Student Number

Exam Choice

2009
PRELIMINARY COURSE
EXAMINATION

Physics
Total marks 75
General Instructions

Reading time 5 minutes

Working time 2 hours

Write using black or blue pen

Draw diagrams using pencil

Approved calculators may be

used

Write your student number in

the space provided

This paper has two parts, Part A and Part B

Part A 15 marks
Attempt Questions 1-15
Allow about 30 minutes for this part
Part B 60 marks
Attempt Questions 16-31
Allow about 1 hour and 30 minutes for this part

Part A 15 marks
Attempt Questions 1-15
Allow about 30 minutes for this part
Use the multiple-choice answer sheet.
Select the alternative A,B,C or D that best answers the question. Fill in the response oval
completely.
Sample:

2+4=

(A) 2

(B) 6

(C) 8

(D) 9

If you think you have made a mistake, put a cross through the incorrect answer and fill in the
new answer.

If you change your mind and have crossed out what you consider to be the correct answer,
then indicate the correct answer by writing the word correct and drawing an arrow as
follows.

C
correct

Which wave has the shortest wavelength?

(A)

An infra-red wave with a frequency of 6.0 x 1010 Hz.

(B)

A sound wave of frequency 20 kHz.

(C)

A water wave with a frequency of 0.5 Hz travelling at 5.0 ms-1.

(D)

A 100 MHz radio wave.

The following wave trace was made on the screen of a CRO when the sweep time was
set to 2.0 ms per division.

The period of this wave is:

(A)

6 ms

(B)

12 ms

(C)

16 ms

(D)

4 ms

Some parts of the electromagnetic spectrum are NOT used for communication. This is
mainly because these parts:
(A)

have wavelengths that are too small to detect by any known means.

(B)

travel too slowly.

(C)

do not have sufficient energy to travel through air.

(D)

present a danger to the users.

Which statement is true whenever refraction is observed as light moves from one
medium into another?
(A)

Total internal reflection will occur if the angle of incidence is suitable.

(B)

The light will bend towards the normal.

(C)

The wavelength of the light will change.

(D)

The speed of light will remain constant.

Increased access to reliable energy has NOT led to:

(A)

improved health.

(B)

less environmental impact.

(C)

better communications.

(D)

less manual labour.

In the following circuits each of the resistors have different resistances.

In which circuit do all three resistors have a different potential difference across them?

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

globe

The following information is for questions 7 and 8:

During an investigation to demonstrate the relationship between current, voltage and
power of a model electric heating coil, the apparatus shown in the diagram was set up.

power pack
wires
thermometer

beaker with water

heating coil

For three trials, the potential difference across the heating coil and the current flowing
through the heating coil was measured, along with other data, and recorded below:

trial
number

volume of
water
(mL)

potential
difference
across heating
coil (volts)

current
through
heating coil
(amps)

time taken
for water to
increase
temperature
by 20 oC
(s)

1
2
3

200
370
200

4.0
10.5
8.0

0.5
1.25
1.0

200
58
???

temperature
of air in
laboratory
when
investigation
performed
(oC)
23
24
24

The missing value for the time taken for the water to increase its temperature by 20 oC
in the third trial would be closest to:
(A)

50 s

(B)

100 s

(C)

200 s

(D)

400 s

10

The best way to improve the investigations overall validity would be to:
(A)

Repeat the experiment 10 times.

(B)

Time how long it takes for the water to boil.

(C)

Use the same beaker each time.

(D)

Have the water at the same temperature at the start of each trial.

Which of the following is the best analogy for electric potential difference across a
light globe as an electric current flows through it?
(A)

A class of students spends $10 each as they walk through a shop.

(B)

Water is pushed through a meter in a pipe.

(C)

A builder moves a pile of bricks from one place to another.

(D)

Ants eat a pool of honey as they walk past it.

An earth wire would be of most benefit in preventing electrocution in which faulty

appliance?
(A)

plastic hair dryer

(B)

metal dishwasher

(C)

fluorescent light on ceiling

(D)

mobile phone charger

11

A car journey between two towns, Hillston and Ivanhoe, is recorded on a map. The
journey takes a total of 10.0 hours to complete. Ivanhoe is 132 km from Hillston in a
direct line. The path taken by the car is shown as a bold line on the map.

Ivanhoe

132 km

Hillston

Possible values for the instantaneous speed recorded at a point on the journey and the
average velocity of the journey are:

(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

12

Instantaneous
speed
(km h-1)
13.2
0
56
103

Average velocity
(km h-1)
25
13.2
60
90

A scuba diver is hovering motionless at a depth of 8.0 m below the surface.

At this point in time, it would be correct to say that:

(A)

there are no forces acting on the diver.

(B)

the net force on the diver is zero.

(C)

there is an overall downwards force on the diver to keep underwater.

(D)

the divers weight is zero.

13

14

Newtons main contribution to the developing model of the Universe at the time was
to:
(A)

propose gravity as a mechanism for maintaining observed motions.

(B)

state that only the planets actually moved through space.

(C)

propose a heliocentric model.

(D)

state that the Sun could not be at the centre of the solar system.

Four stars, L, M, N and P were observed and their surface colours determined as
shown in the table.
Star
L
M
N
P

Colour
red
white
orange
yellow

The order of these stars from hottest to coolest is:

15

(A)

L, M, N P

(B)

M, N, P, L

(C)

M, P, N, L

(D)

cannot tell with only this information.

Sunspots are related to adverse effects on the Earth from:

(A)

the dimming sunlight for a time.

(B)

causing larger than normal tides.

(C)

increasing global warming.

(D)

being associated with the source of solar wind activity.

Part B 60 marks
Attempt Questions 16-31
Allow about 1 hour and 30 minutes for this part.
Answer the questions in the spaces provided.
Show all relevant working in questions involving calculations.
Marks
Question 16 (4 marks)
A first hand investigation to identify the frequency and wavelength of a sound wave
travelling at constant velocity was performed.
(a)

Sketch the apparatus which was used to perform this investigation and label
the various parts.

(b)

Describe the relationship between the frequency and the wavelength of

the sound waves that were investigated.

Marks
Question 17 (3 marks)
A long, hollow plastic tube is held between two children so that they can talk into it
and hear each other clearly, even though they are many metres away from each
other.

With the aid of a diagram, compare how the long, hollow plastic tube conveys
sound, to how an optical fibre conveys light.

10

Marks
Question 18 (4 marks)
(a)

In the space below, sketch both a carrier wave, and the carrier wave after it
has been modulated by AM.

(b)

Explain why modulation of radio waves is necessary for the transmission of

communication over long distances.

11

Marks
Question 19 (4 marks)
In an investigation to find the refractive index of a new transparent substance, a
rectangular block of the substance had the paths of three rays of light traced when
they entered the block.
A student drew the results shown below:

i = 30o
i = 45o
o

i = 60

r = 45o

r = 34o

r = 23o

Find the refractive index of the substance to two decimal places.

12

Marks
Question 20 (4 marks)
An investigation was performed in zero gravity to find the mass of a charged
particle. The particle was placed between two parallel plates spaced 4.00 cm apart
and attached to a 120 volt DC power supply, as shown.

+ + + + + + + +
4.00 cm

particle

120 V

- - - - - - - - - -

The charge on the particle is 5.0 x 10-8 C. The force on the particle due to the
electric field is found to be 1.5 x 10-4 N.

(a)

Find the strength of the electric field between the parallel charged plates.

(b)

What extra information would need to be measured from this investigation

and what would need to be done in order to find the mass of the particle?

13

Marks
Question 21 (4 marks)
It is normal for a home to have several separate electric circuits, each with their own
circuit breaker or fuse.
(a)

Identify two reasons for having separate electric circuits in a home.

(b)

Household electric circuits also have built-in safety features to protect the
home and its occupants. Identify one such safety feature and describe how it
is designed to function to offer protection.

Question 22 (2 marks)
Describe the consequences of a non-zero net force acting on an object.

14

Marks
Question 23 (4 marks)
Advertising for a plasma screen television that operates on a 240V electricity supply
has a page of fine print which is reproduced below.
Operating cost for electricity consumption =
$30.00 per year
cost based on 2000 hours of operation
cost based on electricity charged at $0.15 per
kWh

(a)

What is the power consumption of this television?

(b)

Using your previous answer, or otherwise, calculate the current that is

drawn from the power point by this television.

15

Marks
Question 24 (3 marks)
A long, straight current-carrying conductor is placed near a bar magnet as shown,
looking from above. There is no gravity acting.

I
N

(a)

Describe the shape of the magnetic field around the conductor.

(b)

If the apparatus is released and the bar magnet is now free to move, in
which manner would the bar magnet move? Explain your answer.

16

Marks
Question 25 (7 marks)
The passage below describes the motion of a vehicle.
The vehicle commences from rest and undergoes constant
acceleration to reach a speed of 20 m s-1 in 8.0 s.
It then continues with a constant speed for 4.0 s before undergoing
constant deceleration, coming to a complete stop in a further 6.0 s.
(a)

Use the grid below to draw a velocity versus time graph of this motion.

(b)

Calculate the total distance travelled by the vehicle during this time.

(c)

Determine the acceleration of the vehicle during the first 8.0 s of its motion.

17

Marks
Question 26 (5 marks)
A 200 kg space probe fires its rocket motor while in deep space, exerting a force
always perpendicular to its velocity. This causes it to accelerate at 2.6 m s-2.
The firing of the motor lasts 8.0 seconds.
(a)

Determine the force exerted by the space probes rocket motor.

(b)

Calculate the increase in the space probes momentum.

(c)

Identify the shape of the path of the probe when its rocket motor was firing.

Question 27 (3 marks)
A street outside a school has its speed limit reduced from 70 km h-1 to 40 km h-1.
Describe, quantitatively and qualitatively, how the stopping distance of a vehicle
would differ between these two speeds.

18

Marks
Question 28 (4 marks)
A partly inflated balloon has dots labelled A, B and C drawn on it as shown.
C
B
A

(a)

Describe how the motion of the dots relative to each other as the balloon is
inflated can be used to describe the motion of galaxies in the universe.

(b)

Identify a limitation of this model.

Question 29 (3 marks)
A light globe that is just visible from a distance of 1.00 km can be observed using a
telescope when it is placed on the Moon, a distance of 380 000 km.
How many times brighter does the globe appear to be when it is 1.00 km away
compared to when it is on the Moon?

19

Marks
Question 30 (3 marks)
A research laboratory claims that it has found a new form of nuclear radiation never
before observed. The laboratory reports that this new form of radiation has the
following properties:

can penetrate more than 3 metres of concrete

has moderate ionising power
is deflected by a magnetic field
is deflected by an electric field

Discuss whether this new particle is a form of electromagnetic radiation or a

particle. Give your reasoning clearly.

Question 31 (3 marks)
Beta particles are physically the same as electrons, yet they are different in some
important ways.
(a)

Identify one way that beta particles are different from electrons.

(b)

Explain why the ionising power of alpha particles is greater than beta
particles.

20

Exam Choice
2009 Physics Preliminary Examination.
Part A
1
A

2
C

Marking Guidelines and model Answers.

Multiple Choice
3
D

4
C

5
B

6
C

7
A

8
D

9
A

10
B

11
B

12
B

13
A

14
C

15
D

Part B
16 a.
Marking Criteria
Sufficient apparatus sketched and labelled so that investigation could be performed properly
Some appropriate parts of the investigation sketched and/or labelled

Marks
2
1

e.g. (note that question only asks for the sketch of apparatus)

nodes where
particles settle

open-ended glass tube

with fine sand/powder
which collects at the nodes

speaker

signal
generator

16 b.
Marking Criteria
Complete relationship described
Relationship described in a simplistic manner

Marks
2
1

The frequency is inversely proportional to the wavelength OR the product of the frequency and wavelength is constant.
17
Marking Criteria
Full description given with similarity to fibre optic described fully;
useful diagram included and referred to
Method of conveying sound in pipe described
Method of conveying sound in pipe identified

Marks
3
2
1

The sound waves reflect off the walls of the pipe and continue to travel down the pipe, trapped. Light undergoes total internal reflection in
an optical fibre in a similar fashion trapped in the fibre.

18 a.
Marking Criteria
Both a carrier wave and AM modulation correctly depicted
Either a carrier wave OR a form of modulation is depicted

Marks
2
1

Radio waves have a much higher frequency than human hearing so cannot be converted directly into sound for the communication of voice
or music. By superposing the actual communication signal onto the carrier wave, the message etc can be decoded back into sound that
humans can hear by the radio receiver, thus enabking long distance transmission and reception of communication.
19
Marking Criteria
Correct equations used to find correct values and an average taken correctly to 2dp
Correct refractive indices found for three instances
Correct refractive index calculated for one instance
Snells law identified to attempt to find refractive index OR an average of incorrect values attempted

Marks
4
3
2
1

sin i
sin r
sin 45o

sin 34 o
1.2645

sin i
sin r
sin 60 o

sin 45o
1.2247

sin i
sin r
sin 30o

sin 23o
1.2797

average 1.2247 1.2645 1.2797 3

1.26
i.e. n=1.26
20 a.
Marking Criteria
Correct answer with correct number of significant figures
Correct equation used with subsequent incorrect substitution but answered with correct number of sig
figs OR correct answer with incorrect number of significant figures

Marks
2
1

F
q

1.5 10 4 N
5.0 10 8 C
3.0 10 3 N C-1 (or V m -1 )

20 b.
Marking Criteria
Complete answer provided to find mass
An aspect identified, e.g. acceleration measured

Marks
2
1

Observation and measurement of the particles acceleration, then use m=F/a to find the mass of the particle.
21 a.
Marking Criteria

Marks
2
1

Two reasons identified

One reason identified
e.g.

To allow wires of appropriate thickness/cross section to be used; to allow one circuit at a time to be switched off for work to be
done; so if a circuit is overloaded or faulty only that circuit is affected; to limit the chances of fire

21 b.
Marking Criteria
Appropriate safety feature identified and function described
Appropriate safety feature identified
e.g.
22

Marks
2
1

Circuit breaker if current exceeds allowed limit, circuit breaker breaks the circuit to prevent overheating or fire.

Marking Criteria
Appropriate and correct (complete) description given, i.e. always acceleration
Acceleration identified

Marks
2
1

The object will always undergo acceleration if a net force is acting.

23 a.
Marking Criteria

Marks
2
1

Correct answer obtained

One part of working is performed correctly

total cost
cost per kWh
$30.00

$0.15
200

kWh used =

kWh used
time of operation
200 kWh

2000 h
0.1 kW

power consumption =

=100 W

23 b.
Marking Criteria
Correct selection of equation and correct substitution from pt (a)
Correct equation selected

Marks
2
1

P VI
P
I
V
100

240
0.42 A

24 a.
Marking Criteria

Marks
1

Marking Criteria
Correct motion identified with correct explanation
Correct motion identified

Marks
2
1

Correct shape identified - circular

24 b.

The north end of the bar magnet would lift up off the table as the magnetic field from the conductor is directed vertically upwards at that
point. The direction of a magnetic field is defined as the direction of the force on a north pole placed at that point.
25 a.
Marking Criteria
Graph with stated units; linear scales; correct labelled axes; correct points plotted; points joined correctly
Graph with TWO of the points below
Graph with EITHER:
stated units OR
correct labelled axes with linear scales OR
points plotted and joined correctly

Marks
3
2
1

speed
(m s-1)
20
16
12
8
4
0
1

3 4

6 7

8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 time (s)

25 b.
Marking Criteria
Correct calculations to arrive at correct answer
An appropriate (correct) technique is identified
Distance travelled = area under graph
1
1
=
8 20 4 20
2
2
80 80 60
220 m

Marks
2
1

20

25 c.
Marking Criteria
Correct substitution into correct equation to arrive at correct answer with or without correct units
Correct definition or equation for acceleration identified

Marks
2
1

change in speed
time taken
20 m s-1

8.0 s
2.5 m s-2

acceleration =

26 a.

Marking Criteria

Marks
2
1

Marking Criteria

Marks
2
1

Marking Criteria
Correct description given arc of a circle, circular.

Marks
1

Correct answer with correct unit (N)

Correct answer
F = ma
= 200 kg x 2.6 m s-2
= 520 N
26 b.
Correct substitution into correct equation
Appropriate equation selected
Impulse = Ft
= 520 N x 8.0 s
= 4.2 x 103 Ns
26 c.

27
Marking Criteria
Comprehensive comparison of stopping distance including reaction time plus component that is a
function of speed2 is given.
Stopping distances from different speeds are compared using some physics
A component of stopping distance is identified

Marks
3
2
1

Stopping distance is a function of reaction time x speed plus a function of the square of the vehicles speed, as its KE = 1/2mv 2. If reaction
time is, say, 0.5 s, a car travelling at 70 km/h will travel (70/3.6 x 0.5) or 9.7 m before the brakes are applied. At 40 km/h this is 5.6 m. Then
the car travelling at 70 km/h will take more than 3 times the distance to come to a stop than from 40 km/h.
28 a.
Marking Criteria
Response shows evidence of deep understanding by thorough description of relative motion of dots and
of galaxies with relative rates of motion linked to initial separation
Motion of dots is compared to relative recessive motion of galaxies in an expanding universe
Expanding universe is identified

Marks
3
2
1

The distance between each of the dots on the balloon increases. The rate of increase in distance is greater the further the dots are apart. This
represents the motion of galaxies moving away from each other in the expanding universe the further away they are the faster they are
moving away from us.
28 b.
Marking Criteria

Marks
1

A limitation identified
e.g. The dots on the balloon exist only around the surface of the balloon, not spread throughout the balloon.
29
Marking Criteria
Correct answer supplied showing correct working
Inverse square law is used with error(s)
Inverse square law is identified in some form

Marks
3
2
1

Sample answer
Brightness ratio = (1/distance ratio)2
= (380 000/1)2
= 1.44 x 1011 times brighter
30
Marking Criteria
Discussion with correct conclusion backed by correct reasoning using all available evidence
Discussion with correct conclusion using some of the available evidence
Correct conclusion without logical reasoning or use of available evidence

Marks
3
2
1

Penetrating ability means it is like gamma rays e/m wave or must be a very small particle; ionising power similar to a small particle such as
beta (electron); deflection by both magnetic and electric fields proves it is a charged particle, therefore: it is probably a small, charged
particle.
31 a.
Marking Criteria

Marks
1

One difference identified

e.g. beta particles originate from the nucleus electrons exist outside of the nucleus
31 b.
Marking Criteria

Marks
2
1

Full explanation given using two reasons

Partial explanation given using one reason

Alpha particle are physically much larger and they have much more mass than beta particles and are therefore far more likely to knock an
electron out of its orbit in the event of a collision. The chance of a collision is greater due to the larger size of alpha particles.

Exam Choice
PHYSICS: Preliminary Exam 2009
Mapping Grid
Question No.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31

Marks
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
4
3
4
4
4
4
3
4
2
7
5
3
4
3
3
3

Syllabus Ref.
8.2.1
8.2.2
8.2.3
8.2.4
8.3.1
8.3.3
8.3.4
8.3.4
8.3.2
8.3.6
8.4.1
8.4.2
8.5.1
8.5.3
8.5.4
8.2.1
8.2.2
8.2.3
8.2.4
8.3.2
8.3.3, 8.3.6
8.4.2
8.3.4
8.3.5
8.4.1
8.4.2, 8.4.4
8.4.5
8.5.2
8.5.3
8.5.4
8.5.4

Outcomes (P-)
8
8
8
8
7
9
7
12
7, 9
7
6
6
10
10
10
8,12
8
8
8
6, 9
3, 7,11
6
4, 7
6
6, 9
6,9
3,4, 5, 6
1, 2, 10
7
2, 10
5, 10