Professional Documents
Culture Documents
QUESTION
S
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
Ans: Blown Asphalt
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?
Ans: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?
Ans: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Ans: by Field Density Test
21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?
Ans: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
Ans: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis
23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m 3,
with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960
kg/m3?
Ans: 101.23%
24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
Ans: 5 holes/km/lane
25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams
and an oven dried weight of 138.2 grams?
Ans: 17.58%
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Ans: the soil is clayey
27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the
oven is already oven dried?
Ans: if the sample reaches its constant weight
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Ans: 110 5oC
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Ans: because it can affect its weight
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural
moisture content?
Ans: hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air- dried
sample while natural moisture content is the moisture content of the original
sample from the field.
31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs. sample represents?
Ans: 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Ans: 2 pcs 1 m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily
reinforced concrete structure using a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete
mix, what admixture should it be?
Ans: Superplasticizer
34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
Ans: as joint filler and water proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Ans: Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion Compression Test be soaked in
water?
Ans: 4 days @ 50 oC
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?
Ans: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition
38. Paint is composed of _____
Ans: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Ans: 16 mm and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial
curing?
Ans: 23o C 1.7o C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63F to
85F are permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to
test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times.
Ans: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing
of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 F
3F
Ans: Twenty-four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Ans: high degree of compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what
sieve?
Ans: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture Density
Relation Test (MDR) is T 180?
Ans: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
46. A bean mold measuring 6 x 6 x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how
many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?
Ans: 60 blows/layer
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g,
what is the % asphalt by weight of mix?
Ans: 5.10%
48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Ans: Cut-back asphalt
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the
surface at the rate of approximately _____?
Ans: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47,
what is the acceptable range of asphalt content?
Ans: 4.7% to 5.5%
Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction
materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose
measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the
quantity represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who
submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common
name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers
should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days
of a quality test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested
just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a
quality test of a cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many
days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that
its result be used in field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are
you going to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt
mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
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123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all
other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength 70%)
124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to
ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap
125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.
Answer: 150 mm
126. Class of concrete deposited in water.
Answer: Class Seal
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced
substructures. The important parts of the structure included are slabs, beams,
girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining walls,
and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding
and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles,
cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors.
Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in pre stressed concrete structures and members.
Answer: Class P
131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit
Answer: 1.50 m
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings
Answer: Item 612
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300
Answer: + 15 mm and 5 mm
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____
Answer: 3% to 5 %
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____
Answer: plain bars
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136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third Point Method shall have a
flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate
sub base shall spread and compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: 10 mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete
specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15%
Answer: 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption
of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge
between contacts with the surface in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final
rolling, the surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the
rate of application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required
number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except
Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion
of soil, fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits
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149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material
Answer: Group Index
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width
per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required.
Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm
Answer: 353 sets
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 30%
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit
exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 90
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 89
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer
Answer: 95%
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long
160. At least how many in situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m 2 of
each layer of compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200
Answer: 12%
162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200
Answer: 35%
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212. In case of scarcity or non availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of
pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested
by the midpoint method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa
214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____
Answer: Steel forms of an approved section
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours
216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement
Answer: 24 hours
217. The required slump of concrete using slip form method of paving is _____
Answer: 1 inches
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract
price allowed is _____
Answer: 25% or more
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured
concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m
221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from
each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set
223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 day compressive strength
224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 20 mm reinforcing steel.
Answer: 6d (20 mm 25 mm = 8d: 28 mm and above = 10d)
225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.
Answer: 4 to 6 rpm
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239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or
cement concrete surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the
construction of bituminous surface course.
Answer: Tack Coat
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut back asphalt?
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from
the testing edge of the straight edge between any two contacts with the
surface?
Answer: 6 mm
243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?
Answer: 1.40 MPa
244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by
AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum
245. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: 7
246. Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
Answer: 4
247. .Job mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Answer: 2
248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability
249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water,
temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability
250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage
of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to
gradual settlements and moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility
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265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is
already doubt as to its quality should:
Answer: be retested prior to use
266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a
particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test
is taken. What will be this test?
Answer: referee test
268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it
allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to determine the strength. What is
the required compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky
270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____
Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel
271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____
Answer: weak subgrade
272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____
Answer: very stable
273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___
Answer: normal
274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?
Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil
275. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test
in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction.
276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the
result. True or false?
Answer: true
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321. A one lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m
on each side of the pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses
with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm,
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the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses shall be carried
out in _____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of
loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory produced RCCP may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade
preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most
effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil
prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6 x 6 x 21
beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce
excessive _______ or _______.
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture
327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____
Answer: 29C
328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall
be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its
workability (provided concrete does not excced specified slump), how many
minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water cement ratio is not
exceeded.
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous
mixture?
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Answer:
TAR is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT are the products of the distillation of crude
oil.
332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut back asphalt, emulsified asphalt
333. What are the solvents of cut back asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE for rapid curing type
KEROSENE for medium curing type
DIESEL for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
CATIONIC EMULSION works better with wet aggregates and
in cold weather. It is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have
positive charge. It is a negatively charge electron.
335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?
Answer: asphalt cement
336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?
Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt
337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
Answer: climatic condition
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit
the job mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks
339. Who will approve the job mix formula?
Answer: DPWH PE and ME
340. The job mix formula contains provisions the following:
Answer:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction
341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
Answer: 66C to 107C
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342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable
343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain
the required density?
Answer: trial section
344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great
significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?
Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel
towards the center line, each trip overlapping one half the rollers width.
346. After the final rolling, what will be checked?
Answer: degree of compaction
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density
348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?
Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature
349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?
Answer: by the use of core drill or saw
350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?
Answer: 40 mm 75 mm
351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?
Answer: 10 mm 40 mm
352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds
353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added
to the mix until the concrete is deposited in place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non agitating trucks
and 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators
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YIELD POINT
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GRADE 40
GRADE 60
GRADE 75
483 MPa
621 MPa
689 MPa
276 MPa
414 MPa
517 MPa
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405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be
followed is
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed
concrete.
406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your
firm, what will you recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring
407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or
doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt
408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to
determine the liquid limit of the soil.
Answer: Flow curve
410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____
Answer: abrasion loss
411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix
that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters
412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____
Answer: 2.75
413. The standard packaging weight of cement
Answer: 40 kg/bag
414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial
setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound
415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces
which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess
improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Answer: glass beads
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430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous
paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper
431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of
compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using
saturated surface dry specimens.
432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.
Answer: gasoline
433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on
Answer: mass of dry aggregates
434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from
bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer
436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation
437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
Answer: Softening point
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%
439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.
Answer: 200F to 225F
440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?
Answer: yellowish brown
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there
in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there
in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)
443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at
Answer: approximately quarter points
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457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air
permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
458. A mixture of cement and water is
Answer: cement paste
459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement
in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle
460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is
Answer: 19.3 MPa
461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the
autoclave?
Answer: crumbled
462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
Answer: first seven (7) days
463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every
precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature and condition of the materials
which they represent.
Answer: sampling
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing
aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples
465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory
tests of structural properties.
Answer: thin walled tube sampling
467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited
laboratory.
Answer: government
468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any
drilling equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin walled tubes
that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as
practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder
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470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength
of concrete.
Answer: accelerator
471. The best enemy of construction.
Answer: water
472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
Answer:
a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials
such as grass, roots and sewage
b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3
f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the
engineer
473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate
base course?
Answer: 0 12%
474. The rate of application of special curing agent
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m
475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
Answer: sounding
476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be
performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test
477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm
478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of
timber.
Answer: 10 days
479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Answer: 2mm
480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity
hammer.
Answer: 2.5m 3.5 (concrete)
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4.5m (timber)
481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and
gradation.
Answer: Compaction
482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering
materials.
Answer: liquid limit of fines
483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the
expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section.
Answer: 3 to 5
484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is
____ or the differential deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14, greater than 0.002
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24
hour strength by _____.
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%
486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have
previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi
487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form
moist in concrete during mixing without significantly altering the setting or the
rate of characteristic of concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures
488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed
task to make up for the past or future loss of time.
Answer: Delivery control
489. Bowl shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.
` Answer: potholes
490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the
pavement.
Answer: corrugation
491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.
Answer: shoving
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505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300
VPD traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline)
506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy
or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)
507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project
Answer:
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
1 boring for each pier for multi span (3m into the bed rocks)
508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
Depth = times base width
509. For ports and harbors projects:
Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers
& wharves)
510. For buildings (large area greater than 930 m2):
Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior
(9m below lowest foundation)
511. For buildings less than 930 m2
Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners
512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x
140mm.
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.
Answer: shrinkage cracking
514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design?
Answer: consistency
515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.
Answer: 4mm
516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite
infestation.
Answer: Cordoning
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531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the
ground.
Answer: 700mm
532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill.
Answer: 100mm
533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a
column.
Answer: Spread footing
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured
state.
Answer: 3%
535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade
indicates that
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs
additional compaction
536. Liquid limit is usually
Answer: greater than plastic limit
537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are
different from the on tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you do?
Answer: conduct immediate re testing for verification
539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix
540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be
Answer: volume
541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff
statement is true?
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum
density at low optimum moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
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c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at
OMC
d. none of the above
542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of
10% higher than the optimum moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and
compact
543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
Answer: - 5mm
544. Geosynthetics may be used for
Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control
545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?
Answer:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can
d. extruder
546. Steel bars are considered undersize if
Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesnt meet the
manufactured size
547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
548. Concrete curing refers to
Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength
549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Answer: organic
550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of
water as lubricant?
Answer: Moisture Density relation test
551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10
552. What is the volume of the mold using 6 for AASHTO T 180 D method in
compaction test?
Answer: 0.002124 m3
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553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and
which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand
554. What is ASTM?
Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials
555. What is AASHTO?
Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials
556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods
as prescribed under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have
laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre bidding qualifications?
Answer: large
558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: of the thickness
559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?
Answer: colloids
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the
specimen
Answer: 25mm
561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or
sand and containing silt clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi rounded with an average dimension
between 75mm 305mm
Answer: boulders
563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them
denser and grow straight.
Answer: Pruning
564. The road near or abutting a bridge.
Answer: Approach
565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
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Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of
the fill by means of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill 1.2 m
in depth. It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade
578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be
deposited so as to form the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly
compacted
579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration
move also be considered)
580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?
Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment
corrective work consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full
width of the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the
embankment has reached stability or the required settlement
581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?
Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to
accelerate consideration
582. Mixture of fine grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface
sealing
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)
583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?
Answer:
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
original wt.
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass like
reflecting surface that usually becomes quite sticky
Answer: bleeding
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion
of the slabs during hot weather
Answer: buckling
586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement
Answer: crushing
587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance
Answer: Overhaul
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588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water
589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
Answer: 6 10 mass % of the dry soil
590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?
Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi
591. What is quality?
Answer: It the degree of excellence
592. What is control?
Answer: Is to regulate
593. What is quality control?
Answer: It is conformance to requirements
594. What is assurance?
Answer: it the degree of certainty
595. What are the two kinds of control activities?
Answer: Inspection and Testing
596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 5 feet
597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to
produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization
598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of
soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by
slowing the rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt
599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular
material becomes unstable if it has dried
600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt
cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from
convenience in road mixing or priming
601. The theory of concrete design mix is to
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668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before
batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for
draining
669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32C temperature is present
670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1
hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or Olader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete
671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size
of pipe that is negligible in the volume computation?
Answer: pipes with of 4 or less
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