SHA-SHIB AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

METALLURGY (2)
1.
2.
3.
called:
4.
5.
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7.
8.

9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
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24.
25.
26.

The property of a metal to resist abrasion, cutting action, penetration or permanent distortion is called:
(i)
Brittleness
(ii)
Hardness
(iii)
Toughness
(iv)
Malleability
The property of a metal which allows them to bent or permanently distorted without rupture is called
(i)
Malleability
(ii)
Brittleness
(iii)
Conductivity
(iv)
Toughness
The property of a metal to return its original shape when the force causing the shape of change is removed is

(i)
Ductility
(ii)
Malleability
(iii)
Elasticity
(iv)
Conductivity
The property of a metal to transmit heat or Electricity is known as:
(i)
Fusibility
(ii)
Ductility
(iii)
Conductivity
(iv)
Elasticity
The property of a metal to resist change in the relative position of molecules or the tendency to fracture without
change of shapes is known as
(i)
Toughness
(ii)
Hardness
(iii)
Brittleness
(iv)
None
The property of a metal whereby it can be drawn in to wires without breaking is called:
(i)
Malleability
(ii)
Ductility
(iii)
Toughness
(iv)
None
121. Conductivity and Expansion are physical terms which are related to:
(a) Electricity (b) Heat
(c) Cooling
(d) None of these
Max tensile load which a material can with stand is known as
(i)
Tensile strength
(ii)
As in (i) and also known as ultimate tensile strength and is computed by dividing the max load obtained in a
tensile test by the original cross sectional area of the test specimen
(iii)
Stress
(iv)
As in (iii) and also strain
Unit of tension is
a) N
b) N/m
c) KN/m2
d) Kg/cm2
Specific conductivity of copper wire
(i)
increase as its temperature increases
(ii)
remains constant as temperature changes
(iii)
decreases as temperature decreases
(iv)
decreases as temperature increases
Maximum load per square inch a material can with stand is:
(a)
Yield strength (b) Tensile strength
(c)
Proof stress
(d) Elasticity
Size of specimen taken for reverse bending test is:
(a) 5 inches
(b) 10 inches
(c) 15 inches
(d) 20 inches
In reverse bending test, number of bends require for small wires
(a) 50 bends
(b) 7 bends
(c) 10 bends
(d) 90 bends
Torsion test is carried out on
(a) Aircraft tubes
(b) Wires
(c) Sheets & strips
(d) Bars & rods
For tensile testing, it is permitted to taper the gauge length of the specimen towards center, maximum by:
(a) 0.001 inch
(b) 0.002 inch
(c) 0.002 inch
(d) 0.004 inch
For elastic limit determination, the extensometer reading is taken from:
(a) 5% load of expected elastic limit
(b) 10% load of expected elastic limit
(c) 15% load of expected elastic limit
(d) 20% load of expected elastic limit
For bending test of sheet and strips, the size of test specimen is:
a) 1 to 1 inch wide with suitable length
b)
1 by in cross section c)
Full section
d)
None of these
In reverse bending test, the specimen is bent through an angle of:
(a) 600
(b) 900
(c) 1200
(d) 1800
In Hydrostatic test, welded exhaust tubing are subjected to an internal pressure sufficient to put the welded seam
under a tensile stress of:
(a) 1000 PSI
(b) 10000 PSI
(c) 100000 PSI
(d) 1000000 PSI
In torsion testing of wires, speed of revolution should not be more than:
(a) 80 revolution/min (b) 70 revolution/min (c) 60 revolution/min
(d) 50 revolution/min
In fatigue testing, the value of stress below which failure of material will not occur is known as:
(a) Plastic limit
(b) Elastic limit
(c) Proof stress
(d) Endurance limit
Specimen is tested for which strength during tensile testing
(a)
Proof stress
(b)
Fatigue strength
(c)
as in a and Yield strength
(d)
as in c and Ultimate Tensile Strength
(1) For tensile testing the specimen must be straight
(2) Specimen can be straighten by hammering or bending.
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false
(b) (2) is true and (1) is false
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(c)
Both (1) and (2) are false
Proof stress is the stress at which a permanent set occurs:
(a) 0.001 inch per inch of gauge length
(b) 0.0001 inch per inch of gauge length
(c) 0.00001 inch per inch of gauge length
(d) 0.01 inch per inch of gauge length
(1) For checking elastic limit, load can be released up to zero (2) For checking proof stress load is released up to 20%
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false
(b) (2) is true and (1) is false
(c) Both (1) and (2) are true
(d) Both (1) and (2) are false
Yield point of a metal can be determined by:
(a) Divider method
(b) Set method
(c) Extension under load method
(d) both (b)
and (c)

27. For bending test, the diameter of the pin over which bend is to be performed, should be:
a (a) Equal to the diameter of the test specimen
(b) Equal to the thickness of the material
(c) Equal to diameter of thickness of the test specimen
(d) None of these
28. For bending test of forging stock specimen, the corners are to be:
(a) Made round
(b) Broken by file
(c) Rounded to 1/16 inch radius
(d) None of these
29. The jaws of the vice are to be rounded for reverse bending test:
(a) 3/16 inch radius for wire above 3/16 inch diameter
(b) 3/16 inch for wire below 3/16 inch diameter
3
3
(c) /16 inch radius up to /16 inch wire
(d) None of these
30. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire less than 0.033 inch diameter:
(a) 10 inch
(b) 20 inch
(c) 30 inch
(d) 40 inch
31. Specimen required for torsion testing of wire more than 0.033 inch diameter:
(a) 10 inch
(b) 20 inch
(c) 30 inch
(d) 40 inch
32.
Flattening test is
a) Bending test
b) Only for copper wires
c) For tube testing
d) Both a) & c)
33.
Max rate of bending per minute in reverse bend test is
a) 50
b) 60
c) 10
d) 40
34.
Izod test measures
a) Toughness
b) Height of upswing
c) Energy in breaking
d) Hardness
35.
Fatigue test is for determining
a) Stress in material
b) Strain in rod c) Stress limit for material
d) Elongation of wire
36.
Torsion test is essential for
a) Wires
b) Tube
c) Rods
d) Sheet
37.
Bending test indicates
a) Ductility
b) Brittleness c) Hardness
d) Density
38.
Bearing strength of a material refers to
a) Direct tensile load it can bear
b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied
load
c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load
d) Resistance to shear
39
Bearing strength of a material refers to
a) Direct tensile load it can bear
b) Resistance to tear at the point of applied load
c) Resistance to fracture at the point of applied load
d) Resistance to shear
40
Fusibility of a metal refer to its property that permits
a) Welding
b) Drawing into thin sheets
c) Drawing into wires
d) Good thermal
conductivity
41.
A metal part or structure fails under repetitive or fluctuating loading or stress is called:
(a) Fatigue fracture
(b) Ductile fracture
(c) Creep fracture
(d) Brittle
fracture
42.
Permanent deformation of metal caused by applied load is called:
(a) Stress
(b) Elastic deformation
(c) Plastic deformation
(d) None of these
43.
The point at which marked increase in deformation occurs without increasing the load during tensile testing of a
material is:
(a) Yield point
(b) Yield strength
(c) Proof strength
(d) Tensile strength
44.
For tensile testing, the extensometer must be calibrated to:
(a) 0.0001 inch
(b) 0.0002 inch
(c) 0.0003 inch
(d) 0.0004 inch
45.
Yield strength of a metal can be determined by:
(a) Divider method
(b) Drop of beam method
(c) Set method
(d) None of these
46.
The rolled section having dimension of 6x 6 or larger & approximately square is called
(a) bloom
(b) billet
(c) slab (d) none of these
47.
In metal powdered parts, property of the metal will be of:
(a) Particles of maximum quantity
(b) Individual particles will held their property (c) Uniform nature
(d) None of these
48.
Tensile strength of powdered metal parts can be obtained up to:
(a) 80% of solid metal parts
(b) 70% of solid metal parts
(c) 90% of solid metal parts
(d) 95% of solid metal parts
49.
Strength is the ability of a material to resist external loads where as toughness is to:
(a) Resist fracture
(b) Resist deflection
(c) Resist elastic deformation
(d) Withstand bending or torsion without fracture
50.
Permeability of material is the function of
(a) Magnetizing force (b)
Flux density
(c)
Both a) and b) are correct
(d)
None of the above
51.
Extrusion is used for making
(a) channels
(b)
angle
(c)
T-section
(d) All
52.
In joined part, the opposition offered in crushing
(a)
shear strength (b)
bearing strength
(c)
compression strength
53.
Fatigue crack occurs due to
(a)
continuous reversal load
(b)
in new parts
(c)
both a & b
(d)
none
54
The heat conductivity of a metal depends upon
(a)
Heat treatment (b)
alloy in the material
(c)
tensile strength/hardness
(d)
all
are correct
55.
The load per unit square inch at which material breaks
(a)
ultimate tensile strength
(b)
yield point
56.
Aircraft structural members made from sheet metal can normally be

a) Repaired, except when subjected to compressible loads

b) Repaired, except when subjected
to tensile loads
c) Repaired using approved method
d) Not repaired & need replacement only
57.
Property of a material to be drawn plastically before breaking is called ductility. Most ductile material is
a) Copper
b) Gold
c) Lead
d) Tin
58.
i) Aluminium has high electrical and thermal conductivity
ii) Ductility of aluminium improves with the
addition of iron & silver
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d)
Neither i) nor ii) is correct
59.
Ductility of a material is its property to be drawn into:
(a) Wire
(b) Sheet
(c) Tubes
(d) Both (a) and (c)
60.
Bonds formed in materials due to Vander Walls forces of attraction, is:
(a) Ionic bond (b) Covalent bond
(c) Metallic bond
(d) Secondary bond
61.
Elastic limit of a material is considered to have been reached if a permanent set obtained is:
(a) 0.0003 inch
(b) 0.00002 inch
(c) 0.00001 inch
(d) 0.00004 inch
62.
Proof stress of a specimen of 2 inch gage length will be at a permanent set of:
(a) 0.0004 inch
(b) 0.0003 inch
(c) 0.0002 inch
(d) 0.0001 inch
63.
The load per sq inch beyond which the increases in strain ceases to be directly proportional to the increases in
stress
(i)
Proof stress
(ii)
Yield strength (iii)
Proportional limit
(iv)
Yield point
64.
Forged parts are:
(i)
Not of a good quality than rolled
(ii)
Not of a good quality then cast parts
(iii)
Are of a good quality than rolled parts
(iv)
Are not used in the aircraft
65.
Up setting is a forging operation:
(i)
In which a hot piece of metal is Increases in thickness and decreased in length.
(ii)
In which a hot piece of metal is increased in Length and decreased in thickness
(iii)
In which a hot piece of metal neither increases in length nor in thickness
(iv)
In which hot piece of metal is increase in length and thickness
66.
Cold drawing of wire increases the tensile strength tremendously but greatly reduces
(i)
Tenacity
(ii)
Malleability
(iii)
Ductility
therefore must be annealed
frequently
(iv) Hardness
67.
Rolling of metal should not be done below the critical range because:
(i)
Rolled surface will not be true (ii)
The grain of the metal will be crushed and distorted
(iii)
The grain will not remain fine (iv)
1 & 3 are correct
68.
When metal is cold worked it is customary
(i)
To relieve the Internal strains after fabrication
(ii)
To give a heat treatment
(iii)
To anneal or normalize the parts
(iv)
All the above are correct
69.
All castings should be :
(i)
Heat treated
(ii)
Annealed
(iii)
Heat treatment temperature should not be less than
1800 F
(iv)
As in (i) (ii) & (iii) and quenched in cold water
70.
Colour of extruded bar of aluminum alloy in 5 inches is
(a)
red marking near the end of each length
(b)
blue marking near the end of each length
(c)
stamp of blue and white color
(d)
none of the above
71.
L shaped channels are produced by
a) Forging
b) Extrusion
c) Machining
d) Casting
72.
Which element is responsible for Red hardness property?
a) Ti
b) Ta
c) Mo
d) W
73.
Which elements are responsible for Penetration hardness?
a) Mn, S
b) Mn, P
c) Mn, Cr
d) Cr, C
74.
The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by
a) Cold work
b) Hot rolling c) Heat treatment
d) All the above
75.
Property of a material to resist indentation is known as:
(a) Toughness
(b) Hardness
(c) Brittleness
(d) Strength
76.
Which of the following is a mechanical treatment in shaping of metal:
(a) Casting
(b) Sand blasting
(c) Rolling
(d) Centrifugal cast
77
While shaping of a metal if the sectional dimension is less than 6X6 inch and approximately square, the shape is
called:
(a) Billet
(b) Bloom
(c) Slab
(d) Mold
78.
Complicated sections or sections required in small quantity are usually:
(a) Hot rolled
(b) Cold rolled
(c) Drawn
(d) Forged
79.
In drop forging, the inside faces of the die are given a slope of 3 0 70 to permit drawing out the finished parts. This
slope is referred to as:
(a) Up setting
(b) Drawing angle
(c) Draft
(d) Fin
80.
When finely powdered metal is placed in a die and pressed through a plunger, it forms a compact mass by:
(a)
Attraction forces of the particles
(b)
Forming a bond
(c)
By welding the particles
together
(d)
By interlocking of particles
81.
Cold working of metal increases its:
(a) Toughness and ductility
(b) Strength and ductility
(b) Hardness and ductility
(d)
Strength and hardness

82.
these
83.

Size of hot drawn rod used for cold drawing of wires are:
(a) 1/8 3/4 inch diameter
(b) 1/16 1/32 inch diameter

(c) 1/32 5/8 inch diameter

(d) None of

Blow hole is a defect in steel, which can occurs in

(a) Ingots
(b) Rolling
(c) Drawing
(d) Forging
84.
The type of forging in which two dies are used, one is attached to the hammer and other to anvil, is known as:
(a) Hammer forging
(b) Drop forging
(c) Cold forging
(d) Press forging
85.
After hot rolling, it is necessary to cold roll:
(a) To avoid cracking
(b) To avoid scaling
(c) To avoid oxidation (d) To impart smooth surface and
accurate dimensions
86.
When cold drawing of wire, reduction in diameter in each draw can be up to:
(a) 10%
(b) 20%(c) 30%
(d) 40%
87.
Fins and Laps is a type of defect in steel, which can occurs in
(a) Cold drawn seamless tube
(b) Rolling
(c) Ingots
(d) Forgings
88.
I-Beam is produced by
(a) extruding (b) forging
(c) casting
(d) rolling
89.
A process which makes the cable more flexible and easier to splice and more resistant to kinking is known as
(i)
Preforming
(ii)
Pre-stretching (iii)
Proof loading
(iv)
Tensile testing
90.
T-series, Z-section and angles are formed by
(a)
rolling
(b)
forging
(c)
extrusion
(d)
all
91.
What Inspection are desirable for all castings and forging of steel ?
(i)
Visual
(ii)
Ultra sonic
(iii)
Magna flux
(iv)
None
92.
All aircraft tubing is finished to size :
(i)
By hot drawing
(ii)
By machining (iii)
By cold drawing
(iv)
By
cold
rolling
93.
Due to improper rolling the defect caused are :
(i)
scabs or cold shuts
(ii)
Stakes (iii)
As in (ii) and also fins and laps
(iv)
All
are correct
94.
% of carbon in high carbon steel
(a)
0.50 % (b)
0.50 to 1.05 %
(c)
0.30 %
95.
Annealed steel :(a)
Soft
(b)
ductile (c)
Not strong
(d)
All
96.
30% to 70% & of carbon in the steel. The steel known as :
(i)
High Carbon steel
(ii)
Wrought Iron
(iii)
Medium Carbon steel (iv)
Low Carbon
Steel
97.
The higher carbon content of steel is, the greater will be the ultimate strength and :
(i)
Ductility
(ii)
Malleability
(iii)
Hardness
(iv)
Toughness
98.
Sulphur is a very undesirable Impurity in Steel which must be limited in amount to not : GFT 26
(i)
More than .04 %
(ii)
More than .05 %
(iii)
More than .6 %
(iii)
More
than .06 %
99.
Presence of Phosphorous in steel is responsible for:
(i)
Hot shortness
(ii)
Brittleness
(iii)
Cold shortness (iv)
2 & 3 are correct
100.
The commonly used nickel steels contains
(i)
3 to 5 % nickel (ii)
5 to 7 % nickel (iii)
25% nickel
101.
Steel is
(i)
High Carbon Steel
(ii)
Chrome Molybdenum (iii)
Stainless Steel
102.
For the manufacture of cutting tools the steel contains:
(i)
Titanium
(ii)
Vanadium
(ii)
Aluminum
(iv)
Tungsten
103.
Mark the correct statement:
(i)
Chrome molybdenum sheet may be bent COLD through an angle of 180 over a diameter Equal to its own
thickness
(ii)
SAE4140 is used for wing hinges fittings trunion etc.
(iii)
SAE 4340 is used to manufacture propeller hubs and crank shaft
(iv)
All are correct
104.
Classification of Iron and steel is based on the percentage of carbon present. If the carbon is .10 to .30%. The steel
known as
(i)
High Carbon Steel
(ii)
Cast Iron
(iii)
Low Carbon Steel
(iv)
Medium Carbon Steel
105.
2.2 to 4.5 % Carbon to Steel. The steel known as
(i)
Cast Iron
(ii)
Wrought Iron
(iii)
Medium Carbon Steel
(iv)
High Carbon
Steel
106.
Chromium Nickel .. Steel is commonly used to manufacture.
(i)
Longerons
(ii)
Spars (iii)
Propeller hubs (iv)
Under Carriage axle
107.
Springs are made form
(i)
Low carbon Steel
(ii)
High Carbon Steel
(iii)
Wrought Iron
(iv)
Cast Iron
108.
Nickel is
(i)
Malleable
(ii)
Ductile
(iii)
Weldable
(iv)
All the above
109.
SAF 4 30 The last two digit indicates
(i)
Percentage of impurities
(ii)
Percentage of Carbon
(iii)
Percentage of Carbon in hundredths of 1 %
(iv)
Percentage of Major alloying
110.
Among Nickel alloys which one is having high strength at elevated temperatures?
(i)
K-Monel
(ii)
Inconel
(iii)
Monel
(iv)
None

111.

Commonly used A/C forgings are :

(i)
Chrome Molybdenum (ii)
Chrome Nickel Molybdenum
(iii)
18-8 CRS
(iv)
(i)
and (ii)
112.
The presence of Sulphur renders steel brittle. In this condition the steel in said to be
(i)
Cold shortness (ii)
Hot short
(iii)
As in 2 and at rolling or Forging temperature
(iv)
As in 1 and at rolling or freezing temperature
113.
Phosphorus is an undesirable Impurity In steel. It should not exceed more than :
(i)
.09 %
(ii)
.6 %
(iii)
.05 %
(iv)
.06%
114.
Hard grey metal with a high melting point, when added to steel imparts hardness and strength wear and corrosion
resisting qualitiesl is :
(i)
Nickel
(ii)
Chromium
(iii)
Tungsten
(iv)
Titanium
115.
SAE 1045 Steel is mostly used to manufacture:
(i)
Locking wire
(ii)
Chains & Sprockets
(iii)
Axles
(iv)
Longerons & Spares
116
Ball bearings, Roller bearings and races are made from the material:
(i) SAE 8620(bushes, rollers)
(ii)
SAE 6195
(iii)
SAE9260(heavy duty springs) (iv)
SAE
1045(chain sprockets ,hubs ,crankshafts)
117.
Steel castings are used in aircraft for
(i)
Engine crank shaft
(ii)
Aircraft hand tools
(iii)
Aircraft tail wheel forks (iv)
As in (iii)
and landing gear yokes.
118.
Brake drums and gears are being made by
(i)
Static casting (ii)
Centrifugal casting
(iii)
Molding
(iv)
Cold rolling
119.
Turn buckle barrels are made from material
(i)
C.R.S
(ii)
2330 Nickel alloy
(iii)
Brass or bronze
(iv)
K monel
120.
Nickel in steel increases
(a)
Hardness
(b)
yield strength (c)
Elastic limit
(d)
None of these

SHA-SHIB AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

1.

METALLURGY (3)

Hardness tesing equipments measured hardness in term of

(i)
Resistance to impact
(ii)
Resistance to penetration
(iii)
Resistance to change in its length
(iv)
None of the above
2.
Mark the correct statement regarding the hardness tester
(a)
brinell system uses diamond point
(b)
vikers uses round ball (c)
above are correct
(d)
none
3.
In Vickers Hardness Test, angles between two opposite diagonals of diamond pyramid is:
(a) 1260
(b) 1360
(c) 1460
(d) 1560
4.
While testing a material for hardness, sufficient distance from edges should be there to avoid:
(a) Buldging at opposite side
(b) Deflection while testing
(c) Ridge scales
d)
Scratches
5.
Load applied in Shore Scleroscope hardness test is:
(a) 30 kg
(b) 50 kg
(c) 10 kg
(d) None of these
6.
In Izod impact test, the specimen is :
(a) Supported on two supports (b) Clamped in heavy jaws
(c) Attached with pendulum
(d) None of these
7.
Treatment given to a metal to relieve internal stresses and induce softness is:
(a) Tempering
(b) Hardening
(c) Normalizing
(d) Annealing
8.
A series of heating and cooling to improve physical properties of a metal is known as:
(a) Normalizing
(b) Hardening
(c) Tempering
(d) Heat treatment
9.
For checking the area of depression in Brinell Hardness Test, Accuracy of microscope should be:
(a) 0.05mm
(b) 0.005mm (c) 0.5mm
(d) 0.0005mm
10.
Load applied for soft material in Vickers hardness test is:
(a) 20 kg
(b) 15 kg
(c) 10 kg
(d) 5 kg
11.
Hardness induced in a metal due to deformation is known as:
(a) Stress hardening
(b) Age hardening
(c) Work hardening
(d) None of
these
12.
Which of these is indicator of elasticity & plasticity both?
a) Rockwell hardness test
b) Brinell hardness test c) Shore Scleroscope
d) Vickers
hardness test
13.
Hardness tesing equipments measured hardness in term of
(i)
Resistance to impact
(ii)Resistance to penetration
(iii)
Resistance to change in its length
(iv)
None
14.
Rockwell hardness tester
(a)
measures resistance to penetration
(b)
measures diameter of indention
(c)
measures
depth of penetration
(d)
both A & C are correct
15.
In rock well hardness testing
(a)
softer the piece of metal, the deeper will penetration under given load.
(b)
the hardness is indicated on dial gauge graduated the B & C scale.
(c)
For non ferrous metal the steel ball should be used and hardness No. be read on B scale
(d)
All the above
16.
In Rockwell hardness testing the minor preliminary load is applied

(a)
to securely lock the part in place
(b)
to make indentation in the part
(c)
to get accuracy of the readily
(d)
all are correct
17.
A Rockwell hard ness tester determines hardness by forcing a penetrator into a sample and measuring
(i)
The diameter of the resulting impression
(ii)
The depth of the resulting impression
(iii)
As in 1 an d10 Kg load is called minor load
(iv)
As in 2 and a conical diamond, a 1/16 ball and a
1/8 ball can be used
18.
Mark the correct statement
(a)
brinell hardness tester measure depth of penetration and reading is directly indicated on dial
(b)
barcol is used for testing steel (c)
Rockwell tester measure dia of penetration
(d)
None of the
above
19.
Mark the correct statement
(a)
brinell hardness is the dia of ball
(b)
lesser the rock well No, softer the material
(c)
more the Rockwell No, softer the material
(d)
none
20.
Maximum size of ball for Rockwell hardness test is:
(a) 5mm
(b) 10mm
(c) mm
(d) 1 mm
21.
In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of the B scale is:
(a) B0 B150
(b) B0 B100 (c) B0 B20
(d) None of these
22.
In Rockwell hardness test, B scale is a combination of:
b)
1
a) Diamond cone, 150kg load and Red dial
/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Black dial
d)
1
c) Diamond cone, 100kg load and Black dial
/16 inch ball, 100kg load and Red dial
23.
Minimum thickness necessary with hard steel for Rcokwell hardness test is:
(a) 0.027 inch
(b) 0.27 inch
(c) 0.0027 inch
(d) None of these
24.
In Rockwell Hardness Test, if B scale is used for material harder than B-100
(a) It will give inaccurate reading
(b) Ball may get flattened
(c) No reading will be their
(d)
None of these
25.
In Rockwell hardness test, red dial is used for:
(a) Ball penetrator
(b) Diamond point penetrator (c) both (a) and (b)
(d)
None
26.
In Rockwell hardness test, combination used for aircraft material are:
(a) A and B
(b) C and D
(c) A and D
(d) B and C
27.
In Rockwell hardness test, the working range of C scale is:
(a) C10 & upward
(b) C15 & upward
(c) C20 & upward
(d) C25 &
upward
28.
In Rockwell hardness test, a ball penetrator as large as inch diameter should be used for soft metal with:
(a) 60kg load
(b) 20kg load
(c) 100kg load
(d) 150kg load
29.
In brinell hardness testing, the thickness of material should not be less than
(a) 5 times
(b)
10 time
(c) 20 times
(d) 50 times
30.
Brinnel harness tester is used for
(a)
Larger part and low hardness
(b)
small part and low hardness
(c)
small part and large hardness
(d)
large part and high hardness
31.
Brinell hardness tester
(a)
uses steel ball(10+-0.01mm) penetrator
(b)
as in (a) and measure depth of impression
(c)
as in (a) and measure dia of impression
(d)
none of the above
32.
Hardness testing method of steel is
(a)
brinell or barcol
(b)
barcol or Rockwell
(c)
brinell or Rockwell
(d)
none
of the above
33.
Brinell tester used for :(a)
Al
(b)
Structural steel
(c)
Brass
(d)
a and c are correct
34.
Mark the correct statement :(a)
Brinell hardness no measure dia of ball
(b)
less the Rockwell hardness no. softer the metal
35.
In brinell tester, during testing of hardness of non ferrous metal pressure uses ir of
(i)
3000kg
(ii)
500kg (iii)
1000 kg
(iv)
100 kg
36.
(1) Diameter of ball used for Brinell Hardness Test is up to inches
(2) Load applied for soft material is 500 kg.
(a) (1) is true and (2) is false
(b) (2) is true and (1) is false
(c) Both are true
(d)
Both are false
37.
Brinell Hardness Number is obtained by:
a) Size of ball divided by area of depression
b)
Area of depression divided by size of ball
c) Load applied divided by area of depression
d)
None of these
38.
For Brinell Hardness Testing, application of load should be for at least:
(a) 20 second
(b) 15 second (c) 10 second
(d) 5 second
39.
Brinelling is
(i)
a hardness test
(ii)
Lateral defects (iii)
Logitudinal defects
(iv)
Lateral defects and defects at 45 degree angle with the axis
40.
In brinell tester, during testing of hardness of non ferrous metal pressure uses ir of
(i)
3000kg
(ii)
500kg (iii)
1000 kg
(iv)
100 kg
41.
Barcol tester is used by
(a)
harder material
(b)
softer material
(c)
all type of material
(d)
none
42.
Barcol Tester is used to test the hardness of
(i)
C.R.S.
(ii)
Al-alloy, copper, brass or other relatively hard materials
(iii)
Relatively soft material (Al Cu etc.)
(iv)
None

43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

Hot shortness is caused by the presence of

(i)
Phosphorous
(ii)
Mangancse
(iii)
Sulphur (iv)
Silicon
Chrome Molybdenum Steel is used for :
(i)
Fire wall
(ii)
Engine mount (iii)
Oil tank
(iv)
Oil lines
Presence of phosphorous in steel is responsible for:
(i)
Hot shortness (ii)
Brittleness
(iii)
Cold shortness (iv)
2 and 3 are correct
Chromium nickel-molybdenum Steel is commonly used to manufacture :
(i)
Longerons
(ii)
Spars (iii)
Propeller hubs (iv)
Under Carriage axle
Which cable has resistance to fatigue
(i)
Carbon steel
(ii)
Stainless steel (iii)
Copper
18-8 steel contains
(i)
18% Cr, 8% Ni (ii)
18 % cr, 8% Vanadium (iii)
18 % Ni , 8 % Cr
Name the element which lower the critical range of steel
(i)
Nickle (ii)
Chromium
(iii)
Magnese
(iv)
(i) & (iii)
White iron is
(i)
Soft and brittle (ii)
Hard and brittle
(iii)
Hard and ductile
(iv)

None of the
above
51.
Nickel in steel
(i)
Improve wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness.
(ii)
Refine grain size and produces less tendency to carbonization improves corrosion and heat resistance
properties.
(iii)
Improves cutting ability and reduces harden ability
(iv)
Gives ductility,toughness ,tenacity strength and anti-corrosion properties
52.
Tungsten in steel
(i)
Improve wear resistance cutting ability and toughness.
(ii)
Refine grain size and produces less tendency to carbonization improves corrosion and heat resistance
properties.
(iii)
Improves cutting ability and reduces harden ability.
(iv)
Gives ductility, toughness, tenacity strength and anti-corrosion properties.
53.
SAE 1045 Steel is mostly used to manufacture :
(i)
Locking wire
(ii)
Chains & Spockets
(iii)
Axles (iv)
Longerons & Spares
54.
Vanadium in high speed steels
(i)
Promotes decarburization
(ii)
Tungsten in steel
(iii)
Forms very hard carbides and thus
ncreases wear resistance.
(iv)
Promotes retention of austenite
55.
18-8 and Inconel steels are used :
(i)
to manufacture cowlings
(ii)
Propeller hubs
(iii)
Propeller blades
(iv)
Exhaust collector

SHA-SHIB AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

1.
2.
iron
3.

METALLURGY (4)

Titanium can be identified by

(a)
Spark test (b) moisturing and scratching with pencil (c)
chemical test (d)
both a & b are
correct
What is generally used in the construction of aircraft engine fire walls
a. Stainless steel
b. Chromium Molybdenum alloy steel c. Magnesium Titanium alloy steel
d. Wrought

Characteristics of steel are controlled by

a) Removal of carbon from iron b) Types of alloying elements added to it
c) Amount of alloying elements
added to it
d) All
4.
Medium carbon steels have a carbon percentage of
a) 0.1 0.3
b) 0.3 0.5 c) 0.5 1.0
d) 1.0 2.0
5.
High carbon steel is generally used for
a) Shock absorbers
b) Landing gear struts c) Engine mounting bolts
d) Springs & files
6.
Find out the wrong statement regarding titanium
a) It is highly corrosion resistant
b) It maintain strength at elevated temperatures
c) It has good resistance to creep
d) It is magnetic
7.
The balls used for ball bearings are made of
a) Cast iron
b) Cast steel
c) Wrought iron
d) Carbon chrome steel
8.
i) Gun metal is used for gears & bearings.
ii) Brass is used for cartridge cases
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d) Neither i)
nor ii) is correct
9.
SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel
10.
Engine mounts are made up of
a) 18-8 corrosion resistance mild carbon steel
b) Chrome molybdenum mild carbon steel
c) Chrome molybdenum high carbon steel
d) None of these
11.
Weldability is poorest in case of

a) Plain carbon steel

b) Low carbon steel
c) High carbon steel
d) Wrought iron
Carbon steel is
a) Refined form of cast iron
b) Extremely hard
c) Made by adding carbon to steel
d) An alloy of iron & carbon with varying quantities of sulphur & phosphorous
13.
Stainless steel is corrosion resistance due to presence of
a) Silicon
b) Cobalt
c) Chromium
d) Manganese
14.
Manganese is added to low carbon steel to
a) Make them tough & hard
b) Raise their tensile strength
c) Improve machine ability
d) Increase
corrosion resistance
15.
All carbon steels have well defined critical point & range. Low carbon steel has
a) Two critical points
b) Three critical points
c) Four critical points
d) Six critical points
16.
In steel, grain becomes coarser when
a) It is heated to a temp just below critical point
b) It is heated above critical range
c) Depends upon carbon percentage
d) It does not happen at all
17.
Creep in metals is
a) Elongation due to temperature
b) Temporary elongation due to temperature and
stresses
c) Permanent set due to stresses and high temperature operation
d) All are correct
18.
SAE 13XX represents
a) Magnesium Steel
b) Manganese Steel
c) Silicon Steel
d) Chromium Steel
19.
SAE 2340 is
a) Chromium steel with 3% chromium
b) Nickel chromium steel with 0.3% carbon
c) Nickel steel with 3% Nickel & 0.4% carbon
d) Carbon (0.4%) steel
20.
During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
a) Monel metal
b) Carbon steel
c) Nickel steel
d) 18-8 steel
21.
In magnet steel, the alloying elements are
a) Nickel, Cobalt
b) Silicon, Nickel
c) Molybdenum, Copper
d)
Tungsten, Cobalt
22
Corrosion resistant steel used in Aircraft construction is
a) 18 8 steel
b) Medium carbon steel c) 18 6 steel
d) Silicon steel
23.
Major alloying elements of stainless steel are ( in order of % composition)
a) Ni Cr
b) Ni V
c) W Ni
d) Cr Ni
24.
Forging steel is
a) Low Carbon steel
b) Medium Carbon steel
c) High Carbon steel
d) Either a) or c)
25.
Exhaust collector is made up of
a) Silicon steel
b) Titanium steel
c) Chromium steel
d) Ni Cr steel
26.
Stainless steel is
a) Ni Cr steel
b) Cr Mo steel c) Ni W steel
d) Cr Va steel
27.
Silicon in steel acts as
a) Oxidiser
b) Deoxidiser c) Impurity
d) Both b) & c)
28.
Mark the correct statement
a) SAE 2330 is chromium steel b) SAE 3250 is used in making axle shafts because of high strength
c) SAE 3115 is used for making piston pins, cam rings
29.
Steel is preheated before welding to
a) Include strength
b) Enhance its creep resistance
c) Enhance its creep resistance
30.
Steel used for wing-hinge fittings & flying wire trunnions is
a) SAE 4140
b) SAE 6150
c) SAE 1015
31.
Steel used commercially for automatic machine production is
a) SAE 4135
b) SAE 4615
c) SAE 6115
32.
Steel used as an alternate for SAE 4130 steel is
a) SAE 8620
b) SAE 8630
c) SAE 9260
33.
To identify Ferrous metal
a) hardness test is used
b) Spark test is used
c) Heat treatment is carried out d) Grinding stone is used
34.
Main constituents of Inconel are
a. Nickel and Iron
b. Nickel and Chromiumd. Nickel and Copper
d.
Copper
and
Manganese
35.
Aircraft wheels, brake pedals, control columns are made out of
a. Nickel alloy
b. Magnesium alloys
c. Magnesium alloy castings
d. Wrought Magnesium alloy
36.
The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by
a) Cold work
b) Hot rolling c) Heat treatment
d) All the above
37.
Caustic cleaning products used on Al-structure have the effect of producing
a. Passive oxidation b. Improved corrosion resistance
c. Corrosion
d.None
38.
Diamond is a:
(a) Metal
(b) Non-metal (c) Glass
(d) Composite
39.
Number of atoms in a Body Centered Cubic (BCC) crystal are:
(a) Ten
(b) Seventeen
(c) Nine
(d) Fourteen
40.
A crack in a metal due to corrosive atmosphere and static tensile stress is known as:
(a) Bauschingers effect
(b) Work hardening (c) Season cracking
(d) Strain
aging
41.
(1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel
(2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain
carbon steel
12.

(a) Both are true

(b) Both are false
(c) (1) is true (2) is false
(d) (1) is false and (2) is true
High carbon steel is used for:
(a) Great hardness and low ductility
(b) Great ductility and strength (c) Great hardness and machinability (c)
All of these
43.
Maximum permissible silicon in steel is:
(a) 0.3%
(b) 0.4%
(c) 0.5%
(d) 0.6%
44.
An element of steel which is white in colour and increases the strength, yield point and hardness without effecting
the ductility:
(a) Chromium (b) Molybdenum
(c) Silicon
(d) Nickel
45.
An alloying element of steel which improves its homogeneity and reduces the grain size, is:
(a) Nickel
(b) Molybdenum
(c) Chromium
(d) Silicon
46.
The High Speed Steel used for tools, which will retain its cutting edge even when heated to dull redness by working:
(a) Nickel-chromium
(b) Tungsten-chromium steel
(c) Vanadium-Tungsten steel
(d)
Chromium-molybdenum steel
47.
In SAE steel numbering system, first digit indicate:
(a) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy
(b) Average carbon content
(c) Type of steel(d) None of
these
48.
In SAE steel numbering system, the second digit indicates:
(a) Average carbon content
(b) Type of steel
(c) Number of alloying elements
(d) Approximate
percentage of predominant alloy
49.
In SAE steel numbering system, last two or three digits indicate:
(a) Average carbon content
(b) Approximate percentage of predominant alloy
(c) Type of steel(d) Number
of alloying elements.
50.
The numerals and digits for 3.50% Nickel steel in SAE steel numbering system is:
(a) 25xx
(b) 2xxx
(c) 23xx
(d) 24xx
51.
It is a grey metal which impart hardness, strength, wear resistance and corrosion resistance of steel:
(a) Chromium (b) Nickel
(c) Silicon
(d) Titanium
52.
Which of the alloying element of steel is most expensive:
(a) Vanadium
(b) Titanium
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Tungsten
53.
The numerals and digits for 1.25% Nickel, 0.60% Chromium ofNickel-chromium steel in SAE numbering system is:
(a) 32xx
(b) 31xx
(c) 33xx
(d) 30xx
54.
Military specification (MIL) are developed jointly by technical services of Army, Navy and Air force and are issued by:
(a) American National Specification
(b) Munitions Board Standard Agency (c) American Military
(d) Air forceNavy Specification Board
55.
SAE 4037 steel is used for aircraft bolts, its AN specification is:
(a) AN-S-85
(b) AN-S-13-B
(c) AN-S-9a
(d) QQ-S-624
56.
First usable ferrous product obtained by smelting ores in a blast furnace is
a) Pig Iron
b) Wrought Iron c) Cast Iron
d) Steel
57.
Siderite is
a) Oxide ore of Iron
b) Carbonate ore of Iron
c) Sulphide ore of Iron d) Flux used in furnace
58.
Coke used in blast furnace is
a) Fuel
b) Flux
c) Reducing agent
d) Both fuel & reducing agent
59.
In upper reduction zone, we get
a) Iron
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Carbon monoxide
d) Both Fe & CO2
60
Steel is alloyed to improve
a) Hardenability
b) Toughness c) Fatigue strength
d) All of the above
61
Cast Iron sparks are
a) Red
b) White
c) Straw colored
d) First Red then Straw
colored
62
Steel parts are pickled before plating with the solution of :
(i)
Sulphuric acid 5% to 10% by weight
(ii)
Hydrofluoric acid part of acid per gallons of solution
(iii)
Two parts of borax to 1 part of boric acid
(iv)
As in (i) or a hydrochloric acid solution 15 % 25% kept in stone ware tank at 140-150 deg centigrade by
means of steam coil
64.
In order to increase elasticity and strength and reduce tackiness in rubber, the process is known as
a. Vulcanizing
b. Calendering
c. Hardening
d. None
65.
(1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy, where as
(2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid
solution
(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect
(c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
(d)
Both, (1) and (2) are correct
66.
SAE 1435 steel is used for structural tubings, its Military specification is:
(a) MIL-T-6737 (b) MIL-T-6731
(c) MIL-T-6732 (d) MIL-T-6735
67.
Carbon is in chemical combination with iron as iron carbide, which is known as:
(a) Austenite
(b) Pearlite
(c) Martensite
(d) Cementite
68.
Steel above 0.85% carbon content is known as:
(a) Hyper-eutectoid
(b) Hypo-eutectoid
(c) Eutectoid
(d) None of these
69.
Steel above 0.85% carbon content is composed of:
(a) Austenite
(b) Cementite and martensite (c) Martensite and troostite
(d) Pearlite with excess
cementite
70.
Main constituent of hardened steel is:
(a) Austenite
(b) Troostite
(c) Sorbite
(d) Martensite
42.

71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.

The hardest structure obtained in the steel is:

(a) Pearlite
(b) Troostite
(c) Martensite
During nitric acid test, if the material shows strongly magnetic nature, then it is
a) Monel metal
b) Carbon steel c) Nickel steel
d) 18-8 steel
Special steel HY-TUF has a good toughness at a tensile strength of:
(a) 2,30,000 psi
(b) 2,40,000 psi
(c) 2,50,000 psi
Steel below 0.85% carbon content is known as:
(a) Eutectoid
(b) Hypo-eutectoid
(c) Hyper-eutectoid
these
Steel below 0.85% carbon content is composed of:
(a) Pearlite
(b) Pearlite with excess ferrite
(c) Pearlite with excess cementite
Austenit
Number of atoms in a Face Centered Cubic (FCC) crystal are:

(d) Sorbite

(d) 2,60,000 psi

(d) None of
(d) Pearlite and

(a) Fourteen
(b) Seventeen (c) Nine(d) Fifteen
When a metal is deformed plastically, forces required to deformed it in reverse direction will be less, this is known

77.
as:
78.
79.

80.
81.
82.

83.
84.

(a) Work hardening

(b) Bauschingers Effect(c) Strain aging
(d) None
Failure of component under high temperature and stressconditions is known as:
(a) Creep fracture
(b) Ductile fracture
(c) Fatigue fracture
(d) Brittle fracture
(1) An intermetallic compound is a form of alloy,
(2) Substitutional solid solution is a type of solid
solution
(a) 1 is correct & 2 is incorrect (b) 2 is correct & one is incorrect (c) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
(d) Both, (1)
and (2) are correct
Iron changes its forms at different temperatures, thats why it is known as :
(a) Ferrous metal
(b) Magnetic metal
(c) Allotropic
(d) None of these
Number of atoms in a Hexagonal Closed Pack (HCP) crystal are:
(a) Fourteen
(b) Nine
(c) Eleven
(d) Seventeen
(1) Sulfur is a harmful impurity in plain carbon steel
(2) Phosphorus is very much useful element of plain carbon
steel
(a) Both are true
(b) Both are false
(c) (1) is true (2) is false
(d) (1) is false and
(2) is true
Presence of manganese in steel is mainly to
(a) Eliminate ferrous oxide
(b) Improve forging quality
(c) Induce penetration hardness
(d) All of these
Modules of elasticity is
(i)
Stress/strain within elastic limit (ii)
Stress/strain after elastic linist (iii)
Stress/strain

SHA-SHIB AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

1.
2.

3.
4.

5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.

11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
the
26.

METALLURGY (5)

For commercial annealing cooling is done in

(a)
Furnace
(b)
Air
(c)
Mica
(d)
both A & B
Liquid quenching causes
(a)
cold water quenching does minimize distortion and eliminate cracks.
(b)
hot water quenching does minimize distortion and eliminate cracks.
(c)
hardness of the surface with brittleness (d)
All
Temperature of work in a furnace can be measured by
(a)
thermistor
(b)
pyrometer
(c)
color of work
(d)
thermocouple
How long piece of steel is left in a furnace for soaking.
(a)
For longer PARTS enough to ensure a good even heat throughout
(b)
For 2 hrs for per cubic inch of piece
(c)
one hour for each square inch of cross section area.
(d)
Both A & C
Seak often forms on the surface of the metal and dirt blocked on it .. by
(a)
Steel wire brush
(b)
sand blasting (c)
scrap
(d)
All
The heat of the furnace can be controlled on regulated by
(a)
watching the color of the furnace
(b)
PYROMETER
(c)
thermo meter (d)
all
Annealing is done on heat treatable parts to
(a)
relief internal stresses set up during cold working
(b)
as in (a) and harden the metal
(c)
as in (a) and soften the metal
(d)
none of the above
Heat treated parts having bake-dirt and scale can be leased
(a)
wire brush
(b)
scraping
(c)
sand blasting
(d)
all
The soaking time varies as
(a)
till alloy uniformly heated
(b)
2 hrs/unit volume
(c)
1 hr/unit c.s. area
(d)
none
What is the descriptive of the annealing process of steel during and after it has been annealed
(a)
Rapid cooling high strength
(b)
Rapid cooling low strength
(c)
slow cooling low strength
(d)
slow cooling (high strength) and increasing resistance to wear
Heat treated defect in metal is detected by
(a)
ultrasonic test (b)
eddy current testing
(c)
dye penetrant testing (d)
radiography testing
Heated treated and non heat treated metal is distinguished by
(a)
magnetic particle inspection
(b)
eddy current test
(c)
dye penetrant inspection
(d)
ultrasonic test
Re-heating is done to
(a)
remove strain and stresses
(b)
remove effect of heat treatment
(c)
remove hardness
and brittleness(d)
none
In 7075 - 0 indicates
(a)
annealed
(b)
strain hardened(c)
solution IIT
(d)
None
Normalizing is applicable to
(a)
cu-alloys
(b)
Al-alloy
(c)
Ferrous alloy only
(d)
Ferrous alloy
only
Embrittelment in steel is reduced by
(a)
beating the steel at 150 deg-200 deg C
(b)
increasing the carbon percentage
(c)
by
annealing
(d)
none
After heat treatment tempering is done to
(a)
reduce brittleness and ductility
(b)
increase brittleness and ductility
(c)
increase hardness and strength
(d)
increase hardness only
When the time between soaking and quenching increases, then
(a)
hardness increases
(b)
softer the metal
(c)
re-precipitation takes place(d)
tensile strength increase
When the time b/w soaking and quenching increases
(a)
hardness increases (b) softer the material
After cyaniding quenching is done in
(a)
water
(b)
brine
(c)
oil
(d) both A & B GFT54
Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still air this process is known as:
(i)
Annealing
(ii)
Normalising
(iii) Tempering
(iv)
Hardening
Immersion of the heated metal in a liquid either in oil, brine or water to accelerate cooling is termed as :
(i)
Dipping
(ii)
Quenching
(iii)
Carbonizing
(iv)
Refining
The process of reheating the hardened steel to a temperature below critical point and cooling is known as :
(i)
Normalizing
(ii)
Tempering
(iii)
Drawing
iv)
(ii) & (iii) are correct
Heat treatment which relieves the strains in hardened steel, decreases the brittleness and restores ductility is :
(i)
Normalizing
(ii)
Annealing (iii) Tempering
(iv)
As in (iii) and drawing also
Soaking period for tempering
(i) 30 minutes to 1 hour (ii)
1 hour to 1.30 hour
(iii)
As in (i) and depending on the thickness of
material
(iv) As in (ii) and depending on the thickness of the material
During annealing, soaking time is approximately:

(i)
30 minutes per inch thickness (ii)
2 hrs for per inch thickness
(iii)
1 hour for per inch thickness
(iv)
Not specified
27.
Heating the steel above Critical point soaking it and allowed to cool in still air this process is known as :
(i)
Annealing
(ii)
Normalising
(iii)
Tempering
(iv)
Hardening
28.
The term used to describe the practice of heating steel with a welding torch to 900 to 1000 F:
(i)
Spherodizing
(ii)
Normalizing
(iii)
Shop annealing (iv)
Annealing
29.
When tabular parts are quenched they should be Immersed the
(i)
Long axis vertical to reduce war page (ii)
Lateral axis horizontally to reduce war page
(iii)
One
end blocked
(iv)
Both the end closed
30.
On furnace the temperature is controlled by
(i)
Pyrometer
(ii)
Hydrometer
(iii)
By pouring water into the furnace
31.
Purpose of tempering is
(i)
Increase toughness decrease ductility (ii)
Increase hardness and ductility
(iii)
Increase ductility and decrease hardness
32.
Which is the most severe quenching liquids during cooling
(i)
Water (ii) Brine
(iii) Oil (iv) None of the above
33.
When stainless steels are heated the formation of chromium carbide within the metal reduces the amount of
chromium available and may decrease its resistance to corrosion this effect is known as
(i)
Loss of strength
(ii)
Resistance to soldering (iii)
Resistance
34.
Heat treatable alloys may require a fuel heat treatment to restore then properties after welding magnesium alloys
(i)
Should not be heat treated at all
(ii)
Should not be heat treated more than three times
(iii)
Should be heat treated only once
(iv)
Require only hardening
35.
Unless the pipes are annealed the loading unloading operations must be completed
(i)
After solution heat treatment (ii)
After normalizing
(iii)
As in (i) and within two hours
(iv)
None of the above
36.
In solution heat treatment of rivets the time between removal from the bath and quenching must be not more than
(i)
10 seconds
(ii)
30 seconds
(iii)
As in (i) and to achieve satisfactory properties
(iv)
As in (ii) and to avoid reheat treating
37.
Why is it considered good practice to normalize a part after welding
(i)
To relieve internal stresses developed within the base metal
(ii)
To increase the hardness of the weld
(iii)
To increase ductility in a metal
(iv)
To remove the surface scale formed during
welding
38.
In the process of annealing the soaking period is about:
(i)
One hour per inch thickness
(ii)
30 minutes per inch thickness (ii)
15 minutes only
(iv)
one hour for ferrous and 30 minutes for nonferrous metal
39.
The term used to describe the practice of heating steel with a welding torch to 900 to 1000 F:
(i)
Spherodizing
(ii)
Normalizing
(iii)
Shop annealing
(iv)
Annealing
40.
In the process of heat treatment, During soaking period the temperature of the furnace:
(i)
Must be lowered
(ii)
Must be increased
(iii)
To be determined as per the metal
(iv)
Must be hold constant
41.
Most severe Quenching medium is
(i)
Water (ii)
Oil
(iii)
Paraffin
(iv)
Brine9A 208
42.
Mark the correct statement:
(i)
Quenching oil is normally maintained between 100 to 150 degree F
(ii)
Quenching water is normally maintained above 65 degree F
(iii)
Quenching oil temperature about 80 to 150 degree F and water below 65 degree F
(iv)
As in 1 and water temperature below 65 degree F to be maintained
43.
Heating Steel to upper Critical Point holding it at that temperature and then cooling it very slowing. This process is
known as
(i)
Tempering
(ii)
Hardining
(iii)
Annealing
(iv)
Normalising
44.
In heat treatment of steels, the presence of nickel slows down:
(i)
Rate of hardening
(ii)
Rate of Annealing
(iii)
As in (i) and increases the depth of
hardening
(iv)
None of the above
45.
In relieve the internal stresses and refine the grain all welded parts should be
(i)
Annealed ater fabocation
(ii)
Normalized after fabrication
(iii)
Tempered before fabrication
(iv)
No heat treatment to given
46.
Ageing of heat treated alloy may be retarded :
(i)
For about 24 hrs
(ii)
As in (i) provided kept at or below temperature of 32 F
(iii)
By precipitation heat treatment (iv)
As in (iii) and kept at a room temperature for 24 hrs
47.
Pyrometer is used to
a) Measure the temperature
b) Protect the furnacec) Give protective atmosphere
48.
The fastest rate of cooling is given by
a) Brine
b) Oil
c) Water
49.
The heat range for salt bath Furnaces are
A) Depending upon composition of bath
B)
As in a) & normally 6500 F to 17000F
C) As in a) & normally 3250F to 24500F D)
None of these
50.
The heat range for salt bath furnances are
(a) depending upon composition of bath.
(b) as in (a) & normally 650F to 1700F.
(c) as in (a) & normally 325F to 2450F.
(d) none of these.

51.

While heating the steel, the critical points are designated by:
(a) Ac1, Ac2, (b) Ar1, Ar2,
(c) Ar3-2
(d) Arcm
52.
At what percentage of carbon content, two upper critical points merge together and forms a single critical point
known as Ar3-2
(a) Slightly above 0.1%
(b) Slightly above 0.2%
(C) Slightly above 0.4%
(c) at 0.85%
53.
Fine grain of the steel is obtained when it is heated:
(a) Below critical range(b) Well above critical range
(c) Slightly above critical range (d) Up to upper critical point
54.
Soaking time for steel is:
(a) 4 hours per inch thickness
(b) 3 hours per inch thickness (c) 2 hours per inch thickness
(d) 1
hour per inch thickness
55.
Dry heat furnace are fired by:
(a) Oil (b) Gas (c) Electricity (d) Any one of these
56.
To prevent scaling, better temperature regulation and foruniform heating, the type of furnace to be used is:
a) Liquid furnace
(b) Dry heat furnace
(c) Open hearth furnace
(d)
Electric furnace
57.
Sufficient period of soaking of aircraft steel parts is:
(a) 30 60 minutes
(b) 15 45 minutes
(c) 30 45 minutes
(d) 1 hour 2 hour
58.
For water quenching, temperature of water must be maintained:
(a) Below 600F
(b) Below 650F
(c) Below 700F
(d) Below 800F
59.
For normalizing SAE 1025 mild carbon steel, the temperature should be:
(a) 1600 16250F
(b) 1625 16750F
(c) 1650 17000F
(d) 1675 17250F
60.
While cooling the steel, its critical points are designated by:
(a) Ac3, Ac2, (b) Ar3, Ar2, (c) Arcm (d) Ar3-2-1
61.
At what percentage of carbon, all three critical points will merge together and forms a single critical point known as
Ar3-2-1
(a) 0.85%
(b) 0.65%
(c) 0.45%
(d) 0.25%
62.
Spheroidizing is a type of annealing which improves machinability of :
(a) Low carbon steel
(b) Medium carbon steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Alloy
steel
63.
Normalizing is carried out to:
(a) Induce ductility
(b) Improve hardness and strength
(c) Improve machinability
(d)
All of these
64.
The most severe quenching medium is:
(a) Brine
(b) Water
(c) Oil (d) Air
65.
After cyaniding , quenching is done in
(a)
brine
(b)
water
(c)
oil
(d)
both A & C
66.
In SAE-1030
carbon percentage is
(a)
30 % (9A-195)
(b)
9.5 % (c)
10 %
(d)
30 %
67.
Cyniding of low carbon steel is quenched in
(a) Oil
(b) Brine
(c) Water
(d) both (a) & (b)
68.
Which non-ferrous metal can be case-hardened
(a)
Ni
(b)
Ti
(c)
Cu
(d)
Al
69.
After cyaniding , quenching is done in
(a)
brine
(b)
water
(c)
oil
(d)
both A & C
70.
In SAE-1030 carbon percentage is
(a)
30 %
(b)
9.5 %
(c)
10 %
(d)
30 %
71.
Cyniding of low carbon steel is quenched in
(a) Oil
(b) Brine
(c) Water
(d) both (a) & (b)
72.
Which non-ferrous metal can be case-hardened
(a)
Ni
(b)
Ti
(c)
Cu
(d)
Al
73.
In case hardening the depth to be maintained for Aircraft work.
(i)
from 1/8 to 1/16
(ii)
from to 1/8
(iii)
from to
(iv)
from
1/32 to 1/64
74.
Nitriding is the Surface hardening of Special alloy steels by heating the metal:
(i)
In contact with hydrogen gas
(ii)
In contact with Ammonia gas
(iii)
As in 1 or
with ammonia gas
(iv)
As in (ii) and or other nitrogenous gas
75.
Shot peening :
(i)
It is a sand blasting
(ii)
It is a shot blasing
(iii)
It improves the fatigue and
corrosion resistance in steel
(iv)
As in (ii) & (iii) and increases the life of parts subjected to repeated stress
76.
In case hardening , Nitriding and corburizing can be used to produce a wear resistant case of
(i)
0.0001 to 0.0002 in depth
(ii)
.0004 to .0005 in depth
(iii)
.0005 to .001 in depth
(iv)
.001 to .002 in depth
77.
Which one is not a form of case harding
(i)
Carburizing
(ii0
Cyaniding
(iii)
Nitriding
(iv)
Sulphating
78
The steel to be used for case hardening purpose is:
(a) Low carbon steel
(b) Medium carbon steel
(c) High carbon steel
(d) Alloy
steel
79.
For solid carburizing, the metal box is having 2 inches legs

a)

a)

c)
d)

To avoid touching of box with furnace (b) For free circulation of furnace gases (c) For proper support of the box
(d)All of these
80.
Liquid carburizing is used for small parts, where case depth required upto:
(a) 0.010 inch
(b) 0.020 inch
(c) 0.030 inch
(d) 0.040 inch
81.
In gas carburizing, the parts are heated in:
(a) Carbon atmosphere furnace (b) Amonia gas
(c) Carbon-dioxide gas
(d) Any one of these
82.
The sequence of case hardening consists of:
Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining
(b) Carburizing, core refining, case hardening and tempering
Carburizing, tempering, case hardening and core refining
Carburizing, case hardening, core refining and tempering
83.
For case hardening MIL-S-6709 describe two types of nitralloys, in which composition-A is:
(a) Free machining steel
(b) High carbon steel (c) Nitriding stainless steel
(d) High core
strength steel

SHA-SHIB AEROSPACE ENGINEERING

1.

METALLURGY (6)

Artificial & age hardening treatment is given at temperature:

(i)
365 to 380 F
(ii)
465 to 480 F
(iii)
As in (i) and for approximately 6 hrs will greatly improve the mechanical properties
(iv)
As in (ii) and for approximately 3 hrs will greatly improve the mechanical properties
2.
Color of 2024-T Al-alloy is
(a)
grey
(b)
green
(c)
blue + yellow (d)
red
3.
Colour of extruded bar of aluminum alloy in 5 inches is
(a)
red marking near the end of each length
(b)
blue marking near the end of each length
(c)
stamp of blue and white color
(d)
none of the above
4.
N-alloy 7075 contains
(a)
2.5 mg
(b)
1.2
Mg
(c)
5.6 Zn
(d)
2.5 Zn
5.
In four digit N-alloy index system, No.-2024, the first digit indicates(a)
the % of Al-added.
(b)
the different alloy in this group (c)
alloy group
(d)
copper is the major alloying element.
6.
Which is the correct statement at regarding best treatment of Al-alloy.
(a)
longer soaking time and lower cooling rate result in greater softening.
(b)
longer soaking time and higher cooling rate result in greater softening.
7.
Identification of alloy is made of by
(a)
alloy identified by color , content by stripes (b) alloy by stripes and content by color
8.
The colour of 6053 Al-alloy is
(a)
Red
2024 (b)
black
(c)
grey
2014 (d)
white 1100
9.
The maximum radius for bending of Al-alloy should be
(a)
3 times the sheet thickness
(b)
6 times the sheet thickness
(c)
9 X sheet thickness
(d)
10 X sheet thickness
10.
Which one is heat treatable alloy
(a)
24 S
(b)
clad 24 S
(c) A17S
(d) Any Al-cu alloy
11.
To roll a pure Al-sheet over Al-alloy is called
(a)
Al-clad
(b)
Pure clad
(c)
Laminated Al
(d) both a & b
12.
The main alloying element is 7075 al-alloy is
(a)
Cu
(b)
Mn
(c)
Zn 9A-199
(d)
Si
13.
Which one is stable wrought alloy
(a)
piston
(b)
cylinder head
(c)
crankshaft
(d)
alclad
14.
Main content of 5056 Al-alloys is
(a)
Zn
(b)
Mg
(c)
Cu
(d)
Si
15.
Al-alloy is not heat treated properly to have uniform grain boundries
(a)
stress corrosion
(b)
galvanic corrosion
(c)
inter granular corrosions
(d)
fretting corrosion
16.
Which has increasing order of strength
(a)
2S A14ST 17ST 24 ST (b)
2S 24ST 17ST A17ST (c)
2S 17ST 24ST A14ST
(d)
2S 117ST
24 ST 24 ST
17.
Mark the correct statement
(a)
Al-alloy bolts of dia less than 1/4 mm are not used in primary structure
(b)
All Al-alloy nuts and bolts are NOT used where frequent removal is required
(c)
Both a & b are
correct (d)
none
18.
End of steel bar sometimes painted in various colors and color combination as a mean of identifying different grade
of steel
(a)
solid colors identify the alloy and strips identify the carbon contents
(b)
strips identify the alloy and solid colors identify the carbon content
(c)
both
a&b
(d)
none of the above
19.
The colour of 6053 Al-alloy is
(a)
Red
(b)
black
(c)
grey
(d)
white
20.
Which al-alloy rivet has highest strength 9A151, J8-6
(a)
5056-T (b)
2117-T (c)
2024-T
(d) 5056-W
21.
Main content of 5056 Al-alloys is J8-5
(a)
Zn
(b)
Mg
(c)
Cu
(d)
Si
22.
Al-alloy is not heat treated properly to have uniform grain boundaries
(a)
stress corrosion
(b)
galvanic corrosion
(c)
inter granular corrosions
(d)
fretting corrosion
23.
Titanium can be identified by
(a)
Spark test BRILLIANT WHITE SPARKS (b)
moisturing and scratching with GLASS LEAVES PENCIL LIKE
MARKS pencil
(c)
chemical test (d)
both a & b are correct
24.
Al. Alloy sand castings can not be manufactured with a wall thickness of
(i)
Less than
(ii)
Less than (iii)
Less than 3/16
(iv)
Less than 1/8
25.
Aluminium alloy 1100 implies
a) Pure aluminium
b) It contains 11% copper
c) It contains 111% zincd) Heat treated alloy

26.
Aluminium alloys have a four digit index system where each digit signifies something. In 2024, the first digit
indicates
a) Copper is the major alloying element
b) Two alloying elements have been added
c) Total percentage of alloying elements
d) None of these
27.
Alclad is a metal consisting of
a) Aluminium alloy core with pure Al surface
b) Pure aluminium core with Al alloy surface
c) Alternating layers of pure Al & Al alloys
d) None of these
28.
Which of the following aluminium alloy is heat treated and artificially aged?
a) 3003-F
b) 5052-H
c) 6061-O
d) 7075-T6
29.
Clad aluminium alloys are used in aircraft. They are
a) Lighter than other aluminium alloys
b) Stronger than unclad aluminium alloys
c) Easily heat treatable
d) Less susceptible to corrosion
30.
Which of the statement is correct?
a) Both heat treatable & non heat treatable aluminium alloys can be strain hardened
b) Strain hardening is same as cold working
c) Strength & hardness increases during cold working d) All are
correct
31
Cold bending of an aluminium sheet
a) Is not permitted
b) Softens the material at the bend
c) Strain hardens material at the
bend
d) Results in material failure irrespective of bend radius
32.
i) Clad metals are two dissimilar metals joined together under high hydraulic pressure ii) Clad metals mean forged
non ferrous metals
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d)
Neither i) nor ii) is correct
33.
Aluminium alloys 2017 & 2024 must be transformed from the heat treatment medium to quench tank within 10
seconds or so. A delay results
a) Retarded age hardening
b) Reduced corrosion resistance
c) Dull/Strained surface
d)
Hard/brittle surface
34.
S in Al-alloy designation indicates
a) Cast alloy
b) Wrought alloy
c) As in b) and used for a/c structure
d) None
35
Which Al-alloy is more corrosion resistant?
a) 2 S
b) 3 S
c) 17 S
d) 52 S
36
Al clad is generally of
a) 17 S & 24 S
b) 24 S & 52 S c) 52 S & 53 S
d) 53 S & 62 S
37.
Solution heat treatment & artificially eged is indicated by
a) T5
b) T7
c) T6
d)T8
38.
The most widely used alloys in aircraft construction are hardened by
(a) cold work
(b) hot rolling (c) heat treatment
(d) all the above
39.
The major alloying element in 7075 Al-alloy is
(a) magnesium
(b) silicon
(c) magnesium & silicon
d) Zinc
40.
T-6 designation of Al-alloy indicates
(a) solution heat treated and then artificially aged.
(b) solution heat treated and then stabilized.
(c) artificially aged only.
(d) solution heat treated and then cold worked.
41
Al- Alloy and magnesium alloys are :(a)
Solution heat treated (b)
Precipitation heat treated
(c)
a and b are correct
42.
Those Alloy gets its full strength in 4 to 5 days known as :(a)
Artificially aged alloy
(b)
Naturally aged alloy
43.
When Al Allay surface coated with pure Al, called :(a)
Pure clad
(b)
Alclad (c)
both a and b are correct
44.
Aclad is a metal consisting of
(i)
Aluminum alloy surface layers and a pure aliuminium core
(ii) Pure aluminum surface layers on
an aluminum alloy core
(iii)
Al. and capper
(iv)
A homogenous mixture of pure aluminum and aluminum alloy
45.
Clad Al alloys during super annealing, soak the material
(i)
At temp 400-425 C for at least one hour
(ii)
At temp 300 to 325 C for at least two hour
(iii)
As in (i) and followed by slow cooling at about 15C per hour
(iv)
As in (ii) and followed by slow cooling at about 10 C for 30 minutes
46.
Pure aluminum sheet laminated over base aluminum alloy is called
(i)
Alclad layer
(ii)
InconeL layer (iii)
k-monel layer (iv)
All the above
47.
An 2024 AL ALLOY
(i)
Ni is main constituent (ii)
Cu is main constituent
(iii)
Magnesium is main constituent
48.
Mark the correct statement
(i)
Al clad alloys sheet should NOT normally be polished with mechanical buffing wheels
(ii)
Interior cleaning of A/C should be done with an efficient vacuums cleaner
(iii)
Steel wool NOT should be used on Al alloys surfaces for cleaning
(iv)
Spilled acids of lead acid batteries should be brushed with a diluted bicarbonate of soda , ammonia acetic
acid to neutralize the effect
49.
Color of 2024-T Al-alloy is
(a)
grey
(b)
green
(c)
blue + yellow
(d)
red
50.
Identification of alloy is made of by
(a)
alloy identified by color , content by stripes
(b)
alloy by stripes and content by color

51.

Beryllium copper has greater advantage of

(a)
creep (b)
High strength and uniform properties (c)
corrosion resistance
(d)
uniform
grain structure
52.
Bronze is Cu-alloy containing
(a)
tin
(b)
zinc
(c)
titanium
(d) all
53.
Red brass is used
(a)
for fuel and oil line fitting
(b)
as in (a) and also called bronze
(c)
as in (b) and has poor good casting, finishing properties and machines freely casting and forming quality
(d)
none
54.
Muntz metal is used
(a)
to made oil and hydraulic filling (b)
to make nut and bolts for used in salty atmosphere
(c)
to made nut and bolts which are not affected by fresh water
(d)
none
55.
Muntz metal consists of
(a)
60% of Cu and 40% of Zn
(b)
60% of Zn and 40% of Cu
(c)
as in (a) and
basically brass
(d)
as in (b) and basically brass.
56.
Beryllium copper has greater advantage of
(a)
creep (b)
High strength and uniform properties (c)
corrosion resistance
(d)
uniform
grain structure
57.
Bronze is Cu-alloy containing
(a)
tin
(b)
zinc
(c)
titanium
(d) all
58.
In K-Monel material are heat treated for
(i)
Hardening
(ii)
Annealing
(iii)
Tempering
(iv)
As in (ii) and will relieve
59.
Copper tubing can be annealed by heating it in an air Furance at temp. of
(i)
800 to 900 F and quenching in brine
(ii)
1100 to 1200 F and quenching to water
(iii)
100 to 1500 F and quenching in oil
(iv)
2200 to 2300 F and quenching in water
Among following which is non-magnetic
(i)
K-Monel(ii)
Pure Nickel
(iii)
Steel
(iv)
None
61.
Copper, brass and bronze parts must be pickled prior to plating in a solution of
(i)
Solution of hydrofluoric for at least 30 seconds PICKLED (ii)
Sodium cyanide for at least 30 seconds
IMMERSED
(iii)
As in (i) and 4 ounces of hydrofluoric and gallon of water
(iv)
As in (ii) and 2 ounces of Sodium Cyanide in 1 gallon of water IMMEDIATELY BEFORE PLATING
62.
i) Muntz metal is same as yellow brass
ii) Muntz metal contains copper & zinc in the ratio of 3:2
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i)
63.
Monel metal is an alloy of
a) Nickel & copper
b) Nickel & chromium
c) Copper & chromium
d) Copper, nickel &
chromium
64.
Muntz metal is used for
a) Nuts & bolts
b) Parts in contact with salt water
c) Fuel & oil lines
d) Both a) &
b) are correct
65.
i) Bronze is superior to brass in corrosion resistance property
ii) Duralumin can be age hardened
a) Only i) is correct
b) Only ii) is correct
c) Both i) and ii) are correct
d)
Neither i) nor ii) is correct
66.
Which of the following is the Non-Magnetic?
a) Inconel
b) K-Monel
c) Monel
d)
All of these
67.
For maximum ductility elongation and impact resistance of Mg-alloy is
(a)
solution heat treatment
(b)
casted (c)
precipitation heat treatment
(d)
both
a&c
68.
Magnesium surface should be cleared with
(a)
stiff hog bristle
(b)
steel wool
(c)
crocus cloth
(d)
steel wire brush
69.
In Magnesium :(a)
Susceptible to corrosion
(b)
Not Susceptible to corrosion
(c)
Susceptible to crack
(d)
a and c are
70.
Tensile strength and ductility of Mg increases by :(a)
Solution heat treatment
(b)
PHT
(c)
aging
(d)
None
71.
Magnesium alloys are:
(i)
Non sparking (ii)
Non magnetic (iii)
Used adjacent to magnetic compass
(iv)
All
are
correct
72.
To clean aluminum and magnesium. Alloys surfaces steel wool should not be used
(i)
To avoid electro-chemical attack
(ii)
To avoid scratching the surface because of soft metal
(iii)
Particles may be lodged in crevices or embedded on organic coatings may cause corrosion
(iv)
(i) &
(iii) are correct
73.
Magnesium surface should be cleared with
(a)
stiff hog bristle
(b)
steel wool
(c)
crocus cloth
(d)
steel wire brush
74.
Metalling is a process of
(a)
rolling pure Al-alloy on Al-alloy surface
(b)
Ni and cd plating on steel
(c)
By sparying Ni, or on steel with oxy-acctylene flame
(d)
all of the above
75.
In four digit N-alloy index system, No.-2024, the first digit indicates60.

76.
a&c
77.
73.

74.

(a)
the % of Al-added.
(b)
the different alloy in this group (c)
alloy group
(d)
copper is the major alloying element.
For maximum ductility elongation and impact resistance of Mg-alloy is
(a)
solution heat treatment
(b)
casted (c)
precipitation heat treatment

(d)

both

Magnesium alloy castings are used extensively in aircraft construction such as :

(i)
Wheels and brake pedals
(ii)
A/c axles
(iii)
Under carriage attachment brackets
(iv)
Shock absorbers
After welding magnesium alloy remove the flux immediately:
(i)
Wash in hot running water and scrub with a stiff bristle brush
(ii)
Immerse in solution for one minute of sodium di-chromate and concentrated nictric acid
(iii)
By boiling for 1 to 2 hrs in a solution of sodium di chromate and enough water
(iv)
All of the
above method
Magnesium alloy castings are solution heat treated to improve
(i)
Tensile strength(ii)
Ductility
(iii)
Shock resistance
(iv)
All of the

above
75.
Magnesium alloys are
a) Magnetic
b) Light in weight
c) Cheap & easy to machine
d) Highly prone to
corrosion
76.
Al-alloy can be heat treated by
(a)
solution heat treatment (b)
precipitation heat treatment
(c)
artificial aging indicated
with W
(d)
both (a) & (b)
77.
Treating the parts in anhydrous ammonia is
(a)
carburizing
(b)
nitriding
(c)
cyaniding
(d)
normalizing
78.
In artificial ageing hardening is done at
(a)
moderate temperature (b)
room temperature (natural ageing)(c) critical temperature
(d)
none
79.
High heat of al-sheet from fire causes
(a)
Increase ductility
(b)
Decrease ductility
(c)
Increase resistance
(d)
None (increase, conductance)
80.
Purpose of heat treatment of titanium is
(a)
thermal hardening to improve strength
(b)annealing for subsequent working
(c)
relieve stresses (d)
all of the above
81.
Heat treatment of N-alloy is carried out by
(a)
solution heat treatment (b)
solution and precipitation HT
(c)
age hardening (d)
all
82.
Nitriding operation Consists of heating the steel to 950 F in the presence of ammonia gas for
(i)
From 10 to 30 hrs
(ii)
From 20 to 50 hrs
(iii)
From 20 to 100 hrs (iv) None of the
above
83..
Precipitation heat treatment consists of
(i)
Aging material previously subject to solution heat treatment
(ii)
Holding the material at elevated temperature for quite a long period of time
(iii)
Alloying constituents in sold solution prvecipitate out. (iv)
All are correct
84.
Temper designation for solution heat treated cold worked and then artificially aged the letter is :
(i)
T4
(ii)
T6
(iii)
T8
(iv)
T10
85.
Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy. The soaking time ranges from
(i)
10 to 18 hours (ii)
5 to 10 hours
(iii)
As in (i) and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over 2 in thickness
(iv)
None of the above
86.
Precipitation heat treatment temperature ranges from
(i)
25 to 325 degree F
(ii)325 TO 500 degree (iii)
325 to 600 degree F
(iv)
500 to 725
degree F
87.
Some aluminum alloys develop their full properties as a result of solution heat treatment followed by :
(i)
Quenching
(ii)
Soaking
(iii)
Aging for about four days
(iv)
As in (iii) and aging
at room temperature
88.
Artificial and age hardening treatment is given at temperature :
(i)
365 to 380 F
(ii)
465 to 480 F
(iii)
As in 1 and for approximately 6 hrs will greatly improve the mechanical properties
(iv)
As in (ii) and for approximately 3 hrs will greatly improve the mechanical properties
89.
Ageing of heat treated alloy may be retarded:
(i)
for about 24 hrs
(ii)
As in (i) provided kept at or below temperature of 32 F
(iii)
By precipitation heat treatment (iv)
As in (iii) and kept at a room temperature for 24 hrs
90.
Spherodizing is a form of :
(i)
annealing above lower critical temperature and making globular ferrite structure in cementite matrix.
(ii)
Annealing below lower critical temperature and making globular cementile structure in ferrite matrix
(iii)
Annealing above lower critical temperature and making lamellar structure of ferrite and cementile
(iv)
None of the above
91.
In solution heat treatment of magnesium alloy
(i)
Welding the metal at high temperature for sufficient time and quenched in water
(ii)
Welding the metal a high temperature for sufficient time and quenched in air
(iii)
Welding the metal at high temperature for sufficient time and quenched in furnace
(iv)
None of the above
92.
The reheating of a heat treated metal, such as with a welding torch

(i)
Has little or no effect on a metals heat-treated characteristics
(ii)
Can significantly alter a metals properties in the reheated area
(iii)
Has accumulative enhancement effect on the original heat treatment
93.
Solution heat treatment magnesium alloy , the soaking time ranges form
(i)
10 to 18 hours (ii)
5 to 10 hours (iii)
As in 10 and 18 hours may be necessary for castings over
2 in thickness
(iv)
As in 3 and 10 hours
94.
What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or tempering treatment?
(i)
3003-F
(ii)
5052-H36.
(iii)
6061 O
(iv)
7156- T
95.
Precipitation heat treatment of Aluminum alloys consist in heating the material for
(i)
24 to 48 hrs
(ii)
At a temperature around 300 F (iii)
As in (ii) and for 8 to 24 hrs
(iv)
As in (i) at a temp of 600 F