Sociology
(b) Anthropology
102 C
103 C
104 D
105 C
106 C
(d) Psychology
90
94)
87)
96)
93)
Indicator
birth weight
proportion being breastfed
and proportion on weaning
foods, by age in months,mortality
rates in children aged 1,2,3 and
4 years, with emphasis on 2 years olds
If age known
Height for age
Weight for age
If age unknown
Weight for height
arm circumference
height for age, weight for height
at 7 years or school admision clinical signs
112. To monitor malnutrition in < 5 years age group in a village,village health guide uses:
(PAR/447)(AI/2000)
(a) Midarm circumference
(b) Height for age
(c) Weight for age
(d) Skinfold thickness
113. Test done in milk pasteurization:
(PAR/450) (UP 95)
(a) Phosphatase test
(b) Turbidity test
(c) Nitric acid test
(d) Salwotch test
107 B
108 A
109 A
110 B
111 C
112 A
113 A
91
114. Which one of the following is not used in testing for adequate pasteurization of milk? (PAR/450)(UPSC/02)
(a) Phosphatase test
(b) Coliform count
(c) Standard plate count
(d) Methylene blue reduction test
115. All are indicators for the assessment of the nutritional program except:
(PAR/447)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) Weight and height of the preschool child
(b) Prevalence of low birth weight less than 2.5 kg in community
(c) Nutritional assessment of the preschool child
(d) Prevalence of pregnant mothers having Hb < 11.5 g% in
the 3rd trimester
116. Methylene blue reduction test is done for estimating:
(PAR/450) (KARN 94)
(a) Fat content of milk
(b) Sugar content of milk
(c) Protein content of milk
(d) Bacterial activity in
milk
117. Milk borne disease is:
(PAR/450)(AIIMS 89)
(a) Q fever
(b) Typhoid
(c) Typhus
(d) Relapsing fever
118. True about pasteurisation is:
(PAR-450) (AI/2000)
(a) Reduces bacterial count by 95%(b) Kills all bacteria except thermoduric one
(c) All bacteria are killed
(d) All bacteria and virus
119. Test not done on pasteurised milk:
(PAR/450) (TN/99)
(a) Methylene blue test
(b) Standard plate count
(c) Phosphatase test
(d) Coliform countspores are killed
120. Examples of food-borne disease are A/E:
(PAR/452) (AI 92)
(a) Shigellosis
(b) Giardiasis
(c) Amoebiasis
(d) Hydatidosis
121. Not a food intoxicants is:
(PAR/452) (UP 96)
(a) Lathyrism
(b) Wernieke's encephalopathy
(c) Epidemic dropsy
(d) Veno-occlusive disease
Food-borne intoxication
1. Due to naturally occuring toxins in some food
a. Lathyrism (beta oxalyl amino alanine)
b. Endemic ascites (Pyrolizidine alkaloids)
2. Due to toxin produced by certain bacteria
a. Botulism
b. Staphylococcus poisons
3. Due to toxins produced by some fungi
a. Aflatoxin
b. Ergot
c. Fusarium toxins
4. Food-borne chemical poisoning
a. Heavy metals, e.g. mercury (usually in fish) cadmium (in certain shelfish) and lead in canned
food
b. Oils petroleum derivatives and solvents (e.g. trycresyl phosphate or TCP)
c. Migrant chemicals from package materials
d. Asbestos
e. Pesticides residues (DDT, BHC)
Food-borne infections
Group example illness in each group
1. Bacteria
2. Viral disease
3. Parasites
114 B
115 D
116 D
117 A
118 B
119 A
120 B
121 B
92
122. Test for detecting argemone oil contamination does not include:
(PAR/452) (AMC/99)
(a) Nitric acid test
(b) Paper chromatography test
(c) Aldehyde test
(d) None
123. Match List I (Disease) with List II (Vector) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
(PAR/452) UPSC/02
List I
List II
A. Scabies
1. Soft tick
B. Fish tapeworm infestation
2. Cyclops
C. Relapsing fever
3. Sarcoptes
D. Kyasanur forest
4. Hard tick
Codes:
(a) A:3, B:2, C:1, D: 4
(b) A:4, B:1, C:2, D: 3 (c) A:3, B:1, C:2, D: 4 (d) A:4, B:2, C:1, D: 3
124. Which is first and commonest clinical manifestation of epidemic dropsy:
(PAR/452)(ORISSA 99)
(a) Bilateral swelling of legs
(b) Gastrointestinal upsets
(c) Cardiac decompensation
(d) Sarcoid
125. All are food fortification except:
(PAR/453) (KERALA 94)
(a) Addition of colour to saccharin
(b) Addition of vitamin A to food stuff
(c) Addition of extranutrients
to food stuff
(d) Iodisation of salt
126. Epidemic dropsy present with A/E:
(PAR/453) (AIIMS 96, AI 98)
(a) Glaucoma
(b) CHF
(c) Diarrhoea
(d) Convulsion
127. Sanguinarine is derived from:
(PAR/453) (AI 97)
(a) Fusorium incamatum
(b) Argemone oil
(c) Jhunjhunia seeds
(d) Khesari dal
128. Earliest manifestation of epidemic dropsy is:
(PAR/453) (UP 94)
(a) B/L swelling of leg
(b) Cardiac failure
(c) GI disturbance
(d) Paralysis
129. All of the following programmes are sponsored by Ministry of Social Welfare except:
(PAR/454) (PGI 79, DNB 91)
(a) Balwadi nutrition programme
(b) Special nutrition programme
(c) Mid-day meal programme
(d) ICDS
130. In formulation mid-day meals for school children, the meal should supply of total energy requirement and the
protein requirement:
(a) 1/3 and 1/2
(b) 1/2 and 1/3
(c) 1/4 and 2/3
(d) 1/4 and 1/3
(PAR/455)
Nutrition programmes in India
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
Programme
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
Ministry
of
of
of
of
of
of
of
131. In ICDS scheme, the calories received by children under 5 years of age are:
(PAR/455) (AIIMS/2000)
(a) 300
(b) 200
(c) 500
(d) 1000
132. Population usually covered by an Anganwadi area is:
(PAR/455)UPSC/03
(a) 1000
(b) 2500
(c) 3000
(d) 5000
133. In an anganwadi, the proteins and calories given to a pregnant lady is:
(PAR/455) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 300 kcal: 12 gm
(b) 500 kcal: 20 gm
(c) 500 kcal: 15 gm
(d) 500 kg
122 C
123 A
124 A
125 A
126 D
127 B
128 A
129 C
130 A
131 A
132 A
133 B
10
93
Social Sciences
and Health
Mental age
Chronological age
100
Levels of intelligence
IQ range
Idiot
Imbecile
Moron
Border line
Low normal
Normal
Superior
Very superior
Near genius
0-24
25-49
50-69
70-79
80-89
90-109
110 -119
120-139
140 and over
1 A
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 B
7 C
8 C
94
9 B
10 B
11 C
12 D
11
95
Environment
and Health
2 D
3 B
4 B
5 C
6 A
7 D
96
8. For disinfecting large bodies of water,the most efficient and cost-effective method of applying chlorine is:
(a) Bleaching powder
(b) Chloramine
(c) Chlorine gas
(d) Perchloron
(PAR/498) (Manipal/96)
9. Which of the following is an important disinfectant on account of effectively destroying gram-positive and gramnegative bacteria, viruses and even spores at low pH levels:
(PAR/498) (AIIMS 81, UPSC 82)
(a) Phenol
(b) Alcohol
(c) Chlorine
(d) Hexachlorophene
10. Following are true regarding chlorination except:
(PAR/498) (AI 93)
(a) Residual chlorine of 0.5 mg/lit
(b) Contact period 30 minute
(c) Water should not be turbid
(d) Chlorine demand should be estimated
11. Which of the following diseases is not susceptible by chlorination:
(PAR/498) (AIIMS 78, PGI 87)
(a) Bacillary dysentery
(b) Typhoid fever
(c) Cholera
(d) Giardiasis
Chlorination Kills bacteria but no effect on viruses(polio and hepatitis) and on spores; protozoal cysts and
helminthic ova
Disinfecting action is mainly due to hypochlorous acid
Principles of chlorination(1) Water should be clear and free from turbidity.
(2) Chlorine demand should be estimated
(3) Contact period to be of 60 minutes
(4) Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5mg/l for 1hr.
12. The residual chlorine content of drinking water should be:
(PAR/498) (UPSC 86)
(a) 0.5 ppm
(b) 0.6 ppm
(c) 0.8 ppm
(d) 1.2 ppm
13. Contact period for chlorination of water is:
(PAR/498) (PGI 86)
(a) 15 minutes
(b) hour
(c) 1 hour
(d) 2 hours
14. The free chlorine in chlorinated water should be:
(PAR/498) (PGI 84)
(a) 0.2 ppm
(b) 2 ppm
(c) 3 ppm
(d) 5 ppm
15. In orthotoludine tests all are correct except:
(PAR/498) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Free chlorine is estimated
(b) 0.1 ml of reagent is used for 1ml of water
(c) Yellow colour
(d) Read in 10 seconds
16. Difference in breast milk of a mother delivering preterm baby and mother delivering term baby has less
quantity of:
(PAR/498)(AIIMS 88)
(a) Lactose
(b) Calcium
(c) Calories
(d) Proteins
17. In chlorination all are true except:
(PAR/498) (AI 98, 96)
(a) Chlorine is a stable compound
(b) Available chlorine is 33%
(c) Rapid and brief action
(d) Minimum recommended concentration of free chlorine is 0.5% mg/1 hour
Household purification of water:
(1) Boiling
(2) Bleaching powder with 33% available chlorine.
(3) Filtration:
- Katadyn filter
- Pasteur filter
- Chamberland filter
- Berkefeld filter
18. Which statement is not true about chlorination of well:
(PAR/498) (AI 92,98)
(a) Chlorine demand has to be estimated
(b) Volume of water has to be determined
(c) Bleaching powder
solution has to be added immediately
(d) A contact period of 1 hour is allowed
19. A chloride level of...........is acceptable by WHO:
(PAR/501) (JIPMER 93)
(a) 0.1mcg/l
(b) 0.5mg/l
(c) 10mg/l
(d) 200mg/l
8 A
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 A
13 C
14 A
15 A
16 D
17 A
18 C
19 D
97
21 A
22 C
23 A
24 A
25 B
26 B
27 C
28 B
29 B
30 C
31 A
32 B
98
1. Comfort zone
2. Just tolerable
3. Intolerable
At present effective Temp and CET are widely used as indices of thermol comfort.
MCARDLES maximum allowable sweat rate -Predicted four hrs sweat P4 SR value of 3 as
upper limit
33 B
34 D
35 C
36 B
37 A
38 C
39 C
40 B
41 B
99
(d) Ozone
Basic minimum
Stair way
Corridor
Reflection factor
80 %
50-60 %
30 - 40 %
15 - 20 %
42 C
43 C
44 B
45 A
46 C
47 C
48 B
49 A
50 B
51 A
52 E
53 C
100
Illumination (lux)
Casual reading
Very severe tasks
General office work
Watch making
Fine assembly
100
1300-2000
400
2000-3000
900
Accepted standard
2 person
1 person
1 person
1/2 person
nil
55 D
56 C
57 D
58 D
59 C
60 B
61 A
62 D
63 C
90)
87)
93)
98)
101
Methods of disposal
The principal methods of refuse disposal are a. Dumping
b. Controlled tipping and sanitary land-fill
c. Incineration
d. Composting 1. Banglore method (Anaerobic)
2. Mechanical method (Aerobic)
e. Manure pits
f. Burial
64. Soakage pit is used for hygenic disposal of:
(PAR/531)(KARNAT 99)
(a) Garbage
(b) Rubbish
(c) Sewage
(d) Sullage
65. Barrier sanitation implies:
(PAR/532) (AI 93)
(a) Sagregation of faeces
(b) Personal hygiene
(c) Elimination of flies
(d) Water purification
66. Sanitation barrier is:
(PAR/532) (AI 99)
(a) Segregation of faeces
(b) Control of flies
(c) Excreta disposal
(d) Proper water supply
67. Pit latrine has depth of..........feet:
(PAR/533) (UPSC 87, AMC 97
(a) 2-4
(b) 4-6
(c) 6-10
(d) 10-12
68. Which is the latrine of choice for camps:
(PAR/533) (AIIMS 89)
(a) Aqua privy
(b) Trench hole
(c) Pit-latrine
(d) Chemical
Methods of excreta disposal
Unsewered areas
1. Service type- night soil
2. Non service type (sanitary latrines)
a. Bore hole latrine
b. Dug well pit latrine
c. Water-seal type of latrines
3. Latrines suitable for camps and temporary use
a. Shallow trench latrine
b. Deep trench latrine
c. Pit latrine
d . Bore hole latrine
Sewered areas
1. Water carriage system and sewage treatment
a. Primary treatmentscreening, removal of grit, plain sedementation
b. Secondary treatmenttrickling filters, activated sludge process
c. Other methodsSea outfall, river outfall, sewage farming, oxidation ponds
69. Accepted depth of water in water-seal latrine should not be more than........cm.(PAR/534) (AIIMS 79, AMC 92)
(a) 2.5
(b) 4.0
(c) 5.0
(d) 7.5
70. Which of the following is not a sanitary latrine?
(PAR/535) (Manipal/96)
(a) Aqua privy
(b) Bore hole
(c) RCA type
(d) Service latrine
71. Septic tank decomposition is by:
(PAR/535) (AIIHPH/98)
(a) Anaerobic
(b) Aerobic
(c) Both
(d) None
Septic tankThe minimum capicity of a septic tank should be at least 500 gallons
LengthLength is usually twice the breadth
DepthLiquid depth is only 1.2m
Air spaceThere should be minimum space of 30 cm
Septic tank are designed in this coutry allows a retention period of 24 hrs.
64 C
65 A
66 A
67 D
68 D
69 D
70 A
71 A
102
73 B
74 A
75 A
76 B
77 B
78 C
79 B
80 B
81 C
82 B
83 C
103
An effluent of sewage treatment plant should not have more than 30mg/l of suspended solids
and the five days BOD including the suspended matter should not exceed 20mg/l water into which
the effluent passed would provide an 8:1 dilution
b. Disposal on land
84. Which one of the following rickettsial diseases is transmitted by louse?
(PAR/542t) (UPSC 95)
(a) Murine typhus
(b) Rocky mountain spotted fever
(c) Q-fever
(d) Epidemic typhus
85. Hard tick transmits:
(PAR/542t) (AIIMS 91)
(a) Oroyo fever
(b) Oriental sore
(c) Leishmanials
(d) Tick typhus
86. Diseases transmitted by sandfly are all except:
(PAR/542t) (JIPMER 93)
(a) Relapsing fever
(b) Kala azar
(c) Oriental sore
(d) Oraya fever
Arthropod-borne disease
Arthropod
Disease transmitted
1. Mosquito
2. Tsetse fly
3. Sandfly
4. Housefly
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
Reduviid bug
Louse
Blackfly
Rat flea
Itch-mite
Hard tick
85 D
86 A
87 B
88 D
89 D
90 B
91 B
92 A
93 C
94 B
104
Disease
Culex
Aedes
Anopheles
Mansonoides
95 D
96 B
97 D
98 A
105
Space sprays
1. Pyrethrum extract: Pyrethrum is sprayed at a dosage of 1 oz of the spray solution per 1,000 C ft
of space. Windows are kept closed for half an hour
2. Residual insecticides: The most extensively used insecticides are malathion and fenitrothion for
ULV fogging.
Genetic Control: Control of mosquitoes by genetic method such as sterile male technique, cytoplasmic
chromosomal translocation.
99. Which is not transmitted by culex:
(PAR/546) (AI 92)
(a) Dengue
(b) Filaria
(c) Viral arthritis
(d) West Nile fever
100. Aedes is vector for all except:
(PAR/546) (AI 90)
(a) Dengue
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Japanese B encephalitis
(d) Encephalitis
(e) Hemorrhagic fever
101. Which of the following diseases is found in India:
(PAR/547) (JIPMER 91)
(a) West nile fever
(b) Murray valley encephalitis
(c) Yellow fever
(d) Colorado tick fever
102. Diethyltoluamide is an effective:
(PAR/547) (PGI 79, AIIMS 86)
(a) Larvicidal
(b) Agent against pupae of anopheles
(c) Repellent
(d) Space spray
(e) None of the
above
103. Genetic control of mosquito can be done by:
(PAR/547) (AIIMS 88)
(a) Nuclear distortion
(b) Gene mutation
(c) Cytoplasmic incompatibility
(d) Chromosomal aberration
104. Aedes transmits all except:
(PAR/548) (AIIMS/2K)
(a) Dengue
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Japanese encephalitis
(d) Chikkungunya fever
105. Match List I (Vectors) with List II (Diseases transmitted) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
(PAR/550-551)(UPSC/01)
List I
List II
1. Culex mosquito
i. Relapsing fever
2. Sand fly
ii. Yellow fever
3. Aedes mosuito
iii. Chagas disease
4. Head louse
iv. Japanese encephalitis
v. Kala azar
Codes:
(a) 1 (iii), 2 (i), 3 (ii), 4 (iv)
(b) 1 (iv), 2 (i), 3 (iii), 4 (v)
(c) 1 (ii), 2 (v), 3 (iii), 4 (i)
(d) 1 (iv), 2(v), 3 (ii), 4 (i)
106. The average life of a cyclops is about:
(PAR/556) (PGI 79, BIHAR 89)
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 4 months
107. Dose of DDT for effective control of mosquitoes is:
(PAR/556) (AP 85)
(a) 1 to 2 g/m2
(b) 1 to 2 mg/m2
(c) 2-4 mg/m2
(d) 2-4 g/m2
108. Drinking water is best made free of cyclops by:
(PAR/556) (AI 88)
(a) Filtration
(b) Boiling
(c) Chlorination
(d) None of the above
109. A-3-year male child is brought to the PHC with a history of itchy papular rash in the axilla, groin and prepuce.
The following management is advised except:
(PAR/556) (AI 88)
(a) The child should be given bath and 3 applications of benzyl benzoate
(b) Parenteral antibiotics should
be given
(c) Other family members to be treated simultaneously
(d) Bed linen to be boiled in water
110. Percentage of para-para-isomer in DDT is:
(PAR/556) (JIPMER 92)
(a) 20-30%
(b) 40-50%
(c) 60-70%
(d) 70-80%
111. A satisfactory method of controlling guinea worm disease is:
(PAR/556) (AI 89)
(a) Chlorination of water at 1 ppm
(b) Use of lime at a dose of 1 gram/gallon of water
(c) Use of abate
at a concentration of 1 mgm/10 litre of water
(d) Use of gambusia fish
112. DDT acts by:
(PAR/557) (UPSC 88)
(a) Contact poison
(b) Repellent
(c) Stomach poison
(d) All of the above
113. Which of the following is an organochlorine compound:
(PAR/557t) (AIIMS 78, DNB 90)
(a) Gardone
(b) Dicapthon
(c) Kepone
(d) Propoxur
99 A
112 A
100 C
113 C
101 A
102 C
103 C
104 C
105 D
106 C
107 A
108 A
109 B
110 D
111 D
106
Stomach Poisons
Fumigants
Natural
Synthetic
Sodium Fluoride
Paris green
Hydrogen cyanide
Methyle bromide
Sulphur dioxide
Carbon disulphate
Pyrethrum
Rotenone
Derris
Nicotine
A- Organo-chlorine
compounds
DDT
Methoxychior
HCH(BHC)
Lindane
Chlordane
Heptachlor
Dieldrin
Aldrin
Toxaphene
Keppone
Mirex
B- Organo-phosphorus
Insecticides
Chlorthion
Diazinon
Dioxathion
Demethoate
E P N
Malathion(OMS-1)
Fenthion(OMS-2)
Methyle parathion
Parathion
Ronnel
Trichlorfon
Dichlorvos
Abate(OMS-786)
Naled
Gardona
Chlorpyrifos
Fenitrothion(OMS-43)
Dicapthon(OMS-214)
Repellants
Meta-diethyltoluamide
Benzyl benzoate
Indalone
C-Carbamates
Carbaryl
Dimetilan
Pyrolan
propoxur (OMS-33)
Synthetic - Pyrethroids
Resmethrin
Bioresmethrin
Pothrin
Malathion
Malathion has the least toxicity of all organophosphorous compounds. Malathion is used in doses
of 100-200 mg sqaure foot,every three months
Pyrethrum has no residual action
It is extracted from the flowers of chrysanthemum
Pyrethrum and DDT
The standard reference aerosol recommended by the WHO consists of Pyrethrum extract 1.6 % and
DDT technical 3% to be dispersed at the rate of 10 gm per 1,000 cu space in the treatment of
aircraft.
114 D
115 D
116 B
117 B
118 A
107
Paris green
Paris green contains over 50% of arsenious oxide used in control of anopheline larvae by spraying as
2 percent dust over breeding places once week
119. Which one of the following insecticides is commonly used for ultra low-volume fogging ?(PAR/558) (UPSC 98)
(a) Abate
(b) DDT
(c) Paris green
(d) Malathion
120. Abate is:
(PAR/558) (JIPMER 91)
(a) Cyanide cpd
(b) Organophosphorus cpd
(c) Organochlorine cpd
(d) None of the above
121. Effect of Pyrethrum on mosquitoes is described as
(PAR/558)(UPSC/02)
(A) Residual
(b) repellent
(c) Known down
(d) Contact
122. Least toxic organophosphorus compound is:
(a) Paris green
(b) Malathion
(c) Parathion
(d) DDT
123. Paris green is larvicidal for:
(a)Anopheles
(b) Culex
(c) Aedes
(d) None of the above
124. The essential ingredient in the space sprays for vector control is:
(a) Malathion
(b) Phenothion
(c) Pyrethrum
(d) BHC
125. The following are found resistant to DDT except:
(a) Phlebotomus
(b) Culex fatigans
(c) Anopheles stephensi
119 D
120 B
121 D
122 B
123 A
124 C
125 A
108
12
Occupational Health
2 D
3 A
4 A
5 D
6 A
7 B
Occupational Health
109
9 C
10 D
11 B
12 A
13 D
14 B
15 C
16 C
17 A
18 C
19 B
110
21 B
22 B
23 C
24 A
25 B
26 A
27 C
28 C
Occupational Health
111
29 E
30 B
31 C
32 C
112
13
Mental Health
Minor
Neurosis or psychoneurosis
Personality and character disorders
Schizophrenia
Manic depressive pyschoses
Paranoia
1 B
2 B
Mental Health
113
114
14
1 B
14 B
2 A
15 C
3 A
4 B
5 A
6 C
7 C
8 A
9 C
10 B
11 C
12 A
13 C
115
17 C
18 A
19 A
20 C
21 B
22 A
23 B
24 B
25 B
26 A
27 C
116
29 B
42 B
30 A
43 C
31 C
44 B
32 B
45 C
33 B
46 A
34 C
47 A
35 A
48 A
36 A
49 A
37 C
38 A
39 C
40 C
117
51 A
64 A
52 B
65 B
53 A
66 B
54 D
67 C
55 A
68 C
56 A
69 B
57 A
70 A
58 C
59 C
60 D
61 A
62 B
118
71. The cluster sampling technique used for evaluating Universal Immunisation Programme coverage is:
(PAR/614) (AIIMS 92)
(a) 30 clusters of 5 children
(b) 20 clusters of 5 children
(c) 30 clusters of 10 children
(d) 30 clusters of 7 children
72. Which is true of cluster sampling:
(PAR/614) (AIIMS 92)
(a) Every month case is chosen for study
(b) A natural group is taken as sampling unit
(c) Stratification
of population
(d) Involves use of random numbers
73. 95% confidence limit of a population study denotes:
(PAR/614)(AIIMS 99)
(a) 95% values are within the confidence limit
(b) 1.96 times (+/-) of standard error of means
(c) Mean
is more than median
(d) Population under study is small
74. In a community of 3000 people, 80% are Hindus, 10% Muslims, 5% Sikh, 4% Christians and 1% Jains. To select
a sample of 300 people to analyse food habits, ideal sample would be:
(PAR/614) (MANIPAL/98)
(a) Sample random
(b) Stratified random
(c) Systematic random
(d) Inverse sampling
75. Mean of 25 variables is 2, Std. deviation is 2, Std. error of mean is:
(PAR /615) (AIIMS 92)
(a) 0.4
(b) 1.0
(c) 2.0
(d) 10
76. Square root of pq/n indicates:
(PAR/615) (AI 93)
(a) Standard error of means
(b) Standard error of difference in means
(c) Standard error of proportions
(d) Standard error of difference in proportions
77. Cholesterol values are obtained in group of people after giving some drug. This is a type of:
(a) Paired t test
(b) Unpaired t-test (c) Fiescher's test
(d) Chi square test (PAR/615) (ALL INDIA/02)
78. Calculate the standard error for a population size of 25 persons suffering from fever of history of 8 days and with
standard deviation 2:
(PAR/615)(AIIMS/2K)
(a) 0.4
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.5
(d) 1.6
79. In a population of 100 females the mean hemoglobin concentration was 10 and the standard deviation was I.
The standard error is:
(PAR/615) (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 0.01
(b) 0.1
(c) 0.001
(d) 10
80. In a group of 100 children, the weight of a child is 15 kg. The standard error is 1.5 kg. Which one of the following
is true:
(PAR/615)(AIIMS/MAY/01)
(a) 95% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg
(b) 95% of all children weight between 13.5 and
16.5 kg
(c) 99% of all children weight between 12 and 18 kg
(d) 99% of all children weight between
13.5 and 16.5 kg
81. The following statistic is used to measure the linear association between two characteristics in the same
individuals:
(PAR/616) (KARNAT 96)
(a) Coefficient of variation
(b) Coefficient of correlation
(c) Chi-square
(d) Standard error
82. Which of the following tests of significance can be used to compare unrelated variables when values are all binary:
(PAR/616) (PGI/2000)
(a) t-test
(b) Chi-square test
(c) Proportion test
(d) Correlation test
(e) Regression test
Statistical Test of Significance:
1 - Standard error of difference between two means
- With independent samples-Unpaired T test
- With same samples- T test
2 - Standard error of difference between two proportions
- With expected values <5Chi-square test
- With expected values >5Fishers test
3 - Standard error difference between three or more means or proportions
- ANOVA (Analysis of variance)
83. True about Chi-square test:
(a) Expected values
(b) Mutually exclusive
(c) Mutually non-exclusive
84. In a Chi-square test degree of freedom 1, X2 = 6.7 P value will be more than:
(a) 0.50
(b) 0.05
(c) 0.01
(d) 0.001
71 D
84 C
72 D
73 A
74 B
75 A
76 C
77 A
78 A
79 B
80 A
81 B
82 A
83 B
119
85 A
86 B
87 C
88 C
89 B
90 A
91 B
92 A
93 C
120
15
Communication for
Health Education
1. The type of discussion where a group of 6-8 qualified experts discuss a topic in front of an audience is called:
(a) Group discussion
(b) Symposium
(c) Workshop
(d) Panel discussion
(PAR/619) (AIIMS 96)
2. Which of the following is not a 2-way communication:
(PAR/619) (AI 88)
(a) Lectures
(b) Group discussion
(c) Panel discussion
(d) Symposium
3. To increase awareness of rural population towards small family norm, the best method is:
(PAR/619) (AIIMS 85, ESI 80, 88, 90)
(a) Film show
(b) Charts exhibits, etc.
(c) Role playing
(d) Television
4. Which of the following is Socratic method of teaching?
(PAR/620)(UPSC/2K)
(a) Lecture
(b) Film
(c) Exhibition
(d) Panel discussion
5. Health education is:
(PAR/621)(AI 96)
(a) Health promotion
(b) Health distortion
(c) Through public health
(d) Does not prevent
to cancer
6. Health education of community the most important step is:
(PAR/622) (AI 96, 98)
(a) Contact to Doctors (b) Community discussion (c) Announces to community by loudspeaker (d) Knowing
of local needs
7. Following are used in planning of health education except:
(PAR/623) (AI 93)
(a) Cover felt needs
(b) Using simple words
(c) Catchy slogans
(d) Ensuring participation
8. WHO constitution was made in:
(PAR/624) (PGI 79, ESI 89, 90)
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1952
(d) 1956
Ways of Health Education
Two-way
1. Group discussion
2. Panel discussion
3. Symposium
One way
Lectures
Role playing
Demonstration
2 A
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 D
7 C
8 A
9 D
10 A
11 C
121
12. In health education programme, a group of 10 people are speaking on a topic of common interest called as:
(a) Workshop
(b) Panel discussion
(c) Group discussion
(d) Symposium
(PAR/628) (UP 93)
13. The following statements are true for group discussion, except:
(PAR/628) (AI 91)
(a) It is a two-way communication
(b) An effective group is composed of 6-20 people
(c) The leader initiates
and guides the discussion
(d) Each member prepares a topic for a speech
14. Not a feature of mass media education:
(PAR/629) (AI 98, 96)
(a) Deals with local problem of community
(b) Easily understandable
(c) Wide approachable
(d) Rapid
and controlled
15. Examples of Two-way communication are A/E:
(PAR/629) (UP/97)
(a) Life expectancy at birth to be 64 years (b) Preschool child mortality (1-5 years) to be 5 (c) Infant mortality
rate 60/1000 live births
(d) Family size to be 2.3
12 C
13 D
14 A
15 B
122
16
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
2 B
3 C
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 D
8 A
9 C
10 A
123
11 A
12 D
13 B
14 A
15 B
16 D
17 A
17
1 C
2 C
3 D
4 C
5 C
6 A
7 C
8 C
9 A
125
Norms suggested
1. Doctors
2. Nurses
3. Health worker
female and male
4. Trained dai
5. Health assistant
(male and female)
6. Health assistant
(male and female)
7. Pharmacists
11 A
12 A
13 B
14 B
15 B
126
16 C
29 A
17 C
30 A
18 A
31 B
19 A
32 B
20 B
33 B
21 C
34 D
22 B
35 C
23 A
24 C
25 C
26 B
27 D
28 A
127
36. Under the MCH programme, the female multipurpose worker perform, the following duties except:
(PAR/659) (AI 89)
(a) Makes at least 3 antenatal visits
(b) Distributes tablets of iron and vitamin B12
(c) Gives two doses/
booster of Tetanus toxoid
(d) Makes at least one postnatal visit
37. All of the following are duties of a female multipurpose worker except:
(PAR/659) (AI 88)
(a) Registration of all pregnant women in her area
(b) Distribution of conventional contraceptives
(c) Active surveillance for malaria
(d) Maintain birth and death registers
38. Activities of TB Association of India include:
(PAR/663) (PGI 80, AIIMS 85)
(a) Organising a TB seal campaign every year to raise funds
(b) Training of doctors health visitors and social
workers
(c) Promotion of health education
(d) All of the above
39. One of the following is not a voluntary Health Agency:
(PAR/663)(KERALA 2K)
(a) Family Planning Association of India
(b) Indian Council for child welfare
(c) Ford Foundation
(d) Rockfeller Foundation
The National Socio-Demographic Goals for 2010 are as follows:
1. Address the unmets needs for basic reproductive and child health services, supplies and
infrastructure.
2. Make school education upto age 14 free and compulsory, and reduce drops-outs at primary and
secondary school levels to below 20% for both boys and girls.
3. Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30% 1000 live births.
4. Reduce maternal mortality ratio to below 100% 100,000 live births.
5. Achieve universal immunization of children against of vaccine preventable disease.
6. Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age.
7. Achieve 80 percent institutional deliveries and 100 percent deliveries by trained person.
8. Achieve universal access to information/counselling and services for fertility regulation and
contraception with a wide basket of choices.
9. Achieve 100 percent registration of births, death marriage and pregnancy.
10. Contain the spread of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) and promote greater
integration between the management of reproductive tract infection (RTI) and sexually transmitted
infection (STI) and the National (AIDS) Control Organization.
11. Prevent and control communication diseases.
12. Integrate Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM) in the provision of reproductive and child health
services and in reaching out to household.
13. Promote vigorously the small family norm to achieve replacement levels of TFR.
14. Bring out convergence in implementation of related social sector programmes so that family welfare
becomes a people centred programme.
36 C
37 C
38 D
39 C
128
18
International
Health
1 C
2 C
3 A
4 A
5 A
6 D
7 C
8 C
Self Assessment
19
129
Self Assessment
2 C
3 B
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 C
9 A
10 C
11 D
12 D
13 A
130
15 A
28 A
16 C
29 A
17 D
30 A
18 D
31 A
19 B
32 A
20 E
33 B
21 A
34 B
22 E
35 B
23 B
36 C
24 D
25 D
26 D
27 E
Self Assessment
131
37 A
50 C
38 C
51 B
39 B
52 C
40 A
53 A
41 A
54 B
42 A
55 D
43 A
56 B
44 A
57 D
45 A
58 D
46 A
47 A
48 A
49 A
132
60 A
73 A
61 B
74 C
62 D
75 B
63 B
76 A
64 A
77 A
65 C
78 A
66 B
67 A
68 B
69 B
70 B
71 A
Self Assessment
133
80 C
93 C
81 D
94 C
82 A
95 D
83 D
96 D
84 A
97 C
85 A
98 B
86 C
99 E
87 B
88 D
89 B
90 A
91 C
134
101 B
114 B
102 A
115 D
103 C
116 A
104 A
117 C
105 D
118 C
106 A
119 D
107 A
120 D
108 B
109 A
110 B
111 D
112 A
Self Assessment
135
122 A
135 A
123 A
136 C
124 B
137 B
125 C
138 B
126 A
139 D
127 A
140 A
128 C
141 A
129 D
142 D
130 B
143 A
131 B
132 B
133 B
136
145 A
158 D
146 B
159 E
147 D
160 D
148 B
161 D
149 A
162 B
150 B
163 B
151 D
164 C
152 C
165 E
153 A
154 B
155 A
156 D
Self Assessment
137
167 D
180 B
168 C
181 C
169 B
182 B
170 C
183 C
171 C
184 A
172 A
185 A
173 B
186 D
176 C
177 B
178 B
138
188. A number of studies have shown that insecticide DDT when ingested by an animal, is more than likely to
concentrate in the:
(PGI/89)
(a) Fatty tissue
(b) Brain
(c) Thyroid
(d) Bones
(e) Blood vessels and kidneys
189. A child is brought to the PHC with scabies which of the following is not advised:
(KARN 93)
(a) Parenteral antibiotics
(b) Treat other members of family
(c) Child given bath and 3 applications of
Benzyl
(d) Bed lines to be boiled
190. The peak period for social attachment in humans is of what age:
(AIIMS 83)
(a) 7 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 18 months
(d) 2 years
(e) 3 years
191. The source of radiation that causes heat cataract is:
(AIIMS 82)
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
(b) Infrared radiation
(c) Ionizing radiation
(d) Radiofrequency waves
192. Elimination of reservoir is possible in:
(TN/92)
(a) Measles
(b) Rabies
(c) Dracunculosis
(d) Polio
193. In an area having annual parasite index of less than 2, the following is to be done:
(JIPMER/97)
(a) Passive surveillance only
(b) 2 rounds of DDT yearly
(c) Entomological surveillance
(d) All postitive
cases blood smear to be done monthly
194. Which one of the following represents filaria endemicity rate?
(UPSC/99)
(a) Microfilaria rate
(b) Filaria disease rate
(c) Mosquito infestation rate
(d) Combination of microfilaria
and disease rate
195. Health for all by 2000 AD is...:
(PGI/89)
(a) Target
(b) Objective
(c) Goal
(d) All of the above
196. Mini pill contains:
(JIPMER 90)
(a) Only progesterone in small quantity
(b) Progesterone and estrogen in small quantity
(c) Estrogen in
small quantity and progestrone in large quantity
(d) Neither progesterone nor estrogen
197. The MTP Act defines the following:
(JIPMER 90)
(a) Who should do termination of pregnancy
(b) Where it should be done
(c) When it should be done
(d) All of the above
198. For International quarantine, India is important because of:
(AIIMS 84)
(a) Cholera
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Plague
(d) Relapsing fever
199. The headquarters of UNESCO is in:
(UPSC/99)
(a) Geneva
(b) Paris
(c) New Delhi
(d) New York
200. Most convalescing patients develop specific virusneutralizing antibodies:
(PGI 86)
(a) During 1st week of convalescence
(b) In 2-4 weeks
(c) After first month
(d) Between 6-12 months
(d) Not at all
201. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not required in one of the following:
(KERALA 91)
(a) Cardiac valve replacement
(b) Rheumatic fever
(c) Hip joint replacement
(d) Endocardial pacemakers
202. The most effective vaccine is:
(JIPMER 91)
(a) TT
(b) OPV
(c) BCC
(d) MEASLES
203. A type of tertiary waste water treatment process is:
(UPSC 83)
(a) Reverse osmosis
(b) Sedimentation
(c) Both
(d) Neither
204. Number of doses of tetanus toxoid required to immunise all pregnant women in a population of 1000 with birth
rate of 30/1000 in one year is:
(JIPMER 92)
(a) 40
(b) 60
(c) 270
(d) 300
205. Number of doses of measles vaccine required to immunise the target population in a town of 5000 with a birth
rate of 30/1000 and infant mortality rate of 100/1000 live birth assuming a wastage of 50% is: (JIPMER 92)
(a) 270
(b) 320
(c) 370
(d) 420
206. True statement regarding objectives of Sterilisation Beds Programme is:
(AI 93)
(a) To have 2000 beds by 1987 (b) To provide Rs 1000/- per bed (c) To provide sterilisation facilities to hospitals
where they are not available
(d) Voluntary agencies not included in the provision of facilities
207. The best method of teaching an urban slum about ORS is:
(AI 93)
(a) Lecture
(b) Role play
(c) Demonstration
(d) Flash cards
208. Blood transfusion is least likely to transmit:
(UPSC 86, AIIMS 87)
(a) Toxoplasmosis
(b) Syphilis
(c) Non A non B hepatitis
(d) Malignancy
188 A
201 C
189 A
202 A
190 A
203 A
191 B
204 B
192 B
205 A
193 D
206 C
194 D
207 C
195 C
208 D
196 A
197 D
198 A
199 A
200 B
Self Assessment
139
209. Main drawback of calculating incidence of disease using hospital records is:
(JIPMER 93)
(a) Poor maintenance of records
(b) Subclinical cases not admitted
(c) Admission policy may differ
(d) Denominator not well-defined
210. Beatuex index is for:
(ROTHAK/98)
(a) Aedes Aegyptii
(b) Anopheles
(c) Culex
(d) Hookworm
(e) Mansonoides
211. The total number of micro-organisms contained within of upon the surface of the item prior to it being disinjected
or sterilized is referred to as:
(JIPMER 81, AIIMS 82)
(a) The bioload or bioburden
(b) The microbiologic profile
(c) Both
(d) Neither
212. Ring vaccination in which is:
(DELHI 93)
(a) Given by a ring shaped machine
(b) Given to produced a ring shaped lesion
(c) Given around 100 yards
of case detected
(d) Given around a mile of a case detected
213. Two laboratory technicians from a district hospital were tested Australia antigen positive true about the further
steps is:
(UPSC 93)
(a) Discard all the blood samples collected by them
(b) Do not allow them to work in the laboratory
(c) Retest them for Australia antigen and antigene after sometime
(d) Nothing is required
214. CO2 content of air is measured by:
(AIIMS 79, TN 93)
(a) Pattern Kopfers test
(b) Horrocks test
(c) Both of these
(d) None of these
215. MgO2 is added to polio vaccine because of the following:
(UPSC 89, 92)
(a) Potentiates the vaccine
(b) Vaccine can be kept at higher temperatures
(c) Preservative
(d) None
of the above
216. Following are both notifiable disease as well as disease under surveillance:
(DNB 92)
(a) Epidemic typhus
(b) Relapsing fever
(c) Plague
(d) Cholera
217. Government of India launched a National Plan of Action against avoidable Disablement known as IMPACT
India in:
(AIIMS 80, UP 92)
(a) 1980
(b) 1983
(c) 1985
(d) 1987
218. Positive health indicators of nutritional status include except:
(BHU 81, 85)
(a) Anthropometric measurements of preschool children
(b) Height of school children at school entry
(c) Weight of antenatal mothers
(d) Prevalence of low birth weight
219. Social mobility is:
(UPSC 88, ESI 89)
(a) From rural to urban areas for work (b) Industrialization (c) Interaction between cultures (d) Movement
in socioeconomic strates
220. Malnutrition in India is mainly attributed to:
(JIPMER 81, KERALA 90)
(a) Protein deficiency
(b) Vitamin A deficiency
(c) Iron deficiency
(d) All of these
221. Rideal Walker coefficient or carbolic coefficient is used for:
(PGI 87)
(a) Expressing efficiency of carbolic acid
(b) Estimating the amount of carbolic acid required for disinfecting
faeces (c) Determining germicidal efficiency of a disinfectant in comparison to phenol (d) Estimating amount
of pure cresol in a crude phenol sample
(e) None of the above
222. Best method of contraception in a commercial sex worker:
(JIPMER 98)
(a) IUCD
(b) OCP
(c) Permanent sterilization
(d) Barrier methods
223. Hardly-Weinberg law is related to:
(JIPMER 98)
(a) Population genetics
(b) Health economic
(c) Social medicine
(d) None of the above
224. World No Tobacco day is:
(KERALA 97)
(a) May 31st
(b) April 5th
(c) December 11th
(d) November 14th
225. Human suffering index in India is:
(KERALA 97)
(a) 67
(b) 50
(c) 80
(d) 70
226. Active and passive immunity is given simultaneously for following except:
(AIIMS 98)
(a) Hepatitis B
(b) Tetanus
(c) Measles
(d) Rabies
227. DMF index relates to well being:
(KERALA 97)
(a) Dental
(b) Mental
(c) Physical
(d) None of the above
228. No smoking day is observed on:
(KERALA 97)
(a) 7th April
(b) 31st May
(c) 23rd may
(d) Jan 21st
209 D
222 D
210 A
223 A
211 A
224 A
212 C
225 D
213 C
226 C
214 A
227 B
215 B
228 B
216 D
217 B
218 C
219 D
220 D
221 C
140
229. Predictability of Mantoux test-4, Pre-test odds of a child=2. post test odds of Mantoux being positive:
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 8
(AIIMS 98)
230. All are included in the nominal scale except:
(MP 98)
(a) Colour of eye
(b) Sex
(c) Socioeconomic status
(d) Occupation
231. Lung carcinoma and occupation true is all except:
(AI 98)
(a) Increased risk
(b) Takes long time to develop
(c) It takes less time to develop as compare to general
population
(d) It takes more time to develop as compare to general population
232. All are included in health sector policy in India except:
(AI 98)
(a) Nutritional supplements
(b) Medical education
(c) Family welfare programme
(d) Control of
communicable disease
233. In a case control study of ZARDA PAN associated with increase case of oral cancer, true is:
(AIIMS 97)
(a) Zarda pan associated with increase incidence of oral cancer
(b) Zarda pan causes oral cancer
(c) Oral
cancer is cured if zarda pan is stopped
(d) Association exists between oral carcinoma and zarda pan
234. An ineffective patient does not shed the infectious agent called:
(AIIMS 97)
(a) Subclinical case
(b) Latent infection
(c) Convalescent carriers
(d) Incubatory carriers
235. True about immunization is:
(AI 99)
(a) BCG protects from HIV
(b) Vaccination against diphtheria uses inactivated toxin
(c) Vaccination against
polio uses inactivated toxin
(d) Salk vaccine for polio is a live vaccine
236. In the context of epidemiology, a set of questions is constructed in such a manner that it takes into account all
the important epidemiological factors of a given disease. This is known as:
(UPSC/99)
(a) Health model
(b) Epidemiological triad
(c) Epidemiological surveillance
(d) Mathematical model
237. Retrospective analysis of data is known as:
(AI 99)
(a) Professional screening
(b) Medical audit
(c) Medical evaluation
(d) Performance evaluation
238. A young woman using SAHELI forgot to take the pills for 4 days. What next she should do:
(AIIMS 99)
(a) Take 4 pills simultaneously
(b) Start a new course
(c) Take 2 pills just now and 2 pills after 12 hours
(d) Continue the course and her partner to use condom
239. In a clinical trial for antihypertensive drug, test used to analyse BP taken before and after drug:
(a) Paired t-test
(b) Single t-test
(c) f-test
(d) Chi square test
(AIIMS/2K)
240. First referral units in first district are:
(AIIMS/2K)
(a) 1-3
(b) 4-6
(c) 7-9
(d) 10-12
241. The lack of linolenic acid may cause:
(UPSC/2001)
(a) Loss of appetite
(b) Loss of weight
(c) Oedema
(d) Raised serum cholesterol
242. According to WHO, all of the following diseases require surveillance except:
(UPSC/2001)
(a) Chickenpox
(b) Yellow fever
(c) Malaria
(d) Rabies
243. If in a community a high proportion of newborn babies suffers from methaemoglobinaemia, then which one of
the following inferences would be most relevant?
(UPSC/2001)
(a) The community is exposed to industrial smoke
(b) The local water supply is very rich in nitrites
(c) The babies are suffering from the effects of mercury poisoning
(d) The haemoglobin of the babies blood
is in a very reduced state
244. The air-quality standards proposed by the Indian Central Pollution Control Board are based on limits of
concentrations of:
(PAR/2001)
(a) Suspended particulate matter and sulphur dioxide (b) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide and oxides
of nitrogen
(c) Suspended particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and oxidants
(d) Suspended
particulate matter, sulphur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen and carbon monoxide
245. Beer consumption is associated with:
(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) Carcinoma cervix
(b) Carcinoma liver
(c) Carcinoma rectum
(d) Carcinoma colon
246. Daily per capita water consumption is:
(AI IHPH 2K)
(a) 50-100 litres
(b) 100-150 litres
(c) 150-200 litres
(d) 200-250 litres
247. First 5-year-plan in India started at:
(BURDWAN 2K)
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1953
248. The number of doses of vitamin A to be given to children aged 6 months to 6 years for prophylaxis against vitamin
A deficiency:
(KARNAT 99)
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 9
229 B
242 A
230 C
243 B
231 D
244 C
232 A
245 C
233 D
246 C
234 B
247 B
235 B
248 B
236 C
237 A
238 D
239 A
240 A
241 C
Self Assessment
141
249. Screening in children has been proved cost-effective for all of the following conditions, except:
(ORISSA 99)
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Vision impairment
(c) Hypertension
(d) Vitamin A deficiency
250. A non-symmetrical frequency distribution is known as:
(ORISSA 99)
(a) Normal distribution
(b) Skewed distribution
(c) Cumulative frequency distribution
(d) None of the
above
251. An important measure of the communicability of a disease is:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) Case fatality rate
(b) Disease specific mortality rate
(c) Infection rate
(d) Secondary attack rate
252. A total of 3500 patients with thyroid cancer are identified and surveyed by patient interviews with reference to
past exposure to radiation. The study design most appropriately illustrates:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) Case series report
(b) Case control study
(c) Case report
(d) Clinical trial
253. Bias is unlikely to invalidate cohort studies used to assess risk of exposure because:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) Data collection is prospective
(b) Large number of subjects is usually included
(c) Exposure is usually
determined prior to disease occurrence
(d) Actual relative risk can be determined
254. Classification of grades of protein energy malnutrition given by Indian Academy of Paediatrics has
adopted:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) ICMR standards
(b) Standards developed by National Institute of Nutrition, Hyderabad
(c) Local
standards
(d) NCHS standards
255. The peripheral workers in a primary health centre return one day late; after an immunisation session. The
primary health centre is locked. The vaccine carrier still contains a few unopened vials of DPT vaccine and
sufficient ice. The workers are to:
(UPSC/2K)
(a) Return the vaccine vials to the refrigerator in the morning of the next day
(b) Get the health centre opened
the same evening and keep the vaccine vials in the refrigerator
(c) Discard the vaccine vials
(d) Retain
the vaccine in the ice box
256. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene was given to 6000; not given to the remainder. 3 out of the first group
got lung cancer; 2 out of the other 4000 also got lung cancer; conclusion is that:
(AI/2001)
(a) Beta carotene and lung cancer have no relation to one another
(b) The P value is not significant
(c) The study is not designed properly
(d) Beta carotene is associated with lung cancer
257. Of 11 births, 5 babies weighed over 2.5 kg and 4 weighed less than 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5 represent:
(a) Geometric average
(b) Arithmetic average
(c) Median average
(d) Mode
(PAR/611)
258. ELISA is performed on a population of low prevalence. What would be the result of performing double screening
ELISA tests?
(AI/2001)
(a) Increased sensitivity and positive predictive value
(b) Increased sensitivity and negative predictive value
(c) Increased specificity and positive predictive value
(d) Increased specificity and negative predictive value
259. A man weighs 68 kg, consumes 325 gm carbohydrate, 65 gm protein, 35 gms fat: applicable statement
is:
(AI/2001)
(a) His total calorie intake is 3000
(b) He has a equal proportion of fat/carbo/protein as with balanced diet
(c) He has a negative nitrogen balance
(d) He is consuming 30% of diet as fat
260. Disease not to be screened for in workers to be employed in a dye industry in Gujarat?
(AI/2001)
(a) Anemia
(b) Bronchial asthma
(c) Bladder cancer
(d) Precancerous skin lesion
261. Value of P indicates:
(GAN/694)
(a) Acceptability of null hypothesis
(b) Rejection of null hypothesis
(c) Probability, that the difference
b/w two means is due to chance variation
(d) None of the above
262. Current level of sputum positive cases in the community per 1000 cases of pulmonary tuberculosis is:
(a) 20
(b) 50
(c) 60
(d) 110
(PAR/140) (AIIMS 2000)
263. In a correlation test the assiciation followed the equation a+ bx. This equation would most likely show:
(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Linear association
(b) Sigmoid association
(c) Parabolic association
(d) No association
264. In a test where cholesterol levels were compared between two groups of obese (n =20) and nonobese (n= 15)
subjects, the test which can best give the statistical significance of cholesterol association is: (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Chi square test
(b) Paired t test
(c) t test with different measure
(d) Fischers test
265. The denominator for calculation of crude birth rate for population is taken as is found on: (AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) 1st March
(b) 1st November
(c) 1st July
(d) 1st January
266. Post exposure prophylaxis is not given for:
(AIIMS/NOV/01)
(a) Measles
(b) Pertussis
(c) Rabies
(d) HBV
249 A
262 A
250 B
263 A
251 D
264 B
252 B
265 C
253 C
266 B
254 A
255 D
256 A
257 C
258 C
259 B
260 B
261 C
142
267.
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
274.
268 B
269 A
270 C
271 C
272 C
273 A
274 A
275 A
276 A
277 B
Self Assessment
143
278. A group of people with 60 kg weight having mean intake of protein=40 mg (+ 10%) with normal distribution with
standard deviation. Recommended protein intake for this group is:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) 440 mg
(b) 60 mg
(c) 70 mg
(d) 50 mg
279. In a group of 100 people with normal distribution of data, the mean age weight was 70 Kg. The person showing
weight less than 70 kg will be:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) 25
(b) 50
(c) 75
(d) 100
280. Drug A is effective in 95 % children and adults. Drug B is effective in 47% of children and adult cost of drug A
is twice the cost of B. Dr. Lokesh gives drug A to both, children and adults. Dr.Manoj treated children with drug
A and adults with drug B. If patients are not cured with drug B, Dr. Manoj treated with Drug A. Ignoring the
cost of drug which of the following is false statement:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Treatment given by Dr. Manoj is cost effective
(b) Treatment given by Dr. Lokesh is cost effective
(c) Patients of Dr. Manoj have higher chances of being cured earlier
(d) None is correct
281. In a study conducted among ten thousand men, 6000 men were given carotene out of which 60 developed the
disease. Out of remaining 4000, who were not given carotene, 40 men developed the disease. Which of the following
statement is true about the study:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Carotene increases chances of carcinoma
(b) Carotene does not increase chances of carcinoma
(d) Carotene decreases chance of carcinoma
(d) Data is insufficient
282. Double ELISA test was performed on a population. This results in:
(ALL INDIA/02)
(a) Increased Specificity and Positive Value (PPV)
(b) Increased sensitivity and increased PPV
(c) Increased
and Negative predictive Value (NPV)
(d) Increased specificity and increased NPV
283. Which is not true of annual growth rate in India:
(AIIMS 92)
(a) An annual growth rate of 1.2% is essential by 2000 AD
(b) Current rate is 2.9%
(c) Prior in 1921 growth
rate was low
(d) Net gain in birth over death, lead to increase in the rate
284. The govt. of India has decided to provide potable water to the entire rural population by:
(a) 1990
(b) 1991
(c) 1995
(d) 2000 AD
(JIPMER 78, ORISSA 91)
285. The most common cause of treatable blindness is:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Trachoma
(b) Xerophthalmia
(c) Glaucoma
(d) Injuries
286. All are micronutrient except:
(AIIMS 96)
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Iron
(c) Iodine
(d) Vitamin C
287. All are examples of nominal scale except:
(AI 96)
(a) Age
(b) Sex
(c) Iris colour
(d) Socio-economic status
288. Thin film of malarial parasite formed because of:
(UP 197)
(a) To differentiate species
(b) All stages of parasite seen
(c) Chromatin increase in Plasmodium malariae
(d) In P. vivax shows RBC are enlarged
289. "Ring vaccination" which is:
(Delhi/93) (PGI/94)
(a) Given by a ring shaped machine
(b) Given to produced a ring shaped lesion
(c) Given around 100 yards
of a case detected
(d) Given around a mile of a case detected
290. Common cause of IUGR among following:
(DUT/480) (AIIMS 98)
(a) Idiopathic
(b) PIH
(c) Infection
(d) Genetically determined
291. By what % would the dose of antirabies globulin be reduced if it were given subcutaneously at different sites:
(a) 50
(b) 70
(c) 30
(d) 10
(Kerala/98)
292. Skin biopsy in leprosy:
(UP 95)
(a) Periappendegeal lymphocytosis
(b) Perivascular lymphocytosis
(c) Absence of the lepra bacilli
(d) Not diagnostic
293. Feasibility of a programme/project is determined by:
(Kerala/98)
(a) Financial backup
(b) Dedication of the staff
(c) No. of the staff
(d) Interest shown by the general
population
(e) Competence
294. According to WHO the number of drugs with a PHC worker should be at least:
(Delhi/93)
(a) 15-20
(b) 20-25
(c) 25-30
(d) 30-40
295. Richest source of cholesterol is:
(AI 93)
(a) Eggs
(b) Hydrogenated oil
(c) Cheese
(d) Butter
278 C
291 A
279 B
292 A
280 C
293 D
281 B
294 A
282 B
295 A
283 B
284 D
285 B
286 B
287 C
288 B
289 C
290 A
144
296 A
309 B
297 B
310 B
298 C
311 B
299 C
312 B
300 D
301 C
302 C
303 B
304 A
305 A
306 A
307 A
308 B
Self Assessment
145
313. ThePvalue of a randomised controlled trial comparing operation A (new procedure) and operation B (gold
standard) is 0.04. From this, we conclude that:
(a) Type II error is small and we can accept the findings of the study
(b) The probability of false negative
conclusion that operation A is better than operation B, when in the truth it is not, is 4% (c) The power of study
to detect a difference between the operation A and B is 96%
(d) The probability of a false positive conclusion
that the operation A is better than operation B, when in truth it is not is 4%.
314. Thiamine deficiency is known to occur in all of the following except:
(AI/03)
(a) Food faddist
(b) Homocystinemia
(c) Chronic alcoholic
(d) Chronic heart failure patient on diuretics
315. For calculation of sample size for a prevalence study all of the following are necessary except:
(AI/03)
(a) Prevalence of the disease in population (b) Power of study (c) Significance level (d) Desired precision
316. The response which is graded by an observer on an agree or disagree continuum is based on:
(AI/03)
(a) Visual analog scale
(b) Guttman scale
(c) Likert scaleo
(d) Adjectival scale
317. Among the following, the best indicator of health in a community is:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Maternal mortality rate
(b) Infant mortality rate
(c) Life expectancy
(d) Neonatal mortality rate
318. If a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing. It is inferred that the measurement
is:
(a) Precise
(b) Accurate
(c) Specific
(d) Sensitive
(AIIMS/02)
319. A randomized trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two with a p value of
< 0.005. In reality, however the two drugs do not differ. Therefore it is an example of:
(AIIMS/02)
(a) Type I error (alpha error)
(b) Type II error (Beta error)
(c) I-Alpha
(d) I-Beta.
320. Screening is the most commonly used epidemiological tool in school health services. Which level of prevention
does it refer to?
(UPSC/02)
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Primary and secondary
321. The number of patient required in a clinical trial to treat a specify disease increases as:
(AIIMS/02)
(a) The incidence of the disease decreases
(b) The significance level increases.
(c) The size of the expected
treatment effect increased
(d) The drop out rate increases
322. A-46-year old female presented at the eye OPD in a hospital her vision in the right eye was 6/60 and in left eye
3/60. Under the National Programme for Control of blindness, she will be classified as: (PAR/300) (AIIMS 02)
(a) Socially blind
(b) Low vision
(c) Economical blind
(d) Normal vision
323. Which one of the following is not a characteristic of non-communicable disease?
(UPSC/02)
(a) Well-defined etiological agent
(b) Multifactorial causation
(c) Long latent period
(d) Variable onset
324. The best indicator(s) for monitoring of air pollution is/are:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Sulphur dioxide and suspended particles
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Oxides of nitrogen and polyaromatic
hydrocarbons
(d) Carbon monoxide
325. The organism which is not an indicator of fecal pollution is:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Staphylococcus
(b) Streptococcus
(c) E. coli
(d) Clostridium perfringens
326. The pattern of interrelations between in a society is called:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Social stratification
(b) Social structure
(c) Caste system
(d) Herd structure
327. The most effective method for motivating a couple for adopting family planning practices is:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Printed material
(b) Films and televisions
(c) Group discussion
(d) Inter-personal communication
328. Which one of the following is an environmental factor associated with mental illness?
(UPSC/02)
(a) Emotional stress
(b) Frustration
(c) Broken home
(d) Anxiety
329. The most dangerous mode of spread of infection in the hospital environment is by:
(UPSC/03)
(a) Droplets
(b) Droplet nuclei
(b) Infected dust
(d) None
330. Strawberry tongue followed by raspberry tongue is characteristic of:
(OR/341) (AIIMS 81, AP 87)
(a) Mumps
(b) Measles
(c) Scarlet fever
(d) Smallpox
(e) Chickenpox
331. A screening test applied to detect diabetes in population over 40 years of age should satisfy the following criteria,
except for:
(UPSC/02)
(a) Validity
(b) Reproducibility
(c) Feasibility
(d) Ingenuity
332. The objective of National Population Policy, 2000 is to bring the total Fertility Rate(TFR) to 2.1 by the year:
(a) 2005
(b) 2010
(c) 2015
(d) 2020
(UPSC/03)
313 D
326 B
314 B
327 D
315 C
328 C
316 C
329 A
317 B
330 C
318 A
331 B
319 A
332 A
320 A
321 D
322 B
323 A
324 A
325 B
146
2005
2005
2010
2015
2007
2010
2010
2010
2010
2005
2010
2010
2005
2010
333. Normally during a social research survey which one of the following dimensions is not addressed:
(a) Social psychology
(b) Social structure
(c) Social pathology
(d) Social institutions
(UPSC/03)
334. The entire communication process related to a health issue basically intends to change:
(a) Awareness levels
(b) Sensitivity and receptivity thresholds
(c) Behaviour
(d) Practices
(UPSC/03)
335. Number of doses of measles vaccine required to immunise target population in a village with a population in
a village with a population of 5000, where the birth rate is 30/1000 and IMR 100/1000 live births assuming
watage of 50%, is:
(UPSC/03)
(a) 135
(b) 150
(c) 240
(d) 270
336. Prospective genetic counselling is the application of which level of prevention?
(UPSC/03)
(a) Primordial
(b) Primary
(c) Secondary
(d) Tertiary
337. Consider the following statements: Non-parametric tests can be used to compare two populations when: 1. Each
population is unimodal. 2. Both populations have equal numbers. 3. Each population is independent. 4. Each
population is bimodal: Which of these statements are correct?
(UPSC/03)
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 4
338. Disease specific human immunoglobulin is not available for:
(UPSC/03)
(a) Tetanus
(b) Gas gangrene
(c) Measles
(d) Hepatitis B
339. The vector of Brugia malayi is:
(UPSC/03)
(a) Aedes
(b) Anopheles
(c) Culex
(d) Mansonia
340. The hormonal contraceptive of choice in lactational period in a female is:
(AIIMS 86)
(a) Oestrogens in high doses
(b) Combination pills
(c) Medroxy progesterone acetate
(d) Sequential pills
333 D
334 B
335 D
336 A
337 A
338 B
339 B
340 C