SECTIONAL TEST:DI

TIME:1Hr

Direction (Qs. 1 to 4) : Study the following table to answer these questions:

AVAILABILITY AND DEMAND FOR VARIOUS CATEGORIES OF STEEL IN INDIA
RAILWAYS.
S. No.
1.
2.
3.

Category
Shapes
Flats
Railways material

1999-2000
Demand
Availability
6960
5725
4360
5020
400
550

2003-04
Demand
Availability
9745
9360
6300
6600
450
560

1.

If the demand for each category of steel is to be met in 2003-04, then the additional quantity of
steel that is to be produced is
I. 110 thousand tones of railway material.
II. 300 thousand tones of flats.
II. 385 thousand tones of shapes.
1.
I only
2.
III only
3.
II only
4.
Both II and III

2.

The Except percentage growth in the demand for railway material over the five-year period
from 1999-2000 to 2003-04 is.
1.
11
2.
1/8
3.
37.5
4.
12.5

3.

The percentage change in the shortfall of shapes over the five-year period from 1999-2000 to
2003-04 is expected to be
1.
+40
2.
+221
3.
-68
4.
-221

4.

Which one of the following statements is necessarily true?

1. The demand for shapes as a percentage of the total demand for steel was almost the same
for 1999-2000 and 2003-04.
2. The shortage of shapes is only due to excess availability of flats and railway material.
3. The demand for railway materials as a percentage of the total demand for steel was less in
1999-2000 than in 2003-04.
4. The rate of growth in demand for shapes is greater than the rate of growth in supply of
shapes.
PICTURE 15

5.

The average speed the train maintained between two successive stations was maximum
between
1.
E-F
2.
F-G
3.
G-H
4.
Both G-H and F-G

6.

Between how many pairs of consecutive stations does the speed run below the overall average
speed of the entire trip?
1.
4
2.
1
3.
3
4.
2

7.

If the train stops at each city for 30% more time than what it is at the moment, then at what
time will it reach the city H after departing from City A as per schedule?
1.
Data insufficient
2.
17 : 03
3.
16 : 41
4.
16 : 58

8.

The train begins its onward journey from City A ant it is extended to beyond city H to a City M
due to some unavoidable reason The train starts its return journey immediately after it reached
city M. the train returns with a speed of 90 km/hr without any stoppages in between and
reaches city A at 2 : 25 AM. Find the distance between City H and City M.
1.
40 Km
2.
90 km
3.
70 km
4.
10 km

Direction (Qs. 129 to 132) : Examine the following bar graphs to answer these questions :
TRANSPORTATION SCHEDULE OF A COMPANY FROM ITS
WAREHOUSE TO ITS OUTLETS.

To

9.

If only warehouse W2 was available, then the minimum cost at which it can supply all the
quantity available is 1.
Rs. 1,750
2.
Rs. 750
3.
Rs. 1,250
4.
Rs. 950

10.

If each warehouse is allowed to supply to only one outlet so that the quantity required for the
outlet is fully met from the quantity available at the warehouse, then the cost to be incurred is
1.
Rs 4,900
2.
Rs. 5,000
3.
Rs. 5,500
4.
Rs. 4,700

11.

If the outlet Y alone is available, then cost of transporting 100 units from each of the warehouse
W1, W2, W3 is
2

1.
3.
12.

Rs. 1,500
Rs. 1,400

2.
4.

Rs. 2,000
Rs. 1,600

If goods in W1 are rejected due to manufacturing defect and the corresponding supplies are
made from W3, then the cost incurred in transporting the shipped quantity is
1.
Rs. 2,620
2.
Rs. 2,740
3.
Rs. 2,670
4.
Rs. 2,690

Direction (Qs. 133 to 136) : Study the following table to answer these questions:
PROJECTD POUPLATION OF LIGHT
MONITOR VEHICLES (IN MILLIONS)
S. No.
Country
1975
1.
United States
141
2.
Japan
120
3.
France
67
4.
China
63
5.
Italy
18
6.
Germany
21
7.
U.K.
15
8.
Canada
5
9.
Switzerland
1.5

2030
382
238
164
117
61
58
47
17
3

13.

The average population of LMVs of the middle three countries in 1975 bears to the average
population of bears to the average population of LMVs of the last three countries a ratio of
nearly 1.
19 : 4
2.
11 : 3
3.
7:2
4.
5:1

14.

The percentage growth of the average population of LMVs for the last three countries between
the year 1975 and 2030 is approximately
1.
71
2.
212
3.
172
4.
221

15.

For China, assuming a linear growth in LMVs population, extrapolate nearly, when will the
growth in population be 108% beyond the year 2030?
1.
2048
2.
2050
3.
2032
4.
2038

16.

The percentage growth of the projected LMVs population between 1975 and 2030 among the
last five countries is maximum in
1.
Italy
2.
Switzerland
3.
Canada
4.
U.K.

Direction (Qs. 17 to 20) : Study the following table to answer these questions:
3

ALLOTMENT OF SHARES BY A MULTINATIONAL COMPANY

No. of Shares Applied for
No. of Shares
Ratio of Allottees to
No. of Allottees
Allotted
Applicants
100
100
1 : 50
8001
200-500
100
2 : 41
7624
600-900
200
1 : 15
6202
1000-3000
200
3 : 28
1515
3100-10000
200
1:6
1633
10200-21000
300
2:5
404
25000
350
1 :1
11
17.

Find the total number of applicants who had applied for 3100-25000 shares.
1.
2048
2.
10819
3.
445
4.
7562

18.

Find the average number of shares allotted to an allottee?

1.
100
2.
150
3.
140
4.
200

19.

Find the ratio between the number of applicants who applied for 1000-3000 shares and those
for 10200-21000 shares.
1.
56 : 15
2.
15 : 56
3.
70 : 3
4.
14 : 1

20.

If the face value of a share is Rs.100 and the company wanted subscription of 1 lakh rupees,
then how much was it oversubscribed?
1.
Rs.45,000
2.
Rs.4,500
3.
Rs.15,000
4.
Rs.10,000

Direction (Qs. 21 to 24) : Study the following pie charts to answer these questions:
DIRECTION OF WORKFORCE IN A COMPANY

Calcutta
Delhi 16%
Chennai
19%

15%

Hy derabad
28%

Mumbai
22%

21.

If 22% of the Production department persons are posted at Hyderabad region, then what % of
Hyderabad workforce are in Production department?
1.
13.5
2.
78
3.
68
4.
22

22.

How many supervisors are posed in Calcutta region?

1.
1237
2.
985
3.
1144
4.
Data insufficient

23.

If 11% officers of the company are in Administration and Accounts department of which 75%
are posted at Calcutta, then what % of total officers of the company are posted at
Administration and Accounts, Calcutta?
1.
11
2.
8.25
3.
3.75
4.
Data insufficient

24.

If under expansion programme, the company recruits 12% of workforce of Hyderabad and
Mumbai regions, but 6% of workforce of Calcutta region retires, and workforce at other
regions remains the same, then what will be the total workforce of the company?
1.
65,196
2.
68,238
3.
72,204
4.
69,430

Direction (Qs. 25 to 28) : This questions are based on the triangular diagram and bar diagram given
below, Study them carefully and answer:
PICTURE 18
The above triangle diagram shows the distribution of votes among three parties R,S and T in five
different constituencies in an election. The following diagram shows the total votes cast for the three
parties in these five constituencies.

25.

The constituency which casts more votes for S than for T is

1.
A
2.
C
3.
B
4.
D

26.

Which constituencies cat the same number of votes for Party R ?

1.
A, B
2.
B, E
3.
B, C
4.
None of these

27.

Total number of votes secured by T in the five constituencies together is

1.
2,000-4,000
2.
8,000-10,000
3.
4,000-6,000
4.
10,000-12,000

28.

If now party was voted by less than 25% or more than 50% of the total number of votes in the
five constituencies, then the total number of voters in the five constituencies should be between
1.
20,000 and 31,000
2.
21,000 and 31,400
3.
20,500 and 31,200
4.
21,500 and 32,000

Direction (Qs. 29 to 32) : Each of these questions is accompanied by three statements A, B and C
you have to determine which statement(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the given question:
29.

Find three positive consecutive even numbers.

A. The average of four consecutive even numbers starting from the last of the given numbers
is 17.
B. The difference of the highest and the lowest number is 4.
3. The sum of the squares of the three numbers is 440.
1.
A alone is sufficient
2.
C is sufficient
3.
A and B are sufficient
4.
Either A or c is sufficient.

30.

Sonus income is how much more than Monus ?

A. Sonus income is 30% less than her husbands whose provident fund deduction at the rate
of 55 is Rs.975 per month.
B. Monus income is30% of her income on house rent, 15% of which is electricity bill.
C. Sonus expenditure on house rent is Rs.4,500 more than that of the Monus
1.
Only B and C are sufficient
2.
Any two statements are sufficient
3.
Only A and C are sufficient
4.
Even all together are not sufficient.

31.

Find our the share of B out of the combined share of A, B and C of Rs.946.
A. The share of A is 2 / 9 of the combined share of B and C.
B. The share of B is 3 / 19 of the combined share of A and C.
C. the share of c is 2,143 times the combined share of B and A.
1.
Only statements A and C are sufficient.
2.
Only statement B is sufficient
3.
Any two statements are sufficient
4.
Either statements A and C together or B alone is sufficient

32.

Mohan is 6 years older than Sohan. What will be the sum of their present ages?
A. After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will be 6 : 5.
B. The ratio of their present ages is 5 : 4.
C. 6 years ago, the ratio of their ages was 4 : 3.
1.
Only B is sufficient
2.
Only B is sufficient
3.
Only A is sufficient
4.
Any one of A, B and C is sufficient.
6

Direction (Qs. 33 to 36) : Each of these questions consists of a question and the two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are
sufficient to answer the given question. Read both the statements and give answer as.
(1) If the data in I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer.
(2) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
(3) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer.
(4) If the data even in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the
question.
33.

In a two-digit number, the digit at units place is 4 more than the digit at the tens place. Find
the two-digit number.
I.
Sum of their digits is 10.
II. The difference between the number and the number obtained by interchanging the
positions of the digits is 36.

34.

What is the average age of the children in a class?

I.
The age of the teacher is as many years as the number of children
II. The average age increases by year if the teachers age is also included.

35.

Which newspaper has the maximum circulation in Delhi.

I.
2 lakh copies of newspaper X are sold in Delhi while the circulation of newspaper Y is
estimated at 3 lakh.
II. The circulation of newspaper Y is 55 percent of the total circulation of newspapers.

36. What is the difference between the shares of profit of Rekha and Nutan out of a profit of
Rs.6,000 at the end of the year?
I.
Rekha invested Rs.50,000and withdrew Rs.1,000 after 4 months.
II. For the last 8 months, Nutans capital was 125% of the Rekhas.
Direction (Qs. 37 to 40) : These questions consist of two quantities, one in Column A and one in
column B. You are to compare the two quantities. Make answer as
(1) If the quantity in Column A is grater.
(2) If the two quantities are equal.
(3) If the quantity in Column B is greater.
(4) If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
Column A
Column B
37.
(-3)8
(-3) 9
38.

9 682 7

10 682 6

39.

c2d2e2/c3d3e3

ced/3

40.

0.0005

%
Page : 66 72

Direction (Qs. 161 to 165) : In each of these problems, two statements containing certain data follow
a question. Determine whether the data provided by the statements are sufficient to answer the given
question. Choose the correct answer based upon the statements data, your knowledge of
mathematics, and your familiarity with every day facts :
Mark your answer as
1. If statement (A) by itself is sufficient to answer the given question, but statement (B) by
itself is not.
2. If statements (A) and (B) taken together are sufficient to answer the given question, even
though neither statement by itself is sufficient.
3. If statement (B) by itself is sufficient to answer the given question but statement (A) by
itself is not.
4. If either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the given question.
161. Does rectangle A have a greater perimeter than rectangle B?
I.
The length of a side of rectangle A is twice the length of a side of rectangle B.
II. The area of rectangle A is twice the area of rectangle B.
162. If there is an average of 250 words on each page, then how many pages can Michael read in an
hour?
I.
There is an average of 25 ten-word lines on each page.
II. Michael can read 30 ten-word lines per minute.
163. If he did not stop along the way, then what speed did Bill average on his 3-hour trip?
I.
He traveled a total of 120 miles.
II. He traveled half the distance at 30 miles per hour and half the distance at 60 miles per
hour.
164. On a certain construction crew, there are 3 carpenters for every 2 painters. What percent of the
entire crew are carpenters or painters?
I.
Eighteen percent of the crew are carpenters.
II. Twelve percent of the crew are painters.
165. Are at least 30 percent of the people in City H who are 30 years old or older bilingual?
I.
In City H, 30 percent of the population is at least 30 years old.
II. In City h, of the population 30 years old or older, 18 percent of the women and 17 percent
of the men are bilingual.
Direction (Qs. 166 to 170) : The forecasts of the World and Asian energy demand for the years 2005,
2010 and 2020 are given in the following table. The demand is given in million barrels per day crude
oil equivalent:
2005
2010
2020
World
Asia
World
Asia
World
Asia
Petroleum
56.0
8.0
86.0
11.5
108.0
18.0
Natural Gas
38.0
1.5
67.0
2.5
96.0
4.5
Solid Fuels
46.0
6.0
54.0
13.0
67.0
15.4
Nuclear
8.0
2.0
9.0
4.8
12.0
5.5
Hydropower
12.0
1.5
14.0
2.2
17.0
4.6
Total
160.0
19.0
230.0
34.0
300.0
48.0
166. Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand will increase continuously over
the period 2005-20020 in Asia?
8

1.
3.

Natural Gas
Hydropower

2.
4.

Both Natural Gas and Hydropower

Nuclear

167. Which is the fuel whose proportion in the total energy demand will remain unaltered from 2005
to 2010 in Asia?
1.
Petroleum
2.
Solid fuels
3.
Natural Gas
4.
Nuclear
168. For which source of energy is the demand is 2020 as a ratio of demand in 2005 in the Asian
region the greatest?
1.
Natural Gas
2.
Nuclear
3.
Solid fuels
4.
Hydropower
169. Which is the fuel for which demand in the rest of the world (excluding Asia) as a proportion of
total energy demand of the world (including Asia) shows continuous decrease over the period?
1.
Solid fuels and Natural Gas
2.
Hydropower ad Petroleum
3.
Solid fuels and Hydropower
4.
None of these.
170. Over 2005-2020, which two fuels meet more than 60 percent of the total energy demand of the
World and Asia both?
1.
Nuclear and Hydropower
2.
Nuclear and Solid fuels
3.
Hydropower and Solid fuels
4.
None of these.
Direction (Qs. 171 to 175) : Study the following line graphs showing the production (in 0000) and
percentage exported of scooters, motorbikes and cars respectively over the years:

171. In which of the following years was the production of cars more than 50% of the total
production?
9

1.
3.

2000
1998

2.
4.

2001
1996

172. Find the total number of automobiles exported in the year 1999
1.
227600
2.
207600
3.
217600
4.
220000
173. Find the ratio of cars, scooters and motorbikes exported in 1996.
1.
26 : 16 : 19
2.
16 : 25 : 19
3.
19 : 16 : 25
4.
6:5:1
174. If the ratio of export prices of a car, scooter and motorbike was 2 : 1 : 1.5 in 199, then what was
the proportion of their export earnings?
1.
4:2:3
2.
6 : 1 : 21
3.
30 : 16 : 21
4.
Cannot be determined
175. In which of the following years was the production of motorbikes exactly 405 of the total
production of automobiles in the year
1.
1997
2.
2000
3.
1998
4.
1996
Direction (Qs. 175 to 180) : A survey was conducted in five cities, viz. Pune, Kanpur, Raisen, Surat
and Trivandrum, for the percentage of people using T(trains0, B (buses), C (cars); as modes of
transport. The number of persons surveyed in the cities; Pune, Kanpur, Raisen, Surat and Trivandrum
are 2000, 4000, 6000, 3000 and 8000 respectively. Refer to the data in the following triangular bar
diagram to answer the questions:
Trains
T:
100

B:
25
T:
75

B : 50
T:
50

B:
75

T:
25

B:10
0

10

Cars

Buses
C : 100

C: 75

C :50

C:

176. The city where the least number of persons use buses is
1.
Surat
2.
Raisen
3.
Kanpur
4.
Pune
177. The average number of persons using trains for transportation in Pune, kanpur,Raisen, and
Trivandrum is
1.
1880
2.
1750
3.
1950
4.
None of these
178. The mode of transport used by the least number of persons in all the given cities is
1.
Train
2.
Buses
3.
Cars
4.
Cars and Buses
179. Among the given five cities, the cities where less than 30% of the people use cars for transport
are
1.
Kanpur and Trivandrum
2.
Pune, Kanpur and Raisen
3.
Pune and Raisen
4.
Pune, Kanpur and Surat

180. Which of the following statements I not true ?

(1) 50% of the people use trains for transport in the cities Kanpur and Raisen.
(2) In Trivandrum, more than 50% of the people use cars for transport.
(3) More percentage of people use buses for transport in Surat Than in Pune.
11

(4) In Raisen, there are more percentage of people using trains for transport than buses.
Direction (Qs. 181 to 185) : Study the following graphs showing the seats won and the percentage of
valid votes polled for different political parties in Gujarat over the years:

181. If the total number of valid votes in 2002 Gujarat elections was 5 crore, then find the average
number of votes for winning one seat for other political parties.
1.
11 lakh
2.
1.10 lakh
3.
1.10 crore
4.
Data is inadequate
182. In which of the following years was the number of seats won by BJP maximum with respect to
the previous given year?
1.
1998
2.
1995
3.
2002
4.
1995 & 2002
183. In 1998, if 2.24 crore votes were valid for BJP, whereas in 1990 there were 1.228 crore votes
valid for Congress, then by what percentage was the number of valid votes less in 1990 with
respect to that 1998?
1.
20%
2.
24%
3.
30%
4.
25%
184. In which of the following years did the BJP secure more than 66 2/3 % of the total seats?
1.
1990
2.
1998
3.
1995
4.
2002

12

185. In which of the following years, was the difference in the member of valid votes for any two
political parties the maximum?
1.
1990
2.
1998
3.
1995
4.
Cannot be determined
Direction (Qs. 186 to 190) : Study the following graphs showing the number of workers of different
categories of a factory for two different years. The total number of workers in 1998 was 2000 and in
2000 was 2400.

186. In which of the categories is the number of workers same in both the years?
1.
P
2.
S
3.
R
4.
T
187. Find the percentage increase in the number of workers in category U in 2000
1.
25%
2.
33 1/3 %
3.
50%
4.
66 2/3 %
188. What is the total number of increased workers for the categories in which the number of
workers has been increased?
1.
438
2.
382
3.
408
4.
168
189. Which of the following categories leave shown decrease in the number of workers from 1998
to 2000?
1.
P
2.
Q
3.
R
4.
T
190. Find the maximum difference between the number of workers of any two categories taken
together for any one year and that of any two for the other year.
1.
660
2.
416
3.
636
4.
502
Direction (Qs. 191 to 195) : The scatter diagram shows the number of students passing in the high
school examination in the given years from the four houses of a Public School :

13

191. The average number of students for each house who have passed in the given years is
1.
59
2.
52
3.
63
4.
56
192. The performance for which of the following houses is the best?
1.
Pearl
2.
Ruby
3.
Topaz
4.
Sapphire
193. For which of the following houses is the percentage change in the results maximum for any
year over the previous year?
1.
Topaz
2.
Pearl
3.
Sapphire
4.
Ruby
194. If the trend observed between 1999 and 2000 continues during the next year, then what will be
the number of students passing the exam in 2001?
1.
245
2.
237
3.
263
4.
255
195. The number of students keeps on increasing by 50 every year. In 1998, there were 250 students.
For which of the following years is the performance best in the school?
1.
1998
2.
2000
3.
1999
4.
Cannot be determined.
Direction (Qs. 196 to 200) : In each of these question, there is given a Statement followed by two
Assumptions. Consider the Statement and both the Assumptions to decide which of the Assumptions
is implicit in the statement. Give your answer as
(1) If only Assumption x is implicit.
(2) If only Assumption Y is implicit.
(3) If both the Assumptions X and Y are implicit, and
(4) If neither Assumption x nor Y is implicit
196. Statement :
Man is born free.
Assumptions:
X : Freedom is the birth right to man.
Y : All humans have human rights.
197. Statement :
Laugh and the world will laugh with you.
14

Assumptions:
X : People generally laugh.
Y : Laughter symbolizes happiness.
198. Statement :
There is no need to open a school here.
Assumptions:
X : Children in this area do not study
Y : There are already many schools in this area.
199. Statement:
Owing to stress and fast pace of life, your digestive system is attacked.
Assumptions:
X : There is stress and fast pace of life, your digestive system is attacked.
Y : Digestive system has no defence.
200. Statement :
Barking dogs seldom bite.
Assumptions:
X : Dogs always bark.
Y : Some dogs bite.

15

Page : 105-113
Section III : Data Analysis And Sufficiency
Direction (Qs. 81 to 85) : Each of these items has a question followed by two statements numbered I
and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
given question. Read both the statements and mark your answer as.
(1) If the data is statement II alone are sufficient to answer the given question, while the data in
statement I alone are not sufficient to answer.
(2) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the given question, while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer.
(3) If the data either in statement I alone are in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
given question.
(4) If the data given in both the statements I and Ii together are not sufficient to answer the given
question.
81.

How much minimum marks will be required to pass an examination?

I. Student A secured 32% marks in that examination and he failed by 1 mark. Student B
secured 36% marks in the same examination and his marks were 1 more than the
minimum pass marks.
II. Student A secured 30% of full marks in the examination and he failed by 2 marks. If he
had secured 5 more marks, then his percentage of marks would have been 40%.

82.

X, Y and Z are integers. Is X an odd number?

I. An odd number is obtained when x is divided by 5
II. (X+Y) is an odd number.

83.

What selling price should be marked on the article?

I. Discount of 5% is to be given and profit percentage should be double the discount.
Purchase price is in the range of Rs.300 Rs.4.00
II. 10% discount is to be allowed and 15% profit is to be obtained on the purchase price of
Rs.200 of the article.

84.

What is the height of a right-angled triangle?

I. The area of the right-angled triangle is equal to the area of a rectangle whose breadth is
12 cm.
II. The length of the rectangle is 18 cm.

85.

A, B and C are integers. Is b an even number?

I. (A + B) is an odd number.
II. (C + B) is an odd number.

16

Direction (Qs. 86 to 88) : Each of these items has a question and three statements numbered I, II and
III. You have to decide that the data in which of the statements are sufficient to answer the given
question :
86.

How much will be the cost of carpeting a rectangular hall ?

I. Perimeter of the hall is 60 m.
II. Angle between the width and the hypotenuse is 600.
III. The cost of carpeting the floor of the hall is Rs.125 per sq. M.
(1) Only II and III
(2) Only I and II
(3) Only I and III or, Only II and III
(4) All the three statements I, II and III together re necessary for answering the given
question.

87.

In how many days can a work be completed by A and B together ?

I. A alone can complete the work in 8 days.
II. If a alone works for 5 days and B alone works for 5 alone works for 6days, then the
work gets completed.
III. B alone can complete the work in 16 day.
(1) II and either I or III
(2) Any tow of the three
(3) I and II only
(4) Ii and III only

88.

What is the two-digit number?

I. The difference between the two digit number and the number formed by interchanging
the digits is 27.
II. The difference between the two digits is 3.
III. The digit at the units place is less than that at the ten places by 3.
(1) Only I and either II or III
(2) Only I and II
(3) Only I and III
(4) Even with all the three statements.

Direction (Qs. 89 to 90) : Each of these items has a question followed by three statements marked A,
B and C. Decide which statement(s) is/are redundant and not required to answer the given question:
89.

90.

The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest at the same rate on a
certain amount at the end of two years is Rs.12.50. What is the rate of interest?
I. Simple interest for two years is Rs.500.
II. Compound interest for two years is Rs.512.50
III. Amount on simple interest after two years becomes Rs.5,500.00
(1) A or C only
(2) A or B only
(3) C only
(4) Any two or a, B and C

What is the area of aright-angled triangle?

17

I. The perimeter of the triangle is 30 cm.

II. The ratio between the base and the height of the triangle is 5 : 12.
III. The area of the triangle is equal to the area of the rectangle of length 10 cm.
(1) Only A and B together are required.
(2) Only B and C together are required.
(3) Only either A or B and C together are required.
(4) Name of these.
Direction (Qs. 91 to 92) : Study the information given below to answer these questions:
Investing in real estate would be a profitable venture at this time. A survey in Hose magazine reveled
that 85% of the magazines readers are planning to buy a second home over the next few years. A
study of the real estate industry, however, revealed that the current supply of homes could only
provide for 65 % of that demand each year.
91. Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in the evidence cited above?
(1) Home builders are not evenly distributed across the country.
(2) Real estate is a highly labour intensive business.
(3) The number of people who want second home has been increasing each year for the past 10
years.
(4) Readers of House magazine are more likely than most people to want second home.
92.

Which of the following, if true, would undermine the validity of the investment advice in the
paragraph above.
About half of the people who buy homes are investing in their first home.
Some home-owners are satisfied with only one home.
Only a quarter of the homes that are built are sold within the first 2 weeks.
Only a quarter of those who claim that they want a second home actually end up purchasing one.
Directions (Qs 93-95) : Examine the following graph to answer these questions :
GROSS RECEIPTS (in Rs.) OF FAST FOOD RESTURANTS 2002-2004

18

93.

The 2002-2004 gross receipts for Mega Burger exceeded those of Pizza Pie by approximately
Rs.
1.
2 million
2.
0.2 million
3.
8.2 million
4.
8.4 million

94.

The percent increase in receipts for Pizza Pie exceeded the percent increase of Mega Burger by
approximately how much in the given period?
1.
2%
2.
0%
3.
10%
4.
15%

95.

The 2004 decline in Crunchy chicken receipts may be attributed.

1.
Increase in popularity of Pizzas 2.
Increase in popularity of burgers
3.
Decrease in demand for chicken 4.
Cannot be determined.

Direction (Qs 96-98) : Each of these questions consists of two quantities, one in column A and one in
column B. compare the two quantities and mark your answer as
(1)
If the quantity in Column B is greater.
(2)
If the quantity in column A is greater.
(3)
If the two quantities are equal.
(4)
If the relationship cannot be established from the information given.
Column A
Column B
96. The number of posts needed for a fence
12 posts
144 m long when they are placed 12 m apart
97.

3%

3(35/1000)

98.

The average of 81, 60%, 1

Direction (Qs. 99-100) Refer to the following bar chart to answer these questions :
CHART - 108
99.

Australias exports to Japan, South Asia and Russia in 2004 were approximately ____
thousands.
1.
160
2.
185
3.
270
4.
Cannot be determined

100. In the given year, total domestic demand of Russia and East Europe is ______ thousands
1.
More than 50
2.
50
3.
Less than 50
4.
Cannot be determined

Directions: (Questions 101-102) : Study ad analyse the table given below to answer these questions :
PROCUCTION, EXPORT AND CONSUMPTION OF COFFEE
19

Year
1992-93
1998-99
1999-2000
2000-01
2001-02
2002-03
2003-04

Production on
Qty.

Export
Qty.

Rs. Crore

1.70
2.05
2.28
2.56
2.92
3.01
3.06

1.00
1.81
1.79
2.12
2.45
2.47
2.13

279
1467
1708
1752
1901
1374
1050

(Qty. in lakh tones)

Domestic
consumption
US $ Million
Qty.
108
0.54
452
0.55
477
0.50
431
0.50
477
0.55
334
0.58
146
0.60

101. The highest percentage of domestic consumption with reference to the production of coffee has
been in the year ______ the given period.
1.
2002-03
2.
2003-04
3.
1998-99
4.
1992-93
102. During the given period, though the largest quantity of coffee exported has been _____ lakh
tones, the foreign exchange earned in dollars has been the highest in the year
1.
2.47, 1999-2000
2.
3.01, 2001-2002
3.
3.06, 1999-2000
4.
None of these
Direction : (Qs. 103-106) : Answer these questions based on the data given in the following table
which shows the installment amounts for monthly repayments (in Rupees) on housing society loans
for different periods:
Loan Amount
(Rs.)
1,00,000
2,00,000
10,00,000
15,00,000
20,00,000

10
1250
2500
12950
19400
25900

Payment period (Years)

15
20
1050
900
2050
1800
10300
9000
15450
13500
20600
18000

25
850
1600
8450
12650
16800

103. How much more money would be paid o a loan of Rs.20,00,000 taken out over a period of 20
years compared to the same loan taken out over a period of 15 years?
1.
Rs. 4,25,000
2.
Rs. 3,00,000
3.
Rs. 5,50,000
4.
Rs. 6,12,000
104. What is the total amount repaid over 25 years on a loan of Rs.15,00,000?
1.
Rs. 37,95,000
2.
Rs. 22,50,000
3.
Rs. 45,30,000
4.
Rs. 55,70,000
105. The monthly repayment on a loan of Rs. 15,00,000 over 20 years is reduced to Rs.12,500. By
how much would this reduce the total amount on the loan over the full period?
1.
Rs. 2,40,000
2.
1,30,000
3.
Rs. 2,24,000
4.
1,26,000

20

106. Instead of taking a loan of Rs. 10,00,000 with a repayment period of 15 years, the society
proposed to take a loan of Rs.15,00,000 to be paid back in 10 years to provide for a generator
set. What is the cumulative financial impact.
1.
Rs. 4,74,000
2.
5,54,000
3.
Rs. 5,67,000
4.
Cannot be assessed.
Direction (Qs. 107-109) The pie chart given below shows the funding arrangements for national
highways Development Projects Phase 1. Study the chart carefully to answer these
questions :

107. Nearly 25% of the funding arrangement is through

1.
External assistance
2.
Cess/Market borroweing
3.
Annuity
4.
SPVS
108. The angle of the segment formed of the center of the pie chart representing Cess/Market
Borrowing is approximately.
1.
1000
2.
900
3.
1800
4.
2000
109. If the tall is to be collected through on outsourced agency by allowing a maximum of 10%
commission, then how much amount should be permitted to be collected by the outsourced
agency, so that the project is supported with Rs.1,690 Crore?
1.
Rs. 1,859 Crore
2.
Rs. 1,690 Crore
3.
Rs. 16,900 Crore
4.
Inadequate data
Direction (Qs. 110-113) : These questions are based on graphs 1 and 2. Graph 1 represents the
performance of three students for time taken in a learning task across fire trials, while Graph
represent errors mode across them:

21

Graph -1

Graph -2

110. Which student is a better performer on the basis of the time grpah?
1.
Student two
2.
Student one
3.
Student three
4.
Cannot be said for the given information.

111. Who is better performer on the basis of the errors graph?

1.
Student two
2.
Student one
3.
Student three
4.
None of the.
112. Who is a better performer if improvements in both time as well as errors are taken into
account?
1.
Student two
2.
Student one
3.
Student three
4.
None of them
113. Suppose an inverse relationship exists between time and errors, i.e. if a student tries to reduce
time, then the errors increase, and vice versa. In which case is this relationship the most
pronounced?
1.
Student two
2.
Student one
22

3.

Student three

4.

None of them

Direction : (Qs. 114-117) : Refer to the following tables A, B and C to answer these questions :
TABLE A : MANPOWER FOR A BUILDING PROJECT IN NARHI
Project
Phase
Design
Foundation
Construction
Finishing
(internal)
Painting

Skilled
Managers
1
1
1
1

Unskilled
Engineers
3
2
2
3

Skilled
Workers
5
12
15

Unskilled
Workers
23
43
31

Supervisors

23

2
4
6

TABLE B : COST PER MONTH FOR SELECT CATEGORY OF WORKERS

Manpower

Cost (in Rs.)

10,000
8,000
5,000
3,000
1,800

Managers
Engineers
Supervisors
Skilled workers
Unskilled workers

TABLE C : ESTIMATED TIME AND THE ACTUAL TIME REQUIRED FOR EACH PHASE OF
THE PROJECT IN MONTHS
Actual
Estimated

Design
5
3

Foundation
3
2

Construction
8
6

Finishing
4
3

Painting
2
2

114. The phase in which there was the highest absolute increase between the estimated and actual
costs is.
1.
Design
2.
Foundation
3.
construction
4.
Cannot be determined
115. For which phase of the project was there the highest percentage increase in cost (as compared
to the estimated cost)?
1.
Design
2.
Foundation
3.
construction
4.
Cannot be determined
116. What is the value of the percentage over flow in costs during construction (approximately)?
1.
33.33%
2.
50%
3.
66.666%
4.
None of theses
117. If internal finishing and painting can be started simultaneously at the end of construction, then
what is the overflow of the project as a percentage of the estimated total time of completion of
the project.
23

1.
3.

33.33%
42.85 %

2.
4.

27.27%
Cannot be determined.

Direction (Qs. 118-120) : Refer to the graph given below which gives the circulation growth of
Gramsewa Magazine from July to December 2003.

118. During November and December, there was an even growth rate, the average of which is
1.
2%
2.
2.36%
3.
2.88%
4.
3.36%
119. The circulation in October is _____ time than that of July.
1.
2
2.
1.5
3.
1
4.
1.15
120. The growth rate is very marginal during the month of
1.
October
2.
August
3.
November
4.
December

24

msti
SECTIONAL TEST : INTELLIGENCE & CRITICAL REASONING

TIME:50

(Direction (Qs-1-3) Study the information given below to answer these questions:
I.
II.
III.
IV.
V.
VI.
VII.

There is a family of 5 persons A, B,C, D and E.

They are working as a teacher, trader, a lawyer and a farmer.
B, an unmarried teacher, is the daughter of A.
E, a lawyer, is the brother of C.
C is the husband of the only married couple in the family.
A, a farmer, is a father of two sons and an unmarried daughter.
Daughter-in-law of A is a doctor.

1.

Which of the following is a group of female members in the family?

1.
D and E
2.
B and D
3.
A, C and E
4.
B and C

2.

Which of the following is the married couple?

1.
C and D
2.
3.
A and D
4.

3.

A and B
B and D

Which of the following is a group of male numbers in the family?

1.
B and D
2.
A, B and C
3.
A, C and E
4.
A, C and D

Direction : (Qs. 4-5) Find the set which is most similar to the given set:
4.

5.

given Set : (6, 15, 28)

1.
(46, 56, 66)
3.
(60, 69, 72)

2.
4.

(50, 59, 71)

(60, 69, 82)

Given Set : (81, 77, 69)

1.
(64, 61, 53)
3.
(92, 88, 79)

2.
4.

(56, 52, 44)

(75, 71, 60)

Direction : (Qs. 6-8) : six products U, v, W, X, Y and Z are to be placed in display windows of a shop. There are six
display windows 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and one product is to be displayed in one window. Moreover U cannot be displayed
immediately to the left or immediately to the right of V, W must be displayed immediately to the left of X, Z cannot
be displayed in window number 6.
6.
1.
3.

Which of the following products cannot be displayed in window number 1?

V
2.
U
W
4.
X

7.

If X is displayed in window number 3, then W must be displayed in which window?

1.
2
2.
1
3.
4
4.
5

8.

If U is displayed in window number 5, then which of the following products must be displayed in window
number 6?
1.
W
2.
V
3.
X
4.
Y

Direction (Qs. 9-11) : Study the information given below to answer these questions. Mark your answer as

25

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

If both A and R are correct but R does not explain A.

If both A and Ra are correct and R explains A.
If A is correct but R is wrong.
If A is wrong but R is correct.

9.

Assertion (A) : A saltwater fish drink sea water a fresh water shish never drinks water.
Reason (R) : A saltwater fish is hypertonic to its environment while a freshwater fish is hypotonic to its
environment.

10.

Assertion (A) : The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States taken together.
Reason (R) : India is a Union of States.

11.

Assertion (A) : Alcohol rather than mercury is used in a thermometer to measure a temperature of 60 0C.
Reason (R) : Alcohol has a lower freezing point than mercury.

Direction : (Qs. 12-14) : read the following information to answer these questions :
A, B, C, D and E are Five towns out of which two are hill station and the rest are in plaints. Two towns, which are
in plains. Two towns, which are in plains, are harbours. Four towns out of five are capitals and two are industrial
towns. Population of two towns is less than 5 lakh. It is 20 lakh of one town and more than 50 lakh of two towns.
Two towns are on the same latitudes and the other two are on the same longitudes. Latitudes and longitudes of both
the harbours are different and out of these one is an industrial town. The population of both the industrial town. The
population of both the industrial towns is more than 50 lakh. The longitudes of one hill station and one of the
industrial towns are same. The latitudes and longitudes of the other hill station and the other harbour are different.
One industrial town is neither a hill station nor a harbour. None of the hill stations is an industrial town. The hill
station of which longitudes are same as that of a harbour, is a capital. B is a hill station while the longitudes of A
and E are same. E is a harbour. The latitudes of D and C are same and the population of D is 20 lakh. Both the
barbours are capitals and one of them is an industrial town.
12.

Which of the following two towns have population of less than 5 lakh?
1.
B and C
2.
D and A
3.
A and B
4.
A and C

13.

Which of the following is a harbour, a capital and an industrial town?

1.
B
2.
A
3.
C
4.
E

14.

Which of the following towns have population of more than 50 lakh?

1.
B and E
2.
A and D
3.
C and E
4.
C and D

Directions (Qs. 15-17) : in each of the number series given in these question, the two terms have been put within
brackets. Mark your answer as
(1) If the first bracket term is right and the second is wrong.
(2) If both the bracketed terms and right.
(3) If the first bracketed term is wrong and the second is right.
(4) If both the bracketed terms are wrong.
15.

4, 6, 10, (12), 16, (14), 22

16.

3, 10, 29, (66), (127), 218

17.

(2), 5, (12), 25, 41, 61

Direction (Qs. 18-20) : Study the following information carefully to answer these questions:

26

At an Electronic Data Processing Unit, five out of the eight program sets P.Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are to be
operated daily. On any one day, except for the first day of a month, only three of the program sets must be
the ones that were operated on the previous day.
The program operation must also satisfy the following conditions:
I.
If program P is to be operated on a day, then V cannot be operated on that day.
II.
If Q is to be operated on a day, then T must be one of the programs to be operated after Q.
III. If R is to be operated on a day, then V must be one of the programs to be operated after R.
IV. The last program to be operated on any day must be either S or U.
18.

Which of the following could be the set of programs to be operated on the first day of a month?
1.
U, Q, S, T, W
2.
V, Q, R, T, S
3.
T, U, R, V, S
4.
Q, S, R, V, U

19.

Which of the following is true of any days valid program set operation?
1.
Q cannot be operated at third place
2.
P cannot be operated at third place
3.
R cannot be operated of fourth place.
4.
T cannot be operated at third place.

20.

If R is operated at third place in a sequence, then which of the following cannot be the second program in
that sequence?
1.
S
2.
Q
3.
T
4.
U

Direction : (Qs. 21-23) : Read the following information to answer these questions:
For getting selected as a Marketing Manager in a company, the candidate must:
I.
Be a graduate with at least 50% marks.
II.
Have secured at least 405 marks in the Written Test.
III. Not be less than 24 years and more than 29 years as an 10 October, 1997.
IV. Should have work experience of at least two years as an officer.
However, if a candidate:
V.
Fulfills all other criteria except at (IV) above but has a diploma in marketing Management, his/her case is to
be referred to the General Managerm Narjetubg.
VI. Fulfills all other criteria except at (III) above but has worked as Marketing Officer at least for three years,
his/her case is to be referred to the Director, Marketing.
Based on the above criteria and the information given each of the questions 141 to 143, you have to take the
decision with regard to each case. You are not to assume anything. These cases are given to you as on 10
October, 1997.
Mark your answer as
(1) If the candidate is not to be appointed.
(2) If the candidate is to be appointed.
(3) If the data given are not sufficient to take the decision.
(4) If the candidate is to be referred to the general Manager, Marketing.
21. Anil Khanna, born on 5 June, 1973, has done his post-graduation in marketing Management with first class.
He has secured 50% marks in the Written Test. He has been working in an organization as a Marketing Officer for
the last four years.
22. Rohit Verma has been working in an organization as Officer for the last ten years. His date of birth is 17
February 1964. he has secured 60% marks in the Degree Examination on 40% marks in the Written test.
23. Manju Sharma is a first class graduate and has done a diploma in Marketing Management. She has secured
50% marks in the Written Test. She was 23 years old as on 5 September, 1996.
Direction (Qs. 24-27) : Use the information given below to answer these questions:
After months of talent searching for an Administrative Assistant to the President of the College, the Field of
applicants has been narrowed down to five(A, B, C, D and E). It was announced that the finalist would be chosen
after holding a series of all-day group personal interviews. The examining committee agreed upon the following
procedure:

27

I.
II.
III.
IV.

The Inter view will be held once a week.

Not more than 3 candidates will appear of any all-day interview session.
Each candidate will appear at least once.
Because of a detail in the written application, it was agreed that whenever Candidate B appears, A should
also be present.
V. Because of the travel difficulties, it was agreed that C will appear for only one interview.

24.

At the first interview, the following candidates appear : A, B and D. Which of the following combinations
can be called for the interview to be held the next week?
1.
CDE
2.
BCD
3.
ABE
4.
ABC

25.

Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in two successive weeks?
1.
ABD; ABE
2.
ABC : BDE
3.
ADE; ABC
4.
BDE; ACD

26.

If A, B and D appear at tHe interview and D is called for an additional interview the following week, then
which two candidates may be asked to appear with D ?
I.
A
II.
B
III. C
IV. E
1.
I and III only
2
I and II only
3.
II and III only
4.
III and IV only.

27.

Which of the following correctly states the procedure followed by the search committee?
I.
After the second interview, all the applicants have appeared at least once.
II.
The committee sees at least one applicant a second time.
III. If a third session is held, then it is possible for all the applicants to appear at least twice.
1.
II only
2.
I only
3.
I and Ii only
4.
III only

Direction (Qs. 28-30) : Study the information given below to answer these questions:
I
A Certain city is served by six subway lines, designated by the letters, A, B and C, and the numbers 1, 2 and
3.
II.
When it snows, morning service on the B line is delayed.
III. When it rains or snows, morning service on the B line is delayed.
IV. When the temperature drops below 300 F, afternoon service is cancelled on either the A line or the 3 line, but
not both.
V.
When the temperature rises above 900 F, afternoon service is cancelled on either the C line or the 3 line, but
not both.
VI. When service on the A line is delayed or cancelled, service on the C line, which connects the A line, is
delayed.
VII. When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line which connects the 3 line, is delayed.
28.

On January 10, with the temperature at 15 0F, it snows all day. On how many lines will the service be
affected, both in the morning as well as in the afternoon?
1.
3
2.
2
3.
4
4.
5

29.

On August 15, with the temperature at 97 0 F, it begins to rain at 1 p.m. What is the minimum number of lines
on which the service will be affected?
1.
3
2.
2
3.
4
4.
5

30.

On which of the following occasions would service on the greatest number of lines be disrupted?
1.
A snowy morning with temperature 450 F.
2.
A snowy afternoon with temperature 450F.
3.
A rainy morning with temperature 450F.
4.
A snowy afternoon with temperature 200F.

28

Direction : (Qs. 31-32): Use the statement given below to answer these questions:
All good athletes want to win and all athletes who want to win, eat a well balanced diet. Therefore, all athletes who
do not eat a well-balanced diet are bad athletes.
31.

If assumptions of the argument above are true, then which of the following statements must be true?
1.
No athlete who does not eat a well balanced diet is a good athlete.
2.
No bad athlete wants to win.
3.
Every athlete who eats a well balanced diet is a good athlete all athletes who want to win are good
athletes.

32.

Which of the following, if true, would refute the assumptions of the argument above.
1.
Bob, the accountant, eats a well-balanced diet, but he is not a good athlete.
2.
Ann wants to win, but she is not a good athlete.
3.
All the players on the Burros baseball team eat a well-balanced diet.
4.
Cindy, the basketball start, does not eat a well-balanced diet, but she is a good athlete.

Direction (Questions 33-40) : answer these questions independent of each other:

33.

The workers union of Grain Corp. a grain-processing plant, is attempting to obtain a pay raise from grain
crop management. To pressurize the Grain Corp Management into accepting the unions proposal, the
president of the union has proposed a boycott against Square Mart food stores, which are owned by Mega
Food, the parent company of the grain Crop.
The answer to which of the following is LEAST directly relevant to the union presidents consideration of
whether a boycott of SquareMart will lead to acceptance of their pay rate proposal?
1.
2.
3.
4.

Are the staple food products purchased by the consumers at SquareMart stores readily available at
other stores not owned by MegaFood?
Would the loss of business at SquareMart stores materially affect MegaFood?
How many SquareMarts are within the region of the GrainCrop plant?
Is mega food the only corporation that operates both grain-processing plants and food stores?

34.

The owner of a four-story commercial building discovered termites in the building discovered termites in the
buildings first and second floors and called an exterminator. The exterminator pumped gas into the walls on
both the first and second floors. Due to the exterminators work, the termites on those floors were killed
quickly.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously undermines the validity of the explanation for the speed with
which the termites were killed?
1.
Even though the exterminator did not pump gas into the walls of the fourth storey, the termites there
died as quickly as they did on the first and second storeys.
2.
The third floor had no termite infestation.
3.
The speed of which termites are killed increases as the concentration of an exterminators gas
increases.
4.
The speed with which the exterminators gas kills termites drops off sharply as the gas dissipates
throughout the buildings walls.

35.

A chemical company recently introduced a new type of foam spray that it claims will reduce the rate of
erosion from the walls of road cuts. A study by the company showed that the rate of erosion was low on a
road cut where the foam was applied.
Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the companys conclusion?
1.
Because the foam itself weathers, the foam would have to be replied every four years in order to
maintain protection against erosion.
2.
Read cuts similar to the one studied typically show low rtes of erosion without the foam.
3.
Studies by the company that produces the material are sometimes unreliable because of conflicts of
interest.
4.
The rate of erosion from the road cut in the study was greater than expected based on computer
simulation.

36.

The Laysan Rail, an insectivore bird once present on several of the Hawaiian Islands, can no longer be found
and is thought to be extinct. Scientists originally thought that a decrease in the amount of ground vegetation

29

available for nesting was responsible for the decline of the bird. However, they now believe that increased
competition for food was ultimately responsible for the Laysan Rails inability to survive.
Which of the following would best help to account for the change in the accepted explanation for the Laysan
Rails extinctions?
1.
When attempts were made to relocate the Layson Rail to other islands, the birds lost the geographical
cues that they relied on for finding mating sites.
2.
The vegetation on the Laysan Rails home island was decimated when rabbits wee introduced to the
island in the 1910s.
3.
The Laysan Rail builds nests under dense ground cover to protect the eggs.
4.
An increase in the use of pesticides resulted in a decrease in the numbers of files and months present in
the Laysan rails territory.
37.

Retail clothing stores hold one-day only, sales to clear merchandise that has been returned because it is
defective in some way. The stores should sell this merchandise for up to 70 percent less than the original
retail price. Stores will find these sales to be an effective way of getting rid of defective merchandise as long
as they inform customers that the discounted merchandise is non-returnable.
That author assumes which of the following about the one-day only sale merchandise in predicting the
effectiveness of these sales?
1.
2.
3.
4.

The rate of returns when merchandise is new makes these one-day only sales key to a stores
profitability.
The defects in the merchandise are not so significant that customers will be unwilling to pay even the
sale price.
Too few shoppers purchase merchandise at full retail price.
If these sales become popular, then stores will have to have them more often.

38.

Some men are certainly intelligent, other are certainly not intelligent, but of intermediate men, we should
say, intelligent? Yes, I think so, or no, I shouldnt be inclined to call him intelligent.
Which of the following most accurately reflects the intention of the write of the above?
1.
Every empirical concept has a degree of vagueness.
2.
To call men intelligent who are not strikingly so must be to use the concept with undue imprecision.
3.
Calling someone intelligent or not depends upon ones whim.
4.
There is no deed to be as indecisive as the writer of the above.

39.

A highly cohesive work group is a prerequisite for high team performance. Sociologists point that the
association between group cohesion and success is owing to the support individual team members given to
one another and their acceptance of the groups goals and activities.
Each of the following, if true, either provides support for or cannot weaken the sociologists assumption
about the relationship between cohesion and success EXCEPT.
1.
University researchers found that there was a significant correlation between team productivity and the
extent to which team members understood and complied with the groups objectives.
2.
A group of Japanese researchers found that successful work teams wee headed by dominant leaders.
3.
American researchers found that successful team members tended to rate their fellow members more
favourable.
4.
Industrial Psychologists in the UK found that work groups who tended to participate in after hours
social activities were more productive.

40.

Many business offices are located in buildings having two to eight floors. If a building has more than three
floors, then it has a lift. If the statements above are ture, then which of the following must also be true?
1.
Seventh floors have lifts.
2.
Second floors do not have lifts.
3.
Only floors above the third floors have lifts.
4.
All floors may be reached by lifts.

30

Page 150-155
SECTION III : DATA ANALYSIS AND SUFFICIENCY
Directions (Qs. 81- to 86) Each of these questions has a problem and two statements numbered I and
II giving certain information. Decide if the information given in the statements is sufficient for
answering the given problem. Mark your answer as
1. If the data in statement I aloe are sufficient to answer the given problem
2. If the data either I or II alone are sufficient to answer the given problem.
3. If the data even in both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the given
problem; and
4. If the data in both the statements I and II are needed to answer the given problem.
81.

Why havent the Indian scientists made much headway in any field after Independence?
I.
Indian scientists are not provided with up-to-date laboratory facilities.
II. Indian scientists regard that knowledge of western science advances is enough for a
nation to advance.

82.

There were 54 members of a cooperative society. How many members attended the recent
Annual General Meeting (AGM)?
I.
Normally two-third of the members attends the meeting.
II. One-sixth of the members were out of the town on AGMs day.

31

83.

Is cigarette smoking injurious to health?

I.
Non-smokers have a longer life span.
II. The incidence of heart attacks is more in smokers.

84.

Does television viewing affect the performance of students?

I.
The number of failures in Class XII.
II. Television watching is harmful to the eyes.

85.

When will the prices of the air coolers be the lowest?

I.
From July till January end, the companies after 15 percent off season discount.
II. During November, the prices will be 20 percent less than off-season prices and 30 percent
less than February to June prices.
86.

Can a democratic system operate without effective opposition?

I.
The apposition is indispensable.
II. A good statesman always learns more from his opponents than from his fervent
supporters.
Direction (Qs. 87-91) : Study the following table to answer these questions :
EXPENDITURES OF A COMPANY (IN LAKH RUPEES)
PER ANNUM OVER THE GIVEN YEARS
Item of expenditure
Year
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004

Salary

Fuel and transport

Bonus

Interest on Loan

Taxes

288
342
324
336
420

98
112
101
133
142

3.00
2.52
3.84
3.68
3.96

23.4
32.5
41.6
36.4
49.4

83
108
74
88
98

87.

The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on
fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately.
1.
4:7
2.
10 : 13
3.
15 : 18
4.
5:8

88.

The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2002 is.
1.
Rs. 544.44 Lakh
2.
Rs. 501.11 Lakh
3.
Rs. 446.46 Lakh
4.
Rs. 478.87 Lakh

89.

What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this
period?
1.
Rs. 32.43 Lakh
2.
Rs. 33.72 Lakh
3.
Rs. 34.18 Lakh
4.
Rs. 36.66 Lakh

90.

Total expenditure on all these items in 2000 was approximately what percent of the total
expenditure in 2004?
1.
62%
2.
66%
3.
69%
4.
71%
32

91.

The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what
percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
1.
0.1%
2.
0.5%
3.
1%
4
1.25%

Directions (Qs. 92 to 96) : Study the following Pie-Chart and the table to answer these questions:
PROPORTION OF POPULATION OF SEVEN VILLAGES IN 2002

Village
X
Y
Z

% Population below Poverty Line

38
52
42
33

R
S
T
V

51
49
46
58

92.

Find the population of village S if the population of village X below poverty line in 2002 is
12160
1.
18500
2.
20500
3.
22000
4.
26000

93.

The ratio of the population of village T below poverty line to that of village Z below poverty
line in 2002 is
1.
11 : 23
2.
13 : 11
3.
23 : 11
4.
11 : 13

94.

If the population of village R in 2002 is 32000, then what will be the population of village Y
below poverty line in that year?
1.
14100
2.
15600
3.
16500
4.
17000

95.

If in 2003, the population of villages Y and V increase by 10% each and the percentage of
population below poverty line remains unchanged for all the villages, then find the population
of village v below poverty line in 2003, given that the population of village Y in 2002 was
30000.
1.
11250
2.
12760
3.
13140
4.
13780

96.

If in 2004, the population of village R increases by 105 while that of village Z reduces by 5%
compared to that in 20 and the percentage of population below poverty line remains unchanged
for all the villages, then find the approximate ratio of population of village R below poverty
line to the ratio of population f village z below poverty line for the year 2004.
1.
2:1
2.
3:2
3.
4:3
4.
5:4

Direction (Qs 97 to 101) : Study the following graph carefully to answer these questions :
PRODUCTION OF PAPER (IN LAKH TONNES) BY 3 DIFFERENT COMPANIES
A, B AND C OVER THE YEARS

97.

What is the difference between the production of company c in 1999 and the production of
company A in 2004.
34

1.
3.

50000 tonnes
5000000 tonnes

2.
4.

50000000 tonnes
500000 tonnes

98.

What is the percentage increase in production of company A from 2000 to 2001?

1.
37.5
2.
38.25
3.
35
4.
36

99.

For which of the following years was the percentage of rise/fall in production from the
previous year the maximum for company B?
1.
2000
2.
2001
3.
2004
4.
2003

100. The total production of company C in 2001 and 2002 is what percentage of the total production
of company a in 1998 and 1999?
1.
95
2.
90
3.
110
4.
None of these
101. What is the difference between the average production per year of the company with highest
average production and that of the company with lowest average production in lakh tones?
1.
3.17
2.
4.33
3.
4.17
4.
3.33

Direction (Qs. 102 to 106) : These questions are base don the table given below :
Year
1999
2000
2001
2002
2003
2004

CANDIDATES APPEARED & PASSED

Rural
Semi-urban
State Capita
Appeared Passed Appeared Passed Appeared Passed
1652
208
7894
2513
5054
1468
1839
317
8562
2933
7164
3248
2153
932
8139
2468
8258
3159
5023
1798
9432
3528
8529
3628
4915
1668
9784
4015
9015
4311
5628
2392
9969
4263
10725
4526

Matropolise
Appeared
Passed
9538
3214
10158
4018
9695
3038
11247
5158
12518
6328
13624
6419

102. For the candidates from which of the following locations was therecontinuous increase both in
appeared and passed?
1.
Semi-urban
2.
State Capitals
3.
State Capitals and Rural
4.
None of these
103. In which of the following years was the percentage passed to appeared candidates from Semiurban area the least?
1.
2000
2.
2002
3.
1999
4.
2001
104. What approximate value was the percentage drop in the number of Semi-urban candidates
appeared from 2000 to 2001?
1.
5
2.
10
3.
15
4.
8
35

105. In 2002, percentage of candidates passed to appeared was approximately 35 from which
location?
1.
Rural
2.
Rural and Metropolies
3.
Semi-urban and Metropolises
4.
None of these
106. The total number of candidates passed from Rural in 2002 and Semi-urban in 1999 was exactly
equal to the total number of candidates passed from State Capital in which of the following
years?
1.
1999
2.
2002
3.
2003
4.
2001

Directions (Qs. 107 to 110) : The following pie charts exhibit the distribution of the overseas tourist
traffic from India. The two charts show the tourist distribution by country and the age profile of the
tourists respectively. Examine the charts carefully to answer these questions:

107. The ratio of the number of the Indian tourists that went to USA to the number of Indian tourists
who were below 30 years of age is.
1.
2:1
2.
8:3
3.
3:8
4.
Cannot be determined.
108. Amongst other countries, Switzerland accounted for 25% of the Indian Traffic. It is known
from official Swiss records that a total of 25 lakh Indian tourists had gone to Switzerland
during the year. What is the number of 30-39 years old Indian tourists who went abroad in that
year?
1.
18.75 lakh
2.
25 lakh
3.
50 lakh
4.
75 lakh
36

109. Based on the information in the above question, what was the volume of traffic of the Indian
tourists in the US?
1.
150 lakh
2.
125 lakh
3.
200 lakh
4.
None of these
110. On the basis of information in the above two questions, what can be inferred about the number
of 50+ years old, who visited UK during the year?
1.
At least 25 lakh
2.
Exactly 25 lakh
3.
At least 10 lakh
4.
Cannot be determined.
Direction (Qs. 111 to 113) : Study the following line graph below to answer these questions:

111. By how much percentage has production changed (approximately) in 2003 as compared to its
value for 2000?
1.
-3%
2.
+5%
3.
0%
4.
+7%
112. The percentage change in which of the following areas is the highest over the period 20002003?
1.
Workforce
2.
Productivity
3.
Production
4.
Both (1) and (2)
113. Which two variables have moved in the same direction in the mentioned period?
1.
Workforce and productivity
2.
Workforce and production
3.
Production and productivity
4.
None of these.
Direction (Qs. 114 to 120) : Each of these questions has a problem and two statements numbered I
and Ii. Decide if the information given in the statement is sufficient for answering the given problem.
Mark your answer as.
(1) If statement I by itself is sufficient to answer the given problem, but statement II by itself
is not.
(2) If statement II by itself is sufficient to answer the given problem, but statement I by itself
is sufficient to answer the given problem, but statement I by itself is not.
(3) If statements I and II taken together are sufficient to answer the given problem, even
though neither statement by itself is sufficient.
37

(4) If either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the given problem.

114. If x + 3y = 3/2 y x, then what is the value of x?
I.
y2 = 4
II. y = 2
115. A list contains 11 consecutive integers. What is the greatest integer on the list?
I.
If x is the smallest integer on the list, then (x + 72) 1/3 = 4.
II. If x is the smallest integer on the list, then 1/64 = x -2
116. If a rectangle has length a and width b, then what is its area?
I.
2a = 15/b
II. a = 2b 2
117. What is the ratio of men to women enrolled in a certain class?
I.
The number of women enrolled in the class is 3 less than half the number of men
enrolled.
II. The number of women enrolled in the class is 2/5 of the number of men enrolled.
118. What is the value of b?
I.
2a b = 3

II.

119. If a b, then what is the value of a + b ?

I.
a2 b2/a b = 6
II.

a = b (1 a)
(a + b) 2 = 36

120. If 2 2m+1 = 2 n + 2, then what is the value of m + n ?

I.
2 3n 1 = 256.
II. 2 m + 2n = 256.

38

Page 211-217

Management Aptitude Test

February 2005
All India Management Aptitude Testing
Services (AIMATS)
Section I : Data Analysis And Sufficiency
Direction (Qs. 1 to 6) : Use the graph given below to answer these questions:
Given in graph is the profile of values of a college student marked as personal profile. The normative
profiles are given as average male profile and average female profile:
CHART 211
1.
Compare the three and state which of the given values is the highest in the personal profile of
the student.
1.
Theoretical
2.
Religious
3.
Social
4.
Economic
2.

In the given personal profile, which is the value with the lowest score?
1.
Theoretical
2.
Religious
3.
Social
4.
Aesthetic

3.

In which values score, there exists maximum difference between the average profiles and the
personal profiles?
1.
Theoretical
2.
Religious
3.
Economic
4.
Political

4.

In which value score, there exists convergence between personal profile and average female
profile?
1.
Theoretical
2.
Social
3.
Aesthetic
4.
None of these

5.

In which value score, there exists a no difference state between the personal profile and average
male profile?
1.
Economic
2.
Social
3.
Aesthetic
4.
None of these

39

6.

To which of the normative profiles, is the personal profile closest on the whole?
1.
Average Male profile
2.
Average Female profile
3.
both of these
4.
None of these

Direction (Qs. 7 to 9) : Answer these questions based on the circle graphs:

GRAPHS

7.

__________ controlled the highest share of the watch market in 2001-2002 and this share is
equal to ________.
1.
HMT, 51.55
2.
HMT, 68.5%
3.
Allwyn, 34.4%
4.
Allwyn, 49.4%

8.

The highest rise in percentage in the market share in any category is recorded.
1.
HMT
2.
Tital
3.
Alwyn
4.
Others

9.

from the given data, compared to the Automatic category, the HMTs market share in the
Hand wound category is approximately ______ % higher
1.
106
2.
73
3.
51
4.
30

Directions (Question 10 to 14) Study the following table to answer these questions:
TABLE OF INTELLIGENCE CLASSIFICATION
I.Q.
130 and
above
120-129
110-119
90-109
80 109
80 89
70 79
69 and
below
10.

Classification
Very
Superior
Superior
Bright
Normal
Average
Dull normal
Border line
Mentally
Defective

% included
2.2
6.7
16.1
50.0
16.1
6.7
2.2

Following the above table, in which category will you classify the given data for I.Q. scores?
Data : 20, 47, 24, 51, 55, 42, 38, 61, 65.
40

1.
3.

Superior
Mentally Defective

2.
4.

Average
No given Category

11.

In which category will you classify the given data for I.Q. scores?
Data : 140, 127, 135, 120, 125, 131, 139,144, 138.
1.
Superior and very superior
2.
Bright and superior
3.
Average and Dull
4.
No given category

12.

Accordingly to the given table, in which category will you classify the given data for I.Q.
scores?
Data : : 99, 100, 101, 105, 95, 92, 90, 108, 98, 103, 93.
1.
Very Superior
2.
Bright normal
3.
Average
4.
Border line

13.

Accordingly to the given table which of the following category with the highest percentage of
cases include in it?
1.
Very Superior
2.
Bright normal
3.
Average
4.
Border line

14.

What is the similarity between very Superior and Mentally Defective categories in terms of
percentage of cases included in each?
1.
Both are different categories for intelligence classifications.
2.
Both are extreme categories for differentiating maximally between.
3.
No similarity at all.
4.
Smallest percentage of cases belong to both of these categories.
Direction (Questions 15 to 18) : Study the pie charts given below to answer these questions:

41

15.

The amount spent on Raw materials in 2004 was _____ % of the amount spent on ____.
1.
200, R and D in 2001.
2.
103, Salaries/Wages in 2001.
3.
225, Advertising in 2001.
4.
100, Raw materials in 2001.

16.

The amount spent on Salaries/ Wages in 2001 was 140% of the amount spent on.
1.
R and D in 2001
2.
Raw materials in 2001.
3.
Advertising in 2001
4.
Raw materials in 2004.

17.

The total function of total expenditure for 2001 and 2004 spent on legal affairs was about.
1.
0.01
2.
0.12
3.
0.05
4.
0.5

18.

The amount spent in 2004 on advertising in approximately equal to the amount spent on which
of the following?
A. Salaries/Wages in 2001.
B. Advertising, r and D and Technical fees in 2001
C. One-third of Salaries/Wages, R & D and Taxes in 2004.
D. None of the above.
1.
A and B only.
2.
A, B and C
3.
D only
4.
E only

Directions (Questions 19-26): Answer these questions based on the following graphs:
GOLDEN HAND SHAKE
(Voluntary Retirement Scheme Break-up)
Note: The end point of each age group is the base for the next.

42

51-55
46-50
Above55

41-45

TOTAL NUMBER OF RETIREES IN THE 55+ AGE GROUP

19.

What was the total number of employees who opted for VRS in 2002?
1.
1000
2.
400
3.
2400
4.
2500

20.

What is the trend in the number of retires (who have opted for VRS) in the groups 51-55 from
2000 to 2002?
1.
Remained same
2.
Decreased by 1000
3.
Increased by 1000
4.
Decreased by more than 100

21.

For how many years did the percentage of retirees in the 41-45 age group remain the same?
1.
Two
2.
Three
3.
One
4.
Four

22.

The ratio of the percentage of the retirees under VRS in the geo group of 46-50 in the years 200
and 2004 is
1.
3:4
2.
2:3
3.
3:5
4.
1:3

23.

What was the percentage change in the break-up figure from 1996 to 2004 of the retirees under
VRS in the 55 + age group?
1.
62.5% Decrease
2.
60.5% Increase
3.
60% Decrease
4.
79.5% Decrease

24.

In the years 1996 and 2004, which of the age groups showed an increase in percentage change?
1.
Above 55
2.
41-45
3.
46-50
4.
All the groups except the 55+ group

25.

Which of the following groups shoed the largest percentage change in percent break-up from
1996 to 2004?
43

1.
3.
26.

55+
46-50

2.
4.

41-45
51-55

How many more employees in the 46-50 age group had opted of VRS in 2002 as compared to
1996?
1.
250
2.
344
3.
300
4.
325

Direction (Questions 27-30) : Study the Table and Pie Chart given below to answer these questions:
S. No.
North
East
West
South
1.
Rising prices
87
56
74
83
2.
Joblessness
57
58
69
69
3.
Stagnating Salaries
18
14
6
11
4.
Rental house
7
6
7
6
5.
Scarcity of essential times
9
11
4
2
6.
Bad/very bad standard of living
4
11
3
2
7.
Savings rate
17
21
19
13
8.
Pollution
33
28
19
39
9.
Education
41
32
49
25
10.
Not living better than 5 years ago
41
44
48
24
11.
House ownership
45
46
15
51
Total number of respondents is 5000, with percentage distribution among the different zones as
shown below:

27.
The number of person surveyed having house ownership worries is minimum in the ____
zones.
1.
North
2.
South
3.
West
4.
East
28.

What is the percentage of persons surveyed who do not have worries about increase in savings
or about pollution?
44

1.
3.

9
29

2.
4.

19
Cannot be determined

29.

What I the number of persons having worries regarding rising pries in the four zones put
together?
1.
3652
2.
3862
3.
3753
4.
3951

30.

What percentage of persons with jobs have worries of Stagnating salaries in the South?
1.
35.5
2.
38.2
3.
25.7
4.
Cannot be determined.

Directions (Questions 31-25) : Each of these questions has one question followed by two statements
labeled A and B:
Make your answer as
1.
If statement a by itself is sufficient to answer the given question.
2.
If statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the given question.
3. If both the statements A and B taken together are sufficient to answer the given question
but itself is sufficient.
4. If both the statements A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the given
question and more data is required.
31.

If x, y and z are even integers and 2 < s<y<z, then what is the value of y?
a : Z < 10;
B:x<6

32.

A rectangular aquarium provides 36 square centimeters of water surface area per fish. How
many fish are there in the aquarium?
A : The edges of the aquarium have lengths of 60,42 and 30 centimeters.
B : The aquarium is filled to a depth of 40 centimeters.

33.

At ABC Corporation, for a resolution to become policy, quorum of at least half of the 20
directors must pass the resolution by at least a two-third majority. Did resolution x pass or fail
at a meeting of the Board of Directors?
A : The directors voted for the resolution.
B : Seven directors voted against the resolution.

34.

What is the ratio of boys to girls admitted into a medical college?

A : The number of girls admitted in 3 less than half the number of boys admitted.
B : The number of girls admitted is 2/5 of the number of body admitted.

35.

Are the integers p, q and r consecutive?

A : The average of P, Q and r is q.
B:qp=rq

Directions : (Questions 36-40) : Each of the questions has a question following by two statements
labeled as A and B. Use the data given in the statements A and B together with other information to
decide whether these statements are sufficient to answer the given question:
Mark your answer as
1.
If you can get the answer from statement A alone but not from B alone.
2.
If you can get the answer from B alone but not from A alone.
3.
If you can get the answer from both the statements A alone or B alone.
45

4.

If you cannot get the answer from the statements A and B together and need more data.

36.

How many families in Jammu City own exactly two cars?

A : 150 families in Jammu City own at least one car.
B : 45 families in Jammu City own at least three cars.

37.

Ashok and Pawan are standing together on a sunny day. Ashoks shadow is a 10 feet long.
Pawans shadow is 9 feet long. How tall is Pawan?
A : Ashok is 6 feet tall
B : Ashok is standing 2 feet away from pawan.

38.

How far is it from town P to Q? Town R is 30 km from town P.

A : It is 20 km from town Q to town R.
B : There is a railway line between town P and town Q.

39.

What percentage of families in a city have monthly income of Rs.25,000 and own a house ?
A : 285 of all the families in the city have a monthly income of over Rs.25,000pm.
B : 40% of all the families in the city with the monthly income of Rs.25,000 own a house.

40.

How much does Mona weight?

A : Mona and Vicky together weight 120 kg.
B : Vicky weight twice as much as Mona.

Page 289-295
Section 1 : Data Analysis & Sufficiency

46

Directions (Qs. 1-5) Each item is followed by two statements A and B. Answer each question using
the following instructions:
Mark your answer as
1. If the question can be answered by one of the statements alone and not by the other.
2. If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
3. If the question can be answered by using both the statements together, but cannot be answered by
using either statement alone.
4. If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
1. A rectangular floor that the 4 meters wide is to be completely covered with square tiles, each with
the side of length 0.25 meter. What is the least number of such tiles required?
A. The length of the floor is three times the width.
B. The area of the floor is 48 square meters.
2. Each student in class of 40 students voted for exactly one of the three candidates A. B or C for the
post of class representative. Did candidate A receive the maximum votes from the 40 votes cast?
A. Candidates A received 11 of the votes.
B. Candidate C received 14 of the votes.
3. I1, I2 and I3 are lines in a plane. Is I1 perpendicular to I3?
A. I1 is perpendicular to I2.
B. I2 is perpendicular to I3.
4. Was 70 the average grade on a class test?
A. On the test, half of the class had grades below 70 and half of the class had grades above
70.
B. The lowest grade on the test was 45 and the highest grade on the test was 95.
5. If x is an integer, then what is the value of x2?
A.
1/5 < 1/x +1 <
B.
(x - 3) (x - 4) = 0
Directions (Qs. 6 - 8) : Refer to the given line graph and the pie charts to answer these questions:
6. How many hectares of FSI has been distributed between 1994-2002?
(1)
3,00,500
(2)
2,77,500
(3)
6,57,000
(4)
9,00,000
7. How many years witnessed a decline in FNI and an increase in FSI?
(1)
2
(2)
3
(3)
4
(4)
5
8. During 1994-2002, the greatest proportion of FNI was put to commercial use in
(1)
1994
(2)
1996
(3)
1999
(4)
2002
Directions (Qs. 9 & 10): Study the information given below to answer these questions:
Investing in real estate would be a profitable venture at this time. A survey in House magazine
revealed that 85% of the magazines readers are planning to buy a second home over the next few
years. A study of the real estate industry, however, revealed that the current supply of homes could
only provide for 65% of that demand each year.
9. Which of the following, if true, reveals a weakness in the evidence cited above?
(1)
Real estate is a highly labour intensive business.
(2)
Home builders are not evenly distributed across the country.
(3)
The number of people who want second homes has been increasing each year for the past
10 years.
(4)
Readers of House magazine are more likely than most people to want second homes.
47

10. Which of the following, if true, would undermine the validity of the investment advice in the
paragraph above?
(1)
Some home-owners are satisfied with only one home.
(2)
About half of the people who buy homes are investing in their first home.
(3)
Only a quarter of the homes that are built are sold within the first 2 weeks.
(4)
Only a quarter of those who claim that they want a second home actually end up
purchasing one.
Directions (Qs. 11- 13): The following graph represents the Gross Receipts of three fast food
restaurants from 2000-2002. Use it to answer these questions:
11. The 2000-2002 gross receipts for Mega Burger exceeded those of Pizza Pie by approximately
(!)
0.2 million
(2)
2 million
(3)
8.2 million
(4)
8.4 million
12. From 2001-2002, the percent increase in receipts for Pizza Pie exceeded the percent of Mega
Burger by approximately.
(1)
0%
(2)
2%
(3)
10%
(4)
15%
13. The 2002 decline in Crunchy Chicken receipts may be attributed to the
(1)
Increase in popularity of burgers
(2)
Increase in popularity of pizzas
(3)
Decrease in demand for chicken
(4)
Cannot be determined
Directions (Qs. 14-16 ): The following graphs represent Gross receipts of all the major fast food
restaurants from 2001-2003. Use them to answer these questions:
14. The gross receipts for 2001 are approximately what percent of the gross receipts for all the three
years?
(1)
30%
(2)
46.3%
(3)
46.7%
(4)
cannot be determined
15. Over all the three years, the average percentage of gross receipts for Crunchy Chop exceeds the
average percentage of gross receipts for Pizza Pie by approximately
(1)
53%
(2)
30%
(3)
23%
(4)
8%
16. The gross receipts earned by the other restaurants in 2002 amount to precisely
(1)
Rs. 18,10,650
(2)
Rs. 7,53,300
(3)
Rs. 5,47,500
(4)
Rs. 4,53,140
Direction (Qs. 17 21 ): The data in the following table and graph pertains to the Fellow and
Associate categories of professionals. Study the data and lime graph given below to answer these
questions:

48

Region

Fellows
Full
Part
Not in
Time
Time
Practice
Practice Practice
I
4089
665
380
II
3184
387
380
III
1872
221
252
IV
1290
187
113
V
2550
302
221
Total
12985
1762
1346
Number of branches in each region
I.
Western Region-14
II.
Southern Region-26
III.
Eastern Region-3
IV.
Central Region-17
V.
Northern Region-7

Total
5134
3951
2345
1590
3073
16093

Associates
Full time
Part
Practice
Time
Practice
51150
3121
3196
1223
1526
635
1755
401
3659
838
61286
6218

Not in
Total
Practice
3288
4184
2138
851
1331
11787

57554
8603
4299
3007
5828
79291

MEMBERSHIP OVER THE YEARS

(As on January 1, each year)
17. The total number of Associates is nearly---------times the total number of Fellows of all the five
regions.
(1)
Four
(2)
Five
(3)
Three
(4)
Two
18. The category showing the total number of Fellows of all the regions as mearly one-ninth of the
total Associates of all the regions is
(1)
In full time practice
(2)
In part time practice
(3)
Not in practice
(4)
None of these
19. The regions having the number of branches in the ratio 1 : 2 are
(1)
Central and Southern
(2)
Western and Southern
(3)
Central and eastern
(4)
Northern and western
20. The average number of Fellows per branch of the Eastern region is approximately
(1)
982
(2)
780
(3)
690
(4)
885
21. The average growth of membership per year is
(1)
3600
(2)
3964
(3)
4238
(4)
4100
Directions (Qs. 22 - 26): Each of these questions consists of two quantities, one in Column A and
the other in Column B. Compare the two quantities and mark your answer as
(1)
If the quantity in Column A is greater.
(2)
If the quantity in Column B is greater.
(3)
If the two quantities are equal
(4)
If the relationship cannot be determined from the information given.
49

Column A
Column B
22.
The number of
12 posts
Posts needed
For a fence
144 m long when
posts are placed
12 m apart
23. 7/2%
3(35/1000)
24.
Distance covered
25 km
by a motorist
going at 50 km
per hour from
10:55 p.m. to
11:25 p.m. the
some evening
25.
(x/4)% of 400
x
26.
The average of
3
81, 60%, 3/2
Directions (Qs. 27 & 28): In each of these questions, there is a statement with two assumptions
numbered I and II. Consider the statement and the assumptions to decide which assumption is/are
implicit in the statement. Give your answer as
(1)
If assumption I is implicit.
(2)
If assumption II is implicit.
(3)
If either assumption I or II is implicit
(4)
If neither assumption I nor II is implicit
27.
the metropolis.

Of all the newspapers published in Bangalore, readership of TTI is the highest in

I.
TTI is not popular in mofussil areas.
II.
TTI has the popular features of political cartoons in it
28. If any time, you have financial difficulties, come to me, I will help you out.
I.
You have financial difficulties.
II.
I promise to provide you financial help
Directions (Qs. 29 & 30): Given below are two statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II. Assume the statements to be true even if they show variance from your own
experience. Decide which conclusion logically follows from the two statements. Give your answer as
(1)
If only conclusion I follows.
(2)
If only conclusion II follows
(3)
If either of the conclusion follows.
(4)
If neither of the conclusions follows.
29. Some nurses are nuns.
Maya is a nun.
I.
Some nuns are nurses.
II.
Some nurses are not nuns.
30. All apples are oranges.
Some oranges are papayas
I.
Some apples are papayas.
50

II.

Some papayas are apples.

Directions (Qs. 31- 33): In each of these questions, there is given a statement followed by two
courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is an administrative step or decision to be
taken for improvement, follow up or further action regarding the problem on the basis of the
information in the statement. Assume everything in the statement to be true and decide which course
of action follows logically from the given statement. Give your answer as
(1)
If only action I follows.
(2)
If only action II follows
(3)
If either action I or II follows
(4)
If neither action I nor II follows.
31. In spite of the principals repeated warnings, a child was caught exploding crackers secretly in
the school.
I.
All crackers should be taken away from the child and be should be threatened never to
do it again.
II.
The child should be severely punished for his wrong act.
32. Most children in India are unable to get an education as they get an education as they get
involved in earning a livelihood during their childhood itself.
I.
Education should be made compulsory for all children up to the age of 14.
II.
Employment of children under the age of 14 years should be banned.
33. The Asian Development Bank has approved a $285 million loan to finance a project to construct
coal parts by Madras part and Paradip port trusts.
I.
India should use financial assistance from other international financial organizations
to develop such ports in other places.
II.
India hold not seek assistance from foreign agencies.
Directions (Qs. 34 & 35): In answering these questions, you have to use the revenue data for the
three companies A, B and C provided in the graph:
34. Which quarter has the highest average revenue?
(1).
First
(2)
Second
(3)
Third
(4)
Fourth
35. What is the total revenue for all the companies in all the quarters?
(1)
89
(2)
90
(3)
91
(4)
93
Directions (Qs. 36-40): In each of these questions, you are given two statements. To answer these
questions, you can use one or both the statements.
Give your answer as
(1)
If statement A ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but
statement B alone is not
(2)
If statement B ALONE is sufficient to answer the given question, but
statement A alone is not.
(3)
If both the statements TOGETEHR are sufficient to answer the given question,
but statement A alone is not.
(4)
If both the statements are INDEPENDENTLY sufficient to answer the given
question.
36. How many hours will it take for all the students and teachers together to put up a tent?
51

A.
B.

There are 4 teachers and 7 students

All the teachers working together can put up the tent in 5 hours while
all the students working together can do so in 3 hours.

37. What is the remainder when the square of N is divided by 5.

A.
When N is divided by 5, the remainder is 3.
B.
N is an even integer
38. What is the value of the 2-digit number ab?
A.
The difference between its digits is 4.
B.
The sum of its digits is 4.
39. a, b and c are the three digits of a number abc. abc is a multiple of 3. Find (a + b+ c).
A. a=3, b=4.
B. C is a odd number.
40. N is an integer between 1 and 93. What is the value of N?
A.
N is both the square and the cube of an integer.
B.
The square root of N is divisible by 8.

52

Page339-334
Section III: Data Analysis & sufficiency
Directions (Qs. 81 to 86): In each f these questions, there is given a statement followed by
two assumptions marked A and B. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions
to decide which of the assumptions is implicit.
Statement:
Mark your answer as
(1)
If only Assumption A is implicit
(2)
If only Assumption B is implicit
(3)
If either A or B is implicit
(5)
If neither A nor B is implicit
81. Statement: Detergents should be used to clean clothes.
Assumptions
A.
Detergents from more lather.
B.
Detergents help to dislodge grease and dirt.
82. Statement: The private bus service in the city has virtually collapsed because of the ongoing
strike of its employees.
Assumptions
A.
Going on strike has become the right of every employee.
B.
People no more require the services of private bus operatars.
83. Statement: In Mumbai, railway trains are indispensable for people in the suburbs to reach their
places of work on time.
Assumptions
A.
Railway trains are the only mode of transport available in the subrbs of Mumbai.
B.
Only railway trains run punctually.
84. Statement: The government has decided to reduce the custom duty on computer peripherals.
Assumptions
A.
The domestic market price of computer peripherals may go up in near future.
B.
The domestic manufactures may oppose the decision.
85. Statement: I cannot contact you on phone from Karshik.
Assumption
A.
Telephone facility is not available at Karshik/
B.
Nowadays ii is difficult to contact on phone.
86. Statement: even with the increase in the number of sugar factories in India, we still continue to
import sugar.
Assumptions
A.
The consumptions of sugar per capita has increased in india.
B.
Many of the factories are not in a positions to produce sugar to their fullest capacity.
Directions (Qs. 87 to 91): Use the graph given below to answer these questions:
Given in graph is the profile of values of a college student marked as personal profile. The normative
profiles are given as average male profile and average female profile.

53

Theoretical

Economic

Aesthetic

Social

Political Religious

87. Compare the three and state which of the given values is the highest in personal profile of the
student?
(1)
Theoretical
(2)
Religious
(3)
Social
(4)
Economic
88. In the given personal profile, which is the value with the lowest score?
(1)
Theoretical
(2)
Religious
(3)
Social
(4)
Aesthetic
89. In which value score, there exists maximum difference between average profiles and personal
profile?
(1)
Theoretical
(2)
Religious
(3)
Social
(4)
Political
90. In which value score, there exists convergence between personal profile and average female
profile?
(1)
Theoretical
(2)
Social
(3)
Aesthetic
(4)
None
91. In which value score, there exists a no difference state between the personal profile?
(1)
Economic
(2)
Social
(3)
aesthetic
(4)
None of these
Directions (Qs. 92 to 95): Answer these questions based on the following table which gives the
circulation in thousands of five English dailies in the four States during 2002-2003.
Newspaper
A
B
C
D
E

Kerala
123
105
12.2
82.4
24.4

Punjab
227
220
14.6
44
23

UP
96
117.2
9.7
145
10

MP
78
97
17.2
9.3
100

92. Of the five dcilies, which has the highest number of circulation?
(1)
A
(2)
B
(3)
D
(4)
E
93. What is the difference in the circulation among the top two newspapers?
(1)
14200
(2)
15200
(3)
13200
(4)
12200
54

94. The newspaper As circulation in Punjab is x times that of the newspaper Bs circulation in HP.
What is x?
(1)
2.35
(2)
2
(3)
2.75
(4)
2.25
95. The ratio of the circulation of newspaper D in Punjab and HP is
(1)
5.5 : 2
(2)
5:2
(3)
6 : 3.14
(4)
5.5 : 1.16
Directions (Qs. 96 to 98): Undergraduate students in a college yielded three sets of scores in
reaction time experiments at different times.
Cases
Set I
Set II
Set III
1
616
500
300
2
711
720
511
3
898
988
678
4
740
612
450
5
421
533
250
6
812
844
614
7
521
541
341
8
781
777
551
9
689
756
448
10
701
676
305
96. Which one of the following is true in respect of these scores?
(1)
All sets are inter-related
(2)
Sets I and II show a positive correlation
(3)
Sets II and III are not related
(4)
None of these
97. According to the given data,
(1)
Sets I and III have an inverse relationship.
(2)
Sets II and III are negatively correlated.
(3)
Both (1) and (2) are correct
(4)
Both (1) and (2) are wrong.
98. Which set shows the most efficient reaction time?
(1)
Set I
(2)
Set II
(3)
Set III
(3)
None of these
Directions (Qs. 99 to 102): These questions are based on graphs 1 and . Graph 1 represents the
performance of three students for time taken in a learning task across five trials, while graph 2
represents errors made across them.
50
40
East

30

West

20

North

10
0
1st
Qtr

2nd
Qtr

3rd
Qtr

4th
Qtr

55

99. Which student is a better performer on the basis of time graph?

(1)
Student one
(2)
Student two
(3)
Student three
(4)
Cannot be said from the given information
100. Who is a batter performer on the basis of the errors graph?
(1)
Student one
(2)
Student two
(3)
Student three
(4)
None of them
101. Who is a batter performer if improvement in both time as well as errors is taken into account?
(1)
Student one
(2)
Student two
(3)
Student three
(4)
None of them
102. Suppose an inverse relationship exists between time and errors, i.e. if a student tries to reduce
time, then the errors increase and vice versa. In which case is this relationship, the most pronounced?
(1)
Student one
(2)
Student two
(3)
Student three
(4)
None of them
Directions (Qs. 103 to 106): Answer these questions on the basis of the following graph which
shows the production of items A, B and C during the months: April, May & June.
300
250
200

Product A

150

Product B

100

Product C

50
0
April

May June

103. The percentage increase of production of item A from April to May is

(1)
33%
(2)
66%
(3)
74%
(4)
25%
104. Which item has maintained a rise over the three months?
(1)
A
(2)
B
(3)
C
(4)
B and C
105. The overall production of items A, B & c during April and May is in the ratio
(1)
!:!
(2)
3:4
(3)
9 : 11
(4)
11 :9
106. The total production during the months of April, May & June of the three items A, B and C are
in the ratio.
(1)
7 : 5 :7
(2)
7 : 5 :5
(3)
7 : 4.5 : 4
(4)
4.5 : 6 : 5
Direction (Qs. 107 to 109): Refer to the graph given below which gives the circulation growth of
GRAMSSEWA magazine from July to December 2003.
21300

211885
204933

20000
56

200189
19300
189277
18300
173182

175395

17300
JUL

AUG

SEP

OCT

NOV

DEC

107. During November and December, there was an even growth rate, the average of which is
(1)
2.36%
(2)
2%
(3)
2.88%
(4)
3.36%
108. The circulation in October is times then that of July.
(1)
1.5
(2)
2%
(3)
1
(4)
1.15
109. The growth rate is every marginal during the month of
(1)
August
(2)
October
(3)
November
(4)
December
Directions (Qs. 110 to 113): Refer to the pie diagrams given below to answer these questions. The
annual average receipts and outlays of the government in 2001-2002 are given in percentage.

RECEIPTS

gift tax
10%
excise
10%
corporate
individual
income tax
income tax
40%
14%
customs
miscellaneo
15%
us
wealth tax
5%

6%

OUTLAYS

57

health &
security
20%
others
12%
interest
15%

subsidies
7%
defence
20%
space
program
me
13%
education
13%

110. The annual corporate income tax and gift tax was what fraction of the total receipts?
(1)
1/4
(2)
1/3
(3)
1/3
(4)
2/3
111. The ratio of the wealth tax and corporate tax receipts to the interest outlay is
(1)
3:1
(2)
1:3
(3)
3:2
(4)
2:3
112. If the amount spent on subsides is Rs. 2403 crore, then the space programmer outlay is
approximately
(1)
Rs. 4463 crore
(2)
Rs. 445 crore
(3)
Rs. 6007 crore
(4)
Rs. 3204 crore
113. If the annual receipt is Rs. 26256 crore, then the amount collected by way of customs is
approximately
(1)
Rs. 4000 crore
(2)
Rs. 3938 crore
(3)
Rs. 15754 crore
(4)
Rs. 1500 crore
Directions (Qs. 114 to 120): Use the data given below to answer these questions.
FUNDS FOR ROADS AND BRIDGES Statewise allocation made during the three years (93-94
to95-96) in
Rs. Cror

58

M
P
Ta
A
m
r
aj
A un
il
a
A
nd
st
N
B
a
s
U iha h a adu h r ch a sam
P
n
a
r
l
R

208.8
212.9
215.1
221.7
254.4
Other States:
HP
189.5
255.3
Bar
J&K
188.4 3
280.7
Meghalaya
174.6
Bar
371.8
Punjab
98.9 2
Manipur
96.9
389.5
Nagaland Rs.
73.8 Crore
430.7
Tripura
69.1
Haryana
68.7
438
65.5
485.1 Mizoram
Goa
47.1
666.9 Sikkim
47.0
807.4
1208.4

114. Which of the following is the value in crore, that seems to have been used to decide which State
are to be represented using a bar and which are not so represented?
(1)
50
(2)
100
(3)
150
(4)
200
115. If the States were to be arranged in the order of increasing allocation for the give period, then
which State would be ranked at 13?
(1)
Assam
(2)
West Bengal
(3)
U.P
(4)
Goa
116. How many States have an allocation greater than 10 times the least one?
(1)
4
(2)
5
(3)
6
(4)
7
117. How many States have an allocation less than one-sixth of the highest one?
(1)
11
(2)
12
(3)
13
(4)
14
118. What is the average approximate allocation every year for the entire country?
(1)
2520 crore
(2)
10000 crore
(3)
1160 crore
(4)
5000 crore
119. What is the aberage approximate allocation for the three year period,
for the States not represented by bars?
(1)
500 crore
(2)
101.8 crore
(3)
350 crore
(4)
35.3 crore
120. Which State has an allocation that is almost 50% more than that of its immediately preceding
one, when ranked in order of increasing investments?
(1)
Manipur
(2)
Nagaland
(3)
Uttar Pradesh
(4)
Maharashtra
59

Page 355-360
Management Aptitude Test December 2003
All India Management Association
Centre For Management Services (AIMA-CMS)

60

Section I : Data Analysis & Sufficiency

Directins (Qs. 1 & 2): These questions are based on the information given in the diagrams below:
SALES (Rs. million)

5935
4609
3342
2485
1990
94-95

95-96

96-97

97-98

98-99

EXPORTS (Rs. million)

2225

1405
942
590
375

94-95

95-96 96-97 97-98

Net Profit
Return on equity : --------------------Equity

98-99

PROFIT AFTER TAX (Rs. million)

61

700
600
500
400

3-D Colum n 1

300

3-D Colum n 2

200

3-D Colum n 3

100
0
94-95

95-96

96-97

97-98

98-99

1.What is the average rate of the contribution of exports to the sales during the period 1994-95 to
1998-99 as a percentage?
(1)
30.1
(2)
27
(3)
2.7
(4)
138
2. If the sales for the year 1999 2000 exceed to that of the year 1998-99 by 50% and the profits
increase proportionately, then what would be the increase in return on equity (Assume the equity to
remain uncharged)?
(1)
5%
(2)
25%
(3)
50%
(4)
cannot be determinced
Directions (Qs. 3 to 5): Answer these questions based on the information in the table given below:
EMPLOMYMENT DATA: 1991-1997
(Figures in Millions)
Years ->
1991 1992
1993
1994
1995
1996
1997
Employment
1. In organized 25.6
28.2
21.7
30.5
35.2
40.2
45.3
sector
2. In
35.7
41.5
29.1
42.5
50.2
59.8
75.1
unorgnished
sectior
3.
15.4
17.1
25.5
22.5
24.8
22.9
24.8
Unemployed

3. The rate of unemployment was the highest in

(1)
1991 (2)
1993 (3)
1995 (4)
1997
4. The number of employables showed the highest percentage increase in the year
(1)
1996-97
(2)
1995-96
(3)
1993-94
(4)
1991-92
5. From 1994 to 1997
(1)
Employment numbers have fluctuated
(2)
Employment in organized sector has shown steady increase
(3)
Figures in all the three categories have shown a steady increase
(4)
Cannot each any of the above conclusions.
Directions (Qs. 6 to 8): Study the table given below to answer these questions.
The table gives the sales data of four branches of a paint company in the three months of a year.
Branch
October
November
December
First
Bill

Last
Bill

Sale
(Rs)

First
Bill No.
62

Last
Bill

Sale
(Rs)

First
Bill No.

Last
Bill

Sale
(Rs.)

1.Chennai
2.Bangalore
3.Cochin
4.Hyderabad

No.
2864
4051
3469
2644

No.
2942
4101
3601
2703

345641
147345
269473
165442

No.
3106
4204
3704
2787

2943
4102
3602
2704

461750
231469
208947
187928

3107
4205
3705
2788

No.
3280
4296
3762
2841

485097
221895
210494
175427

6. The total number of bills raised by the company from October to December is
(1)
1045
(2)
1155
(3)
777
(4)
1662
7. The average sale per bill in the given period was the highest in
(1)
Hyderabad
(2)
Cochin
(3)
Bangalore
(4)
Chennai
8. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(1)
Bangalore branch raised the highest number of bills in December.
(2)
All branches show increase in the sale every month in the period shown.
(3)
Sale of Hyderabad branch in March was approximately its average sale for the three
months shown.
(4)
Ranking the branches by sale in the lead and Hyderabad coming last.
(1)
A, B and C
(2)
B, C and D
(3)
A and B
(4)
C and D
Directions (Qs. 9 & 10): Refer the following bar chart to answer these questions.
ELECTRONIC GOODS: HOW MUCH REQUIRED AND WHERE ACQLUIRED

Others
South Asia

China
Canda

Latin America

Poland
India
USA

Others
0

100

200

300

400

Australia

9. Australias exports to Japan, South Asia and Russia in 2000 is approximately

(1)
185
(2)
160
(3)
270
(4)
cannot be determine
10. In the given year, the total domestic demand of Russia and East Europe isthousand.
(1)
50
(2)
More than 50
(3)
Less than 50
(4)
Cannot be determined

63

Directions (Qs. 11 to 13): These questions are based on the following figure and information

The numbers on the lines joining two points indicates the distance between them. The arrows
indicate the way/ways in which the movement is allowed: if the arrow points in only one direction,
then the movement is not allowed in the other direction.
11. The shortest route from A to C will be
(1)
A-B-C, 11
(2)
A-D-E-C, 15
(2)
A-B-D-E-C, 19
(4)
A-D-E-F-C, 26
12. How many routes are possible between A and H?
(1)
One
(2)
Four
(3)
Six
(4)
None
13. The shortest route from A to H is
(1)
A-G-H
(2)
A-D-E-F-H
(3)
A-D-E-G-H
(4)
AA-B-C-F-H
Directions (Qs. 14-15): Study the following graph and the table carefully to answer these
questions:
POPULATION: DATA OF DIFFERENT STATES IN 1998
(Total Population of all the States = 25 lakh)
A.P.
Darnataka
Maharashtra
T.N.
Kerala
Bihar
U.P.

SEX AND LITERACYWISE

POPULATION RATIO
STATES
Sex

Literacy
64

Uttar Pradesh
Bihar
Andra Pradesh
Karnataka
Maaharashtra
Tamil Nadu
Kerala

Male : Female
5 :
3
3 :
1
2 :
3
3 :
5
3 : 4
3 :
2
3 :
4

Literale : Illiterale
2 :
7
1 :
4
2 :
1
3 :
2
5
:
1
7
: 2
9
: 4

14. Approximately, what is the number of literate people in Maharashtra and Karnataka together?
(1)
4.5 lakh
(2)
6.5 lakh
(3)
3 lakh
(4)
3.5 lakh
15. In tamil Nadu, if we suppose that 70% of the females and 75%of the males become literate, than
what is the total number of illiterates in the State?
(1)
75,000
(2)
85,000
(3)
71,000
(4)
81,000
Directions (Qs. 16 & 17): Refer the following table to answer these questions:
DISTRIBUTION OF MARKS OBTAINED BY 100 STUDENTS TWO PAPERS
(I & II ) IN MATHEMATICS
Paper Marks out of
50
I
II
Average (Aggregate)

40 &
abobe
5
8
5

30 &
above
22
31
27

20 &
above
67
79
71

10 &
above
82
91
88

Below 10
18
9
12

16. How many students have scored less than 40% marks in the aggregate?
(1)
30
(2)
12
(3)
17
(4)
29
17. What is the percentage of students who obtained 60% and more marks in paper II over the
number of students who obtained 40% and more marks in the aggregate (approximately)?
(1)
44
(2)
40
(3)
48
(4)
Data inadequate
Directions (Qs. 18 to 20): Study and analyse the table given below to answer these questions:
PRODUCTION,
EXPORT AND
CONSUMPTION
OF COFFEE (lakh
tonnes)
Year

Production

Export
Qty

1990-91
1996-97
1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01

1.70
2.05
2.28
2.65
2.92
3.01

1.00
1.81
1.79
2.12
2.45
2.47
65

Domestic
Rs.
Crore
279
1467
1708
1752
1901
1347

UA$
Million
108
452
477
431
447
334

0.54
0.55
0.50
0.50
0.55
0.58

2001-02

3.01

2.13

1050

246

0.60

18. The highest percentage of domestic consumption with reference of to the production of coffee
has in the year
(1)
2001-02
(2)
2000-01
(3)
1996-97
(4)
1990-91
19. During the given period, though the largest quantity of coffee exported has beenlakh
tones, the foreign exchange earned in dollars has been the highest in the year
(1)
3.01, 1999-00
(2)
2.47, 1997-98
(3)
3.06, 1997-98
(4)
None of these
20. Which of the following statement is correct?
(1)
The domestic consumption of coffee has been consistently increasing
(2)
The foreign exchange earned in rupees has been increasing during in the period 199091 to 2000-01
(3)
The production of coffee in the country has been showing consistently upward trend
during the given period
(4)
None of these
Directions (Qs. 21 to 25): In each of these questions, two statements are given followed by two
conclusions (I)and (II). Consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. Decide which of the given conclusion(s)definitely follow(s) from the
given statements. Indicate your answer as
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

if only conclusion I follows

if only conclusion II follows
if neither I not II follows
if both the conclusions I and II follow

21. Statements:
I.
II.
Conclusions:
I.
II.
22. Statements:
I.
II.
Conclusions:
I.
II.
23. Statements:
I.
II.

All pilots are brave men

All astronauts are pilots
All astronauts are brave men.
Some pilots are astronauts.
Some aeroplans are living being.
Some non-living beings are ghosts
Some aeroplanes are ghosts.
Some aeroplanes are not ghosts.
Some hens are cows
All cows are horses.
66

Conclusions:
I.
II.
24. Statements:
I.
II.

Some horse are hens

Some hens are horse.
All lawyers are cheats.
Some women are lawyers

Conclusions:
I.
II.

Some women are cheats.

All cheats are women

25. Statements:
I.
II.

All lemons are mangoes.

No mango is cheap.

Conclusions:
I.
II.

All mangoes are lemons.

No lemon is cheap.

Directions (Qs. 26-30): Each of these items consist of a question and the two statements
labeled (A) and (B). Use the data given in the statements (A) and (B) together with other known
facts to decide whether the two statements are sufficient to answer the given question.
Mark your answer as
(1)
if you can get the answer from statement (A) ALONE abut not from
(B) alone.
(2)
If you can get the answer from statement (B) ALONE but not from (A)
alone.
(3)
If you can get the answer from BOTH the statements (A) and (B)
TOGETHER, but not from (A) alone or (B) alone.
(4)
If you cannot get the answer from both the statements (A) and (B)
TOGETHER, but need even more data.
26. A car drives around a circular track once. A second car drives from point A to point B in a straight
line. Which car travels faster?
(A)
The car driving around the circular track takes a longer time to complete its trip than
the car traveling in a straight line.
(B)
The straight line from A to B is 3/2 times as long as the diameter of the
circular track.
27. Is y larger then x?
(A)
x+y=2
(B
x/y =2
28. Many must work 12 hours to make, in wages, the cost of a set of luggage. How many dollars
does the set of luggage cost?
(1
Jim must work 15 hours to make, in wages, the cost of the set of
luggage.
(2
Jims hours wages are 80% of the Marys hourly wages.
29. A group of 49 consumers were offered a chance to subscribe to 3 magazines: A, B, and C. 38 of
the consumers subscribed to at least one of the magazines. How many of the 49 consumers
subscribed to exactly two of the magazines?
67

(A)
Twelve of the 49 consumers subscribed to all the three magazines.
(B)
Twenty of the 49 consumers subscribed to magazine A.
30. Which of the four numbers w, x, y and z is the largest?
(A)
The average of w, x, y and z is 25
(B)
The numbers w, x and y are each less than 24.
Directions (Qs). 31 to 35
: Each of these questions consists of one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Mark your answer
as
(1)
if both the Assertions A and the Reason R are correct and R explains A.
(2)
if both the Assertion A and the Reason R are correct but R does not explain A.
(3)
if A is correct but R is wrong.
(4)
if A is wrong but R is correct.
31. Assertion (A):
A Saltwater fish drinks seawaters where as a fresh water fish never drinks water.
Reason (R):
A saltwater fish is hypertonic to its environment while a freshwater fish is hypotonic to its
environment.
32. Assertion (A):
The territory of India is larger than the territories of the States taken together.
Reason (R):
India is the Union of States.
33. Assertion (A):
Alcohol rather than mercury is used in thermometer to measure a temperature of 60oC.
Reason (R)
Alcohol has a lower freezing point than mercury.
34. Assertion (A):
The windows in some buildings are double-glazed (i.e they have a thin layer of air between
the two sheets of glass) to reduce heat losses to the outside.
Reason (R):
Glass is a very bad conductor of heat.
35. Assertion (A):
India is one of the leading fishing countries in the world
Reason (R)
India has long coastline ad a large fish-eating population.
Directions (Qs. 36 to 40): Each of these questions consists of two quantities, one in column A and
one in Column B. Compare the two quantities and mark your answer as
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

If the quantity in column A is greater.

if the quantity in column B is greater.
if the two quantities are equal.
if the relationship cannot be determined from the information given

Column A

Column B

36. (.2)^3

.64

37. (5) (144) (6)

(12^2) (5^2)

38.C^2D^2E^2

CDE
68

C^3D^3E^3
39. Distance covered
by a motorist
going @ 50 miles
per hour from
10 : 55 p.m. to
11 : 25 p.m the
same evening
40. Radius of a
circle with
circumference 9

25 miles

Radius of a
circle with area
of 25 sq units

Page 402-407

69

Section III: Data Analysis & Sufficiency

Direction (Qs. 81 to 84): These questions are based on the following table. The table shows
the number of emergencies attended by 6 fire brigade substations during May-October 2002.
Sub
station
A
B
C
D
E
F

May

June

July

Aug

Sep

Oct

12
18
10
17
12
14

15
21
11
17
15
15

17
15
19
19
18
12

21
18
21
12
10
13

13
18
23
18
21
18

17
19
18
10
11
19

81. Number of emergencies attended by the 6 substations was the same in the months of
(1)
May & June
(2)
June & July
(3)
August & September
(4)
June & October
82. Which of the following substations showed a greater increase in the number of emergencies
attended in August as compared to July?
(1)
A
(2)
E
(3)
D
(4)
C
83. Which substation attended to the maximum number of complaints in the given period?
(1)
A
(2)
B
(3)
C
(4)
F
84. Which two months aggregated over 36% of the total number of emergencies in the six-month
period?
(1)
May and June
(2)
July and October
(3)
August and September
(4)
July and September
Directions (Qs. 85 to 88): Answer these questions based on the data given in the following
table. The table shows the installment amounts for monthly repayments (in Rupees) on housing
society loans for different periods.
Loan
1,00,000
2,00,000
10,00,000
15,00,000
20,00,000

10
1350
2500
12950
19400
15900

15
1050
2050
10300
15450
20600

20
900
1800
9000
13500
18000

25
850
1600
8450
12650
16800

85. How much more money would be paid on a loan of Rs.20,00,000 taken out over 20years
compared to the same loan taken over a period of 15 years?
(1)
Rs. 3,00,000
(2)
Rs. 4,25,000
(3)
Rs. 5,50,000
(4)
Rs. 6,12,000
86. What is the total amount repaid over 25 years on a loan of Rs. 15,00,000?
70

(1)
Rs. 22,50,000
(2)
Rs. 37,95,000
(3)
Rs. 45,30,000
(4)
Rs. 55,70,000
87. The monthly repayment on a loan of Rs. 15,00,000 over 20 years is reduced to Rs.12500. By how
much would this reduce the total amount on the loan over the full period?
(1)
Rs. 1,30,000
(2)
Rs. 2,40,000
(3)
Rs. 2,24,000
(4)
Rs. 1,26,000
88. Instead of taking a loan of Rs. 10,00,000 with a repayment period of 15 years, the society
proposes to take a loan of Rs. 15,00,000 to be paid back in 10 years to provide for a generator set.
What is the cumulative financial impact?
(1)
Rs. 4,54,000
(2)
Rs. 4,74,000
(3)
Rs. 5,67,000
(4)
Cannot be assessed
Directions (Qs. 89 to 92): Answer these questions based on the data given in the table below. The
table shows the trends in the relative value in the market of select groups of commodities (19992003):

Commodities
Milk
Cereals
Fats and oils
Gas
Vegetables
Fruits

1999
95
75
76
82
80
79

2000
92
68
70
76
62
74

2001
86
62
68
100
64
72

2002
72
66
62
98
84
66

2003
76
60
58
96
88
73

89. What is the average difference in the relative value of the six commodities in 2003 compared to
1999?
(1)
+8
(2)
-5
(3)
-6
(4)
+4
90. Which value showed the greatest amount of change in 1999 compared to 2003?
(1)
Milk
(2)
Gas
(3)
Fats & Oils (4)
Vegetables
91. Which commodity showed the least variation in value over the period 1999-2003?
(1)
Cereals
(2)
Gas
(3)
Vegetables
(4)
Fruits
92. For which commodities is there a clearly discernible trend of decreasing relative value between
1999-2003?
(1)
Cereals and Gas
(2)
Milk, Cereals, Fats & Oils
(3)
Milk, Gas, Fats & Oils
(4)
Vegetables, Fats & Oils
Directions (Qs. 93 to 96): Answer these questions based on the graph given below. The graph
shows the net receipts (shaded ) and mortgage advances (unshaded) from December 2000 to
April 2001 for a building society in Rs. Lakh.

71

6000
5000
4000

Colum n 1

3000

Colum n 2

2000

Colum n 3

1000
0
Dec Jan Feb Mar Apr

Employer

93. In which two months were the same amount of building society mortgage advances made?
(1)
December & January
(2)
January & February
(3)
February & March
(4)
March & April
94. In which month was there the greatest excess of building society net receipts over mortgage
advances?
(1)
December
(2)
January
(3)
February
(4)
March
95. What was the ratio of the society mortgage advances to net receipts in April 2001?
(1)
1:8
(2)
1:6
(3)
1:3
(4)
1:4
96. Assume that, by the end of May 200, the building society net receipts and mortgage advances had
fallen by 50% and 25% respectively, compared to the figures for April 2001. What would the
building society turnover (obtained by adding net receipts to mortgage advances) have been for May
2001 in Rs. Lakh?
(1)
1,800
(2)
2,200
(3)
2,240
(4)
2,100
Directions (Qs. 97 to 100): Answer these questions based on the table given below. The table
shows number of new female and male employees engaged by 5 employers from 1999 to 2003.

A
B
C

Gender
1999
Of
Employee
s

2000

2001

2002

2003

Total

Female
Male
Female
Male
Female
Male

4
6
11
12
66
11

5
8
9
13
74
10

10
12
13
23
57
6

12
12
15
14
89
9

35
43
58
74
353
49

4
5
10
12
67
13

72

Female
Male

4
3

6
5

8
8

2
6

9
4

29
26

Female
Male

4
4
126

5
5
131

4
2
141

3
6
138

2
3
169

18
20
705

Total

97. What was the total number of new employees (female and male) in all the companies in 1999 &
2000?
(1)
234
(2)
257
(3)
235
(4)
256
98. What is the average number of new female employees per company in 2001?
(1)
25
(2)
30
(3)
20
(4)
18
99. Of the total number of the new male employees in all the five companies in 2002, what
percentage did companies B, C and D employ collectively?
(1)
66%
(2)
62%
(3)
65%
(4)
67%
100. What was the ratio of the new female employees to new male employees in Company C in
2000?
(1)
1:6
(2)
6:1
(3)
2:3
(4)
3:2
Directions (Qs. 101 to 103): The pie chart given below shows the funding arrangements for
National Highways Development Projects : Phase 1. Study the chart carefully to answer these
questions.
Funding arrangements for NHDP-1
(Total cost : 30,300 crore)

1,690
1,902
2,000

T
S
A

16,846
7,862

101. Near about 25% of the funding arrangement is through

(1)
Cess / Market borrowing
(2)
External assistance
(3)
Annuity
(4)
SPVS

73

E
C

102. The angle of the segment formed at the center of the pie chart, representing Cess/Market
borrowing is approximately
(1)
90o
(2)
100o (3)
180o (4)
200o
103. If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a maximum of 10%
commission, then how much amount should be permitted to be collected by the outsourced agency,
so that the project is supported with Rs. 1690 Crore?
(1)
Rs. 1690 Crore
(2)
Rs. 1859 Crore
(3)
Rs. 16900 Crore
(4)
Inadequate data
Directions (Qs. 104 to 106): The table below gives the details of foreign tourist arrivals and foreign
exchange earnings during the period 1995-1996 to 2001-2002. Answer these questions based on
the data given in the following table.
FOREIGN TOURIST ARRIVALS AND FOREIGN EXCHANGE EARNNINGS
Year

Foreign
Tourist
Arrivals
(in lakh)

Percent
change

1995-96
1995-97
1997-98
1998-99
1999-00
2000-01
2001-02

2190
2334
2371
2397
2505
2699
2423

----6.6
1.6
1.1
4.5
7.7
-10.2

Estimated
Foreign
exchange
(in millions US
$)
2713
2878
2914
2993
3036
3168
2910

Percent
Change

--6.1
1.3
2.7
1.4
4.3
-8.1

104. The maximum percentage increase in foreign tourist arrivals during the given period has been in
(1)
2001-2002
(2)
2000-2001
(3)
1999-2000
(4)
1996-1997
105. The estimated foreign exchange earnings have been steadily increasing from the period
(1)
1995-1996 to 2001-2002
(2)
1995-1996 to 2000-2001
(3)
1999-2000 to 2001-2002
(4)
None of these
106.As a result of September 11, 2001 incidents in the United States. The tourist arrivals dropped
by about 10 percent, when compared with the previous year.
(1)
The data given in the table supports the above statement.
(2)
The above statement is not supported by the data given in the table.
(3)
Additional information is required to arrive at the above conclusion
(4)
None of these.
Directions (Qs. 107 to 110): Time and cost over-runs have been a major problem affecting
the implementation of central Sector Projets. The trend of time over-runs and cost over-runs
are given in the graphs below. Answer these questions based on these graphs.

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No. of Delayed Projects

300
250
200

170 174

150

194 189 194

234 239
219 216 232
215 222 211
174
144

100
50

19
88
19
89
19
90
19
91
19
92
19
93
19
94
19
95
19
96
19
97
19
98
19
99
20
00
20
01
20
02

70
60
50

48.4

40

55.1 55.8

61.6

53.9 56.8

57.5

51.4

46.9 45
37.3

30

40.9

36 36
26

20
10

19
88
19
89
19
90
19
91
19
92
19
93
19
94
19
95
19
96
19
97
19
98
19
99
20
00
20
01
20
02

107.
The highest number of delayed projects during the given period was in the year
(1)
1991 (2)
1994 (3)
1997 (4)
1996
108. The highest incidents of cost over-run during the given period has been in the year
(1)
1991
(2)
1994
(3)
1997
(4)
Inadequate data
109. The number of delayed projects have been the same in the years
(1)
1990 and 1992
(2)
1989 and 2001
(3)
Both 1 & 2 above
(4)
None of these
110. The percentage cost over-runs have been the same in the years 2000 and 2001. it implies that
(1)
The cost over-runs have been the same
(2)
The cost over run in 2000 has been more than the cost over-run in 2001
(3)
The cost over run in 2000 has been less than the cost over-run is 2001.
(4)
None of these.
Directions (Qs. 111 to 115): Each question below has two statements, I and II. Mark your answer as
(1)
(2)
(3)

If statement I is True, but not the other one

If statement II is True, but not the other one.
If both the statements are True.
75

(4)
If neither of the statements is True.
111. for an equation ax2 + bx + c = 0, its roots are
(1)
Real and different if b2 > 4ac.
(2)
Imaginary and equal if b2 < 4ac.
112. for an equation ax3 + bx2 + cx + d = 0, if its roots are ,, and , then
(1) + + = c/a
(2) = d
113. for a different expression
(1) d/dx (sin2(3x)) = 2 cos (3x)
(2) d/dx (a) = a (log a) du / dx
114. if y = 2 x, than
(1) sin y = 2 tan x/(1+ tan2x)
(3) cos y = 2 tan x/(1- tan2x)
115. if z = x + iy, where I = (-1) , then
(1) z = 0, when x = 0, y 20
(2) if a + bi = c + di, then a = c, b = d
Directions (Qs. 116 to 120): In each of these questions, two statements I and II follow a
question. Make your answer as
(1 )
If the questions can be answered by using any one statement alone, but not by using
other statements alone.
(3)
If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone.
(4)
If the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.
116. There are three sets A, B and C. Find A (B C)
.
I.
A B and A C are known.
II.
A B and A C are known
117. A moving rtain moves Y meters in t seconds. Find its acceleration
I.
Y=t3 4 t2 + 16 t -2
II.
Velocity at that moment was 20 m/sec.
118. Find the sum of a Geometric series 1, 3, 9, 27, 81.for N terms.
I.
Nth term is 729
II.
Next item after the Nth term is thrice of it.
119. Find 25C10
24
I.
C14 = a
II. 24C9=b
120. Meena wants to find log70 96.
I.
She knows the value of log9670
II.
She knows the value of log1070.

76