Nombre ________________________________________

1. Incident Management has a value to the business by?

a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service
d) Contributing to the reduction of impact
2. The main objective of Availability Management is?
a) To monitor and report availability of services and components
b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the agreed needs of the
business
3. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
4. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as defined in Continual
Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
5. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses
telecommunications and IT systems to make it appear that they are in the
same location
6. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?
a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the

functionality of an application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an
application
d) A user logs onto an internal web site to download a licensed copy of software
from a list of approved options
7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all processes?
a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics
b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organisations responsible for specific outcomes
8. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should be considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers
9. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about Functions?
1. They provide structure and stability to organizations
2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
10. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the technical Infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and
support the IT Infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures
11. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service Operation?
a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet business needs
b) To deliver and support IT Services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
12. If an organisation is able to become more proactive in its ITSM processes, what is
likely to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to the current level
13. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are made
during particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency changes and to decide

whether the change should be approved

d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change process
so that no unacceptable delays occur
14. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is to?
a) Account for all the financial assets of the organisation
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT services and
different IT components needed to deliver the services
c) Build service models to justify ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organisation
15. Which of the following is a characteristic of every process?
1. It is measurable
2. It is timely
3. It delivers a specific result
4. It responds to a specific event
5. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) All of the above
16. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and determine the appropriate
control action
b) The ability to implement monitoring tools
c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking the
uptime of infrastructure devices
17. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a technology tool?
a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select Product
18. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of which of the following
elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and
Continual Service Improvement

19. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?

a) Recommending improvements
b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all Services
20. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?
21. Functions are best described as?
a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal
22. Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services into
production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing
3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an
external service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
23. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the following
elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation, and
Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition, and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement
24. An Incident occurs when:
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorised IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any disruption
to service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
25. How does an organizations use Resources and Capabilities in creating value?

a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production
management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
26. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?
a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle
27. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented within which of the
following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)
28. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about 'good practice'?
a) It can be used to drive an organisation forward
b) It is something that is in wide industry use
c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL
29. The Information Security Policy should be available to which groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff
b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager
c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only
30. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is most accurately
described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration
Items (CIs) in order to maximise their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were
designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure and
maintain accurate configuration records

1. Which of the following is NOT a step in the Continual Service

Improvement (CSI) model?
a) What is the vision?
b) Did we get there?
c) Is there budget?
d) Where are we now?
2. What is the RACI model used for?
a) Documenting the roles and relationships of stakeholders in a
process or activity
b) Defining requirements for a new service or process
c) Analyzing the business impact of an incident
d) Creating a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of Service
Management
3. What is the main reason for establishing a baseline?
a) To standardize operation
b) For knowing the cost of services provided
c) For roles and responsibility to be clear
d) For later comparison
4. Which of the following is NOT an objective of Service
Operation?
a) Through testing, to ensure that services are designed to meet
business needs
b) To deliver and support IT services
c) To manage the technology used to deliver services
d) To monitor the performance of technology and processes
5. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about patterns
of demand generated by the customers business?
a) They are driven by patterns of business activity
b) It is impossible to predict how they behave
c) It is impossible to influence demand patterns
d) They are driven by the delivery schedule generated by capacity
management
6. Which of the following is NOT one of the ITIL core
publications?
a) Service Optimization
b) Service Transition
c) Service Design
d) Service Strategy
7. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
1. Only one person can be responsible for an activity
2. Only one person can be accountable for an activity
a) All of the above

b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) None of the above
8. Which is the correct sequence of events in the selection of a
technology tool?
a) Select Product, Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product
b) Selection Criteria, Requirements, Evaluate Product, Select Product
c) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Select Product, Evaluate Product
d) Requirements, Selection Criteria, Evaluate Product, Select
Product
9. Which of the following are the three main types of metrics as
defined in Continual Service Improvement (CSI)?
1. Process Metrics
2. Supplier Metrics
3. Service Metrics
4. Technology Metrics
5. Business Metrics
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 4 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4
10. The priority of an Incident refers to?
a) The relative importance of the Incident based on impact and
urgency
b) The speed with which the Incident needs to be resolved
c) The number of staff that will be assigned to work on the Incident so
that it is resolved in time
d) The escalation path that will be followed to ensure resolution of the
incident
11. The goal of Service Asset and Configuration Management is
to?
a) Account for all financial assets of the organization
b) Provide a logical model of the IT infrastructure, correlating IT
services and different IT components needed to deliver the
services
c) Build service models to justify the ITIL implementations
d) Implement ITIL across the organization
12. Which are the missing Service Operation processes from the
following?
1. Incident Management
2. Problem Management
3. Access Management
4. ?

5. ?
a) Event management and Request Fulfillment
b) Event Management and Service Desk
c) Facilities Management and Event Management
d) Change Management and Service Level Management
13. Which of the following identifies two Service Portfolio
components within the Service Lifecycle?
a) Requirements Portfolio and Service Catalogue
b) Service Knowledge Management System and Service Catalogue
c) Service Knowledge Management System and Requirements Portfolio
d) Requirements Portfolio and Configuration Management System
14. Which of the following areas would technology help to
support during the Service Design phase of the Lifecycle?
1. Hardware and Software design
2. Environmental design
3. Process design
4. Data design
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
15. Business drivers and requirements for a new service should
be considered during?
a) Review of the router operating system patches
b) Review of the current capabilities of IT service delivery
c) The Post Implementation Review (PIR) of a change
d) Decommissioning legacy servers
16. The BEST definition of an event is?
a) An occurrence where a performance threshold has been exceeded
and an agreed Service Level has already been impacted
b) An occurrence that is significant for the management of the
IT infrastructure or delivery of services
c) A known system defect that generates multiple incident reports
d) A planned meeting of customers and IT staff to announce a new
service or improvement program
17. What does the Service V model represent?
a) A strategy for the successful completion of all Service Management
projects
b) The path to Service Delivery and Service Support for efficient
and effective utilization of resources
c) Levels of Configuration and testing required to deliver a Service
Capability

d) The business perspective as perceived by the customer and the user

of services
18. Technical Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Maintenance of the technical infrastructure
b) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage
and support the IT infrastructure
c) Defining the Operational Level Agreements for the technical
teams
d) Diagnosis of, and recovery from, technical failures
19. The following options are considered within which process?
1. Big bang vs. Phased
2. Push and Pull
3. Automated vs. Manual
a) Incident Management
b) Release and Deployment Management
c) Service Asset and Configuration Management
d) Service Catalogue Management
20. Which of the following activities is Service Level
Management responsible for?
a) Design the configuration management system from a business
perspective
b) Create technology metrics to align with customer needs
c) Create a customer facing service catalogue
d) Train service desk on how to deal with customer complaints about
service
21. When analyzing an outcome for creation of value for
customers, what attributes of the service should be considered?
a) Objectives, Metric, Desired outcome
b) Business Objectives, IT objectives, Process metrics
c) Desired outcome, Supplier metrics, IT objectives
d) People, Products, Technology
22. Setting policies and objectives is the primary concern of
which of the following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy
b) Service Strategy and Continual Service Improvement
c) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
d) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service
Operation and Continual Service Improvement
23. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of Event
Management?
a) The ability to detect events, make sense of them and
determine the appropriate control action

b) The ability to implement monitoring tools

c) The ability to monitor and control the activities of technical staff
d) The ability to report on the successful delivery of services by checking
the uptime of infrastructure devices
24. Consider the following statements:
1. CSI provides guidance on how to improve process efficiency and
effectiveness
2. CSI provides guidance on how to improve services
3. CSI provides guidance on the improvement of all phases of the service
lifecycle
4. CSI provides guidance on the measurement of processes and services
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) All of the above
25. Which of the following statements are CORRECT about
Functions?
1. They provide structure and stability to organizations
2. They are self-contained units with their own capabilities and resources
3. They rely on processes for cross-functional coordination and control
4. They are costlier to implement compared to processes
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
26. If an organization is able to become more proactive in its
ITSM processes, what is likely to happen to support costs?
a) They are likely to increase gradually
b) They are likely to increase dramatically
c) They are likely to gradually reduce
d) They are likely to reduce initially and then gradually return to current
level
27. Which of the following statements about Supplier
Management is INCORRECT?
a) Supplier Management negotiates internal and external
agreements to support the delivery of services
b) Supplier Management ensures that suppliers meet business
expectations
c) Supplier Management maintains information in a Supplier and
Contracts Database
d) Supplier Management should be involved in all stages of the service
lifecycle, from Strategy through Design and Transition to Operations and
Improvement

28. Which of the following BEST describes a Local Service Desk

structure?
a) A Service Desk that also provides onsite technical support to its users
b) A Service Desk where analysts only speak one language
c) A Service Desk that is situated in the same location as the
users it serves
d) A Service Desk that could be in any physical location but uses
telecommunications and IT systems to make it appear that they are in
the same location
29. What is the role of the Emergency Change Advisory Board
(ECAB)?
a) To assist the Change Manager in ensuring that no urgent changes are
made during particularly volatile business periods
b) To assist the Change Manager in implementing emergency changes
c) To assist the Change Manager in evaluating emergency
changes and to decide whether the change should be approved
d) To assist the Change Manager in speeding up the emergency change
process so that no unacceptable delays occur.
30. Which of the following is a good use of a baseline?
a) The desired end state of a project
b) A marker or starting point for later comparison
c) The current desktop models in use
d) The type of testing to be done for a release
31. The main objective of Availability Management is?
a) To monitor and report availability of services and components
b) To ensure that all targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs) are met
c) To guarantee availability levels for services and components
d) To ensure that service availability matches or exceeds the
agreed needs of the business
32. Operations Control refers to?
a) The managers of the Technical and Applications Management
functions
b) Overseeing the execution and monitoring of IT operational
events and activities
c) The tools used to monitor and display the status of the IT
Infrastructure and Applications
d) The situation where the Service Desk is required to monitor the status
of the infrastructure when Operators are not available
33. Which off the following is a characteristic of every process?
1. It is measurable
2. It is timely
3. It delivers a specific result

4. It responds to a specific event

5. It delivers its primary result to a customer or stakeholder
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
d) All of the above
34. Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service
Request?
a) A user calls the Service Desk to order a toner cartridge
b) A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to
change the functionality of an application
c) A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access
to an application
d) A user logs onto an internal website to download a licensed copy of
software from a list of approved options
35. A Service Level Package is best described as?
a) A definite level of utility and warranty associated with a core
service package
b) A description of customer requirements used to negotiate a Service
Level Agreement
c) A description of the value that the customer wants and for which they
are willing to pay
d) A document showing the Service Levels achieved during an agreed
reporting period
36. Incident Management has a value to the business by?
a) Helping to control infrastructure cost of adding new technology
b) Enabling users to resolve Problems
c) Helping to align people and process for the delivery of service
d) Contributing to the reduction of impact
37. A Service owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Recommending improvements
b) Designing and documenting a Service
c) Carrying out the Service Operations activities needed to support a
Service
d) Producing a balanced scorecard showing the overall status of all
Services
38. The four stages of the Deming Cycle are?
a) Plan, Measure, Monitor, Report
b) Plan, Check, Re-Act, Implement
c) Plan, Do, Act, Audit
d) Plan, Do, Check, Act

39. What is the CORRECT order of the first four activities in the 7
Step Improvement Process?
a) Define what you should measure, define what you can
measure, gather data and process data
b) Gather data, process data, analyze data and present data
c) What is the vision, where are we now, what do we want to be, how do
we get there?
d) Gather data, process data, define what you should measure and
define what you can measure
40. Which of the following statements is CORRECT for all
processes?
a) They define activities, roles, responsibilities, functions and metrics
b) They create value for stakeholders
c) They are carried out by a Service Provider in support of a Customer
d) They are units of organizations responsible for specific outcomes

Sample ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 4

1. Which of the following best means Combination of Internal &
External Sourcing?
A. Internal Sourcing-.
B. External Sourcing
C. Co-Sourcing
D. Managed Services
2. Major Incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
3. Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a
tool?
A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data
4. The spell check module of a word-processing software
package contains a number of errors. The Development
department has corrected these errors in a new version. Which
process is responsible for ensuring this updated version is
tested?
A. Configuration Management
B. Incident Management
C. Problem Management
D. Release Management
5. The Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle can be used to plan and
implement Service Management Processes:
How many times should each stage of the cycle be visited?
A. There should be a single Plan and Do, and then Check and Act should
be carried out multiple times to Implement Continual Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-DoCheck-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to Implement
Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single %n. then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be
repeated multiple times to Implement Continual improvement
6. Consider the following statements:
1. Processes should be implemented in such a way that the Role and
Function in an organization are defined
2. The RACI model Is beneficial to design Function

Which of the above statements are CORRECT?

A. 1 Only
B. Both of the above
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only
7. Which of the following is the process rather than a
department?
A. Application Management
B. Operations Management
C. Service Desk
D. Availability Management
8. Which of the following statements fully describes the aim of
Release and Deployment Management?
A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the
services specified by Service Design and that will accomplish the
stakeholders requirements and deliver the Intended objectives
B. To ensure that each release package specified by Service Design
consists of a set of related assets and service components that are
compatible with each other
C. To ensure that all release and deployment packages can be tracked,
installed, tested, verified, and/or uninstalled or backed out if appropriate
D. To record and manage deviations, risks, and issues related to the new
or changed service
9. Which of the following may be defined in a process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Guidelines
5. Standards
6. Governance Framework
A. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
B. All of the above
C. 1. 2, 5 and 6 only
D. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
10. A Service Provider is?
A. An organization supplying services to one or more external customers
B. An organization supplying services to one or more internal
customers or external customers
C. An organization supplying services to one or more internal customers
D. An organization supplying IT services
11. Which ITIL process has the objective of helping to monitor
the IT services by maintaining a logical model of the IT
infrastructure and IT services?

A. Capacity Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Financial Management for IT services
12. The Design Manager Is responsible for the overall
coordination and deployment of quality solution designs for
services and processes. Which of the following are NOT
responsibilities included In this role?
A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition Packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or
improved services, technology architecture, processes or
measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and
future IT requirements of the organization
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in
the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of the Service Design and
supporting processes
13. Of which ITIL process are Reliability, Serviceability and
Maintainability components?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Problem Management
D. Availability Management
14. Which of the following statements is true about Access
Management?
A. The Process responsible for allowing Users to make use of IT Services,
data, or other Assets.
B. Access Management helps to protect the Confidentiality, Integrity and
Availability of Assets by ensuring that only authorized Users are able to
access or modify the Assets.
C. Access Management is sometimes referred to as Rights Management
or Identity Management.
D. All of above
15. What aspects would you not expect to see in a Service Level
report designed for the customer?
A. The average utilization level of the Service Desk
B. The level of availability realized and the time not available per period
C. The percentage of incidents that was resolved within the target
D. The successful and reverted Changes during a specific period
16. Availability Management is responsible for availability of?
A. Services and Resources
B. Services and Business Processes
C. Resources and Business Processes
D. Services, Resources and Business Processes

17. What is the difference between a process and a project?

A. A process is continuous and has no end date, whereas a
project has a finite lifespan.
B. A project is continuous and has no end date, whereas a process has a
finite lifespan.
C. A process stops when the objective has been achieved, whereas a
project does not stop when the objective is met.
D. In a project the focus is not on the result, whereas with a process the
result is important
18. Which of the following is the correct set of steps for the
Continual Service improvement (CSI) Model?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production;
Operate the Solution; continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check
we arrived; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. identifies the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the
outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly
implemented; improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want
to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we
keep the momentum going?
19. What is the meaning of the term Serviceability?
A. The degree of availability of the IT services that can be offered
B. The degree of support that the Service Desk provides to the customer
C. The degree to which the provision of IT services can be
supported by maintenance contracts
D. The degree to which the services agreed in the Service Level
Agreement (SLA) are complied with
20. A user reports a PC problem to the Service Desk. A Service
Desk representative determines that the PC is defective and
indicates that according to the services catalogue, the PC will be
replaced within three hours. Which ITIL process is responsible
for having this user's PC replaced within three hours?
A. Availability Management
B. Change Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Service Level Management
21. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known
Error Data Base (KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the
CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS

D. The CMS is partof the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

22. Information is regularly exchanged between Problem
Management and Change Management. What information is
this?
A. Known Errors from Problem Management, on the basis of which
Change Management can generate Requests for Change (RFCs)
B. RFCs resulting from Known Errors
C. RFCs from the users that Problem Management passes on to Change
Management
D. RFCs from the Service Desk that Problem Management passes on to
Change Management
23. Which form of outsourcing provides domain based business
expertise?
A. Application Service Provision
B. Business Process Outsourcing
C. Knowledge Process Outsourcing
D. Co-Sourcing
24. Where are activities documented with the aim of improving
an IT service?
A. Service Catalogue
B. Service Improvement Program
C. Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D. Service Quality Plan (SQP)
25. Changes are divided into categories.
What criterion defines a category for a change?
A. The consequences of the change such as limited, substantial,
significant, etc.
B. The speed with which the change is made
C. The sequence in which the change is made
D. The Request for Change number that the change is assigned
26. In IT Service Continuity Management various precautionary
measures are taken, for example using an emergency power
provision.
Which of the following ITIL processes could also initiate this kind
of measure?
A. Availability Management
B. Capacity management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management
27. What is a request to replace something within the IT
infrastructure called?
A. Replacement Request
B. Request for Change

C. Request for Release

D. Service Request
28. Which ITIL process manager requires a report specifying the
duration of an interruption of a Configuration Item?
A. Availability Manager
B. Incident Manager
C. Problem Manager
D. Service Level Manager
29. Which of the following steps from the continual
improvement Model is missing?
1. What Is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6.?
A. What is the ROI
B. How much did it cost.
C. How do we keep the momentum going.
D. What is the VOI?
30. Which of the following best describes the goal of Information
Security Management Process?
A. To align IT security with business security and ensure that
information security is effectively managed in all service and
Service Management activities.
B. To ensure that that the information security risks are appropriately
managed and enterprise information resources are used responsibly.
C. To provide a focus for all aspects of IT security and manage all IT
security activities.
D. To provide the strategic direction for security activities and ensures
objectives are achieved
31. Which of the following statements about Supplier and
Contract Database (SCD) are correct?
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Supplier
Contracts throughout their Lifecycle.
2. The SCD contains key Attributes of all Contracts with Suppliers
3. Its never part of the Service Knowledge Management System.
4. Maintaining it is responsibility of Supplier management process
A. 1 & 2 only
B. 1, 2 & 3
C. 1, 2 & 4
D. All of above

32. Which of the following will complete the Four P's of Service
Design?
1. Perspectives
2. Positioning
3. Plan
4. ???
A. People
B. Product
C. Patterns
D. Partners
33. What does Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) mean?
A. Average uptime of a service
B. Average downtime of a service
C. Average time between two consecutive incidents
D. Average time of the breakdown-free period within a measured period
34. Which of the following statements is true about the term
Event?
A. A change of state which has significance for the management of a
Configuration Item or IT service.
B. The term Event is also used to mean an Alert or notification created
by any IT Service, configuration Item or Monitoring tool.
C. Events typically require IT Operations personnel to take actions, and
often lead to Incidents being logged
D. All of above
35. Which of the following is the best description of the contents
of the Definitive Media Library (DML)?
A. Copies of all software versions that are needed
B. Copies of all live software programs
C. Authorized versions of all software used on the infrastructure
D. Software awaiting user acceptance testing
36. Application Portfolio
1. A database or structured Document used to manage Applications
throughout their Lifecycle.
2. The Application Portfolio contains key Attributes of all Applications.
3. The Application Portfolio is sometimes implemented as part of the
Service Portfolio, or as part of the Configuration Management System.
Which of the above statements is correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 & 3only
C. All of above
D. 1 & 2 only
37. Which of the following best describes Fault Tolerance?

A. The ability of an IT Service or Configuration Item to continue

to operate correctly after Failure of a Component part.
B. The ability of a third-party supplier to meet the terms of their
contract. Often this contract will include agreed levels of availability,
reliability and/or maintainability for a supporting service or component.
C. A measure of how quickly and effectively a service, component or CI
can be restored to normal working after a failure.
D. A measure of how long a service, component or CI can perform its
agreed function without interruption
38. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by
Capacity Plan?
A. Capacity Forecasts
B. Recommendations
C. Components and resource forecasts
D. Countermeasures for risks
39. How can an organization determine the effectiveness of the
Service Level Management process?
A. By checking contracts with suppliers
B. By measuring customer satisfaction
C. By defining service levels
D. By reporting on all incidents
40. What is the first activity when implementing a release?
A. Designing and building a release
B. Testing a release
C. Compiling the release schedule
D. Communicating and preparing the release

Wednesday, January 21, 2009

Sample ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Sample

You might also like:

Sample ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 2
Sample ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 3
Sample ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 4
LinkWithin

To the relevant readers interested in ITIL version 3 Foundations Certification, here's a

sample exam paper.
I recently cleared ITIL with a 100% and thought I would share some of the sample exam
paper.
Hope you would find it useful.
Please subscribe to the blog and visit often as there will be more sample papers posted

QUESTION :1 Which of the following questions does guidance in Service Strategy help
answer?
1: What services should we offer and to whom?
2: How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
3: How do we truly create value for our customers?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION :2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service Design
Manager?
A.Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B.Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes
or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
organisation
C.Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design
process and the service
designs that are produced
D.Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting

processes
Answer: A

QUESTION :3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?
1: Customer retention
2: Time to market
3: Service Architecture
4: Market share
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.All of the above
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D

QUESTION :4. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is
part of which process?
TestInside EX0-101
A.Service Portfolio Management
B.Service Level Management
C.Component Capacity Management
D.Demand Management
Answer: D

QUESTION :5. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:

A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of
services
C.To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D

QUESTION :6. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1: Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2: Designing technology architectures to support the service
3: Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in place
A.All of the above
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only

D.1 and 3 only

Answer: D

QUESTION :7. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of
Service Level Management?
A.Customer satisfaction score
B.Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agent
C.Number of services in the Service Portfolio
D.Number of services deployed within agreed times
Answer: A

TestInside EX0-101

QUESTION :8. Major Incidents require:

A.Separate procedures
B.Less urgency
C.Longer timescales
D.Less documentation
Answer: A

QUESTION :9. Which of the following should be done when closing an Incident?
1: Check the Incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2: Decide whether a Problem needs to be logged
A.1 only
B.Both of the above
C.2 only
D.None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION :10. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A.To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request
them
B.To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service
Desk
C.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D.To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
Answer: B

QUESTION :11. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request
Fulfilment process?
A.The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g.
licenses and software media)
B.Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined approval and
qualification process exists
C.Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for
obtaining them
D.Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
Answer: D
QUESTION :12. How many numbered steps are in the Continual Service Improvement
(CSI) process?
A.7
B.4
C.6
D.11
Answer: A

QUESTION :13. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?

A.Network Management and Application Management
B.Technical Management and Application Management
C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D.Facilities Management and Technical Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle.
Which of the following
statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT?
A.It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle
B.It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
C.It consists of five publications
D.It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC
20000
Answer: B

QUESTION :15. Which of the following should be supported by technology?

1: Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data

2: Control of user desk-tops
3: Creation and use of diagnostic scripts
4: Visibility of overall IT Service performance
A.2, 3 and 4 only
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D
QUESTION :16. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?
A.Knowledge
B.Information
C.Wisdom
D.Data
Answer: C

QUESTION :17. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are:
A.Carried out by Service Operations
B.Carried out by lots of people
C.Critical to the success of the business mission
D.Simple and well understood
Answer: D

QUESTION :18. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the
Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1: Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged
2: Control of user desk-top PCs
3: Create and use diagnostic scripts
4: Dashboard type technology
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

QUESTION :19. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for
customers?
A.Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)

B.Customer and User satisfaction

C.Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D.Utility and Warranty
Answer: D
QUESTION :20. What is the Service Pipeline?
A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stage, or are undergoing testing
B.All services except those that have been retired
C.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D.All complex multi-user services
Answer: A

QUESTION :21. What are the types of activity within Demand Management?
A.Activity based, Access Management
B.Activity based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
C.Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
D.Analytical based, Shaping user behaviour
Answer: B

QUESTION :22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B.To provide training and certification in project management
C.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a Release
Answer: B

QUESTION :23. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media
Library (DML)?
A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items
(CIs) are stored and
protected
C.A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are
stored and protected
Answer: B
QUESTION :24. One organisation provides and manages an entire business process or
function for another
organisation. This is know as:

A.Business Process Management

B.Business Function Outsourcing
C.Business Process Outsourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
Answer: C
QUESTION :25. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by
Demand Management?
A.Service Catalogue Management
B.Service Level Management
C.IT Service Continuity Management
D.Capacity Management
Answer: D

QUESTION :26. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?
A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B.To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C.To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Answer: D

QUESTION :27. Availability Management is responsible for availability the of:

A.Services and Components
B.Services and Business Processes
C.Components and Business Processes
D.Services, Components and Business Processes
Answer: A
QUESTION :28. Which of the following is a sub-process of Capacity Management?
A.Component Capacity Management
B.Process Capacity Management
C.Technology Capacity Management
D.Capability Capacity Management
Answer: A

QUESTION :29. The group that authorises Changes that must be installed faster than the
normal process is called the:
A.Technical Management
B.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
C.Urgent Change Board (UCB)

D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

Answer: B

QUESTION :30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release
and Deployment Management?
A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service
Design and that will
accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives
B.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of
related assets and service
components that are compatible with each other
C.To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested,
verified and/or uninstalled
or backed out if appropriate
D.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Answer: A

QUESTION :31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A.Prepare for action
B.Define what you should measure
C.Where are we now?
D.Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
Answer: B
QUESTION :32. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?
A.Application Management
B.Service Desk
C.Incident Management
D.Technical Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :33. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?

A.A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact
B.A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
C.A dedicated number of staff answering questions from users
D.A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
Answer: D

QUESTION :34. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service

Desk?
1: Logging details of Incidents and service requests
2: Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3: Restoring service
4: Diagnosing the root-cause of problems
A.All of the above
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

QUESTION :35. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management
of a data centre?
A.Technical Management
B.Service Desk
C.IT Operations Control
D.Facilities Management
Answer: D
QUESTION :36. Governance is concerned with:
A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes
B.Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed
C.Reducing the total cost of providing services
D.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met
Answer: B

QUESTION :37. A risk is:

A.Something that won't happen
B.Something that will happen
C.Something that has happened
D.Something that might happen
Answer: D

QUESTION :38. Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record
should be raised?
A.A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been
found
B.A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
C.As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found
D.Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all

actions is retained in case

of a recurrence
Answer: B

QUESTION :39. IT Operations Management have been asked by a customer to carry out a
non-standard activity,
that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?
A.Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service
levels
B.Make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness
C.Accept the request as they must support customer business outcomes
D.They should escalate this decision to Service Strategy
Answer: B

QUESTION :40. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service
components?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Portfolio Management
C.Service Asset and Configuration Management
D.Incident Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :41. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined
within:
A.The RACI Model
B.A Release Package
C.A Request Model
D.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B

QUESTION :42. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or
Incident could be managed?
1: Incident Model
2: Known Error Record
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :43. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost
changes?
A.Demand Management
B.Incident Management
C.Release and Deployment Management
D.Request Fulfilment
Answer: D

QUESTION :44. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organisation?
A.The Service Level Manager
B.The Business Relationship Manager
C.The Service Owner
D.The Service Continuity Manager
Answer: C

QUESTION :45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management
process?
A.Overall business risk is optimised
B.Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C.All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the
Configuration Management
System (CMS)
D.All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
Answer: D

QUESTION :46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of
Service Design?
A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B.The design of new or changed services
C.The design of Market Spaces
D.The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: C

QUESTION :47. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service
solutions. Which of the
following does this include?
A.Only capabilities needed and agreed

B.Only resources and capabilities needed

C.Only requirements needed and agreed
D.Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
Answer: D

QUESTION :48. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?
A.Configuration
B.Consulted
C.Complex
D.Controlled
Answer: B
QUESTION :49. What is a RACI model used for?
A.Performance analysis
B.Recording Configuration Items
C.Monitoring services
D.Defining roles and responsibilities
Answer: D

QUESTION :50. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define
an organisational structure?
A.RACI Model
B.Service Model
C.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
D.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: A

QUESTION :51. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service
Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the
Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
Answer: B

QUESTION :52. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal
arrangements between two
or more organisations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate

and/or support IT services"?

A.Outsourcing
B.Application Service Provision
C.Multi-sourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
TestInside EX0-101
Answer: C

QUESTION :53. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and
measure?
A.Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B.Report; Manage; Improve; Extend
C.Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; Intervene
D.Plan; Predict; Report; Justify
Answer: A

QUESTION :54. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and
support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A.Early Life Support
B.Service Test Manager
C.Evaluation
D.Release Packaging and Build Manager
Answer: A

QUESTION :55. What does a service always deliver to customers?

A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources
Answer: C

QUESTION :56. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a
service?
A.The Service Provider
B.The Service Level Manager
C.The Customer
D.Resources
Answer: A

QUESTION :57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining
policies and objectives?
A.Service Design
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Operation
Answer: C

QUESTION :58. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or
changed services?
A.Change Management
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Design
Answer: D

QUESTION :59. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition
could provide to the business?
1: Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
2: Reduced cost to design new services
3: Improved success in implementing changes
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.All the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :60. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A.A Change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B.A Change that correctly follows the required Change process
C.A pre-authorised Change that has an accepted and established procedure
D.A Change that is made as the result of an audit
Answer: C
QUESTION :61. Which of the following are activities that would be carried out by
Supplier Management?
1: Management and review of Organisational Level Agreements (OLAs)
2: Evaluation and selection of suppliers
3: Ongoing management of suppliers

A.1 and 2 only

B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement
Process apply to?
A.Service Operation
B.Service Transition and Service Operation
C.Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation
D.Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual
Service Improvement
Answer: D

QUESTION :63. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of
Change Management?
A.A set of
QUESTIONs that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B.A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C.A set of
QUESTIONs that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D.A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
Answer: A

QUESTION :64. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be

caused by:
1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an
unauthorized Configuration
Item (CI) being detected on the network
2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its
intended recipient
A.2 only
B.1 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service
Management?
A.A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the
form of services
B.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified
whole, operating together
for a common purpose
C.The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activities
D.Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities
Answer: A

QUESTION :66. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and

planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners
Answer: C

QUESTION :67. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for

providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers
Answer: B

QUESTION :68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model represents requirements and
specifications.
What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model represent?
A.Validation and Testing
B.The business value that can be expected from a given service
C.Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructure
D.Roles and responsibilities required for an effective Service Management implementation
Answer: A
QUESTION :69. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of

services has started

to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A.Extreme focus on cost
B.Extreme focus on quality
C.Excessively proactive
D.Excessively reactive
Answer: A

QUESTION :70. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
Model after:
1: What is the vision?
2: Where are we now?
3: Where do we want to be?
4: How do we get there?
5: Did we get there?
6: ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C

QUESTION :71. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

implementation steps into the correct
sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
1: Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives
2: Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved
3: Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI
4: Implement CSI enhancement
A.3-1-2-4
B.3-4-2-1
C.1-3-2-4
D.2-3-4-1
Answer: A

QUESTION :72. Which activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of
the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) Model?
A.Implementing service and process improvements

B.Aligning the business and IT strategies

C.Creating a baseline
D.Defining measurable targets
Answer: D

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ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 4

ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 3
ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 2
ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 4
ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 3
ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Paper 2

1. The ITIL V3 core is best described as?

a) An Operations Lifecycle
b) An IT Management Lifecycle
c) A Service Lifecycle
d) An Infrastructure Lifecycle
2. Which aspect of Service Design is missing from the list below?
1. The design of services
2. The design of Service Management systems and tools
3. The design of technology architecture and management systems
4. The design of the processes required
5. ?
a) The design of Functions
b) The design of Service Level Agreements
c) The design of applications
d) The design of measurement systems, methods and metrics
3. Which of the following Roles is responsible for identifying
opportunities for improvement?
1. Service Owner
2. Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Manager
3. Process Owner
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) All of the above
d) 2 and 3 only
4. Learning and improvement is the primary concern of which of the
following elements of the Service Lifecycle?
a) Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and
Continual Service Improvement
b) Service Strategy, Service Transition and Service Operation
c) Service Operation and Continual Service Improvement
d) Continual Service Improvement
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate approach to carrying
out Service Operations?
a) The internal IT view is most important as Service Operations has to monitor
and manage the infrastructure
b) Service Operations should maintain a balance between an internal
IT view and an external business view
c) The external business view is most important as Service Operations is the
place where value is realized and the customer obtains the benefit of the
services
d) IT Operations does not take an internal or external view as they execute
processes defined by Service Design

6. Which of the following statements about the Service Desk are

CORRECT?
1. The Service Desk is a function that provides a means of communication
between IT and its users for all operational issues
2. The Service Desk is always the owner of the Incident Management process
a) 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
7. How does an organization use Resources and Capabilities in
creating value?
a) They are used to create value in the form of output for production
management
b) They are used to create value in the form of goods and services
c) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Support
d) They are used to create value to the IT organization for Service Delivery
8. In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of the
following?
1. Service Portfolio Management
2. Demand Management
3. Financial Management
a) Service Operations
b) Service Strategy
c) Service Transition
d) Continual Service Improvement
9. Which of the following statements BEST describes the role of
Communication during Service Operation?
a) Communication is defined as part of all processes and is executed in Service
Operation
b) Communication is a separate process that needs to be defined and executed
with Service Operation
c) Good communication is essential for successful Service Operation,
just as it is for any other phase of the Lifecycle
d) Communication is more important in Service Operation than in any other
stage of the Service Lifecycle
10. A Process owner is responsible for which of the following?
a) Purchasing tools to support the Process
b) Ensuring that targets specified in an SLA are met
c) Carrying out activities defined in the Process
d) Monitoring and improving the Process
11. Demand Management is primarily used to?
a) Increase customer value

b) Eliminate excess capacity needs

c) Increase the value of IT
d) Align business with IT cost
12. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of organizing
Continual Service Improvement (CSI) using the RACI model?
a) Facilitates clear communication and workflow practice across all parties
involved in the CSI program
b) Clarifies the roles and responsibilities of individual in the CSI program which
could otherwise be overlapping and confusing
c) Identifies where internal Service Level Agreements (SLAs) can be established
to implement CSI
d) Provides a clear focus for matching the CSI processes to financial
planning
13. Which of the following are objectives of the Release and
Deployment Management process?
1. To ensure there are clear release and deployment plans
2. To ensure that skills and knowledge are transferred to operations and
support staff
3. To ensure there is minimal unpredicted impact on production services
4. To provide cost justifiable IT capacity that is matched to the needs of the
business
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) All of the above
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
14. Which of the following questions is NOT answered by Service
Portfolio Management?
a) How should our resources and capabilities be allocated?
b) What opportunities are there in the market?
c) Why should a customer buy these services?
d) What are the pricing or chargeback models?
15. Which of the following statements are NOT included in Access
Management?
1. Verifying the identity of users requesting access to services
2. Setting the rights or privileges of systems to allow access to authorized
users
3. Defining security policies for system access
4. Monitoring the availability of systems that users should have access to
a) 3 and 4 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 2 only
16. Application Management is NOT responsible for?
a) Documenting and maintaining the technical skills required to manage and
support Applications
b) Managing applications through their lifecycle

c) Assisting in the decision to build or buy new software

d) Developing operational functionality required by the business
17. If something cannot be measured, it should not be documented
within which of the following?
a) The Glossary of Terms
b) A Service Level Agreement
c) An Incident Management record
d) A Configuration Item (CI)
18. What is the purpose of the Request Fulfillment Process?
a) Dealing with Service Requests from the users
b) Making sure all requests within an IT Organization is fulfilled
c) Ensuring fulfillment of Change Requests
d) Making sure the Service Level Agreement is met
19. Which of the following areas would technology help to support
during the Service Transition phase of the lifecycle?
1. Data mining and workflow tools
2. Measurement and reporting systems
3. Release and Deployment technology
4. Process Design
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) All of the above
20. Which of the following statements is CORRECT about good
practice?
a) It can be used to drive an organization forward
b) It is something that is in wide industry use
c) It is always documented in international standards
d) It is always based on ITIL
21. Consider the following statements:
1. A Process should be traceable to a specific trigger
2. A characteristic of the Process is that it is performance driven and able to
be measured
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
a) 1 only
b) All of the above
c) None of the above
d) 2 only
22. Warranty of a service means which of the following?
a) The service is fit for purpose
b) There will be no failures in applications and infrastructure associated with
the service
c) All service-related problems are fixed free of charge for a certain period of
time
d) Customers are assured of certain levels of availability, capacity,
continuity and security

23. The objective of Service Asset and Configuration Management is

most accurately described as?
a) To understand the performance characteristics of assets and Configuration
Items (CIs) in order to maximize their contribution to service levels
b) To manage service assets and CIs from an operational perspective
c) To ensure that assets and CIs deliver the business outcomes they were
designed to achieve
d) To define and control the components of services and infrastructure
and maintain accurate configuration records
24. A Service Catalogue should contain which of the following?
a) The version information of all software
b) The organizational structure of the company
c) Asset information
d) Details of all operational services
25. Facilities Management refers to?
a) The Management of IT services that are viewed as utilities, such as
printers or network access
b) The Management of an outsourcing contract
c) The Management of the physical IT environment, such as a Data
Center
d) The procurement and maintenance of tools that are used by IT operations
staff to maintain the infrastructure
26. When planning and implementing a Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) initiative, which of the following benefits is LEAST
useful in supporting a business case?
a) Reduce technology investment by $5m due to more accurate capacity and
performance modeling processes
b) Reduce support manpower demand by 30% due to automated incident and
problem management processes
c) Improve employee morale and therefore create better relationships
between IT and business units
d) Reduce Problem resolution by 50% and minimize critical system outages
27. Which of the following would NOT be stored in the Definitive Media
Library (DML)?
a) Master copies of software
b) Backups of application data
c) Software licenses
d) Master copies of controlled documentation
28. The objective of the Change Management process is most
accurately described as?
a) Ensuring that all changes are recorded, managed, tested and
implemented in a controlled manner
b) Ensuring that changes to IT infrastructure are managed efficiently and
effectively
c) Ensuring that all changes have appropriate back-out plans in the event of
failure

d) Protecting services by not allowing changes to be made

29. Functions are best described as?
a) Without their own body of knowledge
b) Closed loop systems
c) Self-Contained units of organizations
d) Focusing on transformation to a goal
30. What is the best definition of an Incident Model?
a) The template used to define the Incident logging form used to report
Incidents
b) A type of Incident involving a standard (or model) type of Configuration Item
(CI)
c) A set of pre-defined steps to be followed when dealing with a
known type of Incident
d) An Incident that is easy to solve
31. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Insourcing
and Outsourcing delivery model options?
a) Insourcing relies on internal resources; outsourcing relies on
external organization(s) resources
b) Insourcing relies on external organization(s) resources; outsourcing relies on
internal resources
c) Insourcing relies on co-sourcing; outsourcing relies on partnerships
d) Insourcing relies on knowledge process outsourcing; outsourcing relies on
application service provisioning
32. Why should monitoring and measuring be used when trying to
improve services?
a) To validate, direct, justify and intervene
b) To validate, measure, monitor and change
c) To validate, plan, act and improve
d) To validate, assign resources, purchase technology and train people
33. A benefit of using Service Design tools is?
a) To help ensure that standards and conventions are followed
b) To help ensure that events are detected as quickly as possible
c) To help enable different applications to work together
d) To help implement architectures that support the business strategy
34. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Four Ps
of Service Design?
a) A four step process for the design of effective Service Management
b) A definition of the people and products required for successful design
c) A set of questions that should be asked when reviewing design specifications
d) The four major areas that need to be considered in the design of
effective Service Management
35. Consider the following statements:
1. Service Transition provides guidance on moving new and changed services
into production
2. Service Transition provides guidance on testing

3. Service Transition provides guidance on the transfer of services to or from an

external service provider
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) All of the above
d) 1 and 3 only
36. Which is the first activity of the Continual Service Improvement
(CSI) model?
a) Assess the current business situation
b) Understand high-level business requirements
c) Agree on priorities for improvement
d) Create and verify a plan
37. An Incident occurs when:
1. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
2. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service
hours
3. A redundant network segment fails, and the user is not aware of any
disruption to service
4. A user contacts the Service Desk about slow performance of an application
Which of the above statements is CORRECT?
a) All of the above
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
38. Which process reviews Operational Level Agreements (OLAs) on a
regular basis?
a) Supplier Management
b) Service Level Management
c) Service Portfolio Management
d) Contract Management
39. The 7 Step Improvement Process can most accurately be described
as?
a) The Seven Ps of Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
b) A service improvement methodology based on the Deming Cycle
c) A set of roles and responsibilities for managing service improvements
d) A process for defining what is to be measured, gathering the data,
processing the data and using it to take corrective action
40. The Information Security Policy should be available to which
groups of people?
a) Senior business managers and all IT staff

b) Senior business managers, IT executives and the Security Manager

c) All customers, users and IT staff
d) Information Security Management staff only

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Sample ITIL v3 Service Certification Exam - Sample

QUESTION :1 Which of the following

QUESTIONs does guidance in Service Strategy help answer?
1: What services should we offer and to whom?
2: How do we differentiate ourselves from competing alternatives?
3: How do we truly create value for our customers?
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION :2. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the Service Design
Manager?
A.Design and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B.Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology
architecture, processes
or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the
organisation
C.Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design
process and the service
designs that are produced
D.Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting
processes
Answer: A

QUESTION :3. Which of the following are valid examples of business value measures?
1: Customer retention
2: Time to market
3: Service Architecture
4: Market share
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 4 only
C.All of the above
D.1, 2 and 4 only
Answer: D

QUESTION :4. Understanding customer usage of services and how this varies over time is
part of which process?
TestInside EX0-101
A.Service Portfolio Management
B.Service Level Management
C.Component Capacity Management
D.Demand Management
Answer: D

QUESTION :5. The MAIN objective of Service Level Management is:

A.To carry out the Service Operations activities needed to support current IT services
B.To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of
services
C.To create and populate a Service Catalogue
D.To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D

QUESTION :6. Which of the following are responsibilities of a Service Level Manager?
1: Agreeing targets in Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
2: Designing technology architectures to support the service
3: Ensuring required contracts and agreements are in place
A.All of the above
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 2 only
D.1 and 3 only
Answer: D

QUESTION :7. Which of the following is a good metric for measuring the effectiveness of
Service Level Management?
A.Customer satisfaction score
B.Average number of daily Incidents managed by each service agent
C.Number of services in the Service Portfolio
D.Number of services deployed within agreed times
Answer: A
TestInside EX0-101

QUESTION :8. Major Incidents require:

A.Separate procedures
B.Less urgency

C.Longer timescales
D.Less documentation
Answer: A

QUESTION :9. Which of the following should be done when closing an Incident?
1: Check the Incident categorization and correct it if necessary
2: Decide whether a Problem needs to be logged
A.1 only
B.Both of the above
C.2 only
D.None of the above
Answer: B

QUESTION :10. Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?
A.To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request
them
B.To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service
Desk
C.To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D.To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested
Answer: B

QUESTION :11. Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request
Fulfilment process?
A.The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g.
licenses and software media)
B.Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a predefined approval and
qualification process exists
C.Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for
obtaining them
D.Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
Answer: D

QUESTION :12. How many numbered steps are in the Continual Service Improvement
(CSI) process?
A.7

B.4
C.6
D.11
Answer: A

QUESTION :13. Which Functions are included in IT Operations Management?

A.Network Management and Application Management
B.Technical Management and Application Management
C.IT Operations Control and Facilities Management
D.Facilities Management and Technical Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :14. The ITIL CORE publications are structured around the Service Lifecycle.
Which of the following
statements about the ITIL COMPLEMENTARY guidance is CORRECT?
A.It is also structured around the Service Lifecycle
B.It provides guidance to specific industry sectors and types of organization
C.It consists of five publications
D.It provides the guidance necessary for an integrated approach as required by ISO/IEC
20000
Answer: B

QUESTION :15. Which of the following should be supported by technology?

1: Verification of Configuration Management System (CMS) data
2: Control of user desk-tops
3: Creation and use of diagnostic scripts
4: Visibility of overall IT Service performance
A.2, 3 and 4 only
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.All of the above
Answer: D

QUESTION :16. Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A.Knowledge
B.Information
C.Wisdom
D.Data

Answer: C

QUESTION :17. The BEST Processes to automate are those that are:
A.Carried out by Service Operations
B.Carried out by lots of people
C.Critical to the success of the business mission
D.Simple and well understood
Answer: D

QUESTION :18. Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the
Service Operation
phase of the Lifecycle?
1: Identifying configuration of user desktop PCs when Incidents are logged
2: Control of user desk-top PCs
3: Create and use diagnostic scripts
4: Dashboard type technology
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 3 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

QUESTION :19. Which of the following are the two primary elements that create value for
customers?
A.Value on Investment (VOI), Return on Investment (ROI)
B.Customer and User satisfaction
C.Understanding Service Requirements and Warranty
D.Utility and Warranty
Answer: D

QUESTION :20. What is the Service Pipeline?

A.All services that are at a conceptual or development stage, or are undergoing testing
B.All services except those that have been retired
C.All services that are contained within the Service Level Agreement (SLA)
D.All complex multi-user services
Answer: A

QUESTION :21. What are the types of activity within Demand Management?
A.Activity based, Access Management
B.Activity based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
C.Analytical based, Business activity patterns and user profiles
D.Analytical based, Shaping user behaviour
Answer: B

QUESTION :22. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of Service Transition?

A.To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supported
B.To provide training and certification in project management
C.To provide quality knowledge of Change, Release and Deployment Management
D.To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a Release
Answer: B

QUESTION :23. Which of the following statements BEST describes a Definitive Media
Library (DML)?
A.A secure location where definitive hardware spares are held
B.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all media Configuration Items
(CIs) are stored and
protected
C.A database that contains definitions of all media CIs
D.A secure library where definitive authorised versions of all software and back-ups are
stored and protected
Answer: B

QUESTION :24. One organisation provides and manages an entire business process or
function for another
organisation. This is know as:
A.Business Process Management
B.Business Function Outsourcing
C.Business Process Outsourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
Answer: C

QUESTION :25. Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by
Demand Management?
A.Service Catalogue Management
B.Service Level Management

C.IT Service Continuity Management

D.Capacity Management
Answer: D

QUESTION :26. What is the BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation?
A.To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B.To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C.To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D.To deliver and manage IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers
Answer: D

QUESTION :27. Availability Management is responsible for availability the of:

A.Services and Components
B.Services and Business Processes
C.Components and Business Processes
D.Services, Components and Business Processes
Answer: A

QUESTION :28. Which of the following is a sub-process of Capacity Management?

A.Component Capacity Management
B.Process Capacity Management
C.Technology Capacity Management
D.Capability Capacity Management
Answer: A

QUESTION :29. The group that authorises Changes that must be installed faster than the
normal process is called the:
A.Technical Management
B.Emergency Change Advisory Board (ECAB)
C.Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D.Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: B

QUESTION :30. Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of Release
and Deployment Management?
A.To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by Service
Design and that will

accomplish the stakeholders requirements and deliver the intended objectives

B.To ensure that each Release package specified by Service Design consists of a set of
related assets and service
components that are compatible with each other
C.To ensure that all Release and Deployment packages can be tracked, installed, tested,
verified and/or uninstalled
or backed out if appropriate
D.To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service
Answer: A

QUESTION :31. Which of the following is step 1 in the 7 Step Improvement Process?
A.Prepare for action
B.Define what you should measure
C.Where are we now?
D.Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement
Answer: B

QUESTION :32. Which of the following is NOT a FUNCTION?

A.Application Management
B.Service Desk
C.Incident Management
D.Technical Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :33. Which of the following BEST describes a Service Desk?

A.A process within Service Operation providing a single point of contact
B.A dedicated number of staff handling service requests
C.A dedicated number of staff answering
QUESTIONs from users
D.A dedicated number of staff handling Incidents and service requests
Answer: D

QUESTION :34. Which of these activities would you expect to be performed by a Service
Desk?
1: Logging details of Incidents and service requests
2: Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis
3: Restoring service

4: Diagnosing the root-cause of problems

A.All of the above
B.1, 2 and 3 only
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B

QUESTION :35. Which of the following functions would be responsible for management
of a data centre?
A.Technical Management
B.Service Desk
C.IT Operations Control
D.Facilities Management
Answer: D

QUESTION :36. Governance is concerned with:

A.Measuring and improving the efficiency and effectiveness of processes
B.Ensuring that defined strategy is actually followed
C.Reducing the total cost of providing services
D.Ensuring that agreed Service Level Requirements are met
Answer: B

QUESTION :37. A risk is:

A.Something that won't happen
B.Something that will happen
C.Something that has happened
D.Something that might happen
Answer: D

QUESTION :38. Which of the following BEST describes when a Known Error record
should be raised?
A.A Known Error should not be raised until a temporary resolution or workaround has been
found
B.A Known Error should be raised at any time that it would be useful to do so
C.As soon as it becomes obvious that a quick resolution of the Problem will not be found
D.Immediately following the Problem resolution, so a permanent historical record of all
actions is retained in case
of a recurrence

Answer: B

QUESTION :39. IT Operations Management have been asked by a customer to carry out a
non-standard activity,
that will cause them to miss an agreed service level target. How should they respond?
A.Refuse the request because they must operate the service to meet the agreed service
levels
B.Make a decision based on balancing stability and responsiveness
C.Accept the request as they must support customer business outcomes
D.They should escalate this decision to Service Strategy
Answer: B

QUESTION :40. Which process is responsible for recording relationships between service
components?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Portfolio Management
C.Service Asset and Configuration Management
D.Incident Management
Answer: C

QUESTION :41. A single Release unit, or a structured set of Release units can be defined
within:
A.The RACI Model
B.A Release Package
C.A Request Model
D.The Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle
Answer: B

QUESTION :42. Which of the following might be used to define how a future Problem or
Incident could be managed?
1: Incident Model
2: Known Error Record
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :43. Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost
changes?
A.Demand Management
B.Incident Management
C.Release and Deployment Management
D.Request Fulfilment
Answer: D

QUESTION :44. Which role is accountable for a specific service within an organisation?
A.The Service Level Manager
B.The Business Relationship Manager
C.The Service Owner
D.The Service Continuity Manager
Answer: C

QUESTION :45. Which of the following is NOT an aim of the Change Management
process?
A.Overall business risk is optimised
B.Standardised methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all
Changes
C.All changes to Service Assets and Configuration Items (CIs) are recorded in the
Configuration Management
System (CMS)
D.All budgets and expenditures are accounted for
Answer: D

QUESTION :46. Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of
Service Design?
A.The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B.The design of new or changed services
C.The design of Market Spaces
D.The design of the technology architecture and management systems
Answer: C

QUESTION :47. One of the five major aspects of Service Design is the design of service
solutions. Which of the
following does this include?
A.Only capabilities needed and agreed

B.Only resources and capabilities needed

C.Only requirements needed and agreed
D.Requirements, resources and capabilities needed and agreed
Answer: D

QUESTION :48. Which of the following is a valid role in the RACI Authority Matrix?
A.Configuration
B.Consulted
C.Complex
D.Controlled
Answer: B

QUESTION :49. What is a RACI model used for?

A.Performance analysis
B.Recording Configuration Items
C.Monitoring services
D.Defining roles and responsibilities
Answer: D

QUESTION :50. Which of the following models would be most useful in helping to define
an organisational structure?
A.RACI Model
B.Service Model
C.Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model
D.Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) Model
Answer: A

QUESTION :51. Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service
Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the
Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
Answer: B

QUESTION :52. Which of the following delivery strategies is described as, "Formal
arrangements between two
or more organisations to work together to design, develop, transition, maintain, operate
and/or support IT services"?
A.Outsourcing
B.Application Service Provision
C.Multi-sourcing
D.Knowledge Process Outsourcing
TestInside EX0-101
Answer: C

QUESTION :53. To add value to the business, what are the four reasons to monitor and
measure?
A.Validate; Direct; Justify; Intervene
B.Report; Manage; Improve; Extend
C.Manage; Monitor; Diagnose; Intervene
D.Plan; Predict; Report; Justify
Answer: A

QUESTION :54. Which of the following provides resources to resolve operational and
support issues during
Release and Deployment?
A.Early Life Support
B.Service Test Manager
C.Evaluation
D.Release Packaging and Build Manager
Answer: A

QUESTION :55. What does a service always deliver to customers?

A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources
Answer: C

QUESTION :56. Who owns the specific costs and risks associated with providing a
service?
A.The Service Provider
B.The Service Level Manager

C.The Customer
D.Resources
Answer: A

QUESTION :57. Which stage of the Service Lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining
policies and objectives?
A.Service Design
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Operation
Answer: C

QUESTION :58. Which of the following is MOST concerned with the design of new or
changed services?
A.Change Management
B.Service Transition
C.Service Strategy
D.Service Design
Answer: D

QUESTION :59. Which of the following are benefits that implementing Service Transition
could provide to the business?
1: Ability to adapt quickly to new requirements
2: Reduced cost to design new services
3: Improved success in implementing changes
A.1 and 2 only
B.2 and 3 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.All the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :60. Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A.A Change to the service provider's established policies and guidelines
B.A Change that correctly follows the required Change process
C.A pre-authorised Change that has an accepted and established procedure
D.A Change that is made as the result of an audit
Answer: C

QUESTION :61. Which of the following are activities that would be carried out by
Supplier Management?
1: Management and review of Organisational Level Agreements (OLAs)
2: Evaluation and selection of suppliers
3: Ongoing management of suppliers
A.1 and 2 only
B.1 and 3 only
C.2 and 3 only
D.All of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :62. Which stages of the Service Lifecycle does the 7 Step Improvement
Process apply to?
A.Service Operation
B.Service Transition and Service Operation
C.Service Design, Service Transition and Service Operation
D.Service Strategy, Service Design, Service Transition, Service Operation and Continual
Service Improvement
Answer: D

QUESTION :63. Which of the following is the CORRECT description of the Seven R's of
Change Management?
A.A set of
QUESTIONs that should be asked to help understand the impact of Changes
B.A seven step process for releasing Changes into production
C.A set of
QUESTIONs that should be asked when reviewing the success of a recent Change
D.A definition of the roles and responsibilities required for Change Management
Answer: A

QUESTION :64. Which of the following statements is CORRECT? An Event could be

caused by:
1: An exception to normal operation, such as a device exceeding a threshold or an
unauthorized Configuration
Item (CI) being detected on the network

2: Normal operation, such as a user logging into an application or an email reaching its
intended recipient
A.2 only
B.1 only
C.Both of the above
D.Neither of the above
Answer: C

QUESTION :65. Which of the following is the BEST definition of the term Service
Management?
A.A set of specialised organisational capabilities for providing value to customers in the
form of services
B.A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified
whole, operating together
for a common purpose
C.The management of functions within an organisation to perform certain activities
D.Units of organisations with roles to perform certain activities
Answer: A

QUESTION :66. Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and

planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners
Answer: C

QUESTION :67. "Service Management is a set of specialised organisational capabilities for

providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organisational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers
Answer: B

QUESTION :68. The left-hand side of the Service V Model represents requirements and
specifications.
What does the right-hand side of the Service V Model represent?
A.Validation and Testing
B.The business value that can be expected from a given service
C.Performance and capacity requirements of services and IT infrastructure
D.Roles and responsibilities required for an effective Service Management implementation
Answer: A

QUESTION :69. An IT department is under pressure to cut costs. As a result, the quality of
services has started
to suffer. What imbalance does this represent?
A.Extreme focus on cost
B.Extreme focus on quality
C.Excessively proactive
D.Excessively reactive
Answer: A

QUESTION :70. What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI)
Model after:
1: What is the vision?
2: Where are we now?
3: Where do we want to be?
4: How do we get there?
5: Did we get there?
6: ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?
Answer: C

QUESTION :71. Order the following Continual Service Improvement (CSI)

implementation steps into the correct
sequence in alignment with the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) model.
1: Allocate roles and responsibilities to work on CSI initiatives
2: Measure and review that the CSI plan is executed and its objectives are being achieved

3: Identify the scope, objectives and requirements for CSI

4: Implement CSI enhancement
A.3-1-2-4
B.3-4-2-1
C.1-3-2-4
D.2-3-4-1
Answer: A

QUESTION :72. Which activities are carried out in the "Where do we want to be?" step of
the Continual Service
Improvement (CSI) Model?
A.Implementing service and process improvements
B.Aligning the business and IT strategies
C.Creating a baseline
D.Defining measurable targets
Answer: D

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