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Chem Systems: 2nd Semester Final Exam Part I

Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. When you eat an apple, the process of digestion involves:


a. physical change only.
b. chemical change only.
c. physical and chemical change.
d. phase change.
____ 2. When a chemical change occurs:
a. atoms are rearranged.
b. the law of conservation of mass is always obeyed.
c. the chemical properties of new substances are different from the ones you started with.
d. all of the above are true.
____ 3. In which of the following situations does water undergo a change in physical properties?
a. The bathroom fills with steam when you take a hot shower.
b. The neighbor’s pond freezes over in winter.
c. Water is broken down to yield H2 and O2.
d. (a) and (b) only.

Answer the following questions about the chemical reaction for the combustion of methane gas:
CH4 + O2 CO2 + H2O

____ 4. Identify the reactants.


a. CO2 and H2O
b. CH4 and O2
c. O2 and H2O
d. CH4 and CO2
____ 5. Identify the products.
a. CO2 and H2O
b. CH4 and O2
c. O2 and H2O
d. CH4 and CO2
____ 6. Is the chemical reaction for the combustion of methane balanced? If not, select the correct equation from the
ones listed below.
a. Yes, it is balanced.
b. No, this is balanced: CH4 + O2 CO2 + 4H2O
c. No, this is balanced: CH4 + 2O2 CO2 + 2H2O
d. No, this is balanced: CH4 + 4O2 CO2 + H2O
____ 7. Balance the following equation to demonstrate the conservation of atoms in a reaction. Choose the answer
which provides the correct coefficients for each reactant and product.
_____ Fe + _____ O2 _____ Fe2O3
a. (4, 3, 2)
b. (2, 1, 1)
c. (1, 2, 3)
d. (2, 3, 1)
____ 8. If you designed your own experiment to prove the law of conservation of mass, what conditions would be re-
quired?
a. You must find the mass of the reactants before the reaction and find the mass of the
products after the reaction.
b. You must find the mass of the reactants before the reaction, find the mass of the products
after the reaction, AND perform the reaction in a closed system.
c. You must choose a combustion reaction.
d. You must use mercury because the law applies only to mercury.
____ 9. Which of the following is true of a limiting reactant?
a. The limiting reactant is used up first.
b. Some of the limiting reactant will be left over when the reaction is complete.
c. The limiting reactant determines the amount of product formed.
d. (a) and (c) only.
____ 10. Respiration:
a. occurs only in animals.
b. occurs only in the lungs.
c. is only given artificially by CPR.
d. converts glucose and oxygen into energy, carbon dioxide, and water.
____ 11. What is the by-product of the combustion reaction given below:
C6H12O6 + 6O2 6CO2 + 6H2O
a. Energy is absorbed.
b. Energy is released.
c. C6H12O6
d. Sugar
____ 12. Classify the following reaction:
3CuSO4 + 2Al Al2(SO4)3 + 3Cu
a. Addition
b. Single-displacement
c. Double-displacement
d. Decomposition
____ 13. Classify the following reaction:
Cu(NO3)2 + 2NaOH Cu(OH)2 + 2NaNO3
a. Addition
b. Single-displacement
c. Double-displacement
d. Decomposition
____ 14. Classify the following reaction:
Cu(OH)2 CuO + H2O
a. Addition
b. Single-displacement
c. Double-displacement
d. Decomposition

A chemist is given the job of recovering silver ions, Ag+, from a solution before the solution is discarded. She
is given the job because silver is expensive and may be reused.

Answer the following questions about the chemist’s task.


____ 15. Based on your choice of reactants, what kind of reaction would the chemist use to extract the silver?
a. Addition
b. Double-replacement
c. Decomposition
d. Single-replacement
____ 16. In addition to the silver ions, what other product is formed by the reaction?
a. CuAg
b. AgCl
c. NO3-
d. CuNO3
____ 17. What would be the most likely product(s) of the following reaction?
H2 + O2 →

a. H3 + O3
b. H2O
c. O3H3
d. no reaction would occur
____ 18. When you activate an instant cold pack, water mixes with a chemical and the pack gets very cold. This is an
example of:
a. an endothermic reaction.
b. an exothermic reaction.
c. a combustion reaction.
d. a physical change.
____ 19. An example of an exothermic reaction is:
a. refining aluminum ore.
b. activating an instant cold pack.
c. heating “meals-ready-to-eat” (MREs) by pouring water into the ration heater.
d. changing water to steam.
____ 20. Atoms of a particular element that have different numbers of neutrons are called:
a. isotopes.
b. isotoners.
c. isometrics.
d. isomers.
____ 21. The atomic mass number for the radioisotope carbon-13 is:
a. 6
b. 7
c. 12
d. 13
____ 22. Water is described as a polar molecule because it has:
a. a positive and a negative pole.
b. two positive poles.
c. two negative poles.
d. no charge.
____ 23. The bond between a water molecule’s oxygen atom and the hydrogen atoms of another water molecule is
known as a:
a. hydrogen bond.
b. oxygen bond.
c. covalent bond.
d. ionic bond.
____ 24. A non-polar molecule is:
a. easily dissolved in water AND uncharged.
b. easily dissolved in water AND charged.
c. unlikely to dissolve in water AND charged.
d. unlikely to dissolve in water AND uncharged.
____ 25. What happens when water molecules evaporate from the leaves of a plant?
a. More water molecules are pulled into place because they are connected by hydrogen
bonds.
b. The plant dries out and dies.
c. Dew forms on the leaves.
d. A vacuum is created, and water is sucked up the plant stem like a straw.
____ 26. A solution is:
a. a mixture of two or more substances of the same state (e.g., liquid + liquid).
b. a mixture of two or more substances. It is heterogeneous at the molecular level.
c. a mixture of two or more substances. It is homogeneous at the molecular level.
d. a mixture of two or more substances, one of which is water.
____ 27. Fourteen-karat gold is:
a. an alloy.
b. a solution.
c. a mixture of two solids.
d. All of the above are correct.
____ 28. The equipment setup shown below would be most useful for determining:

a. the viscosity of the liquid.


b. the boiling point of the liquid.
c. the density of the liquid.
d. whether the liquid is a solution or a colloid.
____ 29. Which of the following statements about colloids is FALSE?
a. A colloid contains particles smaller than those in a suspension but larger than those in a
solution.
b. A colloid does not settle out because the particles are constantly tossed about by the move-
ment of the liquid particles.
c. A colloid is not a true solution.
d. A mixture of sand and water is an example of a colloid.
____ 30. Which of the following statements about suspensions is TRUE?
a. A suspension contains particles smaller than those of a solution.
b. A suspension cannot be filtered.
c. The large particles in a suspension eventually settle to the bottom of the container.
d. A suspension is a true solution.
____ 31. The unit most useful for measuring the particle size of a colloid is the:
a. nanometer.
b. millimeter.
c. parts per million.
d. nanosecond.
____ 32. Water is a solvent in which of the following solutions?
a. Air
b. Liquid sterling silver
c. Saline (salt) solution
d. Corn oil
____ 33. The concentration of ions in water is often reported in ppm. PPM stands for:
a. parts per million.
b. picograms per million.
c. particles per million.
d. none of the above.
____ 34. Soap works better in soft water than in hard water because:
a. soft water contains more calcium and magnesium ions which interfere with how soap
works.
b. hard water contains fewer calcium and magnesium ions which interfere with how soap
works.
c. soft water contains fewer calcium and magnesium ions which interfere with how soap
works.
d. hard water contains more calcium and magnesium ions which enhance how soap works.
____ 35. One of the simplest ways to increase the solubility of sugar in a cup of water is to:
a. chill the water.
b. stir the water.
c. evaporate the water.
d. use a sugar cube instead of granulated sugar.
____ 36. A SCUBA diver may experience nitrogen narcosis and “the bends” when diving to great depths because:
a. increased pressure underwater causes more nitrogen gas than normal to be dissolved in
body tissues.
b. decreased pressure underwater causes less nitrogen gas than normal to be dissolved in
body tissues.
c. the solubility of gases decreases with increasing pressure.
d. there is less dissolved oxygen in cold water.
____ 37. If you decrease the temperature, what happens to the solubility of NaNO3 in water?
a. The solubility increases because more collisions occur between solute and solvent.
b. The solubility decreases because fewer collisions occur between solute and solvent.
c. The solubility decreases because more collisions occur between solute and solvent.
d. No collisions occur between solute and solvent, so no NaNO3 will dissolve.
____ 38. Which of the following statements are TRUE for the process of dissolving NaCl in water?
a. NaCl remains bonded together.
b. Na+ and Cl- become free ions.
c. The attractive forces between water and NaCl are weaker than the forces holding NaCl to-
gether.
d. All of the above
____ 39. Which of the following statements describes a step in the process that occurs when sodium chloride, NaCl,
dissolves in water?
a. Solute and solvent molecules collide.
b. Solvent molecules are attracted to the solute ions.
c. Water surrounds sodium and chloride ions.
d. All of the above
____ 40. A solution reaches equilibrium when:
a. the amount of solute that has dissolved is equal to the amount of solute that hasn’t yet dis-
solved.
b. the rate of solute molecules entering the solution is equal to the rate of solute molecules
coming out of the solution.
c. the temperature of the solution is equal to the temperature of the room.
d. the solution is supersaturated.
____ 41. If large amounts of hot water are released from a power plant or factory into a lake,
a. the amount of dissolved oxygen in that part of the lake increases.
b. the amount of dissolved oxygen in that part of the lake decreases.
c. the surrounding ecosystem is unaffected as long as the water is clean.
d. the warm water decreases the metabolic rate of local fish, so their need for dissolved oxy-
gen decreases.
____ 42. Which of the following statements shows the correct relationship between temperature and the solubility of
a gas in a liquid?
a. Dissolved oxygen in a pond decreases when the water temperature increases.
b. Dissolved oxygen in a pond decreases when the water temperature decreases.
c. More sodium chloride can be dissolved in cold water than in hot water.
d. Carbon dioxide escapes from the solution when you open a soda can.
____ 43. The solubility value of table salt at 25°C is 37.7 grams per 100 milliliters of water. If you add 60 grams of salt
to 200 milliliters of water at 25°C, what do you think will happen?
a. The solution becomes saturated.
b. The solution becomes supersaturated.
c. The salt dissolves.
d. Only 37.7 grams of salt dissolve.

Graph 8-1A

Use Graph 8-1A: Temperature-Solubility Graph for salts to answer the following questions.

____ 44. According to Graph 8-1A, how many grams of sodium nitrate (NaNO3) will dissolve in 200 milliliters of wa-
ter at 70ºC?
a. 140 grams
b. 280 grams
c. 120 grams
d. 240 grams
____ 45. According to Graph 8-1A, how much potassium nitrate (KNO3) would dissolve in 50 milliliters of water at
45ºC?
a. 25 grams
b. 50 grams
c. 100 grams
d. 150 grams
____ 46. According to Graph 8-1A, temperature affects the solubility of which salt the most?
a. NaCl
b. NaNO3
c. KNO3
d. It effects NaNO3 and KNO3 equally.
____ 47. Which of the following substances is acidic?
a. Distilled water
b. Hand soap
c. Vinegar
d. Ammonia
____ 48. Which of the following substances is basic?
a. Vinegar
b. Ammonia
c. Lemon juice
d. Distilled water
____ 49. Which of the following pH values is the most acidic?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. 14
____ 50. A neutral solution has a pH of:
a. 1
b. 5
c. 7
d. 14
____ 51. Hydronium ions:
a. are contributed to a solution by a base.
b. are represented as H3O+.
c. usually increase the pH value when added to a solution.
d. (b) and (c) only.
____ 52. Hydroxide ions:
a. are contributed to a solution by an acid.
b. are represented as OH-.
c. usually increase the pH value when added to a solution.
d. (b) and (c) only.
____ 53. Solution A has a pH of 6. Solution B has a pH of 8. What is TRUE about these solutions?
a. Solution A is basic, and solution B is acidic.
b. Solution A has 10 times as many H3O+ ions as Solution B.
c. You could mix equal amounts of these solutions and obtain a neutral solution.
d. None of the above is true.
____ 54. What happens when you mix a very strong acid like HCl (pH=1) with a very strong base like NaOH
(pH=13)?
a. The resulting solution has a pH of 14.
b. Salt and water are formed.
c. Nothing happens.
d. The very strong acid becomes a weak acid.
____ 55. You have equal amounts of two solutions. Solution A has a pH of 3. Solution B has a pH of 5. How many
more H3O+ ions does one solution have than the other?
a. Solution A has 10 times as many H3O+ ions as Solution B.
b. Solution A has 100 times as many H3O+ ions as Solution B
c. Solution B has 10 times as many H3O+ ions as solution A.
d. Solution B has 100 times as many H3O+ ions as solution A.
____ 56. What drives the water cycle?
a. The need for plants to release excess water
b. Gravity pulling water droplets from clouds back to Earth
c. The sun, which provides the energy for evaporation and transpiration
d. The water pressure that builds up as an aquifer fills with water
____ 57. Transpiration is:
a. the process by which water vapor from plants enters the atmosphere.
b. the process by which water vapor from lakes and streams enters the atmosphere.
c. the measure of the clearness of water.
d. the sun-driven process by which water is moved from place to place on Earth.
____ 58. The majority of Earth’s water is found in:
a. oceans.
b. the atmosphere.
c. groundwater.
d. aquifers.
____ 59. Which of the following is NOT a step in the hydrologic cycle?
a. Evaporation
b. Precipitation
c. Respiration
d. Condensation
____ 60. Why is it important for people to protect our water resources?
a. Rainwater is too acidic to drink.
b. Seawater is too salty to drink.
c. Less than 1% of the water on Earth is available for consumption.
d. Water gets used up, and it can never be recycled.
____ 61. A student determines the salinity of an environmental water sample to be 36 parts per thousand. This water
sample probably came from:
a. the Dead Sea.
b. tap water.
c. ground water.
d. sea water.

The following questions consist of descriptions of elements that may be found in surface water or drinking
water. For each numbered description, select the correct element from the choices below.

____ 62. This element is added to municipal water supplies to kill bacteria.
a. Chlorine (in the form of chloride ions)
b. Fluorine (in the form of fluoride ions)
c. Nitrogen
d. Phosphorus
____ 63. Acid rain is caused by:
a. evaporation.
b. global warming.
c. by-products of the combustion of fossil fuels.
d. None of the above
____ 64. Which of the following is NOT an effect of acid rain?
a. Acid rain can disrupt the life cycles of fish and other aquatic animals.
b. Acid rain preserves forests by encouraging rapid tree growth.
c. Acid rain dissolves important nutrients in soils.
d. Acid rain dissolves limestone and marble buildings and monuments.
____ 65. Which of the following is a technology that is used in cleaning up oil spills?
a. Measuring salinity
b. Use of dispersants
c. Transpiration
d. Biological oxygen demand tests
____ 66. Which of the following ions is most common is seawater?
a. Chloride
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Iron
____ 67. Water boils at a temperature of:
a. 0º Fahrenheit.
b. 32º Fahrenheit.
c. 100° Celsius.
d. 212º Celsius.
____ 68. Temperature is a measure of:
a. average kinetic energy of the molecules of a substance.
b. thermal energy due to potential interactions between molecules.
c. thermal energy due to the nuclear interactions between all of the molecules in an object.
d. total kinetic energy due to the motions of all the molecules in an object.
____ 69. Which of the following temperature scales is used by most of the world’s citizens?
a. Fahrenheit
b. Roemer
c. Celsius
d. Kelvin
____ 70. Heat can be defined as the:
a. average kinetic energy of the molecules of an object.
b. amount of thermal energy an object contains.
c. average temperature of a substance.
d. flow of thermal energy from one object to another object.
____ 71. When thermal energy flows, it raises the temperature of some substances more than others. This temperature
difference occurs because the substances have different:
a. specific heat values.
b. latent heat values.
c. dew points.
d. equilibrium points.
____ 72. If you hold a paper cup containing hot chocolate in your hand, thermal energy:
a. does not flow.
b. flows from the air to the hot chocolate.
c. flows from the hot chocolate to your hand.
d. flows from your hand to the hot chocolate.
____ 73. Conduction is the transfer of thermal energy due to:
a. direct contact of particles of matter.
b. differences in density.
c. the force of buoyancy.
d. electromagnetic radiation.
____ 74. Which of the following is NOT a good insulator?
a. A pocket of air
b. Foam packing material
c. A down jacket
d. Copper wire

Temperature Changes
in the Atmosphere

Figure 9-2A

____ 75. Based on Figure 9-2A, we live in this layer of the atmosphere:
a. Thermosphere
b. Mesosphere
c. Stratosphere
d. Troposphere
____ 76. According to Figure 9-2A, as you go farther up, temperature decreases in which of the layers?
a. Thermosphere and stratosphere
b. Mesosphere and troposphere
c. Stratosphere only
d. Troposphere only
____ 77. This class this year has been
a. awesome and fun c. rewarding
b. challenging d. all the above
____ 78. I could have done much better this semester if I would have just applied myself.
a. TRUE b. FALSE
Chem Systems: 2nd Semester Final Exam Part I
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 20, section 20.1


2. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 20, section 20.1
3. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 20, section 20.1
4. ANS: B DIF: basic REF: chapter 20, section 20.2
5. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 20, section 20.2
6. ANS: C DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 20, section 20.2
7. ANS: A DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 20, section 20.2
8. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 20, section 20.3
9. ANS: D DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 20, section 20.4
10. ANS: D DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 21, section 21.1
11. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 21, section 21.1
12. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 21, section 21.1
13. ANS: C DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 21, section 21.1
14. ANS: D DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 21, section 21.1
15. ANS: D DIF: advanced REF: chapter 21, section 21.1
16. ANS: D DIF: advanced REF: chapter 21, section 21.1
17. ANS: B DIF: advanced REF: chapter 21, section 21.1
18. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 21, section 21.2
19. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 21, section 21.2
20. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 22, section 22.1
21. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 22, section 22.1
22. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.1
23. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.1
24. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.1
25. ANS: A DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.1
26. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
27. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
28. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
29. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
30. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
31. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
32. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
33. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
34. ANS: C DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.2
35. ANS: B DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
36. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
37. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
38. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
39. ANS: D DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
40. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
41. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
42. ANS: A DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
43. ANS: C DIF: advanced REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
44. ANS: B DIF: advanced REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
45. ANS: B DIF: advanced REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
46. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.3
47. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
48. ANS: B DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
49. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
50. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
51. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
52. ANS: D DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
53. ANS: C DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
54. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
55. ANS: B DIF: advanced REF: chapter 23, section 23.4
56. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 24, section 24.1
57. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 24, section 24.1
58. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 24, section 24.1
59. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 24, section 24.1
60. ANS: C DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 24, section 24.1
61. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 24, section 24.2
62. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 24, section 24.2
63. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 24, section 24.3
64. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 24, section 24.3
65. ANS: B DIF: basic REF: chapter 24, section 24.4
66. ANS: A DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 24, section 24.4
67. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 25, section 25.1
68. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 25, section 25.1
69. ANS: C DIF: basic REF: chapter 25, section 25.1
70. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 25, section 25.1
71. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 25, section 25.2
72. ANS: C DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 25, section 25.2
73. ANS: A DIF: basic REF: chapter 25, section 25.3
74. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 25, section 25.3
75. ANS: D DIF: basic REF: chapter 26, section 26.2
76. ANS: B DIF: intermediate REF: chapter 26, section 26.2
77. ANS: A
78. ANS: A

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