Aakash-Goiit-IIT-JEE-2010 Paper-1 Answer and Solution With Analysis

IIT-JEE 2010
Answers by
(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)
PAPER - I : CODES
Q.No. 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
01. D C B D D C A B A D
02. A B C A A B D C D A
03. B B C D B A B C A A
04. B C B A C D C B D D
05. C D D B C A C A B C
06. C A A C B D B D C B
07. D A D C D B A A C B
08. A D A B A C D D B C
09. B,D A,B,C D B,D D A,B,C A,B D A,B,C A,B
10. B,C B,C A,B D B,D B,D B,C B,D A,B D
11. A,B D B,C A,B,C A,B D D A,B B,C A,B,C
12. D B,D A,B,C B,C A,B,C B,C B,D A,B,C D B,C
13. A,B,C A,B B,D A,B B,C A,B A,B,C B,C B,D B,D
14. A B A B A B A B A B
15. D C D C D C D C D C
16. C A C A C A C A C A
17. B D B D B D B D B D
18. C C C C C C C C C C
19. 3 3 0 3 3 0 3 4 3 5
20. 2 2 3 0 3 3 0 3 4 3
21. 0 5 2 3 0 3 3 0 3 4
22. 3 3 5 2 3 0 3 3 0 3
23. 4 4 3 5 2 3 0 3 3 0
24. 3 3 4 3 5 2 3 0 3 3
25. 3 0 3 4 3 5 2 3 0 3
26. 3 3 0 3 4 3 5 2 3 0
27. 0 3 3 0 3 4 3 5 2 3
28. 5 0 3 3 0 3 4 3 5 2
29. A D B C A D A C B C
30. B B D A B B C D A A
31. B C D A B B C D A B
32. C D C B D A D B C A
33. D C C B D A D B C D
34. D A A D C C B A D B
35. C B A D C C B A D C
36. A A B C A D A C B D
37. A,C,D B A A,C,D A B B,C A B B,C
38. C,D C,D B,C A A,C,D A,C,D C,D A,C,D B,C A
39. B,C A C,D B B,C A A B,C C,D B
40. A A,C,D B C,D B C,D A,C,D B A C,D
41. B B,C A,C,D B,C C,D B,C B C,D A,C,D A,C,D
42. D B D B D B D B D B
44. D D D D D D D D D D
45. B C B C B C B C B C
46. A D A D A D A D A D
47. 1 9 3 4 1 4 6 2 5 2
48. 3 3 9 3 4 1 4 6 2 5
49. 4 2 3 9 3 4 1 4 6 2
50. 6 5 2 3 9 3 4 1 4 6
51. 2 2 5 2 3 9 3 4 1 4
52. 4 6 2 5 2 3 9 3 4 1
53. 9 4 6 2 5 2 3 9 3 4
54. 5 1 4 6 2 5 2 3 9 3
55. 3 4 1 4 6 2 5 2 3 9
56. 2 3 4 1 4 6 2 5 2 3
57. B A A D B A C D C D
58. C A A C C A D C B C
59. A D C B A C D A C C
60. D C D C A B C A D B
61. C D D A C C A C D A
62. A C C A D D A B C A
63. D C B C D D C C A D
64. C B C D C C B D A C
65. A,C A,C A,B A,C A,B A,C A,B,C A,B A,C A,B,C
66. A,D A,D A,B,C A,B A,C A,C A,D A,C A,B,C A,B
67. A,B,C A,B A,D A,C A,B,C A,B A,B A,B,C A,D A,C
68. A,B A,C A,C A,D A,C A,D A,C A,C A,B A,D
69. A,C A,B,C A,C A,B,C A,D A,B,C A,C A,D A,C A,C
71. B B B B B B B B B B
72. D C D C D C D C D C
73. A B A B A B A B A B
74. B D B D B D B D B D
75. 6 7 8 3 6 4 5 9 4 3
76. 6 6 7 8 3 6 4 5 9 4
77. 4 3 6 7 8 3 6 4 5 9
78. 5 4 3 6 7 8 3 6 4 5
79. 9 9 4 3 6 7 8 3 6 4
80. 3 5 9 4 3 6 7 8 3 6
81. 7 4 5 9 4 3 6 7 8 3
82. 4 6 4 5 9 4 3 6 7 8
83. 8 3 6 4 5 9 4 3 6 7
84. 3 8 3 6 4 5 9 4 3 6
Though every care has been taken to provide the answers correctly
but the Institute shall not be responsible for error, if any.
(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)

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Topic-wise Analysis of CHEMISTRY - IIT-JEE 2010
(Paper-1)
Organic Chemistry Inorganic Chemistry Physical Chemistry Total
Easy 1 4 3 8
Medium 7 4 7 18
Tough 1 0 1 2
Total 9 8 11 28
Markwise 27 24 33 84
XI Marks 33 XII Marks 51
XI syllabus 11 XII syllabus 17
Distribution of Level of Questions in Chemistry Topic wise distribution in Chemistry
7% Organic Chemistry
29%
39% 32%
64%
Inorganic Chemistry 29%
Easy Medium Tough Physical Chemistry
Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI

& XII - Chemistry Topic wise distribution of marks in Chemistry
Organic Chemistry
39%
39% 32%
61%
Inorganic Chemistry
29%
Physical Chemistry
XI syllabus XII syllabus
Percentage Portion asked (Mark-wise) from Syllabus of Class XI & XII -

Chemistry
39%
61%
XI Marks XII Marks

Topic-wise Analysis of MATHEMATICS - IIT-JEE 2010
(Paper-1)
XII XI XI XI XII XII XII
Calculus Trigonometry Algebra 2D- Geometry Probability 3-D + Vector Algebra Total
Easy 1 2 1 2 0 1 0 7
Medium 2 2 4 1 1 3 2 15
Tough 1 0 1 0 0 0 4 6
Total 4 4 6 3 1 4 6 28
Markwise 12 12 18 9 3 12 18 84
Distribution of Level of Questions in Mathematics Topic wise distribution in Maths

Calculus
Trigonometry
21% 14%
21% 25% Algebra 14%
14%
2D- Geometry 22%
11%
54%
Probability
4%
3-D + Vector
Easy Medium Tough Algebra
Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class Topic wise distribution of marks in Maths
XI & XII
Calculus
Trigonometry 14%
21%
Algebra 14%
46% 14%
54%
2D- Geometry 11% 22%
Probability
4%
3-D + Vector
XI syllabus XII syllabus Algebra
Percentage Portion asked (Mark-wise) from Syllabus of

Class XI & XII
46%
54%
XI Marks XII Marks

Topic-wise Analysis of PHYSICS - IIT-JEE 2010
(Paper-1)
XII XI XII XI XII XI XII XII XI&XII
Heat & Modern Oscillation & Magnetism Experimenta Miscellan

Electricity Mechanics Optics Total
Thermodynamics Physics Waves and EMI l physics eous
Easy 3 2 1 2 1 1 1 0 0 11
Medium 1 2 0 5 1 0 1 2 2 14
Tough 0 0 0 2 0 1 0 0 0 3
Total 4 4 1 9 2 2 2 2 2 28
Markwise 12 12 3 27 6 6 6 6 6 84
Distribution of Level of Questions in Physics Topic wise distribution in Physics

Electricity
Heat & Thermodynamics

7%
Modern Physics 7% 7% 15%
11%
39% Mechanics 14%
7%
Optics
50% 32%
Oscillation & Waves
7% 4%
Magnetism and EMI
Experimental physics
Easy Medium Tough Miscellaneous
Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class Topic wise distribution of marks in Physics
XI & XII - Physics
Electricity
Heat & Thermodynamics 7%
7% 7% 15%
Modern Physics
39% 14%
Mechanics 7%
61% Optics 32%
Oscillation & Waves 7% 4%
Magnetism and EMI
Experimental physics
XI syllabus XII syllabus Miscellaneous
Percentage Portion asked (Mark-wise) from Syllabus of Class

XI & XII - Physics
39%
61%
XI Marks XII Marks

DATE : 11/04/2010
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No.-4, Sec-11, MLU, Dwarka, New Delhi-110075
Ph.: 011-47623456 Fax : 011-47623472
Time : 3 hrs.
Solutions Max. Marks: 252
for
IIT-JEE 2010
PAPER - 1 (Code - 5)
Instructions :
1. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics, and Physics). Each part consists
of four Sections.
2. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases,
minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
3. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. Partial marks will
be awarded for partially correct answers. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.
4. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. In all other cases,
minus one (–1) mark will be awarded.
5. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you have darkened only the bubble
corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubbles are darkened. No negative marks
will be awarded for in this Section.
IIT-JEE 2010 (Paper-1)
PART–I : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
1. The bond energy (in kcal mol–1) of a C—C single bond is approximately
(A) 1 (B) 10 (C) 100 (D) 1000
Answer (C)
Hints : Bond energy of C—C is considered to be 100 kcal mol–1 approximately.
2. The species which by definition has ZERO standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is
(A) Br2(g) (B) Cl2(g) (C) H2O(g) (D) CH4(g)
Answer (B)
Hints : Cl2 is considered as standard state of chlorine and enthalpy of formation in standard state is zero (assumed).
3. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with temperature (T) are given below. The plot that follows
Arrhenius equation is
td .)
e sL
rvic
(A) k (B) k
lS e
a
a t i on
T
d u c T
s hE
a ka
f A
io no
(D i vi s k
(C) k (D)
T
T
Answer (A)
Ea
−
Hints : k = A ⋅e RT
Ea
ln k = ln A –
RT
HBr
4. In the reaction OCH3 the products are
(A) Br OCH3 and H2 (B) Br and CH3Br
(C) Br and CH3OH (D) OH and CH3Br
Aakash IIT-JEE - Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, Plot No. 4, Sector-11, Dwarka, New Delhi-75 Ph.: 011-47623417/23 Fax : 47623472
(2)
Answer (D)
Hints :
⊕
H
H—Br
O O – OH + CH3Br
Br
CH3 CH3
5. The correct statement about the following disaccharide is
CH2OH
O
H H CH2OH H
H O
OH H H OH
OCH2 CH2O CH2OH
OH
H OH OH H
(a) (b)
(A) Ring (a) is pyranose with α-glycosidic link (B) Ring (a) is furanose with α-glycosidic link
(C) Ring (b) is furanose with α-glycosidic link (D) Ring (b) is pyranose with β-glycosidic link
Answer (A)
Hints :
CH2OH
td .)
e sL
rvic
5 O
H CH2OH H
H
H O
lS e
4 1
t i o na
OH H H u ca
OH
O—CH2—CH2—O
Ed CH2OH
as h
OH
3
ak
2
H OH α-linkage f AOH H
no
i si o
(a) (b)
v
(Di ring.
Ring (a) is six membered oxygen containing
∴ Pyranose ring and CH2OH of C—5 and —OR of C—1 are across of one another hence, it is α-glycosidic linkage.
6. The synthesis of 3-octyne is achieved by adding a bromoalkane into a mixture of sodium amide and an alkyne.
The bromoalkane and alkyne respectively are
(A) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2C ≡ CH (B) BrCH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2CH2C ≡ CH
(C) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3C ≡ CH (D) BrCH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2C ≡ CH

Answer (D)
Hints :
Br
CH2—CH2 —CH2 —CH3

NH2
CH3—CH2—C≡C—H CH3—CH2—C≡C CH 3—CH2—C≡C—CH2—CH 2—CH2—CH 3
3-octyne
7. The ionization isomer of [Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl is

(A) [Cr(H2O)4(O2N)]Cl2 (B) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2] (NO2)
(C) [Cr(H2O)4Cl(ONO)]Cl (D) [Cr(H2O)4Cl2(NO2)] H2O
(3)
Answer (B)
Hints : Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2](NO2) have same molecular formula but they give different ions on
ionization.
8. The correct structure of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is
HOOC CH2 CH2 COOH

(A) N CH CH N
HOOC CH2 CH2 COOH
HOOC COOH
(B) N CH2 CH2 N
HOOC COOH
HOOC CH2 CH2 COOH
(C) N CH2 CH2 N
HOOC CH2 CH2 COOH
COOH
CH2
HOOC CH2 H
(D) N CH CH N
H CH2 COOH
CH2
HOOC
Answer (C)
td .)
Hints : HOOC CH2 CH2 COOH e sL
N CH2 CH2 N e rvic
a lS
i on
HOOC CH2 CH2 COOH
c a t
SECTIONEd- uII
sh
aka Choice Type
Multiple Correct
fA
o question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions.nEach
i s io
OR MORE may be correct. iv (D
OH
9. In the reaction NaOH(aq)/Br2 the intermediate(s) is/are
O O O O
Br
(A) (B) (C) (D)
Br
Br Br
Br Br
Answer (A, B, C )
Hints : (A) & (C) is usual product. Formation of (B) is justified as

O O
Br Br Br Br Br
(4)
10. In the Newman projection for 2, 2-dimethylbutane
X
H3C CH3
H H
Y
X and Y can respectively be
(A) H and H (B) H and C2H5 (C) C2H5 and H (D) CH3 and CH3
Answer (B, D)
Hints :
X H3C CH3
H3C CH3
X C
C
H H H HY
Y
When X = H & Y = C2H5
H3C CH3
H C
2
C C2H5
H 1 H
td .)
e sL
rvic
2, 2- dimethyl butane
lS e
When X = CH3 and Y = CH3 a
a t i on
d u c
hE
H3C CH3
ka s
4CH3
C2
f A a
C io no
i vi s
CH3
H 3 H
(D
1
2, 2-dimethyl butane
11. Aqueous solutions of HNO3, KOH, CH3COOH, and CH3COONa of identical concentrations are provided. The pair(s)
of solutions which form a buffer upon mixing is(are)
(A) HNO3 and CH3COOH (B) KOH and CH3COONa
(C) HNO3 and CH3COONa (D) CH3COOH and CH3COONa
Answer (D)
Hints : Solution of weak acid and its salt with strong base behave like buffer.
CH3COOH → CH3COONa
12. The reagent(s) used for softening the temporary hardness of water is(are)
(A) Ca3(PO4)2 (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) Na2CO3 (D) NaOCl
Answer (B, C)
Hints : Ca(OH)2 and Na2CO3 is used to remove hardness of water. Ca(OH)2 is used in Clarke's method.
(5)
13. Among the following, the intensive property is (properties are)
(A) Molar conductivity (B) Electromotive force (C) Resistance (D) Heat capacity
Answer (A, B)
Hints : Molar conductivity and electromotive force are intensive properties.
SECTION - III
Paragraph Type
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based upon the
second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Paragraph for Questions 14 to 15

The concentration of potassium ions inside a biological cell is at least twenty times higher than the outside. The
resulting potential difference across the cell is important in several processes such as transmission of nerve impulses
and maintaining the ion balance. A simple model for such a concentration cell involving a metal M is
M(s) | M+(aq; 0.05 molar) || M+ (aq; 1 molar) | M(s)
For the above electrolytic cell the magnitude of the cell potential |Ecell| = 70 mV.
14. For the above cell
(A) Ecell < 0; ΔG > 0 (B) Ecell > 0; ΔG < 0 (C) Ecell < 0; ΔGº > 0 (D) Ecell > 0; ΔGº < 0
Answer (B)
Hints : Cell reaction
td .)
e sL
M+ ⎯⎯→ M+
e rvic
lS
(1 M) (0.05 M)
a
Apply Nernst equation
a t i on
d u c
E = Eº –
0.059 0.05
s hE
ka
log
1 1
f A a
0.059
( ) io no
i vi s
E=– log 5 × 10–2
(D
1
0.059
E=– ⎡( –2 ) + log5 ⎤⎦
1 ⎣
15. If the 0.05 molar solution of M+ is replaced by a 0.0025 molar M+ solution, then the magnitude of the cell potential
would be
(A) 35 mV (B) 70 mV (C) 140 mV (D) 700 mV
Answer (C)
E1 log0.05
Hints : =
E2 log0.0025
E1 log5 × 10 –2
=
E2 log25 × 10–4
E1 70(given)
70 –1.3 1
= =
E2 –2.6 2
(6)
Copper is the most noble of the first row transition metals and occurs in small deposits in several countries. Ores of
copper include chalcanthite (CuSO4·5H2O), atacamite (Cu2Cl(OH)3), cuprite (Cu2O), copper glance (Cu2S) and malachite
(Cu2(OH)2CO3). However, 80% of the world copper production comes from the ore chalcopyrite (CuFeS2). The extraction
of copper from chalcopyrite involves partial roasting, removal of iron and self-reduction.
16. Partial roasting of chalcopyrite produces
(A) Cu2S and FeO (B) Cu2O and FeO (C) CuS and Fe2O3 (D) Cu2O and Fe2O3
Answer (A)
Hints : Partial roasting of chalcopyrite
O2 / Δ
CuFeS2 ⎯⎯⎯ → Cu2 S + FeO
17. Iron is removed from chalcopyrite as

(A) FeO (B) FeS (C) Fe2O3 (D) FeSiO3
Answer (D)
Hints : FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
gangue flux slag
18. In self-reduction, the reducing species is

(A) S (B) O2– (C) S2– (D) SO2
Answer (C)
td .)
e sL
rvic
Hints : Cu2S + Cu2O → 6Cu + SO2
lS e
a
SECTION - IV a t i on
d u c
hE
(Integer Type)
as
A ak is a Single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9. The correct
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question
f
o
digit below the question number in the ORS is to benbubbled.
io
D i vi s
19. Based on VSEPR theory, the number( of 90 degree F — Br — F angles in BrF5 is
Answer (0)
Hints :
Fa
Feq Feq
Feq Feq
Br
Presence of lone pair will distort all the bond angles and none of the bond angle is exactly equal to 90º
∠FaBrFeq = 84°
∠FeqBrFeq = 89°
20. The value of n in the molecular formula BenAl2Si6O18 is

Answer (3)
Hints : Be3Al2Si6O18
(7)
21. A student performs a titration with different burettes and finds titre values of 25.2 mL, 25.25 mL, and 25.0 mL.
The number of significant figures in the average titre value is
Answer (3)
25.2 + 25.25 + 25
Hints : Average titre value =
3
= 25.15
Siginificant figure is 3.
22. The concentration of R in the reaction R → P was measured as a function of time and the following data is
obtained
[R] (molar) 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10
t(min.) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18
The order of the reaction is

Answer (0)
Hints : For zero order reaction
dx
=k
dt
from 1 to 0.75 (M) from 0.75 to 0.40 from 0.40 to 0.10

td .)
e sL
rvic
0.25 0.35 0.30
=5 =5 =5
0.05 0.07 0.06
lS e
a
It mean order of this reaction is zero.
a t i on
d u c
hE
kas controlled nuclear fission to
235 142 90
f Aa
23. The number of neutrons emitted when 92 U undergoes 54 Xe and 38 Sr is
Answer (3) io no
Hints : (D i vi s
142
92 U235 ⎯⎯
→ 54 Xe+ 90 1
38 Sr +3 0n
24. The total number of basic groups in the following form of lysine is
H3N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 O

CH C
H2N O
Answer (2)
Hints :
H3N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 O

CH C Basic site (Carboxylate ion will
H2N O also behave as proton acceptor)
Basic site
(8)
25. The total number of cyclic isomers possible for a hydrocarbon with the molecular formula C4H6 is
Answer : (5)
Hints : Index of hydrogen deficiency in the compound C4H6 is 2. Therefore either bicyclic compound or cycloalkenes
are possible as cyclic isomers.
∴ Possible isomers are
, , , ,
26. In the scheme given below, the total number of intramolecular aldol condensation products formed from 'Y' is
1. O 1. NaOH (aq)
⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯3
2. Zn, H O
→ Y ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2. Heat
→
2
Answer : (3)
Hints :
1. O3
O
2. Zn – H2O
O H
1. O H
td .)
e sL
O O e rvic
a lS
i on
+
t
O
O O
u c a
3
+H
d
hE
OH
–H2O
a k as
fA +
no
i si o
ivO
O
(D
On dehydration this
alcohol will give three +
products
O O
27. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds soluble in aqueous NaOH is
H3C N CH3 COOH OCH2CH3 OH
CH2OH
NO2 OH CH2CH3 COOH

CH2CH3
N
H3C CH3
(9)
Answer : (4)
Hints : Carboxylic acids and aromatic alcohols dissolves in aqueous NaOH.
COOH OH OH COOH
, , ,
N
H3C CH3
will be soluble in aqueous NaOH.
28. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds whose aqueous solution turns red litmus paper blue is
KCN K2SO4 (NH4)2C2O4 NaCl Zn(NO3)2
FeCl3 K2CO3 NH4NO3 LiCN
Answer : (3)
Hints : In basic medium, red litmus paper turn blue
(1) CN− + H2 O HCN + OH−
(2) CO3−2 + H2 O HCO3− + OH−
(3) CN− + H2 O HCN + OH− td .)

e sL
e rvic
PART–II : MATHEMATICS lS
on a
ti
d u ca
SECTION
a s hE- I
Single Correct
f A ak Choice Type
o
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions.
i s i on Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which
v
(D i
ONLY ONE is correct.
2 2 2 2
29. Let f, g and h be real-valued functions defined on the interval [0, 1] by f ( x ) = e x + e − x , g ( x ) = xe x + e − x and
2 2
h( x ) = x 2 e x + e − x . If a, b and c denote, respectively, the absolute maximum of f, g and h on [0, 1], then
(A) a = b and c ≠ b (B) a = c and a ≠ b (C) a ≠ b and c ≠ b (D) a = b = c
Answer (D)
Hints :
The given functions
2 2
f ( x ) = ex + e− x
2 2
g ( x ) = xe x + e − x
2 2
h( x ) = x 2e x + e − x
1
are strictly increasing in [0, 1], hence at x = 1, the given functions attain absolute maximum all equal to e +
e
and consequently a = b = c.
(10)
30. Let p and q be real numbers such that p ≠ 0, p3 ≠ q and p3 ≠ –q. If α and β are nonzero complex numbers
α β
satisfying α + β = –p and α3 + β3 = q, then a quadratic equation having and as its roots is
β α
(A) (p3 + q)x2 – (p3 + 2q)x + (p3 + q) = 0
(B) (p3 + q)x2 – (p3 – 2q)x + (p3 + q) = 0
(C) (p3 – q)x2 – (5p3 – 2q)x + (p3 – q) = 0
(D) (p3 – q)x2 – (5p3 + 2q)x + (p3 – q) = 0
Answer (B)
Hints :
We have α + β = –p
α3 + β3 = q = (α + β)3 – 3αβ(α + β) = –p3 + 3p(αβ)
p3 + q
⇒ αβ =
3p
α β
The quadratic equation with and as roots is
β α
⎛α β ⎞ α β
x2 − ⎜ + x+ ⋅ =0
⎝ β α ⎠⎟ β α
⎛ ( α + β )2 − 2αβ ⎞
⇒ x2 − ⎜ ⎟ x +1= 0
⎝ αβ ⎠ td .)
e sL
p2 − 2
p3 + q
e rvic
a lS
i on
3p
⇒ x − x +1= 0
2
p +q
3
c a t
d u
3p
s hE
a ka
⇒ (p3 + q)x2 – (p3 – 2q)x + (p3 + q) = 0
f A
io no
1
x
t n(1 + t ) (D i vi s
31. The value of lim
x →0 x 3 ∫ t +4
4
dt is
0
1 1 1
(A) 0 (B) (C) (D)
12 24 64
Answer (B)
Hints :
We have
x
t n(1 + t )
1
x
t n(1 + t )
∫ t4 + 4
dt
lim
x →0 x3
∫ t4 + 4
dt = lim
x →0
0
x3
0
x n(1 + x ) 1
= Lt ×
x →0 x +4
4
3x 2
n(1 + x ) 1 1
= xLt ⋅ =
→0 x 3( x + 4)
2 12
(11)
⎡ x ⎤ ⎡ 1⎤
32. The number of 3 × 3 matrices A whose entries are either 0 or 1 and for which the system A ⎢ y ⎥ = ⎢ 0 ⎥ has
⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 ⎥⎦
exactly two distinct solutions, is
(A) 0 (B) 29 – 1 (C) 168 (D) 2
Answer (A)
Hints :
⎡ x ⎤ ⎡ 1⎤
The equation A ⎢ y ⎥ = ⎢ 0 ⎥ has two distinct solutions. It should be noted here that the given equation is linear
⎢ ⎥ ⎢ ⎥
⎢⎣ z ⎥⎦ ⎢⎣ 0 ⎥⎦
equation in 3 variables, which may have no solution, or unique solution or infinitely many solutions.
Hence there does not exist any matrix A such that the given equation has exactly two solutions and consequently
number of 3 × 3 matrices is 0.
33. Let P, Q, R and S be the points on the plane with position vectors −2iˆ − jˆ, 4iˆ, 3iˆ + 3 jˆ and − 3iˆ + 2 jˆ
respectively. The quadrilateral PQRS must be a
(A) Parallelogram, which is neither a rhombus nor a rectangle
(B) Square
(C) Rectangle, but not a square
(D) Rhombus, but not a square
td .)
sL
Answer (A)
e
Hints :
e rvic
a lS
i on
Let O be the origin
c a t
then OP = −2iˆ − ˆj d u
s h ES
ka
R
OQ = 4iˆ
f A a
OR = 3iˆ + 3 jˆ
io no
(D i vi s Q
OS = −3iˆ + 2 ˆj P
Here we have
O
PQ = 6iˆ + ˆj
QR = −iˆ + 3 jˆ
RS = −6iˆ − jˆ
and PS = −iˆ + 3 jˆ
PR = 5iˆ + 4 jˆ
QS = −7iˆ + 2 ˆj
PR ⋅ QS = −35 + 8 = −27 ≠ 0
Diagonals are not perpendicular
and | PQ | = | RS |, | QR | = | PS |
Hence PQRS is a parallelogram which is neither a rhombus nor a rectangle.
(12)
34. Let ω be a complex cube root of unity with ω ≠ 1. A fair die is thrown three times. If r1, r2 and r3 are the numbers
obtained on the die, then the probability that ω r1 + ω r2 + ω r3 = 0 is
1 1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18 9 9 36
Answer (C)
Hints :
ω is a complex cube root of unity with ω ≠ 1
ω r1 + ω r2 + ω r3 = 0 where r1, r2, r3 can be successively selected from the sets {1, 4}, {2, 5} and {3, 6}.
n(S) = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216
n(E) = 2C1 × 2C1 × 2C1 × 3C1 × 2C1 = 6 × 8
6×8 2
Required probability = =
216 9
x y z
35. Equation of the plane containing the straight line = = and perpendicular to the plane containing the straight
2 3 4
x y z x y z
lines = = and = = is
3 4 2 4 2 3
(A) x + 2y – 2z = 0 (B) 3x + 2y – 2z = 0 (C) x – 2y + z = 0 (D) 5x + 2y – 4z = 0
Answer (C)
.)
Lt d
x y z
Hints : The equation of the plane containing the line = = may be written as
2 3 4 es
e rvic
lS
ax + by + cz = 0 while 2a + 3b + 4c = 0 ... (i)
a
x y z
a t ioxn = y = z can be put in the form
The equation of the plane containing straight lines = = and
3 4 2du
c 4 2 3
E
sh
a ka
a1x + b1y + c1z = 0
o fA
i on
where 3a1 + 4b1 + 2c1 = 0
vi s
(D i
4a1 + 2b1 + 3c1 = 0
a1 b1 c
⇒ = = 1
8 −1 −10
Then the equation of the plane containing given two lines is
8x – y – 10c = 0 ... (ii)
Since the plane (i) is perpendicular to the plane (ii),
hence 8a – b – 10c = 0
Also 2a + 3b + 4c = 0
a b c
∴ = =
−4 + 30 −20 − 32 24 + 2
a b c
⇒ = =
26 −52 26
a b c
⇒ = =
1 −2 1
Substituting for a, b, c in equation (i), the required equation of the plane is
x – 2y + z = 0
(13)
36. If the angles A, B and C of a triangle are in an arithmetic progression and if a, b and c denote the lengths of
a c
the sides opposite to A, B and C respectively, then the value of the expression sin2C + sin2 A is
c a
1 3
(A) (B) (C) 1 (D) 3
2 2
Answer (D)
Hints :
π
Angles A, B, C are in A.P. hence B = 60° =
3
a c ⎛ sin C ⎞ ⎛ sin A ⎞
sin2C + sin2 A = 2 ⎜
⎝ c ⎟⎠ a cos C + 2 ⎜⎝ ⎟ c cos A
c a a ⎠
= 2(sinA cos C + cosA sinC)
3
= 2 sin(A + C) = 2 sinB = 2 × = 3
2
SECTION - II
(Multiple Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE may be correct.
td .)
sL
vicelengths of the sides opposite to A,
π
37. Let ABC be a triangle such that ∠ACB = and let a, b and c denote rthe
S e
na=l x2 – 1 and c = 2x + 1 is/are
6
B and C respectively. The value(s) of x for which a = x2 + x + 1,ob
ti
d u ca
(
(A) − 2 + 3 ) (B) 1 + 3
sh
(C) E2 + 3 (D) 4 3
Answer (B) fA a ka
o
i on
vi s
(D i
b +a −c
2 2 2
Hints : cos C =
2ab
C
π
( ) (
x − 1 + x + x + 1 − ( 2 x + 1) )
2 2 2 2 2
3 6
=
2 2
( )(
2 x −1 x + x +1
2
)
A B
⇒ ( x + 2)( x + 1)x( x − 1) + ( x 2 − 1)2 = 3( x 2 + x + 1)( x 2 − 1)
⇒ 3( x 2 + x + 1) = x 2 + 2 x + x 2 − 1
⇒ (2 − 3)x 2 + (2 − 3)x − ( 3 + 1) = 0
⇒ x = −(2 + 3) & x = 1 + 3
But x = −(2 + 3 )
shows that c is negative, which is not possible in a triangle.
Hence x = 1 + 3 is only possible value of x.
⇒ x = 1+ 3
(14)
38. Let z1 and z2 be two distinct complex numbers and let z = (1 – t) z1 + tz2 for some real number t with
0 < t < 1. If Arg (w) denotes the principal argument of a nonzero complex number w, then
(A) |z – z1| + |z– z2| = |z1 – z2| (B) Arg (z – z1) = Arg (z – z2)
z − z1 z − z1
(C) z − z z − z = 0 (D) Arg (z – z1) = Arg (z2 – z1)
2 1 2 1
Answer (A, C, D)
z
Hints : z1 z2
t = 1− t
we have z = (1 – t)z1 + tz2, 0 < t < 1,
t z2 + (1 − t ) z1
⇒ z=
t + 1− t
⇒ z = t z2 + (1 − t ) z1
z1, z, z2 are collinear

so Arg(z – z1) = Arg(z – z2) = Arg(z2 – z1)
x (1 − x )
1 4 4
39. The value(s) of ∫

0 1+ x2
dx is/are
22 2 71 3π
(A) −π (B) (C) 0 (D) −
7 105
td .) 15 2
Answer (A)
e sL
e rvic
x (1 − x )
4 4 1
⎛ x 8 − 4 x7 + 6x 6 − 4x 5 + x 4 ⎞ a lS
i on
1
∫ dx = ∫⎜ ⎟.dx t
Hints :
1+ x 2
0⎝ 1+ x
2
⎠ u c a
0
d
as hE
1
⎛ 6
= ∫ ⎜ x − 4 x + 5 x − 4x + 4 o
5 4 2 ak ⎞
−f A 2 ⎟ dx
4
0⎝ on 1 + x ⎠ i si
v
1 4 5 4 ⎛ π⎞
(D i
= − + − + 4 − 4⎜ ⎟
7 6 5 3 ⎝4⎠
22
= −π
7
40. Let A and B be two distinct points on the parabola y2 = 4x. If the axis of the parabola touches a circle of
radius r having AB as its diameter, then the slope of the line joining A and B can be
1 1 2 2
(A) − (B) (C) (D) −
r r r r
Answer (C, D)
Hints :
Mid - point of A & B
a(t1 + t2) = r
r
t1 + t 2 =
a
(15)
2a ( t1 − t 2 ) 2 2a
Slope of AB = = =
( t1 − t 2
2 2
) t1 + t 2 r ( 2
A at1 , 2at1 )
C
In y2 = 4x B
(at , 2at )
2
2 2
a=1
2
∴ slope =
r
2
y = 4ax
If circle in below x-axis, then
2
Slope = –
r
x
41. Let f be a real-valued function defined on the interval (0, ∞) by f ( x ) = lnx + ∫ 1 + sin t dt . Then which of the
0
following statement(s) is/are true?
(A) f ′′(x) exists for all x ∈ ( 0, ∞ )
(B) f ′(x) exists for all x ∈ ( 0, ∞ ) and f ′ is continuous on (0, ∞), but not differentiable on (0, ∞)
(C) There exists α > 1 such that |f ′(x)| < |f(x)| for all x ∈ ( α, ∞ )
(D) There exists β > 0 such that |f (x)| + |f ′(x)| ≤ β for all x ∈ ( 0, ∞ ) .)
td
e sL
rvic
Answer (B, C)
lS e
Hints : f ' ( x ) =
1 na may be –1 and then f′′(x) can't exist.
+ 1 + sin x , x > 0 but not differentiable in (0, ∞) astiosinx
x ca d u
hE
k as
Clearly f ′(x) is continuous on (0, ∞)
a
(D) Is not true because f (x) tends to ∞ as x tends
n of A to ∞
io
(C) Is true because f ' ( x ) ≤ 3 if x > 1ivis
( D
But |f(x)| > 3, if x > e3
So we may take α = e3
SECTION - III
(Paragraph Type)
This Section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based upon the
second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has four choices (A), (B),
(C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

2 2
x y
The circle x2 + y2 – 8x = 0 and hyperbola − = 1 intersect at the points A and B.
9 4
42. Equation of a common tangent with positive slope to the circle as well as to the hyperbola is
(A) 2 x − 5 y − 20 = 0 (B) 2 x − 5 y + 4 = 0 (C) 3x – 4y + 8 = 0 (D) 4x – 3y + 4 = 0
Answer (B)
(16)
Hints : Equation of tangent to hyperbola having slope m is
y = mx + 9m − 4
2
...(1)
Equation of tangent to circle is
y = m ( x − 4 ) + 16m + 16 ...(2)
2
2
(1) and (2) will be identical for m = satisfy
5
∴ Equation of common tangent is 2 x − 5 y + 4 = 0
43. Equation of the circle with AB as its diameter is

(A) x2 + y2 – 12x + 24 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + 12x + 24 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 + 24x – 12 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 – 24x – 12 = 0
Answer (A)
Hints :
The equation of the hyperbola is
2 2
x y
− =1
9 4
td .)
and that of circle is
e sL
x2 + y2 – 8x = 0 e rvic
a lS
For their points of intersection
a t i on
d u c
x 2 x 2 − 8x
s hE
+ =1
a ka
9 4
f A
⇒ 4x2 + 9x2 – 72x = 36 io no
⇒ 13x2 – 72x – 36 = 0 (D i vi s
⇒ 13x2 – 78x + 6x – 36 = 0
⇒ 13x(x – 6) + 6(x – 6) = 0
13
⇒ x = 6, x = −
6
13
x=− not acceptable
6
Now, for x = 6, y = ± 2 3
Required equation is
( x − 6)
2
( )( )
+ y +2 3 y −2 3 =0
⇒ x2 – 12x + y2 + 24 = 0
⇒ x2 + y2 – 12x + 24 = 0
(17)
Let p be an odd prime number and Tp be the following set of 2 × 2 matrices
⎪⎧ ⎡a b ⎤ ⎪⎫
TP = ⎨ A = ⎢ ⎥ : a, b, c ∈ {0, 1, 2, .......p − 1} ⎬
⎩⎪ ⎣c a ⎦ ⎭⎪
44. The number of A in Tp such that A is either symmetric or skew-symmetric or both, and det (A) divisible by p is
(A) (p – 1)2 (B) 2(p – 1) (C) (p – 1)2 + 1 (D) 2p – 1
Answer (D)
Hints :
If A is skew-symmetric, |A| = –b2
∴ p |A| iff b = 0 in which case A is symmetric.
⎡a b ⎤
⎥ , | A |= a − b
2 2
If A is ⎢
⎣ b a ⎦
∴ p | A | if either p a + b or p a – b.
The second case occurs only when a = b which gives p choices. The first case again gives p choices with
a = 0 = b counted again.
∴ The number of such matrices is 2p – 1.
td .)
e sL
rvic(A) is divisible by p is
l Se
45. The number of A in Tp such that the trace of A is not divisible by p but det
a
[Note : The trace of a matrix is the sum of its diagonal entries]
a t i on
(A) (p – 1)(p2 – p + 1) (B) p3 – (p – 1)2 (C) (pd–u 1)2 c (D) (p – 1) (p2 – 2)
s hE
Answer (C)
a ka
f A
Hints :
io no
i vi s
(D only if a = 0.
Tr(A) = 2a will be divisible by p if and
⎡a b ⎤
We want to find all matrices ⎢ ⎥ with a = 1, 2, ....., p – 1 for which a2 – bc ≡ 0 (mod p).
⎣c a ⎦
There are exactly p – 1 ordered pairs (b, c) for any value of a.

∴ Required number is (p – 1)2
46. The number of A in Tp such that det (A) is not divisible by p is

(A) 2p2 (B) p3 – 5p (C) p3 – 3p (D) p3 – p2
Answer (D)
Hints :
The number of matrices for which p does not divide Tr(A) is (p – 1)p2 of these (p – 1)2 are such that p |A|. The
number of matrices for which p divides Tr(A) and p does not divide |A| are (p – 1)2.
∴ Required number is (p – 1)p2 – (p – 1)2 + (p – 1)2 = p3 – p2
(18)
SECTION - IV
(Integer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a Single digit integer ranging from 0 to 9. The correct
digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
47. For any real number x, let [x] denote the largest integer less than or equal to x. Let f be a real valued function
defined on the interval [–10, 10] by
⎧{ x } if [ x ] is odd,
f (x) = ⎨
⎩1 – { x } if [x ] is even
10
π2
Then the value of ∫ f ( x )cos πx dx is
10 −10
Answer (4)
Hints :
⎧x − [ x] if [ x ] is odd,
f (x) = ⎨
⎩1 + [x ] – x if [x ] is even
–10 –9 –2 –1 0 1 2 9 10 td .)
e sL
f(x) and cosπx are both periodic with period 2 and are both even.
e rvic
a lS
10 10
a t i on
∴
∫ f ( x )cos πxdx = 2 ∫ f ( x )cos πxdx
d u c
−10 0
s hE
a ka
f A
no
2
= 10 ∫ f ( x )cos πxdx io
0
(D i vi s
1 1 1
∫ f ( x )cos πxdx = ∫ (1 − x )cos πxdx = −∫ u cos πudu

0 0 0
2 2 1
∫ f ( x )cos πxdx = ∫ ( x − 1)cos πxdx = −∫ u cos πudu

1 1 0
10 1
∴
∫ f ( x )cos πxdx = −20 ∫ u cos πudu
−10 0
40
=
π2
10
π2
⇒ ∫ f ( x )cos πxdx = 4
10 −10
(19)
2π 2π
48. Let ω be the complex number cos + i sin . Then the number of distinct complex numbers z satisfying
3 3
z +1 ω ω2
ω z + ω2 1 = 0 is equal to
ω2 1 z+ω
Answer (1)
Hints :
⎡1 ω ω2 ⎤
⎢ ⎥
Let A = ⎢ ω ω2 1⎥
⎢ 2 ⎥
⎣⎢ω 1 ω ⎦⎥
⎡0 0 0 ⎤
A = ⎢⎢0 0 0 ⎥⎥ , Tr ( A) = 0, | A | = 0
2
⎢⎣0 0 0 ⎥⎦
∴ A3 = 0
z +1 ω ω2
ω z + ω2 1 = | A + zI | = 0
td .)
⇒
e sL
rvic
ω 2
1 z+ω
lS e
a
⇒ z3 = 0
a t i on
⇒ z = 0, the number of z satisfying c
du the given equation is 1.
a s hE k −1
49. A
Let Sk, k = 1, 2,.....100, denote the sum of the infinite
f ak geometric series whose first term is and the common
o k!
1002 100 i s io2n
1
+∑iv (k − 3k + 1)Sk is
100! (D
ratio is . Then the value of
k k =1
Answer (4)
Hints :
We have,
k −1
Sk = k !
1
1−
k
1
=
(k − 1)!
Now,
1
(k 2 − 3k + 1)Sk = {(k − 2)(k − 1) − 1} ×
(k − 1)!
1 1
= −
(k − 3)! (k − 1)!
(20)
100
⎛ 1 1 ⎞
⇒ ∑ | (k 2 − 3k + 1)Sk | = 1 + 1 + 2 − ⎜⎝ 99! + 98! ⎟⎠
k =1
1002
= 4−
100!
1002 100 2
⇒ + ∑ | (k − 3k + 1)Sk |= 4
100! k =1
50. The number of all possible values of θ, where 0 < θ < π, for which the system of equations
(y + z)cos3θ = (xyz)sin3θ
2cos3θ 2sin3θ
x sin3θ = +
y z
(xyz)sin3θ = (y + 2z)cos3θ + ysin3θ

have a solution (x0, y0, z0) with y0z0 ≠ 0, is
Answer (3)
Hints :
Given equation can be written as
cos3θ cos3θ
x sin3θ − − =0 ...(i)
y z
td .)
e sL
x sin3θ −
2cos3θ 2sin3θ
− =0 e rvic
lS
...(ii)
y z
a
a t i on
2 1 du c
x sin3θ − cos3θ − (cos3θ + sin3θ ) = 0
shE
...(iii)
ka
y z
f A a
Equations (ii) and (iii) imply
io no
2sin3θ = cos3θ + sin3θ
(D i vi s
⇒ sin3θ = cos3θ
π 5π 9π
∴ tan3θ = 1 ⇒ 3θ = , ,
4 4 4
π 5π 9π
or θ = , ,
12 12 12
51. Let f be a real-valued differentiable function on R (the set of all real numbers) such that f(1) = 1. If the y-intercept
of the tangent at any point P(x, y) on the curve y = f(x) is equal to the cube of the abscissa of P, then the value
of f(–3) is equal to
Answer (9)
Hints :
The equation of the tangent at (x, y) to the given curve y = f(x) is
dy
Y −y = ( X − x)
dx
dy
Y − intercept = y − x
dx
(21)
According to the question,
dy
x3 = y − x
dx
dy y
⇒ − = −x 2
dx x
which is linear is x
−1
∫ dx
I.F . = e x
1
=
x
Required solution is
1 1
y = ∫ − x 2 . dx
x x
y −x 2
= +C
x 2
−x 3
y= + Cx
2
td .)
at x = 1, y = 1
e sL
e rvic
∴ 1=
−1
+C a lS
2
a t i on
d u c
3
s hE
⇒ C=
a ka
2
f A
io no
Now, f (−3) =
27 3
+ ( −3)
2 2 (D i vi s
27 − 9
= =9
2
⎛ π π⎞ nπ
52. The number of values of θ in the interval ⎜ − , ⎟ such that θ ≠ for n = 0, ± 1, ± 2 and tanθ = cot 5θ as
⎝ 2 2 ⎠ 5
well as sin2θ = cos4θ is
Answer (3)
Hints :
tanθ = cot5θ
we have,
⎛π ⎞
⇒ tan θ = tan ⎜ − 5θ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
π
⇒ − 5θ = nπ + θ
2
(22)
π
⇒ 6θ = − nπ
2
π nπ
⇒ θ= −
12 6
Also,
⎛π ⎞
cos 4θ = sin2θ = cos ⎜ − 2θ ⎟
⎝ 2 ⎠
⎛π ⎞
⇒ 4θ = 2nπ ± ⎜ − 2θ ⎟
⎝2 ⎠
Taking positive
π
6θ = 2n π +
2
nπ π
θ= +
3 12
Taking negative
π
2θ = 2n π −
2
π
θ = nπ −
td .)
sL
4
e
Above values of θ suggests that there are only 3 common solutions.
e rvic
a lS
a t i on
1 c
du 2
53. The maximum value of the expression
sin θ + 3 sin θ cossθ
2 E
h + 5cos θ
is
a ka
of A
Answer (2)
io n
vi s
Hints :
We have, ( D i
1
f ( θ) =
sin θ + 3 sin θ cos θ + 5 cos2 θ
2
Let g(θ) = sin2θ + 3sinθcosθ + 5cos2θ
1 − cos2θ ⎛ 1 + cos2θ ⎞ 3
= + 5⎜ ⎟ + 2 sin2θ
2 ⎝ 2 ⎠
3
= 3 + 2cos 2θ + sin 2θ
2
9
g (θ)min = 3 − 4 +
4
5 1
=3− =
2 2
1
f (θ)max = =2
g (θ)min
(23)
iˆ − 2 jˆ 2iˆ + jˆ + 3kˆ
54. if a and b are vectors in space given by a = and b = , then the value of
5 14
(2a + b ).[(a × b ) × (a − 2b )] is
Answer (5)
Hints :
From the given information, it is clear that
iˆ − 2 jˆ
a= ⇒ | a | = 1, | b | = 1, a.b = 0
5
Now, (2a + b ).[(a × b ) × (a − 2b )]
= (2a + b ).[a 2 b − (a.b ).a + 2b 2 .a − 2(b.a ).a ]
= [2a + b ].[b + 2a ]
= 4a2 + b2
= 4.1 + 1 = 5 [ as a.b = 0]
x2 y2
55. The line 2x + y = 1 is tangent to the hyperbola − = 1. If this line passes through the point of intersection
a2 b2
of the nearest directrix and the x-axis, then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is
Answer (2) td .)
e sL
rvic
Hints :
lS e
a
a t i on
d u c
s hE
a ka
F1
f A
no
–1 , 0
2 io
(D i vi s
a 1
Clearly = ...(i)
e 2
Also y = –2x + 1 is tangent to hyperbola
∴ 1 = 4a2 – b2 ...(ii)
⇒
1
a2
= 4 − e −1
2
( )
4
=5−e
2
⇒ 2
e
⇒ e4 – 5e2 + 4 = 0
⇒ (e2 – 4)(e2 – 1) = 0
⇒ e = 2, e = 1
e = 1 gives the conic as parabola. But conic is given as hyperbola, hence
e=2
(24)
x −1 y − 2 z − 3
56. If the distance between the plane Ax – 2y + z = d and the plane containing the lines = = and
2 3 4
x −2 y −3 z−4
= = is 6 , then |d| is
3 4 5
Answer (6)
Hints :
Equation of plane containing the given lines is
x −1 y − 2 z − 3
2 3 4 =0
3 4 5
⇒ (x – 1)( –1) – (y – 2)(–2) + (z – 3) (–1)

⇒ –x + 1 + 2y – 4 – z + 3 = 0
⇒ –x + 2y – z = 0 ...(i)
Given plane is
x – 2y + z = d ...(ii)
(i) and (ii) are parallel
Clearly A = 1
d
Now, distance between plane = = 6
1+ 4 + 1
td .)
⇒ |d| = 6 e sL
e rvic
a lS
PART–III : PHYSICS
a t i on
c d u
as hE
k -I
ofAa
SECTION
n
isioCorrect Choice Type
Single
iv
(D
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.
57. A thin uniform annular disc (see figure) of mass M has outer radius 4R and inner radius 3R. The work required
to take a unit mass from point P on its axis to infinity is
4R
3R
4R
2GM 2GM GM 2GM

(A) (4 2 − 5) (B) − (4 2 − 5) (C) (D) ( 2 − 1)
7R 7R 4R 5R
(25)
Answer (A)
Hints :
−GdM
4R
Potential VP = ∫
3R 16R 2 + x 2
⎛ M ⎞
4R
xdx
= −G ⎜ 2 ⎟
2π ∫ P
⎝ 7πR ⎠ 3R 16R 2 + x 2
Solving
−2GM
VP = (4 2 − 5)
7R dx
X
Work done in moving a unit mass from P to ∞
⎛ −2GM ⎞
= V∞ − VP = 0 − ⎜ (4 2 − 5) ⎟
⎝ 7R ⎠
2GM
= (4 2 − 5)
7R
58. A block of mass m is on an inclined plane of angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the block and the plane
is μ and tanθ > μ. The block is held stationary by applying a force P parallel to the plane. The direction of force
pointing up the plane is taken to be positive. As P is varied from tPd1.) = mg(sinθ – μ cosθ) to
P2 = mg(sinθ + μ cosθ), the frictional force f versus P graph will look like es L
e rvic
a lS
a t i on
P d u c
s hE
a ka
f A
io no
f (D i vi s f
P2
(A) P (B) P
P1 P1 P2
f f
P1 P1 P2
(C) P (D) P
P2
Answer (A)
(26)
Hints :
From FBD of block
N f
N = mg cosθ P
P + f = mg sinθ
⇒ f = mg sinθ – P
As P varies from (mg sinθ – μ cosθ) to (mg sinθ + μ cosθ), f varies
from + μ mg cosθ to –μ mg cosθ. This value of friction is always
mg
less than or equal to μN in magnitude.
P2
⇒ Graph
P1
59. A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two adjacent fixed points and carries a current I in the clockwise
direction, as shown in the figure. When the system is put in a uniform magnetic field of strength B going into
the plane of the paper, the wire takes the shape of a circle. The tension in the wire is
td .)
e sL
e rvic
a lS
a t i on
d u c
s hE
a ka
f A
io no
(D i vi s
IBL IBL IBL
(A) IBL (B) (C) (D)
π 2π 4π
Answer (C)
Hints :
From FBD of a small element on wire
⎛ dθ ⎞ idlB
2T sin ⎜ ⎟ = idlB
⎝ 2 ⎠
T T
dθ
⇒ 2T = iRd θB
2
⇒ T = BiR idlB
Bil
⇒ T =
2π T T
(27)
60. An AC voltage source of variable angular frequency ω and fixed amplitude V0 is connected in series with a
capacitance C and an electric bulb of resistance R (inductance zero). When ω is increased
(A) The bulb glows dimmer (B) The bulb glows brighter
(C) Total impedance of the circuit is unchanged (D) Total impedance of the circuit increases
Answer (B)
Hints :
As ω is increased, impedance of circuit decreases.
⇒ Current increases
⇒ Bulb glows brighter.
61. To verify Ohm’s law, a student is provided with a test resistor RT, a high resistance R1, a small resistance R2,
two identical galvanometers G1 and G2, and a variable voltage source V. The correct circuit to carry out the
experiment is
G1 G1
td .)
sL
e
rvic R
R2 R1
G2
G2
RT
lS e
RT R1
a
2
ti o n
u ca
(A) (B)
d
s hE
V a ka V
f A
R1
io no R2
i vi s
G1 G1
G2
(D G2
RT RT
R2 R1
(C) (D)
V V
Answer (C)
Hints :
G1 is used as voltmeter by connecting it in series with high resistance and applying it across RT in parallel G2
is used as ammeter by shunting it with small resistance and connecting in series with RT.
R1
G1
G2
RT
R2
(28)
62. Incandescent bulbs are designed by keeping in mind that the resistance of their filament increases with the
increase in temperature. If at room temperature, 100 W, 60 W and 40 W bulbs have filament resistance R100, R60
and R40, respectively, the relation between these resistance is
1 1 1
(A) R = R + R (B) R100 = R40 + R60
100 40 60
1 1 1
(C) R100 > R60 > R40 (D) > >
R100 R60 R40
Answer (D)
Hints :
V2
P=
R
1
⇒ ∝P
R
1 1 1
⇒ > >
R100 R60 R40
1 1 1
Normally = + could have been correct. But small change in resistance due to temperature change
R100 R40 R60
can destroy the equality.
63. A real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its
(A) Pressure and temperature are both high td.) both low
(B) Pressure and temperature are
sL
(C) Pressure is high and temperature is low i ce
(D) Pressure is low and temperature
rv
is high
e
Answer (D)
n al S
ti o
Hints :
d u ca
h Etemperature is high. This insures large intermolecular
Real gas behaves like an ideal gas if its pressure is low sand
a
separation and no condensation.
fAak
o t, made of a material of resistivity ρ. The resistance between
i on
64. Consider a thin square sheet of side L and thickness
i s
two opposite faces, shown by the shaded iv areas in the figure is
(D
t
L
(A) Directly proportional to L (B) Directly proportional to t

(C) Independent of L (D) Independent of t
Answer (C)
Hints :
l L ρ
R =ρ =ρ =
A tL t
⇒ Resistance is independent of L.
(29)
SECTION - II
Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONE
OR MORE may be correct.
65. A student uses a simple pendulum of exactly 1 m length to determine g, the acceleration due to gravity. He uses
a stop watch with the least count of 1 second for this and records 40 seconds for 20 oscillations. For this
observation, which of the following statement(s) is (are) true?
(A) Error ΔT in measuring T, the time period, is 0.05 seconds
(B) Error ΔT in measuring T, the time period, is 1 second
(C) Percentage error in the determination of g is 5%
(D) Percentage error in the determination of g is 2.5%
Answer (A, C)
Hints :
Relative error in measurement of time = 1 second = 1

40 second 40
Time period = 2 second
1 1
⇒ Error in measurement of time period = 2 × = second = 0.05 second
.)
40 20
td
e sL
rvic
1
g∝
T2
lS e
a
Δg 2ΔT 2 × 1 1
= = = a t i on
⇒
g T 40 20 d u c
s hE
Δg
× 100 = 5% a ka
⇒ f A
no
g
io
66. A point mass of 1 kg collides elasticallyi vi s
(D with a stationary point mass of 5 kg. After their collision, the 1 kg mass
–1
reverses its direction and moves with a speed of 2 ms . Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct for
the system of these two masses?
(A) Total momentum of the system is 3 kg ms–1
(B) Momentum of 5 kg mass after collision is 4 kg ms–1
(C) Kinetic energy of the centre of mass is 0.75 J
(D) Total kinetic energy of the system is 4 J
Answer (A, C)
Hints :
Initial u O
1 kg 5 kg
Final 2 v
(30)
By conservation of momentum
1u = –2 + 5v
By coefficient of restitution equation
v +2
=1
u
Solving we get
u = 3 m/s v = 1 m/s
Momentum = 1 × 3 = 3 kg m/s
Momentum of 5 kg block after collision = 5 × 1 = 5 kg ms–1
2
1 ⎛ 1× 3 ⎞
Kinetic energy of centre of mass = (1+ 5) ⎜ ⎟
2 ⎝ 6 ⎠
= 0.75 J
1
Total kinetic energy = × 1× 32 = 4.5 J
2
67. One mole of an ideal gas in initial state A undergoes a cyclic process ABCA as shown in the figure. Its pressure
at A is P0. Choose the correct option(s) from the following :
V
td .)
e sL
4V0 B
e rvic
a lS
a t i on
V0 A
d u c
hE
C
kasT
T
fA a 0
n o
si o
(A) Internal energies at A and B are the same
i vi
(B) Work done by the gas in process(D
AB is P0V0 ln 4
P0
(C) Pressure at C is
4
T0
(D) Temperature at C is
4
Answer (A, B)
Hints :
AB is an isothermal process V
⇒ Internal energy at A = Internal energy at B. 4V0 B
PV
Applying = constant between A and B
T V0 A
C
T
P0V0 PB 4V0 P T0
= ⇒ PB = 0
T0 T0 4
As it is not clearly indicated that BC is passing through origin, prediction about point C is not possible.
(31)
68. A few electric field lines for a system of two charges Q1 and Q2 fixed at two different points on the x-axis are
shown in the figure. These lines suggest that
Q1 Q2
(A) |Q1| > |Q2|

(B) |Q1| < |Q2|
(C) At a finite distance to the left of Q1 the electric field is zero
(D) At a finite distance to the right of Q2 the electric field is zero
Answer (A, D)
Hints :
Lines are denser around Q1
⇒ |Q1| > |Q2|
Since |Q1| > |Q2|, then electric field will be zero at some distance to right of Q2
69. A ray OP of monochromatic light is incident on the face AB of prism ABCD near vertex B at an incident angle
of 60° (see figure). If the refractive index of the material of the prism is 3 , which of the following is/are correct?
B
O
60°
C
P
td .)
135°
e sL
e rvic
a lS
a t i on
90°
d u c
75°
A
as hE D
a kCD
ofA
(A) The ray gets totally internally reflected at face
(B) The ray comes out through face AD sion
i vi
(C) The angle between the incident(D
ray and the emergent ray is 90°
(D) The angle between the incident ray and the emergent ray is 120°
Answer (A, B, C) 60°
60°
Hints :
30°
At P P
1 × sin60° = 3 sinr Q
45°
⇒ r = 30°
45°
From geometry, angle of incidence at Q is 45° 30°
90° 75°
At Q
D
3 R
3 sin(45°) =
>1 i 60°
2
⇒ TIR takes place
60°
At R
angle of incidence is 30°
By symmetry R = 60° 60°
From second diagram, angle of deviation is 90° e
(32)
SECTION - III (Paragraph Type)
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the first paragraph 2 multiple choice questions and based upon the
second paragraph 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C)
and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Electrical resistance of certain materials, known as superconductors, changes abruptly from a nonzero value to zero
as their temperature is lowered below a critical temperature TC(0). An interesting property of superconductors is that
their critical temperature becomes smaller than TC(0) if they are placed in a magnetic field, i.e., the critical temperature
TC(B) is a function of the magnetic field strength B. The dependence of TC(B) on B is shown in the figure.
TC(B)
TC(0)
B
O
70. In the graphs below, the resistance R of a superconductor is shown as a function of its temperature T for two
different magnetic fields B1 (solid line) and B2 (dashed line). If B2 is larger than B1, which of the following graphs
shows the correct variation of R with T in these fields?
R R
B2
(A) B2 B1 (B) B1
O T O T
td .)
e sL
e rvic
R R
B1iona
lS
uc at
(C) (D) Ed B2
sh
B1 B2
T
a ka O T
of A
O
i on
vi s
(D i
Answer (A)
Hints :
As B2 > B1; critical temperature becomes less. Correct answer is (A).
71. A superconductor has TC(0) = 100 K. When a magnetic field of 7.5 Tesla is applied, its TC decreases to
75 K. For this material one can definitely say that when
(A) B = 5 Tesla, TC(B) = 80 K
(B) B = 5 Tesla, 75 K < TC(B) < 100 K
(C) B = 10 Tesla, 75 K < TC(B) < 100 K
(D) B = 10 Tesla, TC(B) = 70 K
Answer (B)
Hints :
As critical temperature decreases continuously, with increase in magnetic field,
For B = 5T; TC > 75 K but TC < 100 K
Correct answer is (B).
(33)
When a particle of mass m moves on the x-axis in a potential of the form V(x) = kx2, it performs simple harmonic
m
motion. The corresponding time period is proportional to , as can be seen easily using dimensional analysis.
k
However, the motion of a particle can be periodic even when its potential energy increases on both sides of x = 0 in
a way different from kx2 and its total energy is such that the particle does not escape to infinity. Consider a particle
of mass m moving on the x-axis. Its potential energy is V(x) = αx4 (α > 0) for | x | near the origin and becomes a
constant equal to V0 for |x| ≥ X0 (see figure).
V(x)
V0
x
X0
72. If the total energy of the particle is E, it will perform periodic motion only if
(A) E < 0 (B) E > 0 (C) V0 > E > 0 (D) E > V0
Answer (C)
Hints :
For motion to be periodic, it must reverse its path i.e., KE should become zero for a finite value of x.
Now K + U = E
⇒ K=E–U td .)
e sL
Umax = V0
e rvic
a lS
⇒ Kmin = E – V0
a t i on
If Kmin > 0 particle will escape d u c
s hE
So, E – V0 < 0
a ka
f A
⇒ E < V0
io no
Also E = K + U > 0 (D i vi s
Correct answer is (C)
73. For periodic motion of small amplitude A, the time period T of this particle is proportional to
m 1 m α 1 α
(A) A (B) (C) A (D)
α A α m A m
Answer (B)
Hints :
As V = αx4
⇒ [α] = ML–2T–2
By methods of dimensions
⎡1 m⎤
⎢ ⎥ = M0L0T
⎣A α ⎦
Correct answer is (B).
(34)
74. The acceleration of this particle for | x | > X0 is
V0 V0
(A) Proportional to V0 (B) Proportional to mX (C) Proportional to mX 0 (D) Zero
0
Answer (D)
Hints :
For X > X0, potential energy is constant
⇒ Force is zero
Correct answer is (D).
SECTION - IV
(Integer Type)
This Section contains TEN questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
correct digit below the question number in the ORS is to be bubbled.
75. A 0.1 kg mass is suspended from a wire of negligible mass. The length of the wire is 1 m and its cross-sectional
area is 4.9 × 10–7 m2. If the mass is pulled a little in the vertically downward direction and released, it performs
simple harmonic motion of angular frequency 140 rad s–1. If the Young's modulus of the material of the wire is
n × 109 Nm–2, the value of n is
Answer (4)
Hints :
FL td .)
Y = , where l is elongation
e sL
rvic
Al
lS e
a
i on
FL F
⇒ l= =
AY ⎛ AY ⎞ c a t
d u
hE
⎜ L ⎟
⎝ ⎠
ka s
f A a
no
YA
⇒ Equivalent spring constant is k =
io
i vi s
L
(D
k YA
ω= =
m mL
⇒ Y = 4 × 109 N/m2
⇒ n=4
76. A binary star consists of two stars A (mass 2.2MS) and B (mass 11MS), where MS is the mass of the sun. They
are separated by distance d and are rotating about their centre of mass, which is stationary. The ratio of the total
angular momentum of the binary star to the angular momentum of star B about the centre of mass is
Answer (6)
Hints :
⎛ m1m2 ⎞ 2
Total angular momentum = ⎜ ⎟d ω
⎝ m1 + m2 ⎠
m1d
Angular momentum of m2 = m2r22ω, where r2 =
m1 + m2
m1 + m2 2.2 + 11
⇒ Required ratio = = =6
m1 2.2
(35)
6
77. Gravitational acceleration on the surface of a planet is g, where g is the gravitational acceleration on the surface
11
2
of the earth. The average mass density of the planet is times that of the earth. If the escape speed on the
3
surface of the earth is taken to be 11 kms–1, the escape speed on the surface of the planet in kms–1 will be
Answer (3)
Hints :
GM p 4
gp = = G πRp ρ p
Rp2 3
gp Rp ρp
⇒ =
ge Re ρe
Also, v e = 2gR
vp g p Rp ⎛ gp ⎞ ρe 6 3
⇒ = = ⎜⎜ ⎟⎟ = ×
ve g e Re ⎝ ge ⎠ ρp 11 2
⇒ vp = 3 km/s
78. A piece of ice (heat capacity = 2100 J kg–1 °C–1 and latent heat = 3.36 × 105 J kg–1) of mass m grams is at –
5°C at atmospheric pressure. It is given 420 J of heat so that the ice starts melting. Finally, when the
ice-water mixture is in equilibrium, it is found that 1 gm of ice has melted. Assuming there is no other heat
exchange in the process, the value of m is
td .)
sL
Answer (8)
e
Hints : Heat absorbed by melting of 1 gram ice is
e rvic
Q = mL = 0.001 × 3.36 × 105 = 336 J a lS
a t i on
⇒ m × C × (5) = 420 – 336
d u c
⇒ m=8g
s hE
a ka
f A
79. A stationary source is emitting sound at a fixed
i o n o frequency f0, which is reflected by two cars approaching the
D i viskm per hour) to the nearest integer?

source. The difference between the frequencies of sound reflected from the cars is 1.2% of f0. What is the
(
difference in the speeds of the cars (in The cars are moving at constant
speeds much smaller than the speed of sound which is 330 ms–1.
Answer (7)
Hints :
⎛ v + vc ⎞
Frequency of sound reflected by the car is f = ⎜ ⎟ f0
⎝ v − vc ⎠
⎛ vc ⎞
⎜ 1+ ⎟
As vc << v ⇒ f = ⎜ v ⎟ f = ⎛ 1 − 2v c ⎞ f
⎜ ⎟ 0
⎜ 1− vc ⎟ ⎝ v ⎠
⎜ ⎟
⎝ v ⎠
−2f0
Δf = Δv c
v
1.2 −2f0
f0 = Δv c
100 v
1.2 300
Difference | Δvc | = × m/s
100 2
1.2 330 18
= × × ≈ 7 km/h
100 2 5
(36)
80. The focal length of a thin biconvex lens is 20 cm. When an object is moved from a distance of 25 cm in front of
m25
it to 50 cm, the magnification of its image changes from m25 to m50. The ratio is
m50
Answer (6)
Hints :
f
m=
f +u
20
m25 = = −4
20 − 25
20 −2
m50 = =
20 − 50 3
m25 12
= =6
m50 2
81. An α-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by a potential difference of 100 V. After this, their
λp
de-Broglie wavelengths are λα and λp respectively. The ratio , to the nearest integer, is
λα
Answer (3)
Hints :
td .)
e sL
rvic
h h
λ= =
mv 2mqV
lS e
a
a t i on
λp =
h
d u c
2 × m × eV
s hE
a ka
λp f A
no
h
λα = =
io
i vi s
2 × (4m ) × (2e )V 2 2
(D
λp
=2 2 ≈3
λα
82. When two identical batteries of internal resistance 1 Ω each are connected in series across a resistor R, the rate
of heat produced in R is J1. When the same batteries are connected in parallel across R, the rate is J2. If J1 =
2.25 J2, then the value of R in Ω is
Answer (4)
Hints :
2
⎛ 2ε ⎞
In case 1, J1 = ⎜ ⎟ R
⎝R +2⎠
2
⎛ 2ε ⎞
In case 2, J2 = ⎜ ⎟ R
⎝ 2R + 1 ⎠
J1 = 2.25 J2
⇒ R=4Ω
(37)
83. Two spherical bodies A (radius 6 cm) and B (radius 18 cm) are at temperatures T1 and T2, respectively. The
maximum intensity in the emission spectrum of A is at 500 nm and in that of B is at 1500 nm. Considering them
to be black bodies, what will be the ratio of the rate of total energy radiated by A to that of B?
Answer (9)
Hints :
As per Wein’s displacement law
TA λB
= =3
TB λ A
As per Stefan’s law
PA AATA4 (6)2
Also, = = × (3)4 = 9
PB ABTB4 (18)2
⎛ π⎞
84. When two progressive waves y1 = 4 sin (2x – 6t) and y 2 = 3 sin ⎜ 2 x − 6t − ⎟ are superimposed, the amplitude
⎝ 2⎠
of the resultant wave is
Answer (5)
Hints :
π
A = 42 + 32 + 2 × 4 × 3 × cos =5
2
td .)
e sL
e rvic
a lS
a t i on
d u c
s hE
a ka
f A
io no
(D i vi s
(38)

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IIT-JEE 2010

(Division of Aakash Educational Services Ltd.)

TOP RANKERS ALWAYS FROM AAKASH

XI Marks 33 XII Marks 51

XI syllabus 11 XII syllabus 17

Distribution of Level of Questions in Chemistry Topic wise distribution in Chemistry

Easy Medium Tough Physical Chemistry

Percentage Portion asked from Syllabus of Class XI

XI syllabus XII syllabus

Percentage Portion asked (Mark-wise) from Syllabus of Class XI & XII -

XI Marks XII Marks

XI Marks 39 XII Marks 45

XI syllabus 13 XII syllabus 15

Distribution of Level of Questions in Mathematics Topic wise distribution in Maths

Easy Medium Tough Algebra

XI syllabus XII syllabus Algebra

Percentage Portion asked (Mark-wise) from Syllabus of

XI Marks XII Marks

Heat & Modern Oscillation & Magnetism Experimenta Miscellan

XI Marks 51 XII Marks 33

XI syllabus 17 XII syllabus 11

Distribution of Level of Questions in Physics Topic wise distribution in Physics

Heat & Thermodynamics

Easy Medium Tough Miscellaneous

Percentage Portion asked (Mark-wise) from Syllabus of Class

XI Marks XII Marks

(A) Br OCH3 and H2 (B) Br and CH3Br

(C) Br and CH3OH (D) OH and CH3Br

5. The correct statement about the following disaccharide is

(C) BrCH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3C ≡ CH (D) BrCH2CH2CH2CH3 and CH3CH2C ≡ CH

CH2—CH2 —CH2 —CH3

7. The ionization isomer of [Cr(H2O)4Cl(NO2)]Cl is

8. The correct structure of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is

HOOC CH2 CH2 COOH

9. In the reaction NaOH(aq)/Br2 the intermediate(s) is/are

Hints : (A) & (C) is usual product. Formation of (B) is justified as

Paragraph for Questions 14 to 15

17. Iron is removed from chalcopyrite as

18. In self-reduction, the reducing species is

20. The value of n in the molecular formula BenAl2Si6O18 is

[R] (molar) 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10

t(min.) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18

The order of the reaction is

from 1 to 0.75 (M) from 0.75 to 0.40 from 0.40 to 0.10

H3N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 O

H3N CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2 O

NO2 OH CH2CH3 COOH

will be soluble in aqueous NaOH.

(1) CN− + H2 O HCN + OH−

(2) CO3−2 + H2 O HCO3− + OH−

(3) CN− + H2 O HCN + OH− td .)

Hence PQRS is a parallelogram which is neither a rhombus nor a rectangle.

= 2(sinA cos C + cosA sinC)

z1, z, z2 are collinear

39. The value(s) of ∫

following statement(s) is/are true?

(A) f ′′(x) exists for all x ∈ ( 0, ∞ )

Paragraph for Questions 42 to 43

(A) 2 x − 5 y − 20 = 0 (B) 2 x − 5 y + 4 = 0 (C) 3x – 4y + 8 = 0 (D) 4x – 3y + 4 = 0

Equation of tangent to circle is

∴ Equation of common tangent is 2 x − 5 y + 4 = 0

43. Equation of the circle with AB as its diameter is

∴ p |A| iff b = 0 in which case A is symmetric.

There are exactly p – 1 ordered pairs (b, c) for any value of a.